HOVE SIT Far axis > CHEAT . 201g seer ie Se a Aas nl init BOOKLET No. fe ae ann U8 ST AAT Brault @ werent weoararSt ae: 1 (ee) we eeeaeien err 100 awe @) RCE 100 sia ge ote. sia Tei aR tora rare aT a rege aE we omy fat aes ae ae se ea, ae ora are 2m sree ft NEU MATING ate aged earl. ©) sen aber sia ; a Frente} free. ape een is () Roden wager mis Gren sroHa fine ah seater Gata a Fae wR TET, 4) (3a) avery wets ween 4 well oat gah args ea 1,2, 3 fy 4 a8 sents RRA su Baa Feet aie hen See aes saat ASU awe TU aH aT, wat settee acomris yg ae Bt tala erage ora FET ten Tee aM are oe renter arr rape erg ate are, Bf a mga or aT za. (2) ate a Prcererh wert wit of vee Fer A ong, eat Pere we we AT ae 3 vert arreara, a Sia ekteot eran (©) ea weaier ear ym mite. area each ae unde, ends gar Aone ale are cara eT er Siamese wer aR Seat ome oe ware ee mi aIeeaT TaTET os refer ater meee ward sem wa Hace weeds Htacaria des freer Tite wg HET arden writ wt aiken ate. Co seen ag A ee here AND oe eH et lee (1) seg atom sated aeaiees rare share sweater wea sacra ye a were ‘en ais FAL 4 “Frame segs agra rede merit eee an swith wate ara sata serait TT ev, swe et ee eft wear a Ete HT TA I a TT aréig TF wdaermtea qetfear % diet sag 7a + > | ees gone Tarte area frre ara gig. rae or sera Fat oct es etcweseet A renga raft eeeh RST aT aA Me Br erect srairer aatartigerteh, rite wttdrom wearer sree wet aren erry ToT seed erwura Safr a are ear Fte aie3 2 ‘WeeM BTATATSI AT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 3 3 1. Stara ga steele Raw TA gion agen tamer anism Rasiea sere egy arowarerdt cai Pian feet anftr quardiet aarare Oe siteqa dae. GQ) Fra ot 2) Tiger gt TT (3) mara wrett fae @) waste Lokmanya’s son Shridharpant Tilak invited the wrath of the orthodoxy of Pune by inviting the cultural troupe Shrikrishna Mela which was founded by for a performance in the Tilak’s residence. (1) Keshavrao Jedhe (2) Pandurang Nathuji Rajbhoj (3) Mahadev Shastri Divekar (4) LB. Bhopatkar 2. rea geen 7.8. Gem oa, “ais wa Sen HOT yet Tega ait BRvaraT wast Her, VT wate art eas salir aadeeerar fran wfsaeen Ce eae aT mel”. @ fears st? Q) aarsersh (2) Mia, sts (3) Th, STET (4) Sita FA Noted historian Y.D. Phadke has commented, “Orthodox and pedantic writers attacked him by pointing out his grammatical mistakes, but the ideas of human rights and equality which formed the bedrock of his writings, could not be silenced by them”, Who was this thinker ? @) Baba Padmanji @) BR Ambedkar @) GG. Agarkar (4) dyotirao Phule 8. qdatsh Seren gaaaicn coresin fatter welsh chaaraect gerara Use Tet 2 a) xe (2) ferret 8) FRyERT G) waa ‘The editors of which of these newspapers were not jailed for writing against the British government ? (1) Pratod (2) Vishwavrutta (3) Jnyanprakash (4) Desh Sevak ‘weeM wares MT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.O.13 4 A 4. Wa fron sedge ara ata gala fast, a. siftes aed Gg area werTEa Bara wre Shea. a. menregntta Garand drs aa anragetiat welt Sf ae. nerrgidie taaaiar arrange oS erent era a a aestarord ea. watt rat: (Da, @anfn & ft wate dae zach fae oes. (2) aR aeiag ont. @8 9 areT ar. (3) at saftt a aren ahora & oma. (4) var atom a, at aa Forme w ore. Read the sentences carefully and choose the right option. a. Cotton prices in Maharashtra crashed after the end of the American Civil War. b. The British government gave no tax relief in spite of a drought in Maharashtra. c. Farmers in Maharashtra were forced to take loans from the moneylenders and went bankrupt. Answer options : (1) a,band care unrelated. (2) ais unrelated. b is the cause of ¢ (8) cis the effect of a and b. (@ _acauses b and b causes 5 1912 arch seen afte crren aera afterra cheng aieft ofare, fers ane et safer 8 Bria org a. (Deer ee sre (2) aiff arerg (3) Frere ait ar (4) wren Te ‘The sixth Session of the Muslim League in 1912 had invited as guests, Muhammad Ali Jinnah, Bishan Narayan Dhar and : (1) Abul Kalam Azad (2) Sarojini Naidu (3) Mchammad Ameer Khan (4) Kamala Das 6. fezard smite onftr gga Paton a ageiat oe Gore aT caveat’ 2 orf ah safe 7 () viel ana ad (2) wpa dist wd (@) fener ad (4) woah ad Who published a monthly called ‘Samaj Swasthya’ dedicated to the issues of women’s health and family planning ? (1) Dhondo Keshav Karve (2) Raghunath Dhoado Karve (3) Dinkar Karve ( Irawati Karve ‘wees ararardt GMT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 5 3 7. 30 fier, 1906 TA Sem Afkera cinch ear seh, Feel ara AA a faeteay aftererrand) yfcera sfahen waa ore Ba. Q) wea aga a (2) afer Fare aftag, (3) afer agra aa 4) ene afte site When the Muslim League was founded on 30% December, 1906, the members had gathered in Dhaka for the 20" Session of the ae (@) Indian National Congress (2) Muslim Education Congress (3) Muslim National Congress (4) Bengal Muslim Congress 8. Fee aM Garen Fourie fear ana 1867 Hey aia reat wre torr ea A. GQ) adn tiger adsar (2) STRAT vigit TST (3) Arran ane Rave (4) Te Fata After the demise of the Paramahamsa Sabha, its members founded the Prarthana Samaj in 1867 with __as its President. (1) DadobaPandurang Tarkhadkar (2) Atmaram Pandurang Tarkhadkar (8) Narayan Waman Tilak (4) Bhau Mahajan 9. 1898 - 99 nea aretem au Rites srt ctpmafiwe at Temiat AEH SA ae pr PIT arse ‘aren sect ear. GQ) arg ws 2) wid we (3) tem Raw (4) etd Aaued In 1898-99, the two plays named Bandh Vimochan and Lokmatvijay were proseribed because they aliegorically referred to : (1) Justice Ranade (2) Lord Curzon @) Lokmanya Tilak Lord Sandhurst, 10. teen ura arn ataradl Bilan 38 aioe ae caret ae sit Beer F(a saarar, sve wferar ag 1) at MATA ge eta (1) weer Beiter fer (2) aren safira fee (3) Fan re eas G) aren areca fer , a revolutionary leader of the Bhatat Mata Society of Lahore addressed many meetings that began with the song, Pagdi Sambhaal Oh Jatta ’ (Oh Peasant, take care of your turban/self-respect !). () Sardar Trilochan Singh (2) Sardar Ajit Singh (3) Sardar Bhagat Dayal (4) Sardar Tarlok Singh ‘BELA STATIS GMT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.13 6 A VW. Steen erat (serese onfir gery arftrae) : oe S. srey 15 a wy 17 Byrds 18 3% wa wate set: wT a a = Q) iii iv ii i @ v iw i iii @) iit iv i i @ v iii Match the pais (Articles and Fundamental Rights): “a Articles Fasdamental Rights a, Article 15 i. Abolition of Titles b. Article 17 Equality before Law e. Article 18 Lack of Discrimination d. Article 14 Abolition of Untouchability Equality of Opportunity Answer options : a b e a Q) iii iv ii i (2) v iv i iit @) iii i ii @ ov iv i 12, areterteh ard anda usreetdls aes donated) arta ? BRATS area, uat SUT GRETA aIAT sree HU a CATS eT wea, a. Bees gem Or Aas UperS anf cetta aren age weil. a. Rarities qytaia ann arzecrena, vives Qt Pratt aca. aderteht dhe vate Fraer, @ wa Q) sass (3) aon se (4) ated Which of the following is/are Fundamental Duties of the Indian Constitution ? a. To respect and protect sovereignty, integrity and unity of India. b. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and National Anthem. ©. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry. Select the correct code from the above. @) Only (2) Onlyaande (8) Onlybande (4) Alllof the above ‘weeT wIATATS) GI | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 7 113 13, aia Hey soa, (1) 9A, 1947 mea erearear Stara BAA Usa awTaT aT! FerHTAT. 2) Sfate fem det 1946 wr sinks ea gueteat Sfeary wtgMT HRT TeTICAT wralaa wef. (3) 3M, 1946 Fey cares sree afters GAS Mercer ait AGES ACR. (4) erarea afer alten sures Sade arene gi. Teg NaI Tet eh, Select the incorrect statement. (1) The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India in July, 1947. (2) The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission Plan 1946, (8) Mahatma Gandhi was nat a member of the Constituent Assembly established in June, 2948, (4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India. 14, ae aire favaiat Aa aT Sy Aalle STE? a a Wane tea sat ne wR: (h waar (2) eons 2) wa nonta (4) wR, a ons Which of the following subjects come under the Union List ? a. Railway b, Warand Peace ¢. Police d. Agriculture Answer options : () Onlyaande (2) Onlycandd (3) Onlyaandb (4) Onlya,bande 15. wetter faut aR oT a casera 8 Se far uo finger’ acea stad srara sma, 3. UeaTe agen Tata Tee’ EE FCT, ‘atlertcht store frena(2) atta arra/anea 2 Q Aa (2) wats (3) wares (4) ated Consider the following statements : a. The Governor is the Executive Head of the nation, b. The Governor must be a member of Union or State Legislature. c. The Governor submits his resignation to the President, ‘Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ? ()_ Onlya @) Onlye (3) _Onlybande (4) Alloftthe above ‘ween BrATETS UIT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.13 8 A 16. uredta diaverde fafee atest dafia ard a ard yo feden sata ara vate flag aret-L are FTN Fe i artes aseset a, dadta cme ii, aR eee %. deed egw afta ii, Rae TT S. uamen dor antes aa iv, sigan araet watt at: # a e 8 @ ii i iv @) iv i ili @) ii iv i ® ii i ii iv Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below related to different sources of the Indian Constitution. List-I List a, Fundamental Rights i, Irish Constitution b. Parliamentary form of Government ii. US Constitution c. Joint Session of the Parliament —_iii,_ British Constitution d. Directive Principles of State Policy iv. Australian Constitution Answer options: © roy i 2) i 3) iv i w@ i ii iv 17, caret etren ste arate yaerar aes ? a. oRfme afet See aearey a. cifre frat - fafa grt URS eek — ream anit onftareh sreneter seremreh aire aad 3. Une ca gan GA err wateht ait: GC) waa Sy, & ofr 2) wR a, & ans @) FH a, a anh s @) adath ad Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? a, 1Schedule - Allocation of seats of the Rajya Sabha b. 3 Schedule - Oaths 7 7 c. 6thSchedule - Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in Assam d. 10thSchedule - — Anti-defection law Answer options : (@) Onlya, bande (2) Onlyb,eandd (3) Onlya,bandd (4) All of the above ‘weer STRATE SPT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK18. 9 3 aretha RUA weet oTe/stTea ? a. Fensh snftr pisces tard ate araara anf care airerasraft sea. a. Rerit ont ditizas & argfeantten wea favhicaren waraqK sEATa. w. Fenat ont ditiee 8 usaren erie tsar arafes wyE sear. wateht sat: @ weaaata @ sans (3) SHE @) ated Which of the following statements is/are correct ? a. Chief Minister and the Councit of Ministers decide the policies and implement ‘them in the nation. b. The Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State. ¢. Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers are the real executives of the State. Answer options : @Q) Onlyaandb (2) Onlybande (8) Onlyb (4) All of the above 19. aretha wet aitestat, QQ) ear arnt sree ft creed weal erie Tech anaes yd se oe. (2) BER ard erage arabes faeanrea enfties waar gad era. (3) aa ard araq er sreTReaTAT until often ae Beer. 4) eaR amd ara et ofits Pramutet amenia feed a wer Ose UaeHtE Hat wt, Select the incorrect statement. @) ‘The Uniform Civil Code is a necessary precondition for the successful functioning of democracy. (2) The Uniform Civil Code will wipe out sectarian polities in the world of globalization. (3) The Uniform Civil Code will wipe out the religious rights of minorities. (4) The Uniform Civil Code will help the national integration by removing contradictions based on religious ideologies. wie ates A cera area afaenaren Bro SeTTy UAT HTH ? (1) wer 263 (2) Wem 283 (8) wer 292 (4) er 952 ‘The Inter-State Council has been set up under which Article of the Indian Constitution ? (1) Article 268 (2) Article 283, (3) Article 292 G) Article 852 aeeay SHAT GM / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.113 10 A 21, Nia atara ard, 1950 Fea Pato ares ene aie aematarett Set. b Wy wR (2) 8a saree Fee @) aeER IgM vet (4) aaRdaTa Serr In March, 1950, the Planning Commission was set up by the Government of India under the chairmanship of (1) Rajendra Prasad (2) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (3) _ Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (4) Yashwantrao Chavan 22, safes farereTa antes ieee sit area 2 a. fiver a. ye ude searia ae *. FA s. oq watch sat: Q) wT @ a, a ane (3) a, & anf g (4) ate ad ‘Which are the Social indicators of economic development ? a. Education b. Increase in GNP cc. Food 4, Cleanliness Answer options : @) Onlyb (2) a,bande (3)_aeandd (4) All of the above 23, seurect van, aries, Henry, arma, aftieang sai oa seu A asd are faara fgets (HDD aoheet tara. a) 7 @) Fem @) =a (4) Teer Arunachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Nagaland, Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh States fall in the HDI range. Q) High (2) Medium’ (3) Low (4) Neutral 24. 73 anf 74a we geeter were) aoa dat Te. (1) sem 243 (2) sem 239 @) wa 143 (4) wer 249 ‘The 73 and 74" Constitutional Amendment mostly related to (2) Article 243 (2) Article 239 (@) Article 143, (4) Article 249 25, Snfties fama aah eoarear sftseren ararem Petre TH BET Tre. a = 2) 7H 3) a (4) Tee The objective of reduction in income inequalities was accorded a__priority in Economic Planning of India. (D high (2) low (3) zero (4) neutral ‘Bea BHATSt GM / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA cit 3 26, Fae daarfie dagen A.M. ardten gear Peis ea. Q) 8% 2) 65% @) 7% (A) 73% According to the Ninth Plan target of GDP, growth rate was : Q) 8% 2) 65% 3) 1% (4) 75% 27. erefterteht are /a fears fray wet ame /saret 2 a. onfils Pritsrrea 63 ashen sreratta Ug saania are cea 4-7 ah aT aR wee STE. 3, sifes Fritsrrren often aa gaara WEA sera aT Re eta 3:5 ce sa ata. 6g autem Reatsm arora ward wets sera anaes Ga 4-6 TH ATA STeCATS sre a. wate TR: QQ) a snfir a tet Q) wae @) wants at 4) Fas Which of the following statements is/are correct ? a, During the 63 years of economic planning, national income has increased at the rate of 4-7 percent per annum. b, ‘The rate of increase in national income during the first three decades of economic planning was as low as 3'5 percent per annum. ©. _ India’s per capita income increased at the rate of 4°8 percent per annum during the 63 years of planning so far. Answer options : Q) Both aandb (2) Onlya (2) Both bande (4) Onlye 28. . 11 anata, 2014 ash Bing areata aise wr atteree ge see Teh. Q) earea, erm, aftr sift drerdgeia ae Se (2) fafa aa (3) sem aa (4) fateh fame Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana was launched on 11" October, 2014 with the objective of (1) Nucleus of health, cleanliness, greenery and cordiality (2) Export Zone (2) Import Zone (4) Foreign Exchange ‘wee Srna IMM | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.13 12 A 29, aaa anf, segafar Sar, sae rma ona anf sreqetries efter qefierdl sete: tac Frere reat wera seo ats ame. ) Fetter Rrsorad) asia artes (2) aga crete fren afters (3) Wan aKa (4) sagan mnt anfee fara The scheme for providing residential school at elementary level for girls belonging to the SC, ST, OBC and Minorities is (1) National Programme for Education of Girls (2) Rashtriya Madhyamic Shiksha Abhiyan (3) Sakshar Bharat (4)_Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya 30. 1999 - 2000 7e4 Stora aeaa afgara war waite ee 2 1) Ferry (2) fae @ fga (4) sien Which State was more poverty ratio in 1999 - 2000 ? (1) Maharashtra 2) Bihar (3) Tripura A) Orissa 31. Soe gents ata sed area? a wefaegt a taaay =. dest 2 aa watelt at: eet (2) wate (3) # oath at (4) Safi s tat Which are the conventional sources of energy ? a. Hydroelectric b. Oiland gas c. Solar energy d. Wind energy Answer options: (@) Onlya @) Onlyb (3) Bothaandb (4) Bothcandd 82. cercthe fae area ear : a. 2006 3a area dang eae fats st Nalfer (LFCL) t earet ae. a, oaredta srry yfaen fara eh aaliea er ce gfe seRcTATs sewers aah aca fart gear Bret BT. vw, fedar, 2007 sea wredta carga fener weed feral Pritt gare wef. afterteht shore faut atta street? Q sativa det (2) daha det (3) Honfisad 4) ata ad Consider the following statements : a, ‘The Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL) was set up in 2006. b, _TIFCL provides short-term financing for infrastructure projects. c. The Indian Infrastructure Project Development Fund was launched in December, 2007. Which of the statements given above are correct ? @) Bothaandb (2) Bothbande (3) Bothaandc (4) Alllof the above ‘Brea STATS GMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK33. 13 3 ‘refiettehl Soren SAS gertteneny TAT Ba 7 a Bat Sat a. fareaant sal % Wars TRS =. tater wateft set: Q) Fas 2) anf a eet 3) vont Ie @) ated Which of the following energies is/are renewable? a, Commercial energy b. Non-commercial energy c. Fuel wood 4. Petroleum Answer options : @) Onlya (2) Both aandb (8) Bothbande (4) Alllof the above arta fae firarra eat ; FUURTOAT SATE 59 ZH AUT STATA Safer 86 Ve AAT HE TTAK at HATTA (Raga) dora aaIATaT sz. Wen dae ord ered daria were Sta Teta ANAT GaT His TTT. %, ReaK aren Tha Barada Gear we 2012 wea ose qaaR chore dre Sa atte Goel fers /faurt yw ak /sea 7 Qs anf a det Q) wae @) WRF ® Fae Consider the following statements : a. Shipping transport accounts for 59 percent of India’s trade by volume and 86 percent in terms of value. b, India currently ranks second only to China in terms of telephone networks. c. To encourage telecom sector, the Government of India announced the National ‘Telecom Policy in 2012. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ? @~ Bothaande (2) Onlyb (3) Only a (4) Onlye ‘Bee BATTS GMM | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.3 "4 A 35. 1994 em Ute eetewia eters area siren are Aafia area 2 a. anda a ache sam Eh. a. eae Uredaian aes Gel. 1996 ude Bd Ge defers Aaah Tew Saal operas ate gat Bat, watch sat: Q) eet 3 @ wie (8) FR, eat (4) afte ae Which of the following things are related to the National Telecom Policy, 1994 ? a, Open to investment for Indians and foreigners. b, Open to investment for anly Indians. ¢. All villages connected to telephone service up to 1996. 4. Free telephone service to rural areas. Answer options : @) Onlya @) Only (3) Only a, bande (4) All of the above 36. aretertht araqeirar alurar HR TAA UEP sevaTA (GDP) Herat aret fee exif 2 OD (2) A ae B) Fa aR (4) ward are Which of the following modes of transport shows largest percentage of share in GDP? (D Railways (2) Road transport (3) Water transport (4) Air transport 37. 2009-10 ude tears wrt tt. atc. 1) 53600 (2) 63028 a) 63900 (4) 63974 Railway route length progress up to 2009-10 was_____km. (1) 53600 (2) 63028 (3) 63900 (4) 63974 GENT STATS! PTT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 15 113, 38. 2008 - 09 area warys gfaumed fee de Team vee BT eT. () & 5225 Het (2) & 5400 8a (3) & 6485 Ht (@) = 8989 eta In the year 2008-09, foreign direct investment flow in infrastructure was (1) € 5225 crores (2) © 5400 crores (8) % 6485 crores, (4) © 8989 crores 39, ea Paerantier yor aren soe ake? a, 04 feeprarch Hear 3, figs eal ren ferro 3 Tate at wath art : Q FAS (2) wants det (3) saath wad ae (4) ata wd Which are the major problems in road development ? a. Slow-paced growth b, Poor quality ¢. Uneven distribution d. High cost of transport Answer options : a) Onlya (2) Bothbande (3) None of the above (4) Ailof the above 40, onthe gfget toh, axed server arene aftr meg yeaa Bea IT. () ag aa sei (2) watt aeA gear ani (3) wate Sat sai 4) eet gamraam soir There is direct correlation between the degree of economic growth, the size of per capita income and (1) per capita consumption of food (2) per capita consumption of facilities (8) per capita consumption of energy (4) per capita consumption of communication ‘weem Bras SIMI / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK, PTO.3 an. 16 A safes gurerideuts arate faucet faut ear - a. srarys Bara aha gr gefoare aT wilte om. =. dared oa ten Whit arate eoara aan ants se. adit sire fend ate amet 2 ® sates @ sathacte @ sot a ade «@) atetft ad Consider the following regarding Economic Reforms : a. The role of Government changed from the controller to the facilitator, b. The Government is committed to suitable reforms in the infrastructure sector. ¢. The Government is committed to making Panchayati Raj Institution fully functional. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (2) Bothaandb (2) Bothbande (3) Bothaande (4) Allofthe above 42. ants quReraten Sem waTEraTeA Kies raerciet ferdarst rete Bort are warmer ehh ? () age arrara 3e4 FATE (2) wa ort sales qetett are (3) afar andtarear Sai saftr faeatt aauphreh yf (4) ade ad act Which of the following are reasons of satisfactory balance of payments situation in post-reform period ? (2) High earnings from invisibles account (2) Rise in external commercial borrowings (8) Non-resident’s deposits and role of foreign investment (4) Allofthe above reasons 43. ‘fata wigan Gaia (EPZ) waren yar meres gxeTG oe? GQ) wf fala #4 (AEZ) Q) WF aK ¢ wan 83 (FTWZ) (3) fiw safle @ (SEZ) (4) ap Steins B34 IZ) In which of the following, Export Processing Zones (EPZ) have converted ? (1) Agriculture Export Zones (AEZ) (2) Free ‘Trade and Warehousing Zones (PTW2) (3) Special Economic Zones (SEZ) (4) Free Industrial Zones (FIZ) ‘SRAM BRAS GMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK> 7 193 aretter ferurt farsrea eat : ao. an araiela wae vehta yraophret Beart 2000 Hey arefl. a. 2015 HEA ara BI Rathi TTA Tea Stefan ST Be ST AB. 2016 TA urea 63 eae Sek TEA Tra ae. atterteht Foray faa Stace STRATE? GQ) waa Q waa @) oA s 4) wR a ona Consider the following statements : a, In India, foreign investment was introduced in 2000 under FEMA. b, In 2015, India emerged as top destination in FDI, ¢. _ India received $ 63 billion in FDI in 2015. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ? : () Onlya @) Only (2) Onlye (4) Only aandb 46. aretter fauna farce om: a. a gees eft Fetch earsat 2004 - 2005 wea ref. a. frfsaops faerreh caret 2002 - 2003 424 are. wwe gurn arraitret caren Sarat, 2000 we anf. catlerteht stor fara atte area? Q wa aoa (2) wasnt () war Ronfis 4) attr ad Consider the following statements : a, Guarantee Redemption Fund was established in 2004 - 2005. b. Department of Disinvestment was set up from 2002 - 2003, ¢. Expenditure Reforms Commission was constituted in February, 2000. Which of the statements given abave are correct ? @) Onlyaandb (2) Onlybande (3) Onlyaande (4) Allof the above Sher ngearek aRAM Sore feast Fareael Heft 2 (1) 15 eta, 1993 @) 159A, 1993 (3) 15 Ufa, 1994 (4) 15 9M, 1994 On which day did India sign the Dunkel Draft? ()_15t April, 1993 (2) 15% July, 1993 (3) 15th April, 1994 (4) 15th July, 1994 41. 1991 fq gare aft ey oremertrareht Fg aware seh att? (DA fara Fae (2) Tana, afer 3) Wha. A (4) Tiag ca Tax Reforms Committee 1991 was constituted under the Chairmanship of (1) Shri Vijay Kelkar (2) Raja J. Chelliah (3)_LK Jha (4) _M. Govind Rao ‘eear oTaTaTSt GMM | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.3 18 A artis fram frerra em : a, apaafila ax (VAT) @ agstetia ax ater axordt vedi are. a suapeafiie ec 8 wae-fig oR went cat one. &. qerafla arhen street ya ade ciate cee gure oni whttentia are ia. ate stort ferent ater ore? QD FATT (2) wae (3) BRHAH (4) Raw Consider the following statements : a. The Value Added Tax (VAT) is a multipoint tax collection method. b. Non-VAT is a single point tax collection method. ¢. Implementation of VAT will improve the purchasing capacity and living standard of the poor people. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (1) Onlyaandb (2) Onlybande (8) Onlyaande (4) Allofthe above 49, ae a Fa HUA (GST) yet Shorea srqUAl Sarde ts ATT 7 a be 3 12ee B. 2208% S28 eR watch set: vat st antral (2) waa & orf = (3) war, a anf s 4) PRE ‘Which of the following tax rates is not included in Goods and Services Tax ? a. Bpercent b. ‘1Zpercent c. --22percent = d._—-26 percent Answer options : @Q) Only aandd (2) Onlycandd (3) Onlya,bandd ® Onlye aretrat fea fart eT a. Sta fasten era, 1956 Fan Para et Siat-sa seg fashlat serHRTeT STAT a. Sg fabian come GF, 2008 WGA 3% ata 2% He OTA HATA. aMTett. %. Sea Rahen et WI aera (Fe) Agee Gtenenita He sre. ‘abarteht stort fet ata site 7 Qo waHae (2) FaTes (3) AAAs (4) ata Consider the following statements : a, The Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 imposes the tax on interstate sale of goods. b. The CST has been reduced from 3% to 2% from June, 2008. c. The CST is an origin-based non-rebatable tax, Which of the statements given above are correct ? @) Onlyaandb (2) Onlybande (8) Onlyaande (4) Allofthe above ‘ee BAAS SMM / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 19 13 51. wrete fru frarra eat: a. (Ret ~ steer) 2016 - 2017 74 Urareh amare Rafa, 13:5% 4 weet. a. (after feta) 2016 - 2017 1 arara Rare Migaeh aeGel arama 8-8% ft Ueeh. #2016 - 2017 (efter — aeeet) wea ora [Link]. ant atedhwe feng seat 10:3% * wee. abet sonia uaa stare aa 7 Q@ weaae 2) WRITS 3) oAH 4) Aa Consider the following statements 2. _ India’s export to Africa declined by 13-5% in 2016 - 2017 (April - November). b. During 2016 - 2017 (April - December) India's imports of capital goods declined by 88%. ¢. India’s imports from CIS and Baltics region declined by 10°3% in 2016 - 2017 (April - November), Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ? (1) Onlyaandb (2) Onlybande (3) Onlye (4) Onlya 52. adtath ate fae fast: a. Aare Saanfaere droid aan awaradt ar 1962 Fe cman gale Bet Jaren atref, a waft gaa A, sal a areqe aaren ferred sees arereh a wen are ‘STATA Sway AAT. wate sat: Q) wae (2) Fe (3) Bafta det (4) adler wend are Select the correct statement from the following : a, In 1962, Ramaswami Mudaliyar Committee was appointed for the scrutiny of India’s Trade Policy. b. This committee suggested that, essential machinaries and raw material should ‘be imported for the development of Energy and Transport sectors. Answer options + () Onlya (2) Onlyb (3) Both a and b (4) None of the above ‘BEAT STATS GMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.3 20 A wechta saan tier 2009 — 2014 aaiftra refit free franra en: a eee 3. aha oan atom 50 ada aordtatal wade wee Seta ATS’ ater Fer. . aeere ardia Prat sivared art fediat, 2012 wea ore Sef, atch ator fee adler aga 2 QD wIAaT 2) eM Has (3) FRAMES 4) att ad Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Trade Policy 2009 ~ 2014 : a. The long-term policy objective for the government is to double India’s share in global trade by 2020. Foreign Trade Policy has added 50 new markets to the Focus Market scheme. c. Government has announced incremental export incentivisation scheme in December, 2012. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (1) Onlyaandb (2} Onlyaande (3) Onlybande (4) Allofthe above 54, fRReft TTT tem (2015 — 2020) wea THE. STL, 3 OHS. [Link], ahete # aaTT Ret we, QD aa ae (2) Ratt arena geges (3) arena warat (4) fate vara Foreign Trade Policy (2015 — 2020) includes MEIS and SEIS which provides incentives and rewards in terms of : () Duty Credit Scrips (2) Export-Import Passbook (3) Import Licence (4) Export Licence 55. una adeh de YaaUPsteh aretier Bach aie aefl Td: CL) ieee fered SR 91% Gren erred cTeaTeh Paarareret arf ATTA (2) free vas dads des (3) ania fed Sref orFraref sree aise (4) adethh wt In India, FDI inflows were recorded under the following heads : (1) Reserve Bank of India’s automatic approval route for equity holding up to 51% (2) Foreign Investment Promotion Board (@) RBI Non-resident Indian Scheme (4) _Allof the above ‘qe @rATATS! PM / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK> a 3, Qe feet qeayes onieadh seaeaemn arefquerea ga ae, at choices faeatt Aaa wears crear nf rey ree. @ Saree ered” 2) wet Rah (3) agen ereure ) Fen aera FDI helps to increase the productive capacity of economy, while foreign portfolio investment is of more speculative and is thus i (1) sustainable (2) volatile (8) _ increasing (4) decreasing 37. verctict a ana, 2004 4, “gates ani afi: Prva, waferds onfor erent area ygorter 100% Ta Teta eae Trays SevaTETA BEHA Tareh feet. arene, 2004 wR, a Ahem Sander Tete sear TraMES Hae 100% oe arate. aaa Sse Sree) Wee Tee Aa 0% BATTS Taree fk, ata aploevel fare wrttere arg/sHTea 2 QQ) wR (2) FHHAs (3) FR AIe 4) ITI Consider the following statements : In January, 2004, the government allowed FDI upto 100% in printing scientific and technical magzines, periodicals and journals. b. In January, 2004, the government raised FDI limit to 100% in petroleum sector. Presently 80% FDI is permitted for business to business e-commerce. Which of the stavomente given above is/are correct ? ah Oniya (2) Onlyaandb (3) Onlyaande (4) Onlybande oranda Sgugha tare Rater sear Fear Gre ART: a. oe raen arty a. oundia fis’ aa %, ateifite free tare 3. fam tara cadets sud vafa sree oe 2 GQ) FHAAT @) waHwas (8) FT ATS (4) athertcht ant art i following agencies are controlling the activities of Multinational Corporations in ia: a. ‘The Ministry of Company Affairs b. The Reserve Bank of India ¢c. ‘The Ministry of Industrial Development 4. The Ministry of Finance Which of the above options are incorrect ? (1) Onlyaandb (2) Onlycandd (3) Onlyaandd (4) None of the above ‘ween SrTETS GMM / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.113 22 A 59, fasts oni dared atest serey garda ated 2? S.-W cara wae (FTZ) a, Rafa sfear 3 (EPZ) %. steht qari (IE) BS. WaT at (FP) wate sat : @Q) SR a ona (2) war oft s (3) waa onthe @ ated Which of the following are included in Special Economic Zone? a. Free'Trade Zones (FTZ) b. Export Processing Zones (EPZ) c. Industrial Estates (E) a. Free Ports (FP) Answer options: (1) Only aand b @) Only bandd (3) Only bande (4) Allof the above 60. Gretta faut fararad ea: BL wiacrgte at fh Gl agen opis fate dem ne, 3, mem 200 2a sriceaa aTA Fauhs Bae, strea. ater ant felt orienta raat dz aqua Aare Benen Pell 2A. ‘atath sinh fear atten ares 7 GQ) waa 2) wah 3) wRRas 4) ahead Consider the following statements : a. The International Monetary Fund is a specialized institution of the United Nations. ‘The IMF currently has 200 member countries. ¢. The IMF provides funds to a member country experiencing temporary Balance of Payment (BOP) deficits. Which of the statements given above are correct? () Onlyaandb (2) Onlybande (3) Onlyaande (4) Allofthe above 61. yevafia eudenia arctic faurt feerrt en: a. amg eetet ages ae aeverardl qeaafiier ax ay] ete. a. ad asada fay aejadt erate Sus GH AE aR. % qerafifa a woreft 10 UB, 2006 wT sHeHTA ste. atte stort fears ate saree 7 () wad onit as (2) pera snfs (3) vad Hone (4) ater ad Consider the following statements regarding Value Added Tax (VAT) : a. VAT is provision for eliminating the multiplicity of Indirect Taxes. b. The rate of VAT on various commodities shall be uniform for all the States. c. VAT system is implemented fram 10% April, 2006. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (1) Onlyaandb (2) Onlybande (3) Onlyaande (4) Allof the above ‘BERT STAT SMT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK> 23 ns 62, Star age zeae Gea Sere aaH Sh 7 i, fata Sater seam 4 SRR see Bonin aa (ada sae) wake sat: wars ont a (2) waa a ar (3) wae oUt Gata ad Which of the following are included in Non-Tax Revenue ? a, Receipts from Fiscal Services b. Interest Receipts ©. Dividends and Profits (Government Enterprises) Answer options : (D Only a and b (2) Onlyaandc (3) Only bande (4) All of the above 63. aretter faut faarea ear: a. Sy Weicon nage ald wp ewes semeA set SHIT 2015 - 2016 wey 11.4% 88. a, 3g aearcal ong Board |e Sarnia TMG HAM TAM 2015 ~ 2016 Hed B-3% mm &. Sy aterm sigach Gaia eae Sata saree TAM WAM 2015 ~ 2016 Wea 1-7% Re. abathh shor faut ate sits 7 O) wre Q@ waaas @) wHASs @) ate ad Consider the following statements : a. Central Government Revenue Expenditure to GDP ratio was 114% in 2015 - 2016. b. Central Government interest payment to GDP ratio was 8°3% in 2015 — 2016. ¢ Central Government Capital Expenditure to GDP ratio was 1:7% in 2015 ~ 2016. ‘Which of the statements given above are correct ? () Only a andb (2) Only bande (3) Onlya andec (4) All of the above ‘wee BEATS GM | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO,3 24 64. Fy aTHICEN Tae sramdiven dent (2015 ~ 2016) ret stem yea ; waters 'oy” alert a (sueite) (Reger Sorter seaTeaTeht zeman) a. ree ae i 19% a eye usta ye ii, 07% %. watts a iii, 39% 3 Fase iv. 25% watt sat: a a S s Mi th Ww Qiv Ho HG 8) i iv i ii @ i i iv ii Match the following regarding Central Government Fiscal Imbalance (2015 ~ 2016) Column ‘a’ Column ‘B’ (articular) (Percentage of GDP) a. Revenue Deficit i L9% b, Gross Fiscal Deficit ii, 07% Primary Deficit iii, 3.9% Major Subsidies iv. 25% Answer options: a boc a Mi iii iv @ w ii i i @) ii iv i ii Oi i Ww ii ‘SET SAG SMT | SPAGE FOR ROUGH WORKA 25 13 65, area faut feared ea: A. Tegel ge tas arey wren are ae Sted are, 7%, sigraertta ge eS Uo orden Ug we ed ore a Teale ge @ seer ad att Roorsa wae Hegel Tist Frets sea. ate stordt feet atten sea 2 ) PHaAIe Q) was @) FHAAS (4) ater ad Consider the following statements : a, Revenue deficit means the excess of current revenue expenditure over current revenue receipts. b, Budget deficit means the excess of total expenditure over total revenues. © Fiscal deficit indicates the total revenue requirement of the government from all sources. Which of the statements given above are correct ? Q) Only aandb (2) Only bande (3) Onlyaande (4) All ofthe above wad 33 aie formed are. QQ) mast org aroorarciar at (2) anne daiates od (3) syeriata ae (4) Pepe sappriey rem at —_——__ is not a development expenditure of the Central Government, (1) Expenditure on interest payments (2) Expenditure on social services (3) Expenditure on subsidies (4) Expenditure on expansion in developmental activities ‘Wee STIG GI | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.113 26 A yadieatehl sare were qatea andrea gRommin! erat 2 a. faerie are 3. Bae TH eae dare coffe wate se : (Bar at sar 2) Ba Sas (a) Re a ofr (4) ade ad Which of the following are the effects of Deficit Financing ? a, Rise in prices b, Change in the pattern of savings c. Credit creation by banks Answer options : (1) Only aandb @) Only aande (3) Onlybande (4) Allof the above eacta fae aera em : otra agit vem sent at fa cect 1997 we asa HATA ae aT. a, Sat faerie orn aq os sea steoera arf doef sme. attend store frera(a) aetat e/a? sat a wT oR (2) Wart a wate Te (3) aaa cee ater ata 4) aaa ddd ae area Consider the following statements : a, Treasury Bill system of financing budgetary deficit was discontinued sinee 1997. b. Treasury Bills are replaced by Ways and Means Advances (WMA). Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? () Only ais true (2) Only bis true (3) Both a and b are true (4) Both a and bare false ‘eed BraTeTg! MMT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK2 3 aaéhda Farad soft signers aaa HPraicHta Tretia faery area var: wg Ree corehha Sarwar onfhy sizes BrIENTA BrAI.2004 ey sis eT, =. 2009 944 HEyet eta ue HEA aT STE. a. ard, 2009 tla myer Baila TeneATon 3% wae core qe aa eA Raia A. wteateht ord fears aire aes 2 OQ) waa (2) Faas (3) FRAAS (4) after ad Consider the following statements regarding the FRBM Act:: a. The Central Government passed Fiscal Responsibility and Budget ‘Management (FRBM) Act in 2004, b. It aimed at revenue deficit to fall to zero by 2009. c. Fiscal deficit was to be reduced to 3% of GDP by March, 2009. Which of the statements given above are correct ? () Onlyaandb (2) Only bande (3) Only aande + (4) Allofthe above 10. ‘area faert fararra ea: 1. Tara Tate caacenena erecta fist dee necanat after Te TEA, a, Ueyeal arog at seTeolte Hat mare HeATS arf Art Reed aa HC. of sea eign or tee aft Hoke eons catlertcht atone farurt eater aka 2 Q) waaag (2) PRaa a (3) BAHaAs @ ate ad Consider the following statements : a. The Reserve Bank of India plays a vital role in fiscal management of the States, b. An important function of RBI is to help the States to raise market loans. e. The RBI has been organizing the State Finance Secretaries Forum two times in 2 year at its headquarters in Mumbai. Which of the statements given above are correct ? (1) Only aandb (2) Onlybande (8) Onlyaande (4) All of the above ‘eel wTATATS! GMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.3 28 A TL. aretethht etre vernon signa Remy erie ont sepa aia amtomarertatera fe sacred Bia ATE? Q) aighe sheer (2) area arenes (3) yemrerita sikimer (4) sremreTTa (Lame)/nTeHs (duck) weet in which of the budget may the existing programmes and activities mot be automatically funded 2 (1) Traditional budget (2) Tentative budget (3) Zero-based budget (4) Lame duck budget 72. refit fae fran em : aia fang sageenaa aeieh carver 1998 Fea seh. a. usta niet ane gaa are gaara Hyard, 2013 46d arf. Tite seawaa feet ere 2 aitactar, 2005 set arch. atath shor faerk aie oko 7 ) wR ae Q) waras (3) wT TR @) ated Consider the following statements : a. The National Institute of Financial Management was set up in 1993, b. Rajiv Gandhi Equity Saving Scheme was launched in February, 2013, c. National Smali Saving Fund was set up on 24 October, 2005. Which of the statements given above are correct ? @) Only aandb (2) Only bande (3) Onlyaande (4) All of the above ‘wee BMTATST IMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK tentmnannine13, ava stew Frew. aie ar” (Fars strain) a Site faa ar 3, aren fara ara aera faa ara 3. err faa ava wate Fit: a a8 8 @ ii i iv iii Qi ii iv iit @ iw i it @ iv i ii iff Select the correct pairs. Column ‘s’ (Finance Commission) a, I Finance Commission i b vith Finance Commission it, ce. Xt Finance Commission iii. 4. XII Finance Commission iv. Answer options: a (2) (3) (4) a bic a fi i iv iii iit iff iow i if voi it it 13 (Pre series area) a. a eh, Path Column ‘BY (President of Finance Commission) KC. Pant KC. Niyogi VS. Kelkar Yashwantrao Chavan ‘heer Brera GMT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.M3 m4. 30 rN weN s+ weer wat SuReS aot g Aa, Q) aigereh wet 2) weed 3) ead 4) sterarabra a Fiscal deficit, + Government's market borrowings and liahilities. (2) Capital receipts (2) Revenue expenditare (3) Total expenditure (4) Budget deficit 15. arctic ferry ferret aT Tea TH eerie STAT 1 ata, 2013 tsk are Bett AA. a. eartten wearer 35 free met & ata uafevana arch % et ee eee esta attertehy storeyal frarva wea omit? GQ waa (2) BR @) Baas @) FAS Consider the following statements : a. The Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme was introduced on 1* January, 2013. b. _ In the beginning, this scheme was implemented in 35 districts in India. ¢. The Direct Benefit Transfer js designed to reduce corruption and control expenditure Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? () Only aandb @) Onlyb (3) Only bande (4) Onlya ‘WEA SNA SPT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK76. 3 13 a+ bie af bw yer. a-btead ag bai wau. ax bred aa bat as. Rptqxrtsxt+uxy, Cv aM searea fda gm ass. watt set: @M 2 @ 3t (3) deta wate adie fed a4 44 a+b means ais the daughter of b. a—b means ais the husband of b. ax b means a is the brother of b. Ifp+qxr+sxt+ ux v, then select the order of present generation of v. Answer options : (Ded @ 3H (3) 1% and oldest generation (a) ath 11. auferiat LEFGHI 1 Terrga are La at ae recto fafaa auien reich dear frat. @ 4! (2) Blx 2! 3) 2h 4) 4x2! Select the number of different groups of alphabets that can be formed from the group of alphabets LEfGHI that have L and I at extreme positions. (Qt (2) Bix 2! (3) 2t (4) 41x 2! ‘req SATS GM / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.n3 78. 32 A 9a wer Ded4l a oe aA Geter te wm oil. eae He ye BOTS aT wether saath Germ ada Recto vata Fact. (54 (2) 27 (3) 36 (4) 63 D6D41 is a five digit number that is divisible by 9. Select the minimum sum of the digits that satisfies the given condition from the given options. a 54 (2) 27 (3) 36 (4) 63 79. SFR 300 fax vera te83 snr 200 faa vara data en. caret ar ware 5 ate 30 FARE cre. SR IP) 260 fare vars Yes onfy 240 Fort Zech Sen ora A UTE 6 PHAR Sredten des cre sraaT, aC WAH aTRAt efi site, (D100 Fat (2) 120 fh 43) 80 fant (4) 110 feet ‘Aman travelled 300 km by train and 200 km by taxi and it took 5 hr 30 minutes. But if he travels 260 km by train and 240 km by taxi it takes 6 minutes longer. Find the speed of the train. Q) 100 km. (2) 120km (3) 80km (4) 110km adie eda sare) at 100 Hee afentas Aen. aes ai sedis sop 200 Hex Ten, yet at ‘edie aap 100 Hex siceratia fare? iten. aye free a a’ 400 et ae SEE ered ten, a a a wtesT ATAMTeT ott fase a eneat ere alee festen ae ? (2) 400 they qs (2) 600 Hex Tass (3) 600 the aang (4) 400 tex TRaas Shahid, when he goes to school, goes 100 metres south. Then he turns left and walks 200 metres, he turns left again and walks 100 metres and reaches his friend’s house. He came to school by walking the distance of 400 metres towards east. Find out the straight distance of the school from his home and its direction. (1) 400 metres to east (2) 600 metres to east (3) 600 metres to west (4) 400 metres to west ‘Bea SUAS SMT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK81. 33 3 rd eades cro Wer Gow Teer we ree ont me GA Aww Fae. fate walaigg wats aa uel fas ‘The left hand transparent paper sheet is folded along dotted lines and a small single triangular fold is obtained. Select the most appropriate fold from the given options. ‘Wt BSD Hua Be D9 alga area. ‘BOD Fes Bt D =f adit a. BAD FETT BRD A WTS are. BD tema B&D ef area se. weed Fd Kf ong ond, & wifaore vata Fraer, (1) F3MsK (2) FSM3K (8) FOMANSK (4) F3M8N3K If B5D means B is the father of D. B9D means B is the sister of D. BAD means B is the brother of D. BSD means B is the wife of D. From this information, find the alternative which shows that F is the mother of K. ()_ F3M5K @) FEM3K (8) FOMAN3K (4) F3M5N3K ‘BRAN STATS TMM | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK, PTO.us 34 A cored rar” a safaraTeeA Besar state Pisa KATA, wre stein srapateea Fora aetespaten efter argh. a ar fafa seo 2a one Tee are (arara) Atomegi ore aren args aretha one est arewerear dara at Sam se OK org wet, Beer Gar gave aefter winett cpraftd apeit. wine sree, ante, anf daa, ea, onftea, srldagn, sitcurge fram, amber Sar — cede Se Bare aTTaTa arent orga Wea ont, 32 safe eM neal Se on ww shh awa GAS at wera a1 stem Gare Gt aire anit ane wet. ater mitten deuta shia alfa fast. : a a ee 3 una Gat gavart wind ery eet ECTS TI wiz, anftea, svkiaara, arta Gar ead 83 fafa sxoares sere UaACTIeT BAA. eset Brot awa ao, tars aie aa ereaverten scart wine aaa, aah’, ar dae aia aK Gar 83 ferofera everest en TAS. 3. 9383 a Hom oreh wear aaa anf oft ceurteT wee set oe Asia una sinh omit ee era. wate ait: () % Gia ad (2) PRAaS 3) wR aes @) sataad Study the following observation noted by author with respect to “Make in India” initiative, India has no history of industrial-scale innovation, It is a trading nation and a nation that does well in areas that require delicate craftsmanship and care, areas that are (for want of better word) human in scale. It is also a nation that does well in providing services. It could do better with better laws, incentives, and use of technology, tourism, hospitality, fintech, international education and healthease — areas where human beings still count, where more personalised attention matters and where machine and scales are less important. Select the appropriate interpretation/s with respect to the above information. a, The initiative “Make in India” will never succeed as India has no history of industrial-scale innovation. b. Since India does well in providing services, therefore it should concentrate efforts for developing areas like tourism, hospitality, fintech, health care etc. ¢. With better laws, incentives and use of technology, India should develop service sectors rather than wasting time, money and land in setting up other industries. 4. India can perform well in areas where personalised attention is important and machines and scales are insignificant. Answer options : @) Allbute (2) Only bande (3) Onlybandd (4) Allbutd ‘RCT STATS SMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 35 113 SR TATA Sra SHAT HY TS aT setae eve aT HOT FAT SAAS) TAT SA aq Fear. STeRASATEM aT FEES fades terata Ft afermgaR wa Gena fed) ear rere Frost Bh STUTATEH ATR. wre ata, 7 Reber gRataeh gh went fae Fast. () Ta aren Rede ters anda Fett as a ae Tata sea TTA. (2) Wa Gren Rider Teron aaa Brad TATA SHAS TS oat Pray ep Fea. (3) Wa Groen fidrean wera ciety gts ara GTM frase TNT. 4) cre sear WaraRe ah fare, sae aes frasort aay ora & erates ERT sme, Many nutritionists claim that eating bread is not good for health as it does not contain fibres that are essential for digestion. Opponents of the nutritionists’ views state that examination of this bread eating generation is less nutritionally deficient than their parents. Select the statement that, if true, would tend to strengthen the opponents’ view. (1) Parents of bread eating generation were always eating fresh and home made food for breakfast. (2) Parents of bread eating generation did not get to eat sufficient food due to searcity of food during their time. (3) Parents of bread eating generation did not get to eat sufficient food due to Poverty. (4) It is possible for anyone to eat low cost convenience food like bread that is available easily whenever one is hungry and that is most important for a person, ‘wee SMRATS GMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.3 36 A 85. Uta sean a ara Seshgds Te FT a ea seni wea see eM. a asada cules ated welled dort sicants Tia, ag sufera ean = 3-E. ee (| armas er a oe TA A 4:5 B 6:4 Cc a in 7:8 D a2 E 7:6 F _ V8 G 9:11 Tt GE Ta aU Gee sAanish em fe ae ? (4536 (2) 4568 (3) 5454 (4) 5544 Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the question. Distribution of the candidates who appeared for competitive examination from seven States. Total candidates appeared = 3 lakhs. State-wise percentage and ratio of male and female qualified candidates. State | % oF qualified over appeared | Ratio of qualified ‘ | from each State condidates A 49 4:5 B 61 6:4 Cc Ba 1:8 D 45 E 65 7:6 F 57 11:8 G 48 9:11 What is the number of male candidates that qualified from State ‘G’? 4536 (2) 4568 (3) 8454 (4) 5544 ‘reer arararat IPT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA a7 3 aaa GR 8 ole a ae aT Tear ctleGiaT aTEghIa TA sacra BOT, ATT BETA a tea wea Toucan ereiat HO waa BUI salle Gat ara. qeaenfia zat GA Ta agin Bet, cue afiea Frwh a rig! aT Gone, Praca Ae aTaTE IMAI crreswar” “sine” FRO Rea yerR oT TERT. Sore fafa ea reais Fore enh | 2 sraeds Foie a Adah qe Revawererdl AeTears Bet sea, afta aRederem srt wren 3 Bont arg Fergr. () FER GR aes a aI iar Seo AeCaTAT HTT aT. (2) 74 ait a seashore wea HEMT feat sfsase rT aT. (3) ater aregerarah sear He ar fear datharen siren ArT oT. (4) waa areas Fa a aa eI TA firssawNTET TIN Bt STR. ‘The river basin forms a critical link between land and sea, provides transportation routes for people, and makes it possible for fish to migrate between marine and fresh water systems. By acting as natural “filters” and “sponges”, a well-managed river basin plays a vital role in water purification, water retention and regulation of flood peaks. In many parts of the world, seasonal flooding remains the key to maintaining fertility for grazing and agriculture. Select the statement that cannot be inferred from the above passage. (1) For making a river sustainable ecosystem, it is necessary to develop programmes for conservation of the river basin. (2) The river basin is an integral aspect of a river that helps in purification of water. (3) Using the river for transportation is good way of its conservation. (4) If managed properly, rivers can be used as a good source for getting fish. 87. ots firs Geekear ArT Teta Fa wae ord. arse TIE age HEA SA, TATEAT waded ati ad. ta a we ares anf one. RareA Tae aE AT STR, ATA a ws arenmed ote ae. sata a erTraT rt} ona. siaeft ster af wa eset oe? sites ate Tee feet oat area 2 @i @ 2 @ 3 w 4 Eight friends are sitting to see a cricket match. Bharat is to the right side of Ashok, but no one is to the right of him. Aadit is in between Indradev and Ganesh. Ganesh is at the right side of Hussain. Ashok is exactly in the middle of Bharat and Dhanraj. Indradev is Dhanraj’s neighbour. Anjali is at either of one side. How many persons are in between Ashok and Ganesh ? @ 1 @) 2 8) °3 w4 ‘weemr ararerdt IMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK, P.T.O."3 38 A Ye fae @ fend fad onda. @ faer ae aER Strat frond wheat aanf anda. & isa agate ara fark: 3, agen wordt ia om. a, wad wets agra Te. ad aged Hi oa. Red: 1. wie wid 8 ag aT. IL ad aid 8 egas ara. TL. Bret aeTee re Ties. IV. Be ape é agus anda. walt are: (1) ad ware (2) ra 5, Wha Tv and (3) wa 1, Ha lv erg (4) Usa I fen UL, Ua Iv aard Given below are statements and conclusions. Consider these statements to be true and decide which conclusion/s is/are logically valid with respect to them. Statements: a. Most apples are mangoes. b. No apples are berries. c. Allherries are mangoes. Conclusions : 1. Some mangoes are not berries. I. All mangoes are not berries. III. Some apples are mangoes. IV. Some apples are not berries. Answer option: () Allare valid (2) Only, II] and IV are valid (3) Only I, Il and IV are valid (4) Either Yor I, IIT and IV are valid ‘wee GIATATS! IPT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ae nenmermnmtnest39 3 areata Tea ar cen Tea ies # ware seieh wince one onl Te Sent Shere pwnd Tee Seka. See TaTAT Te ala Te s Sete Tsaray STAR 8 AAT HA ATT aR. 7 went vets Ae KAT dead yeas Fae eT Weer sta aA. Wea SAM. ATE TAM Zura aaa wat Sime siteweren Aa. Sere ga Bee oe soe Sek MeN wor gure Set ae oer ecu Tene “" Se Asa aETAT UTE TA = aaa, anf sa aay one Ft A aT Srcttean heme aero Te wed. Tare Feta see. Taser seh ang Ft gu feenil & ara ang. aRoreh Se Sistas cata wreeate oe ATE edarder aeons Awa een Bo sees Bet. (FUR are @ cate serraraTch Setar yohTA sracta srewaTeT gal STR, (2) Tain aan Fe Toran aah WaTET SHIT Ber GUTS SAT TATA Ie we Wea IT, Hu (3) deren gaa Facts seeagS TTA Sei ayteatia Adare Sra wea FET. (4) Seren gure Fafte ofttas sees eran sein Irate adaraen sraniarst Bea aka. The existence of Rajasthan’s nomadic Raika tribe revolves around its camels and they are experts in camel rearing practices. Camels for them are a source of nutrition and the size of a herd is a measure of prestige. Every member of this community is expert in identifying each camel of his or her herd by pugmarks. Similarly, by smelling the milk they can identify a female camel. Camel milk contains less amount of calcium but is rich in chlorides and phosphorus. It contains ten times more quantity of vitamin “C” in comparison with cow milk. Camels live by eating foliage of shrubs that grow in the desert therefore that milk has many medicinal qualities. Camel milk contains special kinds of protein that act as natural antibiotics and it is believed that it protects people of this tribe from diseases. It also contains insulin. Raikas believe that selling milk is a sin. As a result, keeping camels is not profitable for them. Select the conclusion that can be derived on the basis of information given in the passage. (Qualities of milk provide evidence of Raikas complete dependence on camels for life. (2) It is possible for Raikas to use their traditional knowledge of rearing camels for producing milk commercially. @) el came} milk contains insulin, it can be used for treating diabetes in general. (4) Since camel milk contains natural antibiotics, it can be used for treating diseases in general. went what 70% Fare Gastia Sieh aA, 65% Feral attra geet wet, 26% Farell ee fara srdet ara. x 2000 fran are farrara seftoh rat oretet, ae UT far faeneat ten fect 2 (7500 (2) 5000 (3) 6000 (4) 8000 In a certain examination, 70% students passed in English, 65% students passed in mathematics, 25% students failed in both the subjects. If 3000 students passed in both the subjects, then how many students appeared for the examination ? (7500 (2) 5000 (3) 6000 (4) 8000 ‘Wee TATATSY GPT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO,3 40 A 91, HENTAI FaTTaT (2013 — 2014) a) sree ae Afr aha get eT ‘Study the rainfall map of Maharashtra (2013 — 2014) and give suitable answers. Rainfall Map of Maharashtra Rennrad asta 2013 2014 S 2014 Fan weRIgren Heredia yen BEd TAM O 8 80 THE ATR. 2. 2013 Fan WeRTeren sete 120 4 Caen Sed aed waa areal. %. YS, World a amach BY 2014 JER 120 4 TTT set Twa TEM. SHERI 2013 ten 2014 Hea waa wae HIE aT. waht oat: a) a ate 2) water @) aaa ate @) Fas ale a. According to 2014, the annual average rainfall in the middle part of Maharashtra is 0 - 80. b. According to 2013, the average rainfall in the northern part of Maharashtra is 120 and above. ¢, In 2014, the rainfall in Dhule, Jalgaon and Amaravati is 120 and above. d. In 2014, the rainfall percentage in Maharashtra is higher than 2013. Answer options : (1) ais correct 2) bis correct (3) aand bare correct @) cand dare correct ‘qreeaT STATS HM / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA a 3 92, anardiet cite @Rorea wa aTauith Fadl ik Arar ETT ae ? (40 (2) 25 (3) 20 @) 15 What is the percentage of iron ore reserves in Maharashtra out of the total iron ore reserves of India? @ 40 @ 2% (3) 20- @ 15 93, ara stew rat Shr a. fate a adh =. toms sow waeht se: a 4 t @ ii iv i i (2) ii i iv iii @) iv ii i i 4) i ii iii iv ‘Match the following : Mountain District a. Chikodi i, Nandurbar b. Madhoshi ii, Jalgaon ¢. Toranmal iii, Satara a iv. Kolhapur e od ii iv iti iit i ii ii iv 94. 20014 2011 aT SrME ER Nerrecrdtea Menta GH Pht ea ome 2 () +524 (2) +540 (3) -452 (4) -348 According to the Census of 2001 and 2011, the difference between the percentage of literacy rate in Maharashtra is GQ) +524 @) +540 (3) 4:52 @) -3-48 ‘HVAT GMTATS IMT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.13 42 A 95. Nenad store werechia fama wala aren free ate ? GQ) ated (2) safer (3) serene (4) aR Which administrative division of Maharashtra has maximum number of districts ? (1) Amaravati (2) Nashik (3) Aurangabad (4) Nagpur 96. Grete aqg Tenrerda serechty Sarria area Aa IAN TAM SHH TAT : a aT a. fs &. onuad 3. tere watet ae: ) 4435 a,% Q) Z4a5,5 3) 435,49 @ S44,5,5 Arrange the following administrative regions of Maharashtra as per their area in descending order : a, Nagpur b. Nashik ¢, Amaravati d, Aurangabad e. ‘Pune Answer options : G) ebdae @ deboa @) dbdea @ dbeae 97, aq stem yan (snrarery onftr freer) : rad freer a at i a water ii, Tas aR ii, eT 3 ater iv. auf wate sat: a = 6 F @ ii iv i iii Q) ii i iv iti @ vo ff ii i @ iw ih i ii Match the following pairs (Sanctuaries and Districts) : Sanctuaries Districts a. Bor i. Dhule b. Narnala ii, Raigad Aner iii Akola a. Karnala iv. Vardha Answer options : a ob oc d @ i wv i ii (2) iii i iv, ii @® wii ii i @ wv ii iit ‘eam BATA GPT | SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA “a3 3 98, Rtamna sca TERA ae wars Ae ? Q) fg (2) Sia @) ards ) wat Which type of settlement is dominaat in Konkan? (1) Scattered (2) Concentrated (8) Disconnected (4) Composite 99, Tether amg Barats sreples Ria Bat eflat afta ae em Fete : . ¥. Suet we a Feu Tans feet s. wares fg wate et: @ 34,4, 9 Q) %,4,5,0 @) 33,5,5 @) 4,3, 5,8 ‘Arrange the following physiographic features in the Sabyadri in a North-South orientation : q ; a. Kumbbarli Ghat b. Varandha Ghat c.° Raigad Fort d. Pratapgad Fort Answer options : @) deba @) [Link] @) bade (4) a,d,c,b 100. refer fared yer anf aha faeraret ras a a. Yi ar etch aad ame. a. anh aa ofan 28 ae shosach oT. atl ad Gd feted area Hr. sun aga GR 2 arh-gat GR rep stsaat WA. watt ars @M 4,45 Q) F,a,F @ 3%, s @ 54% Read the following statements and select the suitable ones. a. urna river is a tributary of Tapi river. b. Tapi river known as western-flowing river. ¢. Tapi river flows in the Bastward direction. d. Tapi river basin is known as Tapi-Parna basin. Answer options : @ aba @) abe @) bed 4) dbe ‘eean BMA GM / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.Kya” 13 at — (73 14ea GF...) (@) veqftae Bika Sen Rie weta wa am (ee wh) Ud. wEBeTbeatehed sea TT Sree FS FH Sears 8 SG Hoare she BA ok, | sa des a eaER Fea TEA ont Saen “adeiae dorsn torent oft arenas ofeera—s2” ardier aeqeerare Brearg arene aft a at oat purer Cem aaFemT sereaTeTEaT oft /ear eva UR Ro aRTeAT deve fe a aii. (@) aa aed siden alka Hach aa sacarin Brearren K veagleren saat era aa WAT Tar ane, ot edie soggy sreeet sweater FL aaa’ 3 firrear aee wet sree aT. 3%. 201. 3%. 201, AAT Oat “adhd ares Fe wcerrardl Shh yea: ITH RD? Tart gare reer (2) -Racdy frerarR @) a Tate Ta (a) area has we wens Ber set “3 a TET ea” a ome. aS aT WETS Bat “(3)” Ate. ane wieiament wei 3. 201 etter saCamiE “@" 2 ads whe weil a qrafat onary aT, ®@ ®@@ arm Tat vega weeertdia wake ween Gra SreHie wt een Recation wfreuT srefitata an en wemuiereita dafter ages gist erates ea eae. wetter Way ware gS aTCTETT nT, Veer aT NFA A ATT Ta. weet wUTaAat Ate / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK