ESE - 2016

Detailed Solutions of

CIVIL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II

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Directors Message
UPSC has introduced the sectional cutoffs of each paper and screening cut off in
three objective papers (out of 600 marks). The conventional answer sheets of only
those students will be evaluated who will qualify the screening cut offs.
In my opinion the General Ability Paper was easier than last year but Civil
Engineering objective Paper-I and objective Paper-II both are little tougher/
lengthier. Hence the cut off may be less than last year. The objective papers of ME
and EE branches are average but E&T papers are easier than last year.
Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each OBJECTIVE Paper (out of 200 Marks)

Category

GEN

OBC

SC

ST

PH

Percentage

15%

15%

15%

15%

10%

30

30

30

30

20

Marks

Expected Minimum Qualifying Marks in Each CONVENTIONAL Paper (out of 200 Marks)

Category

GEN

OBC

SC

ST

PH

Percentage

15%

15%

15%

15%

10%

30

30

30

30

20

Marks

Expected Screening cut off out of 600 Marks (ESE 2016)

Branch

GEN

OBC

SC

ST

CE

225

210

160

150

ME

280

260

220

200

EE

310

290

260

230

E&T

335

320

290

260

Note: These are expected screening cut offs for ESE 2016. MADE EASY does not
take guarantee if any variation is found in actual cutoffs.
B. Singh (Ex. IES)
CMD , MADE EASY Group

MADE EASY team has tried to provide the best possible/closest answers, however if
you find any discrepancy then contest your answer at www.madeeasy.in or write your
query/doubts to MADE EASY at: [email protected]
MADE EASY owes no responsibility for any kind of error due to data insufficiency/misprint/human errors etc.

ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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1

PAPER-II (CIVIL ENGINEERING)

1.

A solid cylinder of length H, diameter D and of relative density S floats in neutral

equilibrium in water with its axis vertical. What is the ratio of H to D if S = 0.6?
(a) 0.86
(b) 0.72
(c) 0.52
(d) 0.46

Ans.

(b)

G
H
l

B
l/2

H/2

FB = Mb g

(10 ) D4
3

D 2
l g = ( 600 ) g H

l = 0.6 H

...(i)

For Neutral equilibrium,

GM = 0
I
BG = 0

D 4

64

D 2 l

1
[H l ] = 0
2

D2 1
[H l ] = 0
16 2
D2
=H l
8
D2
= H [1 0.6 ]
8l
H2
D

1
8 0.6 0.4

H
= 0.721
D

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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2

2.

In a two-dimensional flow, with its stream function = 2x y, the velocity at a point (3, 4)
is
(a) 12.0 units
(b) 10.0 units
(c) 8.0 units
(d) 6.0 units

Ans.

(b)
= 2x y

u=
v=

= 2y = 2(4) = 8 units
x

( 6)2 + ( 8)2

V=

Velocity of (3, 4),

= 2 x = (2)(3) = 6 units
y

= 10 units

3.

An open rectangular tank of dimensions 4m 3 m 2 m contains water to a height of

1.6 m. It is then accelerated along the longer side. What is the maximum acceleration
possible without spilling the water? If this acceleration is then increased by 10%, what
amount of water will be spilt off ?
(a) 1.472 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
(b) 1.962 m/s2 and 0.48 m3
2
3
(c) 1.472 m/s and 0.52 m
(d) 1.962 m/s2 and 0.52 m3

Ans.

(b)

0.4 m
ax

2m
0.4 m

1.6 m

Width = 3 m

4m

tan =

ax
g

0.8
ax
=
4
9.81
ax = 1.962 m/s2

Now acceleration is increased by 10%

ax = 1.962 + 0.1962 = 2.158 m/sec2

2m

4m

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Paper-I
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Engineering Aptitude

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responsibilities of engineers etc. Watch Video

Scroll down
For Answer Key of ESE-2016

Page 2 of 3

ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

tan =

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3

y
4

2.158
y
=
9.81
4

y = 0.8799 m
1

3
Final volume = ( 4 3 2 ) 0.88 4 3 = 18.72 m
2

Initial volume = 4 3 1.6 = 19.2 m3

Spillout volume = 19.2 18.72
= 0.48 m3

4.

In a laminar flow between two fixed plates held parallel to each other at a distance d,
the shear stress is:
d
away from each plate and zero at the plate boundaries.
2
2. Zero throughout the passage.

1. Maximum at plane

3. Maximum at the plate boundaries and zero at a plane

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

d
away from each plate.
2

Ans.

(b)

5.

While conducting the flow measurement using a triangular notch, an error of 2% in head
over the notch is observed. The percentage error in the computed discharge would be
(a) +7%
(b) 3%
(c) +5%
(d) 4%

Ans.

(c)
5
5 dH
dQ
2 = +5%
=
=
2
2 H
Q

6.

An orifice is located in the side of a tank with its centre 10 cm above the base of the
tank. The constant water level is 1.0 m above the centre of orifice. The coefficient of
velocity is 0.98. On the issuing jet, the horizontal distance from the vena-contracta to
where the jet is 10 cm below vena-contracta is
(a) 1.62 m
(b) 1.00 m
(c) 0.62 m
(d) 0.32 m

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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4

(c)

1m

x
10 cm

CV =
0.98 =

x
2 y H

2 0.1 1
x = 0.62 m

7.

The velocity of water at the outer edge of a 60 cm diameter whirlpool, where the water
level is horizontal is 2.5 m/s. The velocity of water at a level where the diameter of the
whirlpool is 15 cm, is
(a) 1 m/s
(b) 5 m/s
(c) 8 m/s
(d) 10 m/s

Ans.

(d)

Vr = constant
2.5 30 = V 7.5
V = 10 m/sec

8.

In a trapezoidal channel with bed width of 2 m, and side slopes of 2 v on 1h, critical
flow occurs at a depth of 1 m. What will be the quantity of flow and the flow velocity?
Take g as 10 m/s2.
(a) 7.22 m3/s and 3.10 m/s
(b) 6.82 m3/s and 2.89 m/s
(d) 6.82 m3/s and 3.10 m/s
(c) 7.22 m3/s and 2.89 m/s

Ans.

(c)

Q2
v2
Ec = y c +
= y1 +
2g
2gA 2
Q2
A3
=
But for critical condition we know that =
g
T

A
2.5
= 1.416 m
Ec = y c +
= 1+
2T
23

Again,

Ec = y c +

0.25 m

2m

2
1
2m

Q2
2gA 2

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0.5 m

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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5

Q 2 = (1.416 1) 2g 2.52 = 7.21 m3/s

v=

7.21
= 2.89 m/s
2.5

9.

A 7.5 m wide rectangular channel conveys 12 m3/s of water with a velocity of 1.5 m/s.
The specific energy head of the flow is
(a) 1.18 m
(b) 1.78 m
(c) 2.18 m
(d) 2.78 m

Ans.

(a)

Q = 12 m3/s
V = 1.5 m/s
V=
1.5 =

Q
A

7.5 m

12
7.5 y

y = 1.067 m
E= y+

v2
1.52
= 1.067 +
= 1.18 m
2g
2 9.8

10.

A cylindrical vessel with closed bottom and open top is 0.9 m in diameter. What is the
rotational speed about its vertical axis (with closed bottom below and open top above)
when the contained incompressible fluid will rise 0.5 m at the inner circumference of the
vessel and a space of 0.4 m diameter at the bottom will have no fluid thereon? Take
g = 10 m/s2.
(a) 650 rpm
(b) 600 rpm
(c) 580 rpm
(d) 470 rpm

Ans.

(*)

11.

The sequent depth ratio in a hydraulic jump formed in a rectangular horizontal channel
is 10. The Froude number of the supercritical flow is
(a) 12.2
(b) 10.4
(c) 7.42
(d) 4.21

Ans.

(c)

y2
= 10
y1
1
y2
2
= 1 + 1 + 8F1

2
y1

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

10 =

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6

1
1 + 1 + 8F12

2
20 = 1 + 1 + 8F1

21 =

1 + 8F12

441 = 1 + 8F12

8F12 = 440
F2 =

12.

440
= 7.42
8

A fluid flow is described by a velocity fluid U = 4 x2 i 5 x2 yj + 1 k .

What is the absolute velocity (in magnitude) at the point (2, 2, 1)?

Ans.

(a)

1802

(b)

1828

(c)

1840

(d)

1857

(d)
r
2
2

V = 4 x i 5x y j + 1k

u = 4 (2)2 = 16
v = 5 x 2 y = 5(2)2 (2) = 40
w=1
V=

16 2 + ( 40 ) + 12 = 1857 m/sec

13.

A partially open sluice gate discharges water at 6 m/s with a depth of 40 cm in a

rectangular horizontal channel of width 5 m. What would be the post-jump depth of flow
on the downstream of the gate by taking g as 10 m/s2 ?
(a) 1.51 m
(b) 1.70 m
(c) 1.85 m
(d) 1.95 m

Ans.

(a)

y1 = 0.4 m

y2

y1 = Pre jump depth = Depth at vena contracta

y2 = Post jump depth

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MADE EASY oers rank improvement batches for ESE 2017 & GATE 2017. These batches are designed for repeater students who have
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Syllabus Covered : Technical Syllabus of GATE-2017 & ESE-2017

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Date

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nd

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Weekend

Sat & Sun : 8:00 a.m to 5:00 p.m

2 July, 2016

Saket (Delhi)

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Regular

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Non-MADE EASY
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Rank Improvement Batch

Rank Improvement Batch
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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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7

q = v1y1 = 6 0.4 = 2.4 m3/s

F12 =

q2
gz 13

2.4 2
10 0.4 3

=9

1
1
y2
2
= 1 + 1 + 8F1 = 1 + 73 = 1.51 m

2
2
y1

14.

What is the maximum power available at the downstream end of a pipeline 3 km long,
20 cm in diameter, if water enters at the upstream end at a pressure of 720 m of water,
with taking pipe friction coefficient as 0.03 and g as 10 m/s2?
(a) 770 mhp
(b) 740 mhp
(c) 700 mhp
(d) 660 mhp

Ans.

(d)
As per the question no options is matching with the solution.

hf =
Hexit =
hf =

240 =

H 720
=
= 240 m
3
3
2H
= 480 m
3

8Q 2 f L
2gD 5
8Q 2 0.12 3000
2g 0.2 5

Q = 0.0508 m3/s
Pexit = QgHexit
=

1000 0.508 9.81 480

735.5

= 325.31 mhp
Alternatively
In this problem, the value of friction factor is not defined properly. Friction coefficient
is given as point 0.03 if we take f = 0.03, where f is friction factor then, we can choose
(d) as nearest answer.

hf =

240 =

8Q 2 f L
2gD 5
8Q 2 0.03 3000
2g 0.2 5

Q = 0.102 m3/s

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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Pexit = QgHexit
=

1000 0.102 9.81 480

735.5

= 653.02 mhp

15.

In the design of pipeline the usual practice is to assume that due to ageing of pipelines:
1. The effective roughness increases linearly with time.
2. The friction factor increases linearly with time.
3. The flow through the pipe becomes linearly lesser with time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only

Ans.

(d)

k s = ks 0 + t
ks increases linearly with time.

16.

Consider the following statements:

1. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a
constant.
2. In flow through hydro-dynamically smooth pipes, the friction factor f is always a
function of the flow Reynolds number.
3. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of
relative roughness only.
4. In a fully developed rough turbulent pipe flow, the friction factor f is a function of
the flow Reynolds number and relative roughness.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

Ans.

(b)

17.

Two identical centrifugal pumps are connected in parallel to a common delivery pipe
of a system. The pump curve of each of the pumps is represented by H = 20 60 Q2
where H is manometric head of the pump and Q is the discharge of the pump. The head
loss equation when two such fully-similar pumps jointly deliver the same discharge Q
will be
(a) H = 40 15 Q 2
(b) H = 20 60 Q 2
(c) H = 40 60 Q 2
(d) H = 20 15 Q 2

Ans.

(d)

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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9

18.

A line source of strength 15 m/s is situated within a uniform stream flowing at 12 m/s
(i.e. right to left). At a distance of 0.6 m downstream from the source is an equal sink.
How far will the stagnation points be from the nearest source/sink?
(a) 0.38 m
(b) 0.46 m
(c) 0.52 m
(d) 0.58 m

Ans.

(a)

S1

Source

Sink

a=

Given,

Where S1 and S2 are

stagnation point.

S2

0.6
= 0.3 m
2

u = 12 m/sec
Q
r = a aU + 1

Now,

0.3 =

So,

15
+1
(0.3)(12)

= 0.6819 m
r a = 0.6819 0.3
= 0.381 m

19.

At the point of operation with maximum efficiency, a turbine indicated unit power of
12 units and unit speed of 98 units and operates with 3300 kgf/s of flow. What are the
speed in rpm and the specific speed of the machine respectively when its design head
is 8.5 m?
(a) 285 rpm and 339
(b) 270 rpm and 360
(c) 285 rpm and 360
(d) 270 rpm and 339

Ans.

(a)
P

= 12
H 3/2
P = 12 (8.5)3/2

N
= 98
H

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Classroom Course is designed for comprehensive preparation of ESE, GATE & PSUs. The main feature of the course is that
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Course Features : Timely coverage of technical & non-technical syllabus Books & Reading References
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Engineering Mathematics Reasoning & Aptitude
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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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10

N = 98 8.5 = 285
Ns =

N P
H 5/ 4

285 12 (8.5) 3/2

( 8.5 )5/ 4

= 339

20.

A hydraulic turbine develops 8000 kW when running at 300 rpm under a head of 45 m.
The speed of the same turbine under a head of 60 m is
(a) 224.4 rpm
(b) 346.4 rpm
(c) 424.8 rpm
(d) 485.8 rpm

Ans.

(b)

N
= constant
H
300
=
45

N
60

N = 346.4 rpm

21.

In a single-acting reciprocating pump, the acceleration head at the beginning of the

suction stroke is 3.5 m. If the pump is 1.5 m below the water level in the supply reservoir,
the pressure head at the cylinder at that instant, considering the atmospheric pressure
as 10.0 m is
(a) 2 m(abs)
(b) 4 m(abs)
(c) 8 m(abs)
(d) 16 m(abs)

Ans.

(c)

22.

A solid cylinder of circular section of diameter d is of material with specific gravity Ss.
This floats in a liquid of specific gravity Sl. What is the maximum length of the cylinder
if equilibrium is to be stable with the cylinder axis vertical?
(a)

(c)

dSs

2 Ss (Sl Ss )
dSl

2Ss (Sl Ss )

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(b)

(d)

dS l

8Ss (S l Ss )
d

8 (Sl Ss )

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

(b)

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11

Mbg = FB
Ss

d 2
d 2
s
hg
Lg = l
4
4
s L = l h

or
Take

h=

s
L
l

h=

Ss
L
Sl

Sl

...(i)

GM = 0
I
BG = 0

d 4

64 1 (L h ) = 0
2
d 2
h
4
d2 1
[L h ] = 0
16h 2
d2
=L h
8h
d=
=

8h (L h )
8

Sl
Sl

L L

Ss L
S l

S S
= L 8 s 1 s
Sl Sl
=

L=

23.

L
Sl

8S s [S l S s ]
d Sl

8Ss (S l Ss )

A tank is 1.8 m deep and square length of 4.5 m at the top and square length of 3 m
at the bottom. The four sides are plane and each has the same trapezoidal shape. The
tank is completely full of oil weighing 936 kg/m3. What is the resultant pressure on each
side?
(a) 5750 kgf
(b) 5500 kgf
(c) 5250 kgf
(d) 5140 kgf

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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12

(a)
3

oil = 936 kg/m

4.5 m
y

.75 2

=1

.95

4.5

4.5 m

1.8 2

0.75
mm

0.75

3m

1.95 m

1.8

+0

1.8 m

3m

3m

1.8
1.95

2 ( 3 ) + 4.5 1.95
y =
= 0.91

3
3 + 4.5

y=

Now,

0.9
1

sin =

sin =

h
0.91

1.8
h
=
1.9
0.91

h = 0.84
F = g h A
1

= (936)(9.81)(0.84) (3 + 4.5) 1.95 N

2

= 5749.38 kgf

24.

Over a basin of area 333 km2, there was a storm for 6h with a uniform intensity of 2 cm/h.
The observed runoff was 20 106 m3. The observed rate of infiltration for the basin was
(a) 5 mm/h
(b) 10 mm/h
(c) 20 mm/h
(d) 40 mm/h

Ans.

(b)

A = 333 km2
Storm duration is 6 hr and intensity 2 cm/hr
Let rate of infiltration be x mm/hr

( 2 0.1 x ) 10 2 6 333 106 = 20 106

x = 9.99 mm/hr = 10 mm/hr

25.

International Traffic Intelligent Survey Data are related with

(a) Origin and destination studies
(b) Speed and delay studies

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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13

(c) Classified traffic volume studies

(d) Accident profiling studies
Ans.

(c)

26.

A peak flow of a flood hydrograph due to a six-hour storm is 470 m3/s. The corresponding
average depth of rainfall is 8 cm. Assume infiltration loss of 0.25 cm/hour and a constant
base flow of 15 m3/s. What is the peak discharge of 6 hour unit hydrograph for this
catchment?
(a) 60 m3/s
(b) 70 m3/s
(c) 80 m3/s
(d) 90 m3/s

Ans.

(b)
Peak discharge of 6 hr hydrograph = 470 m3/s

Peak discharge of D.R.H = 470 base flow

= 470 15 = 455 m3/s
Now,
Rainfall excess depth = Total rainfall Infiltration losses
= 8 cm 0.25 6
= 8 1.5 = 6.5 cm

Peak discharge of UH=

455
= 70 m3/s
6.5

27.

A new reservoir has a capacity of 12 Mm3 and its catchment area is 400 km2. The annual
sediment yield from this catchment is 0.1 ha.m/km2 and the trap efficiency can be
assumed constant at 90%. The number of years it takes for the reservoir to lose 50%
of its initial capacity is, nearly
(a) 177 years
(b) 77 years
(c) 17 years
(d) 7 years

Ans.

(c)
Trap efficiency means 90% of sediment will be stored
Let number of years are x to till reservoir to 50%
400 0.1 104 0.90 x = 12 106 0.5
x = 16.67 = 17 years

28.

Cavitation is likely to occur if

1. Pressure becomes very high.
2. Temperature becomes low.
3. Pressure at the specific point falls below vapour pressure.
4. Energy is released with the onset of a high intensity wave due to noise and vibration
of the machine.

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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14

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans.

(c)

29.

Which of the following statement are correct as regards aquifer characteristics?

1. The storage coefficient is the volume of water released from storage from the entire
aquifer due to unit depression of piezometric head.
2. The storage coefficient is the same as the specific yield for water table aquifer.
3. Both the aquifer constant, viz, storage coefficient S and Transmissivity T are
dimensionless numbers.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(b)

30.

The important parameters describing the performance of a hydraulic machine are: P the
power input, H the head produced across the machine and the efficiency, . For a given
geometrical design of the machine, the performance is characterized by the variables:
H the head increase across the machine, the fluid density, the angular velocity
of the rotor, D the diameter of the rotor, the fluid viscosity and Q the flow rate;
and both P and are expressed through these variables. How many non-dimensional
parameters are involved herein? Gravitational acceleration g has also to be considered
necessarily
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 4

Ans.

(d)

31.

What are the values of coefficients a and c if velocity distribution in a laminar boundary
layer on a flat plat is:
f (n) =

(a)

1
and 1
2

(c)
Ans.

y
u
= a + bn + cn 2 + dn 3 where, n =

U0

1
and 0
2

(b) 0 and 1
(d) 0 and 0

(d)
Apply boundary condition,
a=0

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

b=

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Page
15

3
2

c=0
d=

1
2

32.

The conditions to be satisfied for a channel in Regime as per-Lacey are

1. Constant discharge
2. Silt grade and silt concentration are constant
3. The channel is flowing in unlimited incoherent alluvium of the same alluvial character
as that transported.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans.

(b)
According to Lacey for a channel to be in Initial regime.
Silt grade and silt concentration are constant.
The channel is made up of the same material as that of being transported.

33.

Consider the following statements related to uplift pressure in gravity dams:

1. A drainage gallery reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the gallery.
2. A drainage gallery below upstream water level reduces the uplift pressure at all levels
below the upstream water level.
3. A grout curtain near the heel reduces seepage and uplift pressure everywhere on
the gravity dam whatever the upstream water level.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(a)
At the downstream point or at the toe of the dam uplift pressure will remain same
irrespective of the location of drainage gallery.

34.

A barrage on a major river in the Gangetic plains has been design for a flood discharge
7000 m3/s. It has been provided with a waterway of 360 m length. The looseness factor
of this barrage is
(a) 1.7
(b) 1.1
(c) 0.7
(d) 0.1

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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16

(*)
Looseness factor =

Actual width
Regime width

Actual width = 360 m (given)

Regime width = 4.75 Q
Given, Q = discharge for which barrage has been designed
Regime width = 4.75 7000 = 397.41
Losseness factor =

360
= 0.9
397.41

35.

A 20 m long horizontal concrete floor under a barrage on a permeable foundation retains

a 5 m head of water and has a 5 m deep downstream end pile. The exit gradient is
(a) 1 in 4
(b) 1 in 5
(c) 1 in 6
(d) 1 in 8

Ans.

(d)

GE =

GE =

H
1

d
1+ 1+ 2
1 + 1 + 42
=
= 2.56
2
2

b 20

= 4
Q = =

d
5

5
1
1

=
5 3.15 2.56 8

36.

Electrical conductivity (EC) of water and total dissolved solids (TDS) are relatable as:
The value of EC will
(a) Decrease with increase in TDS
(b) Increase with increase in TDS
(c) Decrease initially and then increase with increase in TDS
(d) Increase initially and then decrease with increase in TDS

Ans.

(b)
The EC of a solution is a measure of its ability to carry an electric current; the more
dissolved ionic solutes in a water, the greater its electrical conductivity.

EC

mho
p cm at 25C 0.65 = TDS(mg/ l ) .

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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17

37.

Consider the following properties of fluorine:

1. It is a member of the halogen family.
2. It is a greenish yellow diatomic gas.
3. Chlorine, iodine, bromine and helium are members of the halogen family.
4. Even fireproof asbestos burns in the ambience of fluorine.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.

(c)
Fluorine is a member of the halogen family.
It is pale yellow diatomic gas.
Chlorine, iodine and bromine are member of halogen family but helium is not, it is
a noble gas.
Fluorine in combination with chlorine forms chlorine trifluoride which can burn highly
fire-retardant material line sand, asbestos etc.

38.

The following are certain operating problems of a rapid sand filter:

1. Sand depth should never be depleted by more than 10 cm.
2. Air binding results due to development of negative head and formation of air bubbles
in the filter sand.
3. Water softening with lime-soda leads to incrustation of sand.
4. Bumping of filter bed is caused due to negative head.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.

(b)
Expansion of sand bed during back washing should be kept within limits to avoid
carry over of sand to wash water through. Sand bed should never be depleted more
than 10 cm from original thickness for this purpose.
Air banding is caused due to negative head and formation of air bubbles.
In lime-soda method hardness is removed in the form of precipitate which get coated
over sand particles and leads of incrustation.
Sometimes careless or indifferent operation of the filter, bumping or lifting of the filter
beds takes plate when switching on the back wash cycle is adopted.

39.

Consider the following characteristics of E.coli bacteria:

1. Gram negative
2. Spore-forming
3. Facultative anaerobic
4. Bacillus

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

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18

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.

(c)
E.coli is
Gram negative bacteria i.e. it leave a red strain in a staining technique which is
performed to identify cell components.
Non spore forming bacteria
Facultative anaerobic i.e. can work both in presence or absence of oxygen.
Bacillus i.e. they have straight rod shape with square or rounded ends.

40.

How much bleaching powder is needed to chlorinate 5000 l of water whose chlorine
demand is 2 mg/l, assuming that the bleaching powder has 25% available chlorine?
(a) 4 g
(b) 40 g
(c) 140 g
(d) 400 g

Ans.

(b)
Quantity of 100% pure bleaching powder required = 2 5000 10 3 = 10 gm
Quantity of 25% pure bleaching powder required =

10
= 40 gm
0.25

41.

A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township to be designed for

(a) Maximum daily demand
(b) Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
(c) Average demand
(d) Maximum daily demand and fire demand, or maximum hourly demand, whichever
is higher

Ans.

(d)
Distribution system is to be designed for greater of maximum hourly demand or
maximum daily demand and fire demand.

42.

A combined sewage system is more appropriate for developed areas where

(a) Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
(b) Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
(c) Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
(d) Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days

Ans.

(b)
If rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year, single sewer would be appropriate
as its advantage will be available for entire year.

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

43.

Ans.

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19

u
y
= , where u is the velocity
U

at a distance of y from the boundary and u = U at y = , being boundary layer thickness.

Then the value of momentum thickness will be

The velocity distribution in the boundary layer is given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(c)
u
y
=
U

U 1 U dy
0

1 dy

=
2 3
6

44.

100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content changes to
90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
(a) 40.5 m3
(b) 50 m3
3
(c) 75 m
(d) 94.7 m3

Ans.

(b)

45.

V1 (100 P1)
V1
P1
P2
100(100 95)
100 5
V2

=
=
=
=
=
=
=

V2(100 P1)
100 m3
95%
90%
V2(100 90)
V2(10)
50 m3

The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering

(a) Flow rate through the tank
(b) Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
(c) Volume of the sedimentation tank
(d) Detention time in the tank

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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20

Ans.

(b)
Design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is the setting velocity of the particle
intended to be removed, which is chosen considering the diameter of the particle
intended to be removed.

46.

Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste-water

treatment plant:
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized.
2. Flow equalization is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded
treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized.
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is
improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans.

(b)
Flow equalization chambers reduces the fluctuations in discharge thereby increase the
efficiency of biological treatment, helps in stabilizing pH.
Hence it can be used to increase the performance of overloaded plants.

47.

A drain carrying 5 m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100 mg/l joins a stream carrying
50 m3/s flow with it BOD of 5 mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined
flow after complete mixing?
(a) 3.6 mg/l
(b) 13.6 mg/l
(c) 33.6 mg/l
(d) 53.6 mg/l

Ans.

(b)
BOD mix =

48.

QS BODS + QR BODR
5 100 + 50 5 750
=
= 13.6 mg/l
=
5 + 50
55
QS + QR

Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:

1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, locationally
preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity
of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at
maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of the chamber.

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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21

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.

(c)
Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 3 min at more rate
of flow.

49.

The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What
is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land?
(a) 5 m2
(b) 10 m2
2
(c) 15 m
(d) 20 m2

Ans.

(c)

A = a2
A = 2a. a
= 2 150 0.05
= 15 m2

50.

Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:

1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum.
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal.
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans.

(a)

51.

Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank:

1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100
persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holding of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can
hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

Ans.

(d)

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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22

52.

Sewage sickness relates to

(a) Toxicity of sewage interfering with response to treatment
(b) Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of
water by the sewage
(c) Reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil
(d) Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction
of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in land.

Ans.

(d)
Sewage sickness relates to clogging of pore in soil due to excessive application of
sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic condition in
land.

53.

The waste water of a certain large colony contains 105.6 mmol/l of OH ions at 25C.
The pH of this sample is
(a) 8.6
(b) 7.9
(c) 5.4
(d) 4.5

Ans.

(c)

[OH] =
=
=

p[OH ] =
pH + pOH =
pH =

10 5.6 mmole/lt.
105.6 103
108.6 moles/lt.
log[OH ] = log[10 8.6] = 8.6
14
14 8.6 = 5.4

54.

Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog
1. Air stagnation.
2. Abundant sunlight.
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere.
Which of the above features are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.

(c)
Photochemical smog is formed in the presence of high concentration of hydrocarbons,
nitrogen oxides, air stagnation as not to cause disperses of air and abundant sunlight.

55.

Consider the following statements related to ecology

1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to
live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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Page
23

3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.

4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome
is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.

(d)
Barry commoners four laws of ecology.
Everything is connected to everything else.
Everything must go somewhere.
Nature knows best.
There is no such thing as a free lunch.

56.

Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:

1. Everything is connected to every thing else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.

(d)

57.

For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5 m, the hydraulic

radius is
(a) 0.5 m
(b) 1.25 m
(c) 2.75 m
(d) 4.25 m

Ans.

(b)

R=

A
B y
=
P B + 2y

For hydraulic efficient rectangular channel.

B = 2y

R=
=

2y 2
y
=
2y + 2y
2

B 5
= = 1.25
4 4

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

58.

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24

The standard plasticity chart by Casagrande to classify fine-grained soils is shown in

the figure.

P
A line
PI%

20

35

50

LL%

The area marked P represents

(a) Inorganic clays of high plasticity
(b) Organic clays and highly plastic organic silts
(c) Organic and inorganic silts and silt-clays
(d) Clays
Ans.

(a)

ne

IP

uli

CH
e
lin
A-

CI
CL
ML

ML
OL

35%

MI
or
OI

MH
or
OH

50%

L (Liquid limit)

Plasticity curve

CH = High plastic inorganic clay

59.

A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6% and the specific gravity of the soil grains is
2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
(a) 7.5%
(b) 9.5%
(c) 13.5%
(d) 16.5%

Ans.

(c)

ws = 6%; G = 2.6
At shrinkage limit, soil is fully saturated.
se = wG
1.e = 0.06 2.6

e = 0.156
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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

n=

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25

e
0.156
=
= 0.1349 = 13.49%
1 + e 1 + 0.156

60.

What is the dry unit weight of a clay soil when the void ratio of a sample there of is
0.50, the degree of saturation is 70% and the specific gravity of soil grains is 2.7? Take
the value of w to be 9.81 kN/m3.
(a) 13.65 kN/m2
(b) 19.95 kN/m2
(c) 23.65 kN/m2
(d) 29.95 kN/m2

Ans.

(b)
Bulk unit weight
b =

(G + Se ) w
1+ e

2.7 + 0.4 0.5

9.81 = 19.947 kN/m3
1 + 0.5

Se = wG
water content w =

0.7 0.5
= 0.12962
2.7

b
19.947
=
= 17.658 kN/m3
1 + w 1 + 0.12962
Note: Dry unit weight has been asked but no answer is matching. But bulk unit weight
is matching.

d =

61.

Which technique of stabilization for the sub-base is preferred for a heavy plastic soil?
(a) Cement stabilization
(b) Mechanical stabilization
(c) Lime stabilization
(d) Bitumen stabilization

Ans.

(c)
Hydrated (or slaked) lime is very effective in treating heavy plastic clayey soils.

62.

A fill having volume of 150000 m3 is to be constructed at a void ratio of 0.8. The borrow
pit solid has a void ratio of 1.4. The volume of soil required to be excavated from the
borrow pit will be
(a) 150000 m3
(b) 200000 m3
3
(c) 250000 m
(d) 300000 m3

Ans.

(b)
Volume of solids will remain same.
(Vs)file = (Vs)Borrowpit

VT
VT

=
1 + e Borrowpit
1 + e fill
150000
= 200000 m3
1 + 0.8

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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63.

A channel designed by Laceys theory has a mean velocity of 1.1 m/s. The silt factor
is 1.1. Then hydraulic mean radius will be
(a) 1.13 m
(b) 2.27 m
(c) 3.13 m
(d) 4.27 m

Ans.

(b)
Hydraulic mean radius = R =

5 v2

2 f

v = mean velocity = 1.1 m/s

f = silt factor = 1.1
R=

5 1.12

= 2.75 m
2 1.1

Note: None of these answer is correct, but nearest answer is 2.27 m.

64.

Consider the following assumptions as regards field permeability test:

1. The flow is laminar and Darcys law is valid.
2. The flow is horizontal and uniform at all points in the vertical section.
3. The velocity of flow is proportional to the tangent magnitude of the hydraulic
gradient.
Which of the above assumptions are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(d)

65.

In a three-layered soil system, the thicknesses of the top and bottom layers each are
half the thickness of the middle layer. The coefficients of permeability of top and bottom
layers each are double the coefficients of permeability k of the middle layer. When
horizontal flow occurs, the equivalent coefficient of permeability of the system will be
(a) 1.5 k
(b) 3.0 k
(c) 4.5 k
(d) 6.0 k

Ans.

(a)

Kavg =

k i z i
z i

H/2

2k

2k H /2 + kH + 2k H /2
H
H
+H +
2
2

H/2

2k

3kH
= 1.5 k
2H

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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66.

A uniform collapsible sand stratum, 2.5 m thick, has specific gravity of its sand as 2.65,
with a natural void ratio of 0.65. The hydraulic head required to cause quick collapsible
sand condition is
(a) 2.50 m
(b) 2.75 m
(c) 3.25 m
(d) 3.50 m

Ans.

(a)
Critical hydraulic gradient,
icr =
Hydraulic gradient, icr =

G 1 2.65 1
=
=1
1 + e 1 + 0.65
Head
H
=
=1
Length 2.5

Hydraulic head = 2.50 m

67.

The ratio of dry unit weight to unit weight of water represents

(a) specific gravity of soil solids
(b) specific gravity of soil mass
(c) specific gravity of dry soil
(d) shrinkage ratio

Ans.

(d)
d
R=
w

Shrinkage ratio,

68.
1.0

0.5

1.0

10.0

The virgin compression curve with axes adopted as per convention in this regard for
a clay soil is shown in the figure. The compression index of the soil is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.50
(c) 1.00
(d) 1.25
Ans.

(b)
Compression index, Cc =

e
1.0 0.5
= 0.50
=

10
log 2
log
1
1

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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28

69.

Proctors compaction test for the maximum dry density of a certain soil gave the results
as : 1.77 gm/cc and OMC 14.44%. The specific gravity of the clay soil grain was 2.66.
What was the saturation degree for this soil?
(a) 44%
(b) 55%
(c) 66%
(d) 77%

Ans.

(d)
(d)max = 1.77 g/cc
OMC = 14.44%
G = 2.66
d =

1.77 =

Gw
1+ e
2.66 1
1+ e

e = 0.5028
Se = wG

S=

wG
0.1444 2.66
=
= 0.7639 = 76.39%
e
0.5028

70.

A rigid retaining wall of 6 m height has a saturated backfill of soft clay soil. What is
the critical height when the properties of the clay soil are
sat = 17.56 kN/m3 and cohesion c = 18 kN/m2
(a) 1.1 m
(b) 2.1 m
(c) 3.1 m
(d) 4.1 m

Ans.

(d)
2c ka

Critical height of unsupported cut

4c
Hc =
ka
ka =

6m

sat = 17.56 kN/m

2

c = 18 kN/m

Zc

2c
ka

+ 2c ka

1 sin0
=1
1 + sin0
ka H 2c ka

4c

4 18
=
= 4.1 m
Hc =
17.56

71.

Zc =

The Engineering News Record Formula, Qa =

1. Drop hammer
2. Single-acting hammer
3. Double-acting hammer

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, is used for the case of
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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(c) 3 only
Ans.

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29

(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

(b)
For drop hammer Qa =

Wh
6 (s + 2.5)

For single acting steam hammer

Wh
Qa = (
s + 0.25)

72.

In a certain sea shore, the height of a retaining wall with smooth vertical back is
4.4 m. The foundation is over an expansive collapsible soil and has a horizontal surface
at the level of the top of the wall and carries a UDL of 197 kPa. The unit weight and
angle of internal friction are 19 kN/m3 and 30, respectively. What is the nearest magnitude
of the total active pressure per metre length of this sea shore wall?
(a) 270 kN/m
(b) 360 kN/m
(c) 450 kN/m
(d) 640 kN/m

Ans.

(b)
197 KPa

kaq
3

= 19 kN/m
= 30
1 sin30 1
ka =
=
1 + sin30 3

4.4 m

kaq + kaH

1
2
Pa = kaq H + ka H
2

73.

1
1 1
197 4.4 + 19 4.42 = 350.24 kN/m
3
2 3

Which of the following statements are rightly associated with the laws of weights in the
theory of errors?
1. If an equation is multiplied by its own weight, then the weight of the resulting equation
is equal to the reciprocal of the weight of the original equation.
2. The weight of the algebraic sum of two or more quantities is equal to the reciprocal
of the sum of the individual weights.
3. If the quantity of a given weight is multiplied with a factor, then the weight of the
resulting quantity is obtained by dividing the original weight by the square root of
that factor.
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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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4. If the quantity of a given weight is divided by a factor, then the weight of the resulting
quantity is obtained by multiplying the original weight by the square of that factor.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans.

(c)

74.

Hypotensuall allowance is given by the expression (adopting standard conventions)

(a) (1 sec) measured distance
(b) (1 cos) measured distance
(c) (sec 1) measured distance
(d) (cos 1) measured distance
C

Ans.

(c)

B
l

ch = BC = AC AB
= (lsec l) = l(sec 1)

75.

The clogging of chain rings with mud introduces (with error defined in the standard way)
1. Negative cumulative error.
2. Positive cumulative error.
3. Compensating error.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(b)
Length of chain is reduced
Measured length = Less
Noted down value = More
Error = (+)ve
Correction = ()ve
Positive Cumulative Error

76.

The magnetic bearing of a line (on full-circle mensuration basis) is 55 30 and the
magnetic declination is 5 30 East. The true magnetic bearing of the line will be
(a) 6100
(b) 5530
(c) 4000
(d) 5000
TM
MM

(a)

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30

E = 5 30E

MB = 55 30
TB = MB + E
= 55 30 + 5 30
= 61 00

Ans.

55 30
O

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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77.

In any closed traverse, if the survey work is error free, then

1. The algebraic sum of all the latitudes should be equal to zero.
2. The algebraic sum of all the departures should be equal to zero.
3. The sum of the northings should be equal to the sum of the southings.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(d)

78.

The rise and fall method for obtaining the reduced levels of points provides is
check on
1. Foresight
2. Backsight
3. Intermediate sight
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(d)

79.

Turning of the theodolite telescope in vertical plane by 180 about the horizontal axis
is known as
(a) Setting
(b) Centering
(c) Transiting
(d) Swinging

Ans.

(c)

80.

Which of the following are among the fundamental lines of a theodolite?

1. The vertical and horizontal axes.
2. The lines of collimation and axis of the plate levels.
3. The bubble line of the altitude level.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Ans.

(d)

81.

Local mean time of a place of longitude of 4236 W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding
Greenwich Mean Time is
(a) 10h 32m 40s AM
(b) 11h 32m 39s PM
(c) 0h 32m 39s PM
(d) 11h 32m 39s AM

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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(d)
Local mean time difference
=

42 36
= 2 hr 50 min 24 sec
15

Since local place is west of greenwich, LMT is less than GMT.

LMT = GMT 2 hr 50 min 24 sec
GMT = LMT + 2 hr 50 min 24 sec
= 8 hr 42 min 15 sec + 2 hr 50 min 24 sec
= 11 hr 32 min 39 sec AM

82.

A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250 m above mean
sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long
in the area measures 15 cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears
on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower
measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower
is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is
(a) 10 m
(b) 15 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 25 m

Ans.

(d)

havg = 250 m
f = 25 cm
Scale =

1
15 cm
=
2000
30000 cm

r = 10 cm
d = 0.5 cm
scale =

f
1
=
H hav 200

0.25
1
=
H 250
200

H = 750 m
rh = d (h hav)
h=

83.

0.5 (750 250)

= 25 m
10

A transportation trip survey was undertaken between private car, and public car
transportation. The proportion of those using private cars is 0.45. While using the public
transport, the further choices available are Metro Rail and Mono Rail, out of which

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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commuting by a Mono Rail has a proportion of 0.55. In such a situation, the choice of
interest in using a Metro Rail, Mono Rail and private car would be respectively
(a) 0.25, 0.3 and 0.45
(b) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.3
(c) 0.25, 0.45 and 0.3
(d) 0.3, 0.25 and 0.45
Ans.

(a)
Metro : Mono : Private Car

( 0.55 0.55 0.55)

( 0.55 0.55)

: (0.45)

0.25 : 0.30 : 0.45

84.

An airfoil of surface area 0.1 m2 is tested for lift L in a wind tunnel. (Conditions can be
considered as incompressible flow). At an angle of attack of 5, with standard air of
density 1.22 km/m3, at a speed of 30 m/sec, the lift is measured to be 3.2 kgf. What
is the lift coefficient? For a prototype wing of area 10 m2, what is the approximate lift
at an air speed of 160 kmph at the same angle of attack of 5?
(a) 0.572 and 700 kgf
(b) 0.603 and 700 kgf
(c) 0.572 and 570 kgf
(d) 0.603 and 570 kgf

Ans.

(a)

85.

Two tanks A and B, of constant cross-sectional area of 10 m2 and 2.5 m2, respectively,
are connected by a 5 cm pipe, 100 m long, with f = 0.03. If the initial difference of water
levels is 3 m, how long will it take for 2.5 m3 of water to flow from A to B? Considering
entry and exit losses, it can be grossly assumed that the flow velocity, in m/s, through
the pipe is 1.75 h , where h is in m, taking g = 10 m/sec2, also, may take area of pipe
as 2 103 m2.
(a) 535 seconds
(c) 485 seconds

Ans.

(b) 516 seconds

(d) 467 seconds

(d)
A
dH
D=

h
5 cm

Area, A1 = 10 m

B
A1
dH
A2

a = 2 10 m
L = 100 m
f = 0.03

Area, A2 = 12.5 m

Let at any instant the difference in the water levels in the two reservoirs be h and in
time dt the water level in the tank A fall by an amount dH,

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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A
Then, the water level will rise in tank B by an amount dH 1 . Now if dh is the change
A2

in difference in head causing the flow

A1
A2

dh = dh + dH
dH =

Now,

dh
A
1+ 1
A2
V = 1.75 h

A1 dH = a.v.dt
A1

dh
= a 1.75 h dt
A1
1+
A2

h2 dh
A1A2
T
dt

( A1 + A2 ) a (1.75) h1 h = 0

T=

2 A1A2
h1 h2

a ( A1 + A2 )(1.75)

h1 The difference of water levels in the reservoirs before flow commences

h1 = 3 m
h2 The difference of water levels in the reservoirs after flow commences
Level fall in tank A =

Level rise in tank B =

So,

Now,

2.5
= 0.25 m
10
2.5
= 1m
2.5

h2 = h1 (1 + 0.25)
= 3 (1.25)
= 1.75 m
T=

2 (10 )( 2.5)
2 10

= 1142.86

3 1.75

) (10 + 2.5)(1.75)
3 1.75

= 467.66 sec

86.

The consistency and flow resistance of a sample of bitumen can be determinated through
which of the following tests?
(a) Viscosity test
(b) Penetration test
(c) Ductility test
(d) Softening point test

Ans.

(a)

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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87.

A pipe of 324 mm diameter, having friction coefficient as 0.04, connects two reservoirs
with 15 m difference in their water levels through a 1500 m long pipe. What will be the
discharge through the pipe?
(a) 104 lps
(b) 134 lps
(c) 165 lps
(d) 196 lps

Ans.

(a)
In this problem, the value of friction factor is not defined properly. Actually the value
of friction factor is given but written as friction coefficient.
15 =

8Q 2 ( 0.04 )(1500 )

2g
( 0.324)5

Q = 103.9 lps

88.

Flexible concrete is a mix comprising of

(a) Gravel, filler and 30/40 bitumen
(b) Sand, filler and 30/40 bitumen only
(c) Gravel, sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen
(d) Sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen only

Ans.

(c)

89.

Consider a soil sample, for which test yield the following results:
Passing 75 micron sieve 62%
Liquid limit 35%
Plasticity index 14%
As per the group index classification of soil, what is the soil condition of the above soil
sample?
(a) Poor
(b) Fair
(c) Good
(d) Excellent

Ans.

(b)

p=
LL =
IP =
GI =
a=
=

62%
35%
14%
0.2a + 0.005ac + 0.01bd
p 35
62 35

= 27 > 40 = 27

b = p 15
= 62 15

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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= 47 > 40 = 40

c=
d=
GI =
=

LL 40 = 0
IP 10 = 14 10 = 4
0.2 27 + 0.005 27 0 + 0.01 40 4
5.4 + 1.6 = 7

90.

Consider the following statements regarding ductility of bitumen:

1. Ductility is the property which does not permit bitumen to undergo large deformation
without breaking
2. Bitumens with high ductility are generally adhesive but do not have good cementing
properties
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two different temperatures in order to pronounce
on the suitability of the material
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

(b)

91.

A collapsible soil sub-grade sample was tested using Standard California Bearing Ratio
apparatus; and the observations are given below:
S.l. No.

Load

Penetration

1.

60.55 kg

2.5 mm

2.

80.55 kg

5.0 mm

Taking the standard assumptions regarding the load penetration curve, CBR value of
the sample will be taken as
(a) 3.9%
(b) 4.0%
(c) 4.4%
(d) 5.5%
Ans.

(c)
[email protected] mm =

60.55
100 = 4.4 %
1370

[email protected] mm =

80.55
100 = 3.9 %
2055

Consider higher value.

92.

What is the critical thickness of a prestressed concrete pavement (using Westergaards

Corner Load Formula) to support a maximum wheel load of 4200 kg? Allow 10% for
impact. Tyre pressure may be taken as 7 kg/cm2. Assume flexural strength of concrete
as 50 kg/cm2, factor of safety as 2, subgrade reaction for plastic mix road as 6 kg/cm3.
and modulus of elasticity as 3 105 kg/cm2.

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

(a) 19.6 cm
(c) 23.6 cm
Ans.

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(b) 21.6 cm
(d) 25.6 cm

(a)
Assume h = 20 cm and CV with l

Eh 3
l=
12k 1 2

3 10 5 20 3
=
12 6 1 0.15 2

1/4

l = 76.41 cm
0.6
3P a 2
Sc = 2 1

h l

a=

P
= 13.82 cm
p

0.6
50
3 4200 13.82 2

1
=
2
76.41
h2

h = 16.78 cm
Increase 10% of h to consider impact

Thicker = 16.78 + 1.678

= 18.45
Approx answer is h = 19.6 cm

93.

At a hydraulic jump, the flow depths are 0.4 m and 5 m at the upstream and downstream,
respectively. The channel is wide rectangular. The discharge per unit width is nearly
(a) 5.8 m2/s
(b) 6.4 m2/s
(c) 7.3 m2/s
(d) 8.3 m2/s

Ans.

(c)
2q 2
= y 1y 2 ( y 1 + y 2 )
g

2q 2
= 0.4 5(0.4 + 5) = 2 5.4 = 10.8
9.8
q=

10.8 9.8
= 7.3 m2 /s
2

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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94.

Overspeed and delay studies on a preselected section of a Highway are conducted by

(a) Fast moving car method
(b) Enoscope
(c) Radar
(d) Traffic contours

Ans.

(a)

95.

The surface tension of water at 20C is 75 103 N/m. The difference in water surfaces
within and outside an open-ended capillary tube of 1 mm internal bore, inserted at the
water surface, would nearly be
(a) 7 mm
(b) 11 mm
(c) 15 mm
(d) 19 mm

Ans.

(c)
In this problem, the bore is not defined properly. Here bore is used for radius.

2 75 10 3
2 cos
= 15.29 mm
h =
=
g R
10 3 9.81 1 10 3

96.

Survey of India was publishing toposheets using a scale of

(a) 1 : 1000
(b) 1 : 5000
(c) 1 : 10000
(d) 1 : 50000

Ans.

(d)

97.

The maximum speed of a train on B.G. track having a curvature of 3 and a cant of
10 cm with allowable cant deficiency of 76 mm, for conditions obtaining in India, as
(a) 87.6 km/h
(b) 99.6 km/h
(c) 76.6 km/h
(d) 65.6 km/h

Ans.

(a)

R=

Vmax =

98.

1720
= 573 m
3
127R eth
G

127 573 0.176

= 87.4 kmph
1.676

The gradient for a B.G. railway line such that grade resistance together with curve
resistance due to a 4 curve which will be equivalent to a simple ruling gradient of 1
in 150 is
(a) 1 : 180
(b) 1 : 200
(c) 1 : 300
(d) 1 : 400

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

Ans.

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39

(b)
Grade resistance + Curve resistance = Gradient resistance
w tan + 0.0004 4 w =
tan =

w
150

1
1
0.0004 4 =
150
197

99.

A Pelton wheel works under a head of 400 m. Frictional loss through the pipe flow is
limited to 10%. The coefficient of velocity for the jet is 0.98. What is the velocity of the
jet? Take, g = 10 m/s2.
(a) 83 m/s
(b) 71 m/s
(c) 65 m/s
(d) 56 m/s

Ans.

(a)

100.

The value of porosity of a soil sample in which the total volume of soil grams is equal
to twice the total volume of voids would be
(a) 30%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%

Ans.

(a)

Vs = 2VV (given)
n=

VV
VT

VT = VS + VV = 2VV + VV = 3VV
n=

VV

VS

VV
1
=
= 33.33%
3VV 3

101.

Consider the following statements :

1. In an Impulse turbine, the pressure of the flowing water remains unchanged and is
equal to atmospheric pressure.
2. In Impulse turbines, the water impinges on the buckets with pressure energy.
3. In a Reaction turbine, the pressure of the flowing water remains unchanged and is
equal to atmospheric pressure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Ans.

(a)

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

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40

102.

A Pelton wheel with single jet rotates at 600 rpm. The velocity of the jet from the nozzle
is 100 m/s. If the ratio of the bucket velocity to jet velocity is 0.44 and the speed ratio
is 0.43, what is the coefficient of velocity of the nozzle?
(a) 0.817
(b) 0.882
(c) 0.913
(d) 0.977

Ans.

(d)
N = 600 rpm
V1 = 100 m/s

u1
v 1 = 0.44

u = 44 m/s
u
2gH

= 0.43

H = 533.6658 m
v1 = 100
cv =

2gH

44
= 0.977
100 = cv
0.43

Directions: Each of the next Eighteen (18) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the
Statement (I) and the other as Statement (II) Examine these two statements carefully and
select the answers to these items using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true but: Statement (II) is, not
the correct explanation of Statement (I) .
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
103.

Statement (I): The shear strain graph for a Newtonian fluid is linear.
Statement (II): The coefficient of viscocity of the fluid is not constant.

Ans.

(c)

104.

Statement (I): Reynolds number must be the same for model d the prototype when both
are tested as immersed in a subsonic flow.
Statement (II): A model should be geometrically similar to the prototype.

Ans.

(b)

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

105.

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41

Statement (I): The ogee spillway is a control weir having an S-shaped crest profile which
provides a high discharge coefficient without causing cavitations.
Statement (II): The crest profile of ogee spillway conforms to the lower nappe of flow over
a ventilated sharp-crested weir and ensures a constant discharge coefficient for all heads.

Ans.

(c)
If the discharge is higher than the designed discharge then negative pressure will
develop on the underside of the curve. Hence cavitation will occur.

106.

Statement (I): In open channel flow, maximum velocity does not occur on the surface.
Statement (II): Three is wind drag on the free surface of an open channel.

Ans.

(b)

107.

Statement (I): The deeper a lake, the lesser the evaporation in summer and the more
in winter.
Statement (II): Heat storage in water bodies affects seasonal evaporation.

Ans.

(a)

108.

Statement (I): Flow over sharp-crested weirs, standing wave flumes and abrupt free
overfalls at ends of long straight channels are examples of rapidly varied flow.
Statement (II): The above-listed flows are all essentially local phenomena and can be
utilized for flow measurement in open channels.

Ans.

(b)

109.

Statement (I): Negative skin friction will act on the piles of a group in filled-up reclaimed
soils or peat soil.
Statement (II): The filled-up or peat soils are not fully consolidated but start consolidating
under their own overburden pressure, developing a drag on the surface of the piles.

Ans.

(a)

110.

Statement (I): The possibility of quicksand condition occurring is more on the downstream
of a weir on a permeable foundation than on the upstream end with an upward component
of seepage velocity.
Statement (II): Seepage lines end with an upward component of seepage velocity at the
downstream reaches of such a weir.

Ans.

(a)

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

111.

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42

Statement (II): Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to produce very high delivery
heads.
Statement (II): Roto-dynamic pumps must have to be centrifugal rather than centripetal,
from the very basic principles of hydrodynamics. Also, the stages are in series.

Ans.

(a)

112.

Statement (I): The speed of a hydraulic turbine has to be maintained constant irrespective
of the load on the machine for keeping the electrical power generation frequency constant.
Statement (II): Governing of hydraulic turbines can be done by controlling the discharge
through the turbines by adjusting the spear valve in Pelton turbines and the wicket in
Francis or Kaplan turbines.

Ans.

(a)

113.

Statement (I) : A channel in alluvium running with constant discharge and constant
sediment charge will first form its flow section and then its final longitudinal slope.
Statement (II) : If a channel in alluvium has a section too small for a given discharge and
slope steeper (than required, degradation and aggradation happen and then the flow
section attains final regime.

Ans.

(a)
In the initial regime condition flow section is first of all formed and then longitudinal
slope changes.
Finally because of change in slope degradation and aggradation happen and finally
attains final regime condition.

114.

Statement (I): The shear stress exerted by the stream flow on the bed is responsible
for the movement of bed sediment particles.
Statement (II): The sediment will move when the shear stress crosses a threshold limit
designated as a critical shear stress c.

Ans.

(a)

115.

Statement (I) : The trap efficiency of a reservoir increases with age as the reservoir
capacity is reduced by sediment accumulation.
Statement (II): The trap efficiency is a function of the ratio of reservoir capacity to the total
inflow. A small reservoir on a large stream has a low trap efficiency.

Ans.

(d)
Trap efficiency of a reservoir decreases with age as the reservoir capacity is reduced
by sediment accumulation.

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ESE-2016 : Civil Engineering

Solutions of Objective Paper-II | Set-A

116.

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Page
43

Statement (I): Recarbonation of water softened by, lime-soda process results in increased
hardness of the water.
Statement (II): Suspended solids, like CaSO4 and MgSO4, which have not settled in the
sedimentation tank get dissolved due to passage of CO2.

Ans.

(c)
Recarbonation of water softened by lime-soda. Process results in increased hardness
of water because in this method precipitate are again made soluble in water. CaSO4
and MgSO4 are dissolved solids not suspended solids.

117.

Statement (I) : Pipes carrying water are anchored at bends and other points of unbalanced
thrusts.
Statement (II): Pipes are anchored by firmly embedding in massive blocks of concrete or
masonry to counter side thrusts due to hydrodynamic forces exerted on the joints.

Ans.

(a)

118.

Statement (I) : Aerobic condition in composting of refuse can be confirmed by temperature

measurements.
Statement (II): Aerobic reactions are exothermic.

Ans.

(a)

119.

Statement (I): For a given soil, optimum moisture content increases with the increase
in compactive effort.
Statement (II): Higher the compactive effort higher is the dry density at the same moisture
content.

Ans.

(d)

120.

Statement (I) : Rate of settlement of a consolidating layer depends upon its coefficient
of consolidation, which is directly proportional the permeability and number of drainage
paths available.
Statement (II): The excess hydrostatic pore pressure is relieved fast in soil of higher
permeability, in turn, depending on the number of drainage paths available in the
consolidating layer.

Ans.

(a)

TV =

Cv t
d

k
t

mv dw d 2

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