OBSTETRIC NURSING (Post Test)
Prof. Niña Sabardan, RN
Situation: Women and their partners who are planning on childbearing may be especially curious about
reproductive physiology and the changes a pregnant woman will undergo during pregnancy, so this is an
opportune time to educate both partners about reproductive health.
1. Which hormone is not responsible for differentiation of male reproductive organs during fetal life?
a. Mullerian duct inhibitor (MDI)
b. Dyhydrotestosterone
c. Dehydroepiandosterone sulfate
d. Testosterone
2. Juanito visits the clinic and is told that his sperm count is normal. A normal sperm count ranges from:
a. 20 to 100/ml
b. 100,000 to 200, 000/ml
c. 100 to 200/ml
d. 20 to 100 million/ml
3. The number of chromosomes found in each sperm is:
a. 46
b. 23
c. 22
d. 44
4. If the ovum is to be fertilized, where is the common site of fertilization?
a. Uterine wall
b. Fimbriae
c. Ampulla of the fallopian tube
d. Isthmus of the fallopian tube
5. The uterine wall consists of 3 separate coats or layers of tissue. Which of the following layers is responsible
for limiting the blood loss in a woman after childbirth?
a. Endometrium
b. Myometrium
c. Perimetrium
d. Endothelium
6. Cervical mucus becomes more elastic and penetrable, thus making a more receptive environment for
spermatozoa due to the occurrence of spinnbarkeit and ferning. This conidition is caused bby one of these
hormone:
a. Testosterone
b. Estrogen
c. Glycogen
d. Progesterone
7. In women, during sexual activity vasocongestion causes the clitoris to increase in size and mucoid fluid to
appear on vaginal wall. This happens in what stage of the sexual response cycle.
a. Excitement
b. Plateau
c. Orgasm
d. Resolution
8. A nurse is discussing sexual arousal during a preadolescent boys’ sex education class. Which of the
following should the nurse base her reply on when a boy asks, “What exactly happens when my body gets
aroused, anyway?”
a. The vas deferens thickens and expands
b. The sympathetic nerves of the penis are stimulated
c. The corpora of the penis become engorged
d. The prepuce of the penis elongates
9. When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse observes a red, swollen area on the left side of the
client’s urinary meatus. The nurse documents this as enlargement of which of the following?
a. Clitoris
b. Parotid gland
c. Skene’s gland
d. Bartholin’s gland
10. The main blood supply of the uterus comes from the:
a. Internal iliac artery
b. Aorta
c. Renal artery
d. Ovarian artery
Situation: Female reproductive cycle is the episodic uterine bleeding in response to cyclic hormonal changes.
The purpose of menstrual cycle is to bring an ovum to maturity and renew tissue bed that will be responsible
for the ova’s growth should it be fertilized.
11. Irregularities on the length of menstrual cycle are due to variations in the number of days in which of the
following phase?
a. Proliferative phase
b. Luteal phase
c. Ischemic phase
d. Secretory phase
12. During which of the following phase of the menstrual cycle it is ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg to
occur?
a. Ischemic phase
b. Secretory phase
c. Menstrual phase
d. Proliferative phase
13. Menstruation occurs because of which following mechanism?
a. Increase level of estrogen and progesterone
b. Degeneration of the corpus luteum
c. Increase vascularity of the endothelium
d. Surge of hormone progesterone
14. It is day 21 of a woman’s menstrual cycle. She is complaining of breast tenderness and pain in her lower
left quadrant. The woman states that her cycle is usually 35 days long. Which of the following is an
appropriate reply by the nurse?
a. “You are probably ovulating.”
b. “Your hormone levels should be checked.”
c. “You will probably menstruate early.”
d. “Your breast changes are a worrisome sign.”
15. A client complaining of secondary amenorrhea is seeking care from her gynecologist. Which of the
following may have contributed to her problem?
a. Athletic activities
b. Vaccination history
c. Pet ownership
d. Genetic history
16. When a nurse teaching a woman about her menstrual cycle she mentions that which of the following is the
most important change that happens during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?
a. Maturation of the graafian follicle
b. Multiplication of the fimbriae
c. Secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin
d. Proliferation of the endometrium
17. During the menstrual phase, what layer of the endometrium sloughs off?
a. Stratum basalis
b. Stratum functionalis
c. Stratum compactum
d. Myometrium
18. Which menstrual history would suggest that calculating the due date by the date of the last menstrual period
might be erroneous?
a. Interval every 28 days, length 5 days, flow heavy on first 2 days
b. Interval 24-26 days, length 3 to 5 days, flow moderate
c. Interval 15-45 days, length 2 to 3 days, flow light
d. Interval every 28 to 32 days, length 3 days, flows heavy
19. Nurse Ana is preparing her health teaching about menstruation for an adolescent group. She should
anticipate questions to be raised by the group, which includes the amount of menstrual flow. She is correct
if she will answer:
a. 30-80 ml
b. 90-100 ml
c. 120-200 ml
d. 300-500 ml
20. What is the reason why menstrual cycle is cyclic?
a. Because the release of FSH is cyclic
b. Because the release of LH is cyclic
c. Because the release of GnRH is cyclic
d. Because of the physiology of the uterus
Situation: One of the responsibilities of a nurse in fertility specialist’s office is to provide health teaching to
the patient in relation to timing of intercourse to achieve pregnancy.
21. Which instruction to the patient addresses the BEST time to achieve pregnancy?
a. 14 days before the next period is expected
b. Immediately after menses end
c. Midway between periods
d. 14 days after the beginning of the last period
22. With regards to sexual functioning, the nurse explained the ovulation occurs on which of the following
conditions?
a. HCG level is high
b. LH level is high
c. Oxytocin level is high
d. Progesterone level is high
23. After ovulation has occurred, the nurse teaches women in the fertility clinic that the ovum is thought to
remain viable for how many hours?
a. 24 to 36
b. 12 to 18
c. 48 to 72
d. 1 to 6
24. When teaching client to determine the time of ovulation by taking the basal temperature, the nurse explains
that the change in the basal temperature during ovulation is shown in which of the following observations?
The temperature ________.
a. Drops markedly and remains lower
b. Rises markedly and remains high
c. Drops slightly and then rises again
d. Rises suddenly and then falls down
25. In response to a client’s question on the chief function of progesterone, which of the following would be
the CORRECT answer? It __________.
a. Stimulates the follicles for ovulation to occur
b. Established the secondary male sex characteristics
c. Prepares the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum
d. Develops the female reproductive organs
26. Which hormone stimulates oocyte maturation?
a. GnRH
b. FSHRH
c. LHRH
d. FSH
27. Which one suppresses LH production?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Anterior pituitary gland
c. Increased estrogen level
d. Increased progesterone level
28. To correctly determine the day of ovulation, the nurse:
a. Deduct 14 days at the mid of the cycle
b. Subtract two weeks at cycle’s end
c. Add 7 days from mid of the cycle
d. Add 14 days from the end of the cycle
29. How much iron is lost on the average during menstrual period?
a. 9 mg
b. 10 mg
c. 11 mg
d. 12 mg
30. If the menstrual cycle of a woman is 30-day cycle, she will approximately:
a. Ovulate on the 16th day with fertile days beginning on the 11th day to the 21st day of her cycle
b. Ovulate on the 16th day with fertile days beginning on the 16th day to the 21st day of her cycle
c. Ovulate on the 17th day with fertile days beginning on the 11th day to the 21st day of her cycle
d. Ovulate on the 17th day with fertile days beginning on the 17th day to the 32nd day of her cycle
Situation: Pre-embryonic stage starts from fertilization to implantation. From the fertilized ovum, both
future child and accessory structures needed for support during intrauterine life are formed.
31. After fertilization the fertilized ovum undergoes mitotic cell division. This structure attaches to the uterine
endometrium during implantation period:
a. Blastocyst
b. Trophoblast
c. Morula
d. Ovum
32. During a health teaching session, a pregnant client asks Nurse Jasper how soon the fertilized ovum
becomes implanted in the endometrium. Which answer should Nurse Jasper supply?
a. 8 days after fertilization
b. 14 days after fertilization
c. 21 days after fertilization
d. 28 days after fertilization
33. Nurse Ann is reviewing her concepts of the fetal growth and development. Which of the following
functions would you expect to be unrelated to the placenta?
a. Production of estrogen and progesterone
b. Detoxification of some drugs and chemicals
c. Exchange site for food, gases and waste
d. Production of maternal antibodies
34. Knowing the origins of the body structures from each germ layer is important. Which of the following is
correct body portions formed from the ectoderm?
a. Lower urinary system, lining of the peritoneal cavities, lining of the GIT
b. Bones, cartilages, reproductive system
c. Skin, brain, sense organs
d. Circulatory system, blood cells, lymph vessels
35. The common normal site of nidation/implantation in the uterus is:
a. Upper uterine portion
b. Mid-uterine area
c. Lower uterine segment
d. Lower cervical segment
Situation: Following the moment of fertilization, the zygote, and later the embryo and fetus, continues with
active growth.
36. The cardinal function of decidua is:
a. Immune response
b. Production of hormone
c. Maintenance of pregnancy
d. None of the above
37. Mr. and Mrs. Santos visit the RHU and ask the nurse about the effects teratogens can have in future
pregnancies. Which statement is inaccurate concerning the effects of teratogens?
a. Teratogens are equally harmful to each fetal system throughout pregnancy
b. Fetal susceptibility to teratogens vary
c. Teratogens are not equal in terms of their toxicity or their ability to cause harm
d. The amount of teratogens and duration of exposure influence the extent of fetal damage that occurs
38. This is the substance present in maternal serum that is measured in detecting neural tube defects?
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Alpha-fetoprotein
d. LH
39. The average length of umbilical cord in human is:
a. 35 cm
b. 55 cm
c. 65 cm
d. 45 cm
40. Urinary excretion of HCG is maximal between which days of gestation?
a. 50-60 days
b. 40-50 days
c. 60-70 days
d. 30-40 days
41. The portion of the placenta overlying the blastocyst:
a. Decidua capsularis
b. Decidua vera
c. Decidua basalis
d. Decidua parietalis
42. O2 and CO2 are exchanged in the placenta through the process of:
a. Pinocytosis
b. Diffusion
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. Active transport
43. Protection of the fetus against the syphilis during the 1st trimester is attributed to:
a. Amniotic fluid
b. Langhan’s layer
c. Syncytiotrophoblast
d. Placenta
Situation: Several actions or procedures are helpful in detecting and documenting that the fetus is not only
growing but apparently healthy.
44. Family-centered nursing care for women and newborn focuses on which of the following?
a. Assisting individuals and families achieve their optimal health
b. Diagnosing and treating problems promptly
c. Preventing further complications from developing
d. Conducting nursing research to evaluate clinical skills
45. When reviewing the ethical dilemmas facing maternal and newborn nurses today, which of the following
has contributed to their complexity?
a. Limitation of available options
b. Support on viable action
c. Advancement in technology
d. Consistent desirable standards
46. A patient is 18 weeks pregnant, and the nurse is assisting the provider during her prenatal visit. She
overhears the provider tell the patient that the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level is a required prenatal test. The
nurse knows that this test:
a. Is not required, and the patient has a right to refuse it
b. Is required, because the patient is a high risk because of her age
c. Is a simple blood test, and all women get it between 15 and 18 weeks gestation
d. Is not required, but is often associated with false-negative results
47. Diane wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is normal. The correct response of Nurse is:
a. Twice
b. Thrice
c. Four times
d. 10-12 times
48. What is the primary reason an ultrasound is done in the first trimester?
a. Evaluate fetal structure
b. Measure amniotic fluid
c. Determine gender
d. Determine gestational age
49. Nurse Tsunade referred Diane to an obstetrician. At 8 months she was ordered for a contraction stress test
and the result is negative. Diane asked when she should be back for her next check-up?
a. Monthly
b. Within 24 hours
c. Within a week
d. Weekly for 2 weeks then monthly
50. Rhina is a primipara hospitalized due to preeclampsia. The doctor decided to perform NST. The nurse
should apply the fetal transducer over the fetus:
a. Chest
b. Back
c. Head
d. Buttocks
51. Rachel, a diabetic woman at 36 weeks gestation is scheduled for biophysical profile in order to:
a. Ascertain correct gestational age
b. Determine fetal lung maturity
c. Determine fetal well-being
d. Determine fetal size and obvious congenital anomaly
52. A physician has prescribed an ultrasound for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy and the client asks a
nurse about the procedure. The nurse tells the client that:
a. The procedure takes about 2 hours
b. It will be necessary to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water before the examination
c. Gel is spread over the abdomen, and the a round disk transducer will be moved over the abdomen to
obtain the picture
d. The probe that will be inserted into the vagina will be covered with a disposable cover and coated with
a gel
Situation: Jenny’s history reveals a pregnancy at age 15 that was terminated by elective abortion at 10 weeks,
birth of twin girls at 37 weeks, and a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks, 1 year ago. She is currently pregnant.
53. Analyzing these data, the nurse selects which of the following to describe her present gravidity and parity?
a. G5P2
b. G5P1
c. G4P2
d. G4P1
54. Which assessment finding provides data to confirm a pregnancy at 8-week gestation?
a. Fundal height
b. Auscultation of fetal heart tones
c. Abdominal ultrasound
d. Leopold’s maneuver
55. Which nursing intervention should be implemented to reduce a woman’s stress in the first trimester
regarding her feelings about mood swings, tingling, tender breasts, and fluctuating sexual desire?
a. Validate normalcy of emotional lability
b. Recommend high-protein, high-vitamin diet
c. Refer her to a psychologist counseling
d. Reinforce positive feelings about the pregnancy
56. A teaching plan to use in presenting information to parents about fetal development should include the fact
that the embryonic membrane closest to the uterine lining, and the first to form, is called the:
a. Amnion
b. Amniotic sac
c. Chorion
d. Mesoderm
57. A Jenny returns for a routine visit at 12 weeks of gestation. Which nursing assessment could the nurse use
to verify the estimated due date (EDD) and estimate uterine/fetal growth?
a. Leopold’s maneuver
b. Weight-gain pattern
c. Vital signs and fetal heart tones
d. Height of the fundus
58. Jannah is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The critical laboratory result for this client would be:
a. Oxygen saturation
b. Iron binding capacity
c. Blood typing
d. Serum calcium
59. Nurse Gina is aware that the most common condition found during the second-trimester of pregnancy is:
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Mastitis
d. Physiologic anemia
Situation: Nurse Mary is collecting data from a newly admitted patient, Mrs. Lamb, who is pregnant with
twins. She has a healthy 3-year-old child who was delivered at 38 weeks. She also revealed that she does not
have a history of abortion nor fetal demise. Her last menstrual period began February 7, 2017 and ended
February 12, 2017.
60. What is the GTPAL for Mrs. Lamb?
a. G=1, T=1, P= 1, A=0, L=1
b. G=2, T=0, P=0, A=0, L=1
c. G=3, T=2, P=0, A=0, L=1
d. G=2, T=1, P=0, A=0, L=1
61. What is the expected change in the hematologic system that occurs during the END of the first trimester of
pregnancy that Nurse Margie should recognize?
a. An increase in hematocrit
b. A decrease in WBCs
c. An increase in blood volume
d. A decrease in sedimentation rate
62. Mrs. Lamb asks about the functions of placenta. Which of the following items should Nurse Margie include
in the teaching plan?
(1) The placenta filters the fetal urine
(2) Fetal and maternal blood mix in the placenta to exchange nutrients
(3) The placenta filters the alcohol from the mother’s blood
(4) Substances are exchanged by the placenta without mixing the maternal and fetal blood.
(5) Fetal respiration, nutrition and excretion are carried out by the placenta.
a. 1,2,3
b. 4,5
c. 3,4,5
d. 1,2
63. Mrs. Lamb asks, “When will be my expected date of delivery (EDD)?” Based on her knowledge of
Naegele’s Rule, which should be the CORRECT answer of Nurse Margie?
a. November 14, 2017
b. October 14, 2017
c. October 19, 2017
d. November 19, 2017
64. Nurse Mary explained the chronological order of the growth and development of the fetus as it occurs in
pregnancy which is the following _________.
a. Ovum, zygote, morula, embryo, fetus, infant
b. Morula, zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant
c. Morula, ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
d. Zygote, ovum, morula, embryo, fetus, infant
Situation: Discomfort during labor can be minimized if a woman comes into labor informed about what is
happening and prepared with breathing exercises to use during contractions. In childbirth classes, therefore,
a woman learns about her body’s response in labor, the mechanisms involved in childbirth, and breathing
exercises she can use to aid in relaxation.
65. The following are natural childbirth procedures EXCEPT:
a. Lamaze method
b. Dick-Read method
c. Ritgen’s maneuver
d. Psychoprophylactic method
66. Which of the following best describes the effectiveness of childbirth education?
a. It provides expectant parents with knowledge and skills necessary to cope with pregnancy
b. It prepares expectant parents to be informed consumers of birthing attendants and facilities
c. It provides a long time for expectant parents to express their concerns and fears
d. It improves newborn health, parent-newborn bonding, and ability to cope with labor
67. A client, who is 8 weeks pregnant, tells the nurse, “We wanted a baby, but I am not sure this is the best
time.” The nurse would interpret the client is expressing feelings of which of the following?
a. Acceptance
b. Ambivalence
c. Apathy
d. Attachment
SITUATION: Herberta Pita is a 26 y.o. woman you admit to a birthing home. She’s been having contractions
45 seconds long and 3 minutes interval for the last 6 hours. She tells you she never have her baby “natural”
without any analgesia or anesthesia. Her husband is in the Army assigned overseas, so he is not with her.
Although her sister lives only two blocks from her house, Herberta doesn’t want her called. She asks if she
can talk to her mother on the telephone. As you finished assessing contractions, she screams with pain and
shouts, “Ginagawa ko na ang lahat ng makakya ko! Kailan ba matatapos ang paghihirap kong ito?”
68. Herberta didn’t recognize for over an hour that she was in labor. A sign of true labor is:
a) Sudden increase energy from epinephrine release
b) “Nagging” but constant pain in the lower back
c) Urinary frequency from increased bladder pressure
d) “Show” or release the cervical mucus plug
69. Herberta asks you which fetal position and presentation are ideal. Your best answer would be:
a) Right occipitoanterior full flexion
b) Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion
c) Right occipitoposterior with ni flexion
d) Left sacroanterior with full flexion
70. Herberta is having long and hard uterine contractions. What length of contractions would you report as
abnormal?
a) Any length over 30 seconds
b) A contraction over 70 seconds in length
c) A contraction that peaks at 20 seconds
d) A contraction shorter than 60 seconds
71. You assess Herberta’s uterine contractions. In relation to the contraction, when does a late deceleration
begin?
a) Forty-five seconds after the contraction is over
b) Thirty seconds after the start of a contraction
c) After every tenth or more contraction
d) After a typical contraction ends
72. The painful phenomenon known as “back labor” occurs in a client whose fetus is what position?
a. Brow position
b. Right-occipito-anterior position
c. Breech position
d. Left occipito-posterior position
73. During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if she can have her delivery at home. After history taking
and physical examination, you advised her against a home delivery. Which of the following findings
disqualifies her for a home delivery?
a) Her OB score is G5P3.
b) She has some palmar pallor.
c) Her blood pressure is 130/80.
d) Her baby is in cephalic presentation.
74. During vaginal examination of Janah who is in labor, the presenting part is at station plus two. Nurse,
correctly interprets it as:
a. Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane of the ischial spines
b. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines
c. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines
d. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the ischial spines
75. A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) for induction of labor. A condition that warrant the nurse
in-charge to discontinue IV infusion of Pitocin is:
a. Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds
b. Maternal temperature 101.2
c. Early decelerations in the fetal heart rate
d. Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160 bpm
Situation: Patient May a gravida 1, para 0. Patient is admitted at the labor room. Her cervic is 100% effaced,
and upon IE, her cervix is 3 cm dilated, the fetus is at +1 station. Staff nurse Ninya attends to her.
76. Taken from the assessment data above that the fetus is at +1 station, how will nurse Ninya interpret this?
That the head of the fetus is ______.
a. Below ischial spines
b. Visible at the vaginal opening
c. Not yet engaged
d. Entering the pelvic inlet
77. Nurse Ninya monitors the contractions of the patient. She recorded the contractions as follows: started at
10:00 AM, and ended at 10:01 AM; another began at 10:15 AM. In minutes, what is the frequency of the
contractions?
a. 10
b. 9
c. 15
d. 14
78. Nurse Ninya assess the duration of the patient’s contractions by timing them from _______ to _______.
a. Beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
b. End of one contraction to beginning of the next contraction
c. End of one contraction to end of the next contraction
d. Beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction
79. After doing Leopold’s maneuvers on the patient in labor, the nurse determines that the fetus is in the ROA
position. Where should the nurse place the Doppler to best auscultate the fetal heart tones?
a. Below the umbilicus near left groin
b. Below the umbilicus on the right side
c. Above the umbilicus in the midline
d. Above the umbilicus on the left side
80. Patient May was given epidural anesthesia. This indicates late deceleration of the fetus and so the nurse has
to do important nursing interventions. Arrange the following nursing interventions in order of priority.
(1) Increase intravenous fluids
(2) Change position of the patient to left side-lying
(3) Reassess fetal heart rate pattern
(4) Document interventions and maternal/fetal response
a. 3,2,1,4
b. 3,4,1,2
c. 4,2,3,1
d. 2,3,4,1
81. A trial for vaginal delivery after an earlier cesareans would likely to be given to a gravida, who had:
a. First low transverse cesarean was for active herpes type 2 infections; vaginal culture at 39 weeks
pregnancy was positive
b. First and second cesareans were for cephalopelvic disproportions
c. First cesarean through a classic incision as a result of severe fetal distress
d. First low transverse cesarean was for breech position. Fetus in this pregnancy is in a vertex
presentation
82. The nurse is caring for a primigravida client in the labor and delivery area. Which condition would place
the client at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
a. Intrauterine fetal death
b. Placenta accreta
c. Dysfunctional labor
d. Premature rupture of membranes
83. A full-term client is in labor. Nurse Betty is aware that the fetal heart rate would be:
a. 80 to 100 bpm
b. 100 to 120 bpm
c. 120 to 160 bpm
d. 160 to 180 bpm
Situation: Mrs. Molina, gravida 3 para 3003, is admitted to the postpartal unit after an uncomplicated labor
and vaginal delivery. She opted to breastfeed her baby. Nurse Emie is around to take care of her.
84. The first day after delivery, Mr. Molina tells the nurse that his wife has been talking constantly about her
recent delivery experience. He asks if this is a sign of postpartal blues. What should be the BEST response
of the nurse?
a. “Do you feel uncomfortable about her talking on her delivery experience?”
b. “Yes, it’s clear sign of postpartum blues. She may need a psychiatric evaluation.”
c. “This is a normal reaction. It allows her to accept the reality of the birth of your baby.”
d. “No, you should divert her attention away from her delivery.”
85. Later that day, Mrs. Molina tells Nurse Emie that she has urinated four times within the last hour but only
in small amounts. What should be the INITIAL ACTION of the nurse?
a. Explain that this is normal during the first 24 hours after delivery
b. Palpate Mrs. Molina’s fundus to assess uterine consistency and location
c. Catheterize Mrs. Molina immediately to expel any retained urine
d. Begin measuring and recording and recording Mrs. Molina’s intake and output
86. Which assessment finding is MOST indicative that Mrs. Molina is developing puerperal infection?
a. Increased pulse rate
b. Foul smelling lochia
c. Elevated body temperature
d. A white blood cell count of 25,000/mcg
87. Mrs. Molina asks Nurse Emie when her menstrual period will return. The nurse answers that a
breastfeeding patient typically resumes menstruating in about ________.
a. 8 to 12 weeks
b. 3 to 6 months
c. 4 to 6 months
d. 4 to 6 weeks
88. Mrs. Molina complains of pain due to breast engorgement. What will the nurse do to encourage her to
continue breastfeeding?
a. Let her continue breastfeeding on schedule
b. Put hot compress over the breast for 15 minutes before breastfeeding
c. Put cold compress over the breast for 15 minutes before breastfeeding
d. Let her continue breastfeeding on demand
Situation: Nurse Hugo is a male nurse assigned in the labor area of the OB department of the local district
hospital. He needs to monitor patients in labor. His basic responsibilities cover the following questions.
89. When assessing a laboring client, the nurse finds a prolapsed cord. The nurse should:
a. Attempt to replace the cord
b. Place the client on her left side
c. Elevate the client’s hips
d. Cover the cord with a dry, sterile gauze
90. The nurse is monitoring the progress of a client in labor. Which finding should be reported to the physician
immediately?
a. The presence of scant bloody discharge
b. Frequent urination
c. The presence of green-tinged amniotic fluid
d. Moderate uterine contractions
91. The nurse is measuring the duration of the client’s contraction. Which statement is true regarding the
measurement of the duration of contractions?
a. Duration is measured by timing from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next
contraction
b. Duration is measured by timing from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next
contraction
c. Duration is measured by timing from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same
contraction
d. Duration is measured by timing from the peak of one contraction to the end of the same contraction
92. The physician has ordered an intravenous infusion of Pitocin for the induction of labor. When caring for the
obstetric client receiving intravenous Pitocin, the nurse should monitor for:
a. Maternal hypoglycemia
b. Fetal bradycardia
c. Maternal hyperreflexia
d. Fetal movement
93. A client with diabetes visits the prenatal clinic at 28 weeks gestation. Which statement is true regarding
insulin needs during pregnancy?
a. Insulin requirements moderate as the pregnancy progresses
b. A decreased need for insulin occurs during the second trimester
c. Elevations in HCG decrease the need for insulin
d. Fetal development depends on adequate insulin regulation
Situation: Mrs. Calamares G2P1 1001, comes out of the labor and delivery room and reports ruptured
amniotic membranes and contractions that occur every 3 minutes lasting 50-60 seconds. The fetus is in LOA
position.
94. The nurse’s first action should be to:
a. Check the FHR
b. Call the physician
c. Check the vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper
d. Admit Mrs. Calamares to the delivery area
95. When asked to describe the amniotic fluid, Mrs. Calamares states that it is “brown-tinged”. This indicates
that:
a. The fetus had infection
b. At some point, the fetus experienced oxygen deprivation
c. The fetus is in distress and should be delivered immediately
d. The fetus is not experiencing any undue stress
96. The nurse established an IV line, and then connects Calamares to an electronic fetal monitor. The fetal
monitoring strip shows FHR deceleration occurring about 30 seconds after each contraction begins; the
FHR returns to baseline after the contraction is over. This type of deceleration is caused by:
a. Fetal head compression
b. Umbilical cord compression
c. Utero-placental insufficiency
d. Cardiac anomalies
97. With this type of deceleration, the nurse’s first action should be to:
a. Do nothing, this is normal occurrence
b. Call the physician
c. Position the patient on her left side
d. Continue monitoring the FHR
98. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of dystocia?
a. Nutritional
b. Environmental
c. Mechanical
d. Medical
99. After the rupture of bag of water, the nurse perform sterile vaginal exams to rule out cord prolapsed. In case
of cord prolapsed, the first nursing action is:
a. Check fetal heart tone
b. Cover with sterile wet dressing
c. Position the mother to trendelenburg
d. Call the doctor very quick
100. The primary indication for using tocolytic agent in preterm labor is:
a. The mother is having preterm contractions every 20 minutes
b. The mother is 2-3 cm dilated
c. The mood of the mother suddenly change
d. Lengthening of the cord
