What legal doctrine was established in the case Mapp vs. Ohio?
A. Archipelagic Doctrine
B. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine
C. Miranda Doctrine
D. Eclectics Doctrine
E. None of these
B
2. The testimony of witnesses reduced in writing while under oath is
generally called
A. Admission
B. Declaration
C. Information
D. Deposition
D
3. Human sources of information who voluntarily provide facts to the
detectives are generally known as
A. Informers
B. Suspects
C. Informants
D. Respondents
C
4. Proof beyond reasonable doubt is the weight and sufficiency of evidence
needed to convict the defendant in
A. administrative cases
B. civil cases
C. criminal cases
D. all of the above
C
5. The stage of criminal interview purposely done to clarify information
already gathered or to gather additional facts about the case is the:
A. initial interview
B. follow-up interview
C. concluding interview
D. preliminary interview
B
6. The prosecutor is the proper authority to subscribe in the
A. Affidavit
B. Complaint
C. Joint affidavit
D. Information
D
7. Any person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation shall at
all times be assisted by
A. Prosecutor
B. police officer
C. counsel
D. complaint
C
8. Remuneration gain is the main motive of
A. Informants
B. Criminals
C. Informers
D. Witnesses
C
9. As established by our Supreme Court through the case People vs. Galit,
the first step in arresting an offender is
A. show the warrant of arrest
B. inform the nature and cause of accusation
C. identify yourself as a law enforcer
D. give the Miranda warning
C
10. Planned and coordinated legal search conducted to locate physical
evidences at the locus criminis refers to
A. Crime scene search
B. Intelligence
C. Instrumentation
D. Covert operation
A
11. A self-incriminatory statement not tantamount to acknowledgement of
criminal guilt is called
A. Complaint
B. Admission
C. Confession
D. Deposition
B
12. The fundamentals responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting
the crime scene is
A. interrogating the witnesses
B. engaging in the search for traces left by the search for traces left by
the criminal
C. removal of evidence which may prone important to the case
D. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical condition as it
was left by the perpetrator
D
13. Which of the following is NOT among the rules to be observed in
questioning a suspect?
A. simplicity of the question
B. one question at a time
C. accepted applied answer
D. saving faces
D
14. One of the following is an art, which deal with the identity and
location of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt through
criminal proceedings.
A. information
B. interrogation
C. instrumentation
D. criminal investigation
D
15. The declaration made under a consciousness of an impending death is
called
A. Res gestae
B. Declaration against interest
C. Dying declaration
D. all of these
C
16. A police officer testifying to the fact that he observed the defendant
assault the victim is presenting to the court ____ evidence.
A. circumstantial evidence
B. direct evidence
C. artificial evidence
D. real evidence
B
17. A standard arrow to designate the north must be indicating to
facilitate proper orientation. This is known as
A. map
B. wind whirl
C. compass direction
D. window
C
18. The profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition,
identification, individualization and evaluation of physical science
by application of natural sciences in matters of law and science.
A. chemist
B. scientist
C. toxicologist
D. criminalistics
D
19. The number of person who handle the evidence from the scene of the
crime and between the times of the commission of the crime up to the
final disposition of the case.
A. time of disposition
B. chain of custody
C. time of custody
D. time of disposal
B
20. A technique useful in investigation with the application of
instrumental detection of deception is called
A. ballistic test
B. questioned document test
C. fingerprint testing
D. polygraph testing
D
21. The warrant of arrest is good only for
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. none of these
22. The effectiveness of this tool in investigation depends on the craft,
logic, and psychological insight of the initiator in interpreting the
information relevant to the case is called
A. instrumentation
B. information
C. interrogation
D. interview
C
23. The systematic classification of the fundamentals or basic factors of a
criminal method is called
A. corpus delicti
B. modus operandi
C. methodology
D. all of the above
B
24. It is a type of reconstruction of crime wherein collected information
is analyzed carefully thereby developing a theory of the crime.
A. deductive reasoning
B. physical reconstruction
C. inductive reasoning
D. mental reconstruction
D
. The defense of the suspect that he was present in a place other than the
crime scene during the estimated time when the crime was committed is
called
A. Defense
B. Allegation
C. Alibi
D. Statement
C
26. These are hints that suggest lines of investigative actions and
information that is valuable in expanding the universe of suspects,
identifying prime suspects and finding the guilty person. This is
called
A. Information
B. Investigative leads
C. Corpus delicti
D. Modus operandi
B
27. Complaint document is filed by the
A. Police to the prosecutor's office
B. Offended party directly to the court
C. Fiscal against the offended party
D. Prosecutor directly to the court
A
28. That type of reasoning used in reconstruction of the crime whereby
the detective assumes a theory based on collected information is
regarded as
A. deduction approach
B. logical reasoning
C. inductive approach
D. positive approach
A
29. The lawful act of restraining a person believed to have committed
a crime and placing him under custody is termed as
A. Imprisonment
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Detention
C
30. The use of scientific instruments, methods and processes while
detecting and investigating crimes is technically called
A. Criminal Justice
B. Forensic Science
C. Criminalistics
D. Instrumentation
C
31. Preponderance of evidence is the weight and sufficiency of evidence
needed to convict a person in
A. Murder cases
B. Civil cases
C. Criminal cases
D. None of these
B
32. The two forms of arrest are arrest by actual restraint and
A. By forcible surrender
B. By detention
C. By voluntary submission
D. By virtue of a warrant
C
33. In portrait parle method the witness provides a vivid physical
appearance of the offender. Portrait parle means
A. Oral discussion
B. Verbal description
C. Photographic files
D. Facial appearance
B
34. The application of the same or substantially the same pattern, plan,
system of a particular offender in committing a crime is known as
A. Premeditation
B. plan
C. modus operandi
D. all of the above
C
35. The method employed by peace officers to trap and catch malefactor in
inflagrante delicto is known as
A. modus operandi
B. “buy-bust”
C. Entrapment
D. Instigation
C
36. An effort made to determine what actually occurred and what the
circumstances of a crime were is called
A. physical construction
B. crime scene investigation
C. mental reconstruction
D. crime reconstruction
D
37. Which of the following is under the Field Laboratory Work of the SOCO?
A. Macro-etching
B. DNA examination
C. Casting
D. DNA typing
C
38. “Releases the crime scene to the officer on case” is the function of
A. evidence custodian
B. team leader
C. sketcher
D. technician
B
39. “The xerox copy signed by Rose” is an example of
A. document evidence
B. direct evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. positive evidence
C
40. Evidence which the law does not allow to be contradicted is known as
A. competent evidence
B. conclusive evidence
C. expert evidence
D. substantial evidence
B
41. An interrogation technique where to police officers are employed, a
relentless investigator and a king-hearted man is called
A. shifting the blame
B. mutt and jeff
C. tom and jerry
D. none of the above
B
42. What law enumerated and provided definition of the different felonies
in the Philippines?
A. RA 8177
B. RA 6975
C. RA 8353
D. None of these
D
43. The following are authorized to issue a valid search warrant, except:
A. Appellate Judge
B. Presiding Judge of MCTC
C. Chief Prosecutor
D. RTC Judge
C
44. Which of the following detective system prioritized on information that
are bought?
A. American System
B. English System
C. French System
D. All of these
C
45. In crime reconstruction, gathering information first then developing a
theory on how the crime was committed is one approach, otherwise known
as:
A. Deductive reasoning
B. Inductive reasoning
C. Productive reasoning
D. Pragmatic reasoning
B
46. The branch of medicine, which deal with the application of medical
knowledge to the purpose of law and in the Administration of justice.
A. Nursing
B. Medico Legal
C. Legal
D. None of these
B
47. It pertains to law, arising out of, it also refer anything conformable
to the law.
A. Legal
B. Rule
C. Sanction
D. All of these
A
48. One of the following denotes things belonging to the court of law or
use in court or legal proceeding or something fitted for legal or
legal argumentation.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Jurisprudence
C. Law or Legal
D. None of these
B
49. The legal maxim which means “both drivers displayed negligence”
A. Res Ipsa Loquitor
B. Pare Delicto
C. Inflagrante Delicto
D. Locus criminis
A
0. Which of the following is useful in the investigation of hit and run
accidents?
A. Motor vehicle registers
B. Employees of the body fender shops
C. Records of accidents and stolen vehicles
D. all of the above
D
51. When 6 pedestrians who witnessed an automobile accident all tell
identical stories, the investigating officer might reasonably suspect
that:
A. the story which they tell is true since they all agree so perfect
B. the delay between the time of the accident and the witnesses time
together to discuss and compare their observations
C. all of the witnesses are close friends with similar physical abilities
opinions, educational and the like
D. all of the witnesses are dishonest
A
52. The police must arrived at the scene of the crime as quickly as
possible because:
A. he is the source of the most productive evidence
B. the principals are there or may still be present
C. some physical evidence may deteriorate
D. all of the above
D
53. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red colored
border is known as:
A. information sign
B. instruction sign
C. direction sign
D. caution sign
D
54. The systematic examination of all the facts relating to condition,
actions and physical features associated with motor collision or
accident is called:
A. traffic engineering
B. reckless driving
C. traffic accident investigation
D. hit and run investigation
C
55. An event in the road which characterizes the manner of occurrence of a
motor vehicle traffic accident is
A. Accident
B. key event
C. chain of accident
D. all of these
B
56. The delay resulting from traffic congestion affect not only the time of
travel but also the productivity of individual is part of what we call
A. traffic engineering
B. traffic environment
C. traffic economy
D. traffic congestion
C
57. The traffic enforcement action that does not contemplate possible
assessment of penalty by the court
A. traffic arrest
B. traffic citation
C. traffic warning
D. traffic violation
B
58. In accordance with Sec. 6 of PD 1613, which of the following
circumstances does not constitute a prima facie evidence of arson?
A. The property was insured substantially more than its actual value at
the time of the issuance of the policy.
B. Substantial amounts of flammable substances were stored within the
building not necessary in the business.
C. Doors and windows that were normally kept open in the course of
business were found closed during the fire.
D. The fire started in more than one part of the building or
establishment.
C
59. After a fire in which arson is suspected, you may be able to trace the
fire to its origin because __.
A. the alligator pattern of charring is not as light absorbent of the
surrounding areas
B. the checks of the charring process will be larger then the surrounding
areas
C. the pattern of charring at the point of origin is smaller and deeper
than the rest of the areas
D. the point of origin will be darker than the rest of the areas
B
60. One of the following situations is a good indication of an accidental
fire.
A. Smell of ammonia
B. Fire of several origin
C. Intense heat
D. Fire of only one origin
D
61. The purpose of closing the doors and windows during fire is to __.
A. stop the fire
B. confine the fire
C. slow the spread of fire
D. spread the accelerants
B
62. The purpose of opening the doors and windows of adjacent rooms in a
burning building is to __.
A. extinguish the fire
B. supply the oxygen in the area
C. prevent back draft
D. serve as entrance of firemen
C
63. An arsonist may rearrange materials or furniture in a room prior to
setting it on fire in order to __.
A. mislead the investigators
B. camouflage the odor of accelerants
C. provide a quick burning situation
D. all of the above
D
64. If the fire is set by rationale motive, the important point to
establish is ___.
A. intensity of fire
B. size of fire
C. rapidity of spread
D. origin of fire
D
65. The “eyes and ears” of the investigators in fire investigation are the
A. By standers
B. Arsonists
C. Victims
D. Firemen
D
66. The fire that started in almost all corners of the building at the same
time is called __.
A. separate burning
B. simultaneous burning
C. non-related burning
D. related burning
B
67. A building which is unsafe in case of fire because it lacks adequate
fire exit is said to be a __.
A. Fire hazard
B. Fire trap
C. Fire resistive
D. Fire unsafe
A
68. In cases where a structure is completely burned to the ground, the
position of doors and windows during the fire whether opened or closed
may be ascertained by __.
A. consulting the original structure blueprint on file
B. interviewing spectators
C. collecting broken pieces of window glasses
D. locating the hardware used in the construction of such doors
D
69. Using electrical appliances, which draws electrical current beyond the
designed capacity of the electrical circuit, is known as __.
A. Over using
B. Over loading
C. Over plugging
D. Over capacity
B
70. The introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by means of
special electric current is known as:
A. Topical method
B. Injection method
C. Iontophoresis
D. Oral method
C
71. When too much drug is taken into the physiological system of the human
body, there maybe an over extension of its effect which is commonly
called:
A. Overdose
B. Allergic reaction
C. Side effect
D. Idiosyncracy
D
72. When two drugs are taken together, or with in a few hours of each
other, they may interact with:
A. good effects
B. bad effects
C. unexpected results
D. no effects
C
73. The actual action of a particular drug depend on the basis of:
A. it’s chemical component
B. person’s tolerance
C. body absorption
D. food and water intake
A
74. Which of the following is considered as the world’s oldest cultivated
plant as a source of prohibited drug?
A. Marijuana
B. Coca Bush
C. Opium Poppy
D. Peyote Cactus
A
75. The opium poppy plant is scientifically known as:
A. Cannabis Sativa
B. Hashis
C. Erythroxylon coca
D. None of these
D
76. The word hashis is derived from the name Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim
leader. Hashis refers to:
A. male marijuana plant
B. female marijuana plant
C. the marijuana resin
D. marijuana leaves
C
77. Opium use in China was stemmed out from India and became widespread in
the 19th Century. From Middle East, the plant was cultivated
in India,Pakistan, Iran and Afghanistan which is known as the:
A. City of Dope
B. Golden Crescent
C. Green triangle
D. Golden triangle
B
78. Among the following was the German pharmacist who discovered the
morphine drug.
A. Allan Heithfield
B. Troy Mcweigh
C. Freidrich Serturner
D. Alder Wright
C
79. What do you call the incident where vast numbers of American soldiers
were addicted on the morphine drug during the American Civil War?
A. Morpheum Illness
B. Soldier’s Disease phenomenon
C. American Addiction
D. Dreamer’s syndrome
B
80. What is the chemical name of the Heroin drug?
A. Amphetamine Sulfate
B. Diacetylmorphine
C. Acetonyl Dioxide
D. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B
81. Which of the following law was enacted to provide for the registration
of collection, and the imposition of fixed and special taxes upon all
persons who engage in illegal drug production?
A. R.A. 953
B. PD 44
C. R.A 7659
D. R.A. 6425
A
82. The cause of majority of fire deaths is:
A. Shock
B. Burn
C. Falling materials
D. Asphyxiation
D
83. One of the following is a fire resistant item.
A. Asbestos
B. Borax
C. Phosphate of ammonia
D. Sulfur
A
84. Uncontrollable impulse to incendiarism is commonly known as
A. Kleptomania
B. Pedophilia
C. Manic depressive
D. Arson
A
85. Normally, fire feeds in all directions, but the least likely path a
fire will follow is
A. Upward
B. Sideward
C. Downward
D. Outward laterally
C
86. What part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of the
major investigative steps accomplished?
A. Details
B. Synopsis
C. Undeveloped
D. Conclusions
B
87. He was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a master criminal who
became London’s most effective criminal investigator. He was the most
famous thief catcher in 1720s.
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Chales Dickens
B
88. The America’s most famous private investigator and founder of Criminal
Investigation in USA. He established the practice of handwriting
examination in American courts and promoted a plan to centralize
criminal identification records.
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Allan Pinkerton
D
89. In this method, the three searchers follow each other along the path of
a spiral, beginning on the outside and spiraling in toward the center.
A. Skip method search
B. Round the clock method of search
C. Quadrant search
D. None of these
D
90. A fire started from the basement of the building. After 30 minutes, the
whole building has turned into ashes. Which among the following is
responsible for the spread of fire in the building?
A. Heat
B. Smoke
C. Flame
D. Combustion products
A
91. These are used by fire setters in spreading the fire throughout the
building
A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Gasoline
C
92. The sudden ignition of accumulated radical gases produced when there is
incomplete combustion of fuel
A. Backdraft
B. Flashfire
C. Flashover
D. Biteback
C
93. A flow which would be obtained if there is a continuous flow of vehicle
and are given a one hundred percent green time is called:
A. Saturation flow
B. Traffic flow
C. Acceleration flow
D. Smooth flow
A
94. A signal system is created when two or more signals on any traffic
route is coordinated with a fixed time relationship among the several
intervals known as:
A. Signal system
B. Traffic system
C. Traffic lights
D. Traffic signals
A
95. The time within which the traffic indicates of any particular traffic
signal face does not change:
A. Interval
B. Cycle
C. Phase
D. Timing
A
96. The total time required for the complete sequence of the phase is known
as:
A. Cycle
B. Cycle length
C. Timing
D. Interval
B
97. the objective of traffic signal time apportionment to secure movement
with safety through an intersection with a minimum delay is called:
A. Timing
B. Cycle length
C. Phase
D. Interval
A
98. A portion of a signal cycle during which an assignment of right of way
is made to given traffic management:
A. Offset
B. Traffic phase
C. Signal cycle
D. Cycle split
B
99. The number of times allocated to each phase of traffic light is called:
A. Split
B. Cycle time
C. Cycle split
D. Traffic phase
A
100.On a highway, a yellow or white line with a dotted white line means
that
A. you cannot overtake if the solid is in your side
B. absolutely no overtaking
C. overtaking allowed
D. keep right
A
CRIMINAL DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION!!
1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible
in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel
of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge Answer: C
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of
the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice Answer: D
3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is
most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation Answer: D
4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different
and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work Answer: D
5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions
are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail Answer: D
6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the
subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail Answer: A
7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated
arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage Answer: C
8.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a
building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure Answer: A
9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a
different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence Answer: A
10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence
collected during the investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service Answer: A
11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment Answer: D
12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.
A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory Answer: D
13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the
purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or
activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance Answer: D
14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after
that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination Answer: B
15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at
A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays Answer: C
16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts
to be present when they are committed, through the use of the
undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping or bugging,
and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures Answer: C
17.A police activity directed toward the identification and
apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their
alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation Answer: D
18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation Answer: D
19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose
of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation Answer: D
20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably
discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D.res ipsa loquitur Answer: B
21.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45 Answer: A
22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,
date and place, and that the person named in his report committed
the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae Answer: A
23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where
crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
B. order maintenance
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence Answer: A
24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation Answer: B
25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact
as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the
criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation Answer: B
26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling
short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation Answer: A
27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering
of information regarding the personal circumstances of a person
who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview Answer: A
28.It means method of operation.
A. corpus delicti
B. parens patriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi Answer: D
29.It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be
shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement Answer: B
30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their
application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish
the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure Answer: A
31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the
investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation Answer: A
32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled
evidence between the time of the commission of the alleged
offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to
a minimum.
A.chain of command
B.chain of custody
C.evidence tracking
D.tracing evidence Answer: A
33.A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene
or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence Answer: C
34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an
investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
A. physical evidence
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence Answer: A
35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except
one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness Answer: C
36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately
circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method Answer: B
37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each
searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method Answer: D
38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene
beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C.spiral method
D.zone method Answer: C
39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being
followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance Answer: C
40.Another term for tailing.
A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing Answer: D
41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.
He may give the information openly and even offer to be a witness
or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request to
remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant Answer: D
42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping Answer: A
43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a
crime, but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry Answer: C
44.An objective of criminal investigation.
A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes Answer: B
45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the
development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition
temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter Answer: C
46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of
a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapors varies from one material to another and
contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can
begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter Answer: B
47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum
in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction Answer: C
48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to
cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction Answer: D
49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to
A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene Answer: C
50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is
either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic
fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter Answer: D
51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.
A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm Answer: D
52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not
poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide Answer: D
53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially
when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide Answer: B
54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the
behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict
how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength Answer: A
55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain
metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D Answer: D
56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,
textiles, and other carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D Answer: A
57.The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat Answer: A
58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of
the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern Answer: A
59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring Answer: A
60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire
and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper Answer: C
61.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the
most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Celebrants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper Answer: A
62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means
employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper Answer: B
63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and
experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia Answer: C
64.It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185 Answer: D
65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used
to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer Answer: A
66.These are description of materials or compounds that are
easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable Answer: B
67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree
Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid Answer: A
68.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid Answer: A
69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an
electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember Answer: A
70.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat
and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire Answer: D
71.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D Answer: B
72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where
fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence
of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion Answer: B
73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to
vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point Answer: B
74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a
collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position Answer: C
75.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey Answer: A
76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from
two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation Answer: C
77.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity Answer: D
78.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only
injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious Answer: B
79.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136 Answer: D
80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces
unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events Answer: B
81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident Answer: D
82.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,
but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. D. traffic violation Answer: A
83.The first accidental touching of an object collision course
or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact Answer: D
84.The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and
Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation Answer: D
85.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”
A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195 Answer: B
86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional
change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants Answer: B
87.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or
dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens Answer: B
88.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for
money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade Answer: B
89.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl Answer: A
90.The original components of heroin and morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine Answer: C
91.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law
against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration Answer: A
92.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to
depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue Answer: A
93.The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu Answer: D
94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these Answer: D
95.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine Answer: A
96.Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the
seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine Answer: A
97.Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence Answer: D
98.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or
dispensed only by a physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs Answer: D
99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature
alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice Answer: C
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information
to determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects Answer: C
Investigation Reviewer 1
1. America's most famous private investigator and founder
of
Criminal Investigation.
A. Alec Nayhem
B. Allan Pinkerton
C. Thomas Byrnes
D. None of these
2. The first woman detective in the history of criminal
investigation.
A. Kathleen Jacob
B. Candy Miles
C. Kate Wayne
D. Pines Hamilton
3. He was known to be the creator of the "bow street
runners", a
group of police officers attached to the Bow Street Court,
and not
in uniform, performing criminal investigative functions.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
4. The founder and chief organizer of the London
Metropolitan Police,
the Scotland Yard, which became famous police
organization
in the world.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
5. As a rule, do not touch, alter or remove anything at the
crime
scene until the evidence has been processed through
notes,
sketches and photographs, with proper
measurements.This refers to
A. the golden rule in investigation
B. the number one SOP in investigation
C. the act of note taking
D. the act of crime scene preservation
6. An Englishman who published a handbook for Examining
Magistrates
in Munich, Germany and advocated the use of scientific
methods
in criminal investigation process.
A. Hans Gross
B. Thomas Byrnes
C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. Francis Galton
7. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is
inadmissible in
state criminal prosecutions in the famous case of
A. Miranda vs Arizona
B. Otit vs Jeff
C. Mapp vs Ohio
D. Milkey vs Wett
8. The continues accountability of persons handling
evidences, and
having responsibility of taking care and preserving the
evidences
from the time it was found until brought to court for
presentation
is called
A. Chain of events
B. Key events
C. Chain of custody of evidence
D. Chain of command
9. In England, he was a buckle maker then a brothel
operator; a
master criminal who became London's most effective
criminal
investigator. He was the most famous Thief-Catcher in
1720s.
A. Alexander Macanochie
B. Jonathan Wild
C. Billy Cook
D. John Howard
10. What is the Latin term for criminal intent?
A. Mens Rea
B. Magna Culpa
C. Inflagrante Delicto
D. Mala Vise
Answers:Fundamentals of Criminal Investigation
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. C
9. B
10.A
1. The terms, necropsy, postmortem, or postmortem
examination, dissection and examination of a dead body to
determine the cause of death refers to
A. Necropsy
B. Postmortem
C. Postmortem examination
D. Autopsy
2. The branch of jurisprudence that uses scientific theories and
principles in the detection and investigation of crimes is
called
A. Criminal Jurisprudence
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Preliminary Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation
3. The following are the three fold aim of criminal investigation
except:
A. Identify the perpetrator
B. Convict the perpetrator
C. Locate the perpetrator
D. Provide evidence
4. Modus Operandi means?
A. Methods of Operation
B. Modes of Operation
C. Manner of the committing the crime
D. All of these
5. A generic term referring to many types of misconduct
forbidden by law is called
A. Crime
B. Offense
C. Felony
D. Misdemeanor
6. A person arrested for a crime is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
7. A person who’s case was forwarded to the office of the
prosecutor and filed in court is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
8. A person who is convicted by final judgment is called
A. Accused
B. Criminal
C. Suspect
D. Prisoner
9. A circumstance, event or occurrence as it actually exists or
existed refers to
A. Event
B. Occurrence
C. Phenomena
D. Fact
10. The means by which facts are proved is called
A. Proof
B. Evidence
C. Fact
D. Circumstance
11. The geographical area where the crime was committed refers
to
A. Venue
B. Site
C. Scene
D. Crime scene
12. The most reliable means of preserving the crime scene or
evidence is referring to
A. Recording
B. Sketching
C. Photography
D. Documenting
13. The investigation of cases that are unique and often require
special training to fully understand their broad significance
refers to
A. Special Investigation
B. Special Crime
C. Special Crime Investigation
D. Specific Crime Investigation
14. The general term referring to the knowledge acquired by
criminal investigator from various sources is called
A. Information
B. Data
C. Facts
D. Intelligence
15. The simple friendly questioning of people who have the
information officially needed by investigators is called
A. Interrogation
B. Interview
C. Instrumentation
D. Information
16. The vigorous or aggressive questioning of person suspected
of having committed an offense or a person who is reluctant
or willing to make a full disclosure of information in his
possessions, which is pertinent to the investigation of a
criminal case is called
A. Investigation
B. Interrogation
C. Interview
D. Inquiry
17. An act defining certain rights of person under custodial
investigation is known as
A. RA 7348
B. RA 7438
C. RA 7843
D. RA 7834
18. The application of instrument and method of physical science
in the detection and investigation of crime is called
A. Interrogation
B. Instrumentation
C. Interview
D. Information
19. The legal taking of a person into a custody in order that he
may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense is
called
A. Apprehend
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Take custody
20. An order in writing issued in the name of the Philippines
commanding or directing a peace officer to arrest the person
described therein and brings it before the court refers to
A. Search Warrant
B. Arrest Warrant
C. Warrant
D. Order
21. The warrant of arrest is to be served within a statutory period
of
A. 5 Days
B. 10 Days
C. 15 Days
D. 20 Days
22. The warrant of arrest validity continues unless:
A. Recalled by the issuing court
B. The respondent has been arrested
C. Respondent voluntary submitted himself
D. All of these
23. An object is located by making a measurement at right
angles from each of two walls. Works well for indoor
measurements. This method of obtaining measurement
refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
24. This locating object is particularly useful in large, irregularly
shaped outdoor areas. This method is called
A. Polar coordinate
B. Baseline
C. Rectangular coordinate
D. Compass direction
25. These measurements are taken from two fixed points at the
scene to the object you desire to locate. This is refers to
A. Rectangular
B. Triangulation
C. Polar
D. Straight line
26. A simple diagram that creates a mental pictures of the scene
to those who are not present is called
A. Sketch
B. Crime Scene Sketch
C. Photograph
D. Rough Sketch
27. The first pencil-drawn outline of the scene and the location
of objects and evidence within this outline refers to
A. Rough Draft
B. Finished Sketch
C. Rough Sketch
D. Final Sketch
28. Any statement of fact made by a party which is against his
interest or unfavorable to the conclusion for which he
contends or inconsistent with the facts alleged by him is
called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Conclusion
D. Testimony
29. An express acknowledgment by the accused in a criminal
prosecution of the truth of his guilt as to the offense charged,
while admission refers to statements of fact not directly
constituting an acknowledgment of guilt is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Declaration
D. Testimony
30. Latin for the “body of the crime” is also called as
A. Corpuz Delicti
B. Corpus Delecti
C. Corpus Delicti
D. Corpuz Delecti
31. A venue or place where the alleged crime/incident/event
has been committed is called
A. Crime
B. Venue
C. Scene
D. Crime Scene
32. The collection of facts in order to accomplish the three-fold
aims – to identify the guilty party; to locate the guilty party;
and to provide evidence of his (suspect) guilt is called
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Crime Investigation
D. Criminal Investigation
33. A well-trained, disciplined and experienced professional in
the field of criminal investigation duties and responsibilities
refers to
A. Investigator
B. Agent
C. Inquisitor
D. Criminal Investigator
34. One that defines crimes treats of their nature and provides for
their punishment is called
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Jurisprudence
C. Jurisprudence
D. Law
35. Investigation conducted by law enforcement officers after a
person has been arrested or deprived of his freedom of
action. It includes invitation to a person who is being
investigated in connection with an offense. This is called
A. Crime Investigation
B. Criminal Investigation
C. Investigation
D. Inquest
36. An inquiry, judicial or otherwise, for the discovery and
collection of facts concerning the matter or matters
involved is called
A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation
37. The process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting and
getting vital information/facts/circumstances in order to
establish the truth is called
A. Criminal Investigation
B. Criminal Inquiry
C. Criminal Inquest
D. Special Crime Investigation
38. The principle on the rights of a suspect from forced self-
incrimination during police interrogation is called
A. Golden Doctrine
B. Cardinal Doctrine
C. Miranda Principle
D. Miranda Doctrine
39. Data gathered by an investigator from other persons
including the victim himself and other sources refers to
A. Information
B. Data
C. Intelligence
D. Raw data
40. Scientific examination of real evidence, application of
instrument and methods of the physical sciences in
detecting crime is called
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Information
D. Instrumentation
41. The skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects is called
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Investigation
D. Instrumentation
42. Any person who shall kill his father shall guilty of what
crime?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Paternicide
43. Donald Bright an illegitimate son of Peter Bright and Lou
Wang. Peter Bright shot Lou Wang with a revolver resulted
to the latter’s death; Peter Bright is liable for what crime?
A. Homicide
B. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Sorroricide
44. The killing of a human being by the act, procurement or
negligence of another shall guilty of what crime?
A. Homicide
B. Infanticide
C. Murder
D. Parricide
45. Kanto Boy a 23 years old killed a 3 years old boy, kanto boy
is liable for what crime?
A. Infanticide
B. Murder
C. Homicide
D. Fraternicide
46. The collection of basic facts establishing that a crime has
been committed and that some other person is responsible
is called?
A. Investigation
B. Inquiry
C. Modus operandi
D. Corpus delicti
47. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide
except:
A. That the person was killed
B. The act of killing attended with treachery, superior
strength, and premeditation
C. That the accused killed him without any justifying
circumstances
D. That the accused had the intension to kill, which is
presumed
48. The following are categories of modes of death except:
A. Suicidal death
B. Homicidal death
C. Artificial death
D. Accidental death
49. The officer responsible for recording a crime scene and
recognizing and preserving physical evidence is refers
A. Criminalists
B. Evidence technician
C. Forensic pathologist
D. Forensic anthropologist
50. The taking of personal property belonging to another, with
the intent to gain, by means of violence against, or
intimidation of any person, or using force upon things is
called
A. Theft
B. Larceny
C. Robbery
D. Burglary
51. The following are the elements of the crime of robbery
except:
A. That there must be personal property
B. That personal property belonging to another
C. That the taking must be with intent to gain
D. That there be no violence against or intimidation of person
or force upon things
47. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide
except:
A. That the person was killed
B. The act of killing attended with treachery, superior
strength, and premeditation
C. That the accused killed him without any justifying
circumstances
D. That the accused had the intension to kill, which is
presumed
48. The following are categories of modes of death except:
A. Suicidal death
B. Homicidal death
C. Artificial death
D. Accidental death
49. The officer responsible for recording a crime scene and
recognizing and preserving physical evidence is refers
A. Criminalists
B. Evidence technician
C. Forensic pathologist
D. Forensic anthropologist
50. The taking of personal property belonging to another, with
the intent to gain, by means of violence against, or
intimidation of any person, or using force upon things is
called
A. Theft
B. Larceny
C. Robbery
D. Burglary
51. The following are the elements of the crime of robbery
except:
A. That there must be personal property
B. That personal property belonging to another
C. That the taking must be with intent to gain
D. That there be no violence against or intimidation of person
or force upon things
57. Ben Tong smashed the windshield of the car that was
parked at the parking area and took the car stereo. Ben
Tong is liable for what crime?
A. Malicious Mischief
B. Theft
C. Robbery
D. Larceny
58. The Anti-Rape Law of 1997 is also known as
A. RA NO. 8533
B. RA NO. 8353
C. RA NO. 8355
D. RA NO. 8535
59. Sexual intercourse carried out against a person’s will by the
use of physical violence is sometimes refers to
A. Acquaintance Rape
B. Forcible Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. Consented Rape
60. The rapist who psychologically doubt his masculinity and
seeks to dispel this doubt by exercising power and control
over women.
A. Power-Reassurance Rapist
B. Power-Assertive Rapist
C. Opportunistic Rapist
D. Sadistic Rapist
61. The unlawful use of threat of violence against person or
property to further political or social objectives is called
A. Terrorism
B. Political terrorists
C. Nationalist terrorist
D. Socialist terrorists
62. An Act in which an individual kills one or more other
persons immediately before or at the same time as him or
herself is called
A. Suicide
B. Murder-suicide
C. Mass suicide
D. Suicide attack
A. Suicide
B. Murder-suicide
C. Mass suicide
D. Suicide attack
63. An act of willfully and maliciously damaging or destroying a
building or other property by fire or explosion is called
A. Malicious mischief
B. Murder
C. Arson
D. Destruction of property
64. The Fire Code of the Philippines is also known as:
A. PD 1185
B. RA 9514
C. PD 1613
D. RA 9495
65. The use of force or the fear of force to achieve a political
end is called
A. Political terrorists
B. Nationalist Terrorists
C. Terrorism
D. Socialist terrorists
1. The traffic law enforcement is performed
bythe court through Prosecution, Adjudication
and Penalization of cases.
a. Court TrafficLaw Enforcement
b. Police Traffic Law Enforcement
c. Enforcement System
d. Road Users System A
2. Theenforcement of traffic laws
deterrent to law violators, special assistance
toprosecutors and courts and incidental
service to highway users.
a. Court Traffic Law Enforcement
b.Road User System
c. E.O. 266 Enforcement
System d. Police Traffic Law
Enforcement D
3. The Systemspecifies correct and
incorrect road user behavior.
a. Road Users System
b. Road System
c.
EnforcementSystem
d. Court System C
4. If the plate number of a motor vehicle
isAVC 536, what week of the month should it
be registered?
a.
1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th A
5. If a driver is involved in a trafficaccident,
he must report to the nearest police station.
a. within 48 hours
b.within 72 hours
c. at once
d. after 3 hours C
What is the most common traffic
violationcommitted by road users?
a. overloading
b. expired license
c. illegal parking
d. intoxicated driver C
7. This element includes pedestrians,
pedalcyclist, drivers, passengers and others
a. Enforcement System
b. Road users Systems
c. Road System
d. Court System B
8. On a highway, a traffic sigh reads 80 kph
asthe maximum speed. While the area isvery
foggy, a man
Drivers on 80 Kph. If you are a
trafficpatrol officer assigned at the area, you
may apprehend the driver
For:
a. Overspeeding
b. underspeeding
c. reckless driving
d. failure to slow down C
9. As a general rule, you should overtake on
theleft side, except when:
a. the coming traffic is free from
anyobstruction
b. the opposite traffic is free
fromoncoming motor vehicles
c.traversing on a two-way lane highway
d. cruising along a four lane two way
traffic way.
10.Which of the following is a safe place for
overtaking? D
a. commercial places b. expressway c.
ruralhighways d. dry paved
11John was issued with a new professional
drivers license on March 16,2005. when should
john renewhis
License?
a. March 16,
2006
b. March 16, 2007
c. March 16
2008
d. March 16, 2009 C
12.Parking is allowed in the following places,
except:
a. within an intersection.
b. ona one-way street.
c. none of these
d. on a two-way street A
13.Many traffic congestion are caused by slow
drivers or poor driving habits,pedestrian
mistakes, officers errors, poor planning, poor
legislation.
a.physical inadequacy
b. poor control measures
c. human errors
d. poor maintenance C
14. Joe was issued a studentdrivers permit on
January 25, 2009. when can he be qualified to
apply for Non-professionaldrivers license?
a. after June
25,2009
b. on orafter June 25, 2009
c. after May
25,2009
d. after February 25,2009. D
15. Empowering the LandTransportation
Commission to control and supervise the
operations of motorvehicle driving schools.
a. E. O. 202
b. E. O. 248
c. E.O.
266
d. E. O. 125 B
The color of the background for regulatory sign
is-
a. blue
b.green
c. yellow
d. white D
17.The color of the traffic light which is on
after the green light is-
a. amber
b. red
c. brown
d. green A
18.From the bottom, what is the arrangement
of color of the traffic light?
a. red, yellow, green
b. green, red, yellow
c. green, yellow, red
d. red, green, yellowC
19.The double solid white line-
a. doesn’t allow lane changing
b. allows lane changing
c. allows overtaking
d. allows parking A
20. What Memorandum Circular, Clarificatory
guidelines for theregistration/operation of new
private vehicles particularly in the use
ofconduction sticker?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-011.
b. MemorandumCircular 94-002
c. Memorandum Circular 90-
020. d. Memorandum Circular
94-209 D
When the vehicle in the collision are damaged,
the photograph should emphasizethe-
a. the direction of the motor
vehicles b.the general
view of the road or intersection
c. close-up view of the
damage d. none of the
above C
22.This area is composed of the entire road
and vehicles complex, as well as alltraffic
rules and regulations
a. Road System
b.Enforcement System
c. Court System
d. Road User System A
23. What Memorandum Circular, Sanctions on
operators arising from theviolations of their
drivers.?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-
011. b. Memorandum Circular
94-209
c. Memorandum Circular 90-
020. d. Memorandum Circular
94-002 D
24.Means of transportation balanced on one
shoulder is a popular carrying device.
a. manpower
b. carrying pole
c. back load
d. sledge on rollers B
25.How should a driver approach an
intersection?
a. be at the right of way
b. give a signal
c. be at full stop
d. overtake other vehiclesB
Means of transportation the load is held on the
back by a strap passing overthe chest.
a. manpower
b.carrying pole
c. back load
d. sledge on rollers C
27. What Memorandum Circular, Enjoining all
public utility operators to usegarage instead of
public places or side streets in parking their
vehicles?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-
011. b. Memorandum Circular
94-209
c. Memorandum Circular 90-
020. d. Memorandum Circular
94-002 A
28. What Memorandum Circular, Directing all
public land transportationservice operators
and drivers to display in any conspicuous
place of theirvehicles the authorized fare
matrix for the specific route granted them
toavoid conflict?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-
011. b. Memorandum Circular
94-209
c. MemorandumCircular 90-
020. d. Memorandum Circular
94-002 C
29.What is that movement of persons, goods
and vehicles either powered by animalor are
animal-drawn vehicles on by combustion
system from one place to another?
a. engineering
b. Traffic management
c. traffic
d. construction C
30.What traffic formation facilities safe
movement of vehicles and pedestrian intraffic?
a. Traffic Control
b. Management
c. supervision d.
enforcement d. construction A
What Memorandum Circular, Issuance of
driver’s license to disabledpersons?
a. Memorandum Circular 93-
011. b. Memorandum Circular 94-
002
c. Memorandum Circular 90-
020. d. Memorandum
Circular 94-188 D
32.What is the proof that one is given
permission by the Land transportationOffice
(LTO) to operate a
Vehicles on public highways?
a. driver’s ID
b. franchise
c. driver’s license
d. operator’s license C
33.What is the traffic engineering system that
employs prescribed traffic rulesand
regulations and devices
Such as signals, and markings, to
relievevehicular congestion and to promote
safety and pedestrian
Mobility?
a. traffic direction
b.traffic engineering
c. traffic control
d. traffic rules and regulations C
34. What P.D. Declaring thesyndicated printing,
manufacture, distribution, possession or use of
fakeofficial Bureau of Land Transportation
form, documents, plates and stickers
asoffenses involving economics sabotage
a. P.D. No.
1730
b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D.
98
d. P.D. 1729 A
35. What P.D. Requiring compulsory
insurance for all typesof Motor Vehicles
against third party liability as an additional
prerequisitefor registration by the LTO
a. P.D. No.
612
b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D.
98
d. P.D. 1729 A
What P.D. Imposing a tax on every motor
vehicleequipped with air conditioner
a. P.D. No.
1686
b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D.
98
d. P.D. 1729 A
37.What is that point or place where two or
more, either single or double ormulti-lanes
certainly meet at a
Point?
a. parallel
b. corner
c. intersection
d. crossfire C
38. What P.D. Providing for the abatement of
air pollutionfrom motor vehicles and for other
purposes?
a. P.D. No.
1181
b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D.
98
d. P.D. 1729 A
39. What P.D. Granting theMetropolitan Manila
Commission certain powers related to traffic
Management andcontrol in Metropolitan Manila
providing penalties, and for other purposes?
a. P.D. No. 1605
b. P.D. 1506
c. P.D.
98
d. P.D. 1729 A
40. What P.D. Regulating the issuance of
licenseplates of all motor vehicles?
a. P.D. No. 1605
b. P.D. 1506
c. P.D.
98
d. P.D. 1729 C
What is the general rule for the movement of
vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
a. ‘keep to the left
b. “keep to the right“
b. None of these
d. “watch out” B
42. What Executive OrderCreating the Land
Transportation Franchising and Regulatory
Board ( LTFRB)?
a. E. O.
202
b. E. O. 248
c. E.O.
266
d. E. O. 125 A
43. What Executive Order Reorganizing the
DOTC,defining its powers and functions and for
other purposes?
a. E. O.
202
b. E. O. 248
c. E.O.
266
d. E. O. 125 D
44.The conveying of persons, goods and things
from one place to another isreferred to as-
a. Transportations
b. traffic
b. Traffic management
d. a and b arecorrect A
45. What Letter of Instruction, Prohibiting
freight and cargo trucksfrom using roads,
highways and bridges whose load capacities
are in excess ofspecific allowable limits?
a. Letter of Instruction No.
112 b.
Letter of Instruction No. 551
b. Letter of Instruction No.
229 d.
Letter ofInstruction No. 716 A
The application of the processes of planning,
organizing, directing andcontrolling to traffic
affairs is
Referred to as-
a. traffic administration
b. traffic management
c. traffic operation
d. traffic supervision B
47.What is the slang term used in referring a
narrow portion of the roadway due totraffic
congestion or
Where “to build Up” usually occurs?
a. gridlock
b.congestion
c. traffic jam
d. bottleneck D
48.R.A. 8750 is otherwise known as-
a. clean air act
b. Philippine Land
TransportationCode
c. seatbelt law
d.anti-car napping act C
49. . What Letter ofInstruction, Directing the
law enforcement agencies to implement the
PollutionControl Program?
a. Letter of Instruction No.
112 b.Letter
of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No.
229 d. Letter
of Instruction No. 716 B
50.If the plate number of the motor vehicle is
top 688, what month should it beregistered?
a. January
b. March
c. August
d.September C
It refers to the movement of persons, goods
and vehicle either powered byanimals by
animals or
Animal-drawn vehicles or by
combustionsystem from one place to another
for purpose of save travel?
a. traffic management
b. traffic
c. traffic engineering
d. trafficenforcement B
52.This is belong to the 5’ E Pillars of Traffic
Management, it refers to theprocess of giving
training and
Travel and practice in the actual
application of trafficsafety knowledge.
a. traffic enforcement
b. traffic education
c. traffic engineering
d. traffic economicsB
53. What is Letter ofInstruction No.______
Prohibiting freight and cargo trucks from using
roads,highways and bridges whose load
capacities are in excess of specific
allowablelimits?
a. Letter of Instruction No.
112 b. Letter of
Instruction No.551
c. Letter of Instruction No.
229 d. Letter of
Instruction No.716 A
54.This is belong to the 5’ E Pillars of Traffic
Management, it refers to thescience of
measuring traffic and
Travel?
a. traffic enforcement
b. traffic education
c. traffic engineering
d. traffic economics C
55. This is belong to the 5’E Pillars of Traffic
Management, it is the study dealing with
potentiallydisastrous
disastrous population explosions.
Changesin urban environment due to scale.
a. traffic enforcement
b. traffic education
c. ecology or environment
d. traffic economics C
What LTC MemorandumCircular No.
______,dated 12 September 1972. Providing
guidelines in the apprehension ofillegally
parked motor vehicles?
a. LTC M.C. No. 33,
b. LTC M.C. No. 15,
c. LTC M.C. 92-146
d.LTC M.C. 94-199 A
57. What LTC MemorandumCircular
No.______,dated 19 January 1972. Regulating
and laying instructions in the use ofSpecial
Commemorative Motor Vehicle Plates?
a. LTC M.C. No.
15
b. LTC M.C. No. 18,
c. LTC M.C. 92-146
d. LTC M.C. 94-199 A
58. This study is centered inthe urban
environment which was change because the
scale and density of the
New urban concentrations and the
natureof the new activities carried out there.
a. DPWH
b. traffic education
c. traffic ecology and
environment
d.Public works / engineering offices C
59. It is device mounted oron a portable
support where a message is conveyed by
means of words or
Symbols officially erected or
installedfor the purpose of regulating, warning
or guiding traffic.
a. DPWH
b. traffic education
c. traffic ecology and
environment d.
traffic signs D
60. It define as a signaloperated manually,
electrically by which traffic is alternatively
commanded tostop
And permitted to proceed.
a.DPWH
b. traffic education
c. traffic light signals
d. traffic signs C
This were the areaswithin the roadway
constructed in a manner to establish physical
channels through
Which vehicular traffic guided.
a. DPWH
b. traffic education
c. traffic light signals
d. traffic island D
62. What is Letter ofInstruction, Requiring all
motor vehicles owners,users, or drivers to
have in their possession at all times while
driving atleast one (1) pair of every warning
device ( EWD ) for use when the vehicle
isdisabled on roads, streets and highways or
other emergencies compelling thevehicle to be
on stop position?
a. Letter of Instruction No.
112 b. Letter
of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No.
229 d. Letter
of Instruction No. 716 C
63. It is represented by 3 color, red, yellow,
green.
a. saturation flow
b. traffic signal
c. traffic light signals
d. traffic island B
64 What is Letter of Instruction,Every motor
vehicle to equip at least a pair of early warning
device?
a. Letter of Instruction No.
112 b. Letter
of Instruction No. 551
c. Letter of Instruction No.
229 d.Letter of
Instruction No. 716 D
65. It belong to the trafficsignal that permit
the driver to proceed into the intersection, but
requiresthat the intersection furthest
crosswalk be cleared before the red
lightappears
a. saturation flow
b red
c. yellow or amber
d. green C
What Executive Order Providing for two
service units in the Office of the Asst.Sec. for
Land Transportation in the DOTC( Law
Enforcement Services and TrafficAdjudication
Services), defining the powers and functions
thereof and for otherpurposes?
a. E. O. 202
b. E. O. 248
c. E.O.
266
d. E. O. 125 C
67. It coordinated with thered signal and the
green signal. A flashing pedestrian signal
indicates theyellow (amber) as warning period.
a. green
b red
c. yellow or amber
d. pedestrian signal D
68. What Presidential DegreeRegulating the
use of sirens, bells, hors, etc.,, by prohibiting
the attachmentof any siren, horn bell, etc. on
motor vehicles which produce unusual
orstarting sounds as well as brinkers and other
similar devices unless thevehicle belongs to
the AFP, NBI, LTO, PNP, BJMP, Hospitals and
Fire Departmentand are specifically intended
for use in emergencies.
a. P.D. No.
96.
b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D.
98
d. P.D. 1729 A
69. It is created when anytwo or more signals
or any traffic routes or roadway are
coordinated with afixed time relationships
among the several intervals.
a. signal system
b timing
c. yellow or amber
d. pedestrian signal A
70. It is complete electricaltiming mechanism
mounted on a cabinet with control operation.
a. signal system
bTraffic signal control
c. yellow or amber
d. pedestrian signal B
71. What R.A. thebasic law regulating land
transportation in the Philippines?
a. R.A.
4136
b. R.A. 5448
c. R.A. 6539
d. R.A 8749 A
72.What R.A. which is knownas the “ Anti
Carnapping Act of 1972” The act preventing
and penalizingcarnapping?
a. R.A. 4136
b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539
d. R.A 8749 C
73. What R.A. imposing a tax on privately
owned passengerautomobiles, motorcycles
and scooters?
a. R.A. 4136
b. R.A. 5448
c. R.A. 6539
d.R.A 8749 B
74. What R.A. Also known asthe “ Clean air Act
which regulates emission of toxic gases of
both gasolineand diesel engines?
a. R.A. 4136
b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539
d. R.A 8749 D
75. What R.A. It provides forthe attachment of
seat belts for all types of motor vehicles and
imposespenalty for the non-compliance
thereof?
a. R.A. 4136
b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539
d. R.A . 8750 D
What R.A. The Actcreating the Metropolitan
Manila Development Authority, defining its
powers and functions, providingfunds
therefore and for other purposes?
a. R.A. 4136
b. R.A.5448
c. R.A. 6539
d. R.A . 7924 D
77. A condition on thetraffic way characterized
by slow movement of roadway users due to
theovercrowding of motor vehicles,
pedestrians and other road users.
a. traffic enforcement
b. traffic congestion
c. traffic engineering
d.traffic economics B
78. It refers to reduced riskof accident or
injury on the roads, achieved through
multidisciplinaryapproaches involving road
engineering, and traffic management ,
education andtraining of road users, and
vehicle design.
a. traffic enforcement
b. roadsafety
c. traffic engineering
d. traffic economics B
79. This is means of havingtraffic violators
appears in court with out physical arrest.
a. Traffic
Citation
b.Traffic Warning
c. Reprimand
d. Traffic Arrest A
80. The court after dueprocess imposes the
penalty upon the accused if found guilty
a. Penalization
b Detection
c. Prosecution
d.Apprehension A
An elevated orunderground structure built for
the safety of the pedestrians in crossing
busyhighways?
a. median barriers
b Pedestrian over/underpass
c. offset
d.guardrail B
82. What P.D. Expediting the methods of
prescribing,redefining or modifying the lines
and modes of operations of public utilitymotor
vehicles in the Philippines?
a. P.D. No. 101
b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D.
98
d. P.D. 1729 A
83. What P.D. Declaring as part of the laws
of the Philippines theviennaConvention on
Road Traffic Signs and Signals?
a. P.D. No.
207
b. P.D. 1605
c. P.D.
98
d. P.D. 1729 A
84. It is used to increasevisibility of traffic way
at night?
a. median barriers
b street light
c. Fence
d. drainage B
85. It is an enforcementaction which consists
of taking a person into custody for the purpose
ofholding or detaining him to answer a charge
of law violation before a court.
a. Traffic Arrest
b Traffic Citation
c. Traffic Warning
d.Reprimand A
It is highlyunsystematic, this is usually carried
out in the home through parentaleducation and
in kindergarten and day nurseries.
a. noise barriers
b traffic safety for children
c. Fence
d.drainage B
87. It is safety educationfor elder pedestrians
and drivers is relatively easier compared to
theeducation designed for younger children?
a. traffic safety for adults
b traffic safety forchildren
c. Fence
d.drainage A
88. In general driverinstruction aims primarily
to teach the rudiments of driving.
a. traffic safety for adults
btraffic safety for children
c. driver’s education
dLTO C
89. Who administrate theissuance of driver’s
license?
a. traffic safety for adults
b LTO
c. driver’s
education
d traffic safety for children B
90. It is under the 2 generalclassification of
licenses, this license affords the holder
thereof theprivilege to make driving a means
of livelihood?
a. Professional Driver’s License
bLTO
c. driver’s
education
d traffic safety forchildren A
It is under the 2 generalclassification of
licenses, this license only entitles the holder
to drive hisown vehicles and not to earn a
livelihood.
a. Professional Driver’s License
b LTO
c. Non-Professional Driver’s
License dtraffic safety for children C
92. It is under the specialtype of license,
issued by the Phil. Motor’s Assn., the basis of
which is thelocal license.
a. Professional Driver’s License
b LTO
c. International Driver’s
License d
traffic safety for children C
93. It is under the specialtype of license,
issued by the PNP / AFP to police or military
personnel andauthorized the holder to thereof,
to drive only police or military vehicles?
a. Government or Police Driver’s
License b LTO
c. International Driver’s
License
d traffic safety for children A
94. This license issued to aperson who is 16
years old of age and valid for one year?
a. Government or Police Driver’s
License b Student’s Driver’s
Permit
c. International Driver’s
License d
traffic safetyfor children B
95. What is Letter ofInstruction NO.______
Owners and/oroperators of motor vehicles are
authorized to pay the annual premiums for
theinsurance of their motor annual premiums
for the insurance of their motorvehicles on
quarterly
a. Letter of Instruction No.
112 b.Letter of
Instruction No. 1071
c. Letter of Instruction No.
229 d. Letter
of Instruction No. 716 B
It refers to executivefunctions such as
planning, organizing, directing, supervising,
coordinating,operating, recording, and
budgeting traffic affairs?
a. traffic management
b. traffic
c. traffic engineering
d. traffic enforcement A
97. What is Letter of Instruction NO._______
Providing for the removal of all impedimentson
roads, streets and highways such as
constructions, stalled or parkedvehicles and
other movables property that obstruct free
passage?
a. Letter of Instruction No.
112 b.Letter
of Instruction No. 43
c. Letter of Instruction No.
229 d. Letter
of Instruction No. 716 B
98. The step that determinesthe guilt or
innocent of the accused.
a.
Prosecution
b. Adjudication
c.
Detection
d. Apprehension B
99. It is also a whole police function which
involves the actualtaking of enforcement
actions.
a.
Detection
b. Apprehension
c.
Prosecution
d. Adjudication B
100. A whole policeresponsibility that entails
looking for defects in the behavior of
motorist,pedestrians, vehicle, equipment and
roadway condition.
a. Detection
b. Apprehension
c.
Prosecution
d. Adjudication A
An extra judicial confession obtained from
a suspect is admissible in a court of law
if it was made in the presence of a
counsel of his own choice and must be in
the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the
control and supervision of the
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local
Government
C. Supreme Court
D. Department of Justice
D
3. The questioning of a person in a formal
and systematic way and is most often used
to question criminal suspects to
determine their probable guilt or
innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation
D
4. A form of investigation in which the
investigator assume a different and
unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
D
5. A type of surveillance in which extreme
precautions and actions are taken in not
losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
6. A type of shadowing employed when a
general impression of the subject’s habits and
associates is required.
A. loose tail
B.
C. casing
D.
C. pony tail
E. close tail
F.
7. A surveillance activity for the purpose
of waiting the anticipated arrival of a suspect
or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B.
C. Tailing
D.
C. Stake out
E. Espionage
F.
8. An examination of an individual’s
person, houses, or effects or a building, or
premises with the purpose of discovering
contrabands or personal properties connected
in a crime.
A. Search
B.
C. Raid
D.
C. Investigation
E. Seizure
F.
9. A kind of evidence that tends to prove
additional evidence of a different character to
the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B.
C. Circumstantial evidence
D.
C. Direct evidence
E. Real evidence
F.
10. The process of bringing together in a
logical manner all evidence collected during
the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B.
C. order maintenance
D.
C. crime prevention
E. public service
F.
Ways and means are resorted for the purpose
of trapping and capturing the law breaker
during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B.
C. Inducement
D.
C. Buy bust operation
E. Entrapment
F.
D
12. A special qualification for an undercover
agent.
A. excellent built
B.
C. excellent eyesight
D.
C. excellent looks
E. excellent memory
F.
13. The discreet observation of places,
persons and vehicles for the purpose of
obtaining information concerning the identities
or activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B.
C. espionage
D.
C. tailing
E. surveillance
F.
14. The questioning of a person by law
enforcement officers after that person has
been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B.
C. interrogation
D.
C. custodial investigation
E. cross examination
F.
15. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can
be served at
A. day time
B.
C. night time
D.
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
E. weekdays
F.
Measures through which police seek to detect
crimes, or attempts to be present when
they are committed, through the use of
the undercover agents, electronic devices
for wiretapping or bugging, and
stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
17. A police activity directed toward the
identification and apprehension of
alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of
evidence regarding their alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
18. An extension or continuation of the
preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B. custodial investigation
C. secondary investigation
D. follow-up investigation
D
19. To obtain admission and confession of
guilt is the primary purpose of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D. Interrogation
20. Such facts and circumstances that would
lead a reasonably discreet and prudent
man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in
connection with the offense are in the
place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D. res ipsa loquitur
A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days
from its date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B.
C. 15
D.
C. 30
E. 45
F.
22. It means that a specific crime was
committed at a specified time, date and place,
and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B.
C. sufficiency of evidence
D.
C. stare decisis
E. parens patriae
F.
23. Police seek to prevent crime by being
present in places where crimes might be
committed and by alerting citizens to refrain
from practices that make them or their
property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
B.
C. order maintenance
D.
C. criminal investigation
E. police intelligence
F.
24. A statement of the suspect directly
acknowledging his guilt.
A. Admission
B.
C. Confession
D.
C. Deposition
E. Accusation
F.
B
25. It may be a direct acknowledgement of
the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of
some essential part of the commission of the
criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B.
C. Confession
D.
C. Deposition
E. Accusation
F.
It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the
subject falling short of an acknowledgement of
guilt.
A. Admission
B.
C. Confession
D.
C. Deposition
E. Accusation
F.
A
27. The simplest type of interview which
concerns with the gathering of information
regarding the personal circumstances of a
person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B.
C. personal interview
D.
C. intimate interview
E. pre-game interview
F.
28. It means method of operation.
A. corpus delicti
B.
C. parens patriae
D.
C. stare decisis
E. modus operandi
F.
29. It is one which induces the criminal to
act and need not be shown in order to obtain
conviction.
A. Intent
B.
C. Motive
D.
C. Opportunity
E. Inducement
F.
30. The three tools in criminal investigation,
whereby their application varies in proportion
on their necessity to establish the guilt of the
accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation,
instrumentation
B.
C. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
D.
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
E. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
F.
The simple questioning of a person who is
cooperating in the investigation.
A. Interview
B.
C. Inquiry
D.
C. Interrogation
E. Instrumentation
F.
32. It involves a number of persons who
might have handled evidence between the
time of the commission of the alleged offense
and the disposition of the case, should be kept
to a minimum.
A. chain of command
B.
C. chain of custody
D.
C. evidence tracking
E. tracing evidence
F.
33. A kind of evidence which may link the
suspect to the crime scene or offense.
Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood
etc.
A. physical evidence
B.
C. associative evidence
D.
C. tracing evidence
E. factual evidence
F.
34. Articles and materials which are found in
connection with an investigation and which
help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which
the crime was committed or which in general,
assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
A. physical evidence
B.
C. documentary evidence
D.
C. tracing evidence
E. testimonial evidence
F.
35. The following are different techniques in
interrogation except one:
A. sympathetic approach
B.
C. emotional appeal
D.
C. financial assistance
E. friendliness
F.
C
This may be applicable to a crime scene
which is approximately circular or oval. The
searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B.
C. wheel method
D.
C. spiral method
E. zone method
F.
37. The area to be searched is divided into
quadrants and each searcher is assigned to
one quadrant.
A. strip method
B.
C. wheel method
D.
C. spiral method
E. zone method
F.
38. The searchers follow each other in the
path of a crime scene beginning in the outside
and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B.
C. wheel method
D.
C. spiral method
E. zone method
F.
39. A kind of gathering information whereby
a subject is being followed.
A. Convoy
B.
C. Caravan
D.
C. Tailing
E. Surveillance
F.
40. Another term for tailing.
A. Impersonating
B.
C. Backing
D.
C. Supporting
E. Shadowing
F.
A person who gives necessary information to
the investigator. He may give the
information openly and even offer to be a
witness or he may inform the investigator
surreptitiously and request to remain
anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
The use of an equipment or tool to listen and
record discreetly conversations of other
people.
A. Bugging
B.
C. Dubbing
D.
C. Mimicking
E. Tapping
F.
43. The questioning of persons not
suspected of being involved in a crime, but
who knows about the crime or individuals
involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B.
C. rumor mongering
D.
C. interview
E. inquiry
F.
44. An objective of criminal investigation.
A. determine the motive
B.
C. identify criminals
D.
C. rehabilitate criminals
E. prevent crimes
F.
45. A term used to describe a transition
which occur in the development of a fire,
when, for example, most of all the combustible
surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B.
C. Ignition
D.
C. Flash over
E. Starter
F.
A term of the start of the combustion, its
detailed process of a solid is very
complicated, since the proportion of
different flammable vapours varies from
one material to another and contact with
oxygen must take place before combustion
can begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
47. The term describes the transfer of heat
through a gas or vacuum in a similar way
to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
48. The transfer of heat within a solid
material from hotter to cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
49. The greatest concern of the firemen at
the fire/crime scene is to
A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. phot opportunity in the fire/crime scene
50. Most malicious fires are set by
individuals secretly; it is either set
for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set
by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual
gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
The primary course of action in case of a
fire.
A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
52. The main product of the combustion of
carbon. It is not poisonous but is an
asphyxiant which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
53. A normal product of combustion, and is
poisonous, especially when the air supply
to the fire is restricted.
54. The fire resisting property of structural
elements and the behavior of a building
material in a fire, it is used to predict
how long it will resist the effect of a
fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
55. A type of fire that is the result of the
combustion of certain metals in finely
divided forms; magnesium, potassium,
zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
A type of fire which results from burning of
wood, paper, textiles, and other
carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment
of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
57. The following are components of fire
except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
A
58. It is observed in structural fires and
can be an indicator of the fire travel
and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
59. A pattern or network of fine, irregular
lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring
60. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay
the start of the fire and allow him to
establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
It can be readily identified by their
distinctive odors, and the most common
examples are gasoline, turpentine and
kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
62. This catalytic combustion device is the
most common means employed to detect
flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
63. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to
start a fire and experience
gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
64. It is known as the “Fire Code of the
Philippines.”
A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185
65. Any material or mixture consisting of a
fuel and oxidizer used to set off
explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
These are description of materials or
compounds that are easily set on fire
except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
B
67. Any material having a flash point at or
above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree
Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
68. Any liquid that causes fire when in
contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
69. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed
by the passage of an electric current
across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
70. The active principle of burning,
characterized by the heat and light
combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
71. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and
gasses.
A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
72. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a
liquid or a gas where fluid at one
temperature and density moves under the
influence of gravity at different
temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
73. The temperature at which a liquid is
transformed or converted to vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
74. The first action taken by a traffic unit
to escape from a collision course or to
avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position
75. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians
in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
76. A method of locating a spot in the area
by measurements from two or more
reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C. triangulation
D. accident investigation
77. The force that tends to pull all objects
to the center of the earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
78. Any motor vehicle accident that results
in no death, but only injuries to one or
more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
B
79. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code
of the Philippines”
A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136
80. An occurrence in a sequence of events,
which usually produces unintended injury,
death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
81. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a
traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
82. An order wherein a violator is commanded
to appear in court, but without detaining
him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. traffic violation
83. The first accidental touching of an
object collision course or otherwise
avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
84. The following are the three E’s of
Traffic Management and Operation except
one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
85. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of
2002.”
A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195
86. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration,
varying emotional change, thought
disruption and ego distortion. They are
called psyhedelics.
A. Tranquillisers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants
87. Drugs which produce insensibility,
stupor, melancholy or dullness of the
mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
88. The practice or profession of having
sexual intercourse for money or profit.
A. Gynaecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
B
89. The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
cannabis sativa L
Papaver somniforum
deoxyribonucleic acid
methamphetamine HCl
90. The original components of heroin and
morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
91. An inter department agency that enforce
and carry out the law against illegal
drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration
92. A harmful conduct or habit, the
indulgence of which leads to depravity,
wickedness and corruption of the mind and
body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
A
93. The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
94. It is chemically known as methamphetamine
hydro chloride.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these
D
95. A derivative of opium which is used a
cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
96. Any part of the plant of the papaver
somniferum, including the seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine
97. Another term for psychological drug
addiction.
A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
98. Commercially produced drugs that can be
legally sold or dispensed only by a
physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs
99. Any chemical substance that by virtue of
its chemical nature alters the structure
and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step
for obtaining information to determine
the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects
C