2/5/22, 4:09 PM GI-GU POST TEST

GI-GU POST TEST Total points 48/50

0 of 0 points

DATA PRIVACY ACT OF 2021

That each Party shall comply with its obligations under all applicable data protection laws in respect to
the Services to be provided under this Agreement, including, but not limited to the Data Privacy Act of
2012 and its Implementing Rules and Regulations. Each Party agrees in respect to any such personal
information/sensitive personal information supplied to it by the other Party that it shall: (a) only act on
instructions from the other Party regarding the processing of such personal information/sensitive
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made by the other Party to ensure compliance with the data protection.

LAST NAME, FIRST NAME MIDDLE INITIAL (ALL CAPS) *

NOVAL, LYN-JE KIRSTENE M.

COMPLETE NAME OF SCHOOL *

SJC

UI

SWU

AU

COC

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2/5/22, 4:09 PM GI-GU POST TEST

UPANG

GI-GU POST TEST 48 of 50 points

1. A male client with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared 1/1
for a colonoscopy. How should the nurse position the client for this test
initially? *

a. Lying on the right side with legs straight

b. Lying on the left side with knees bent

c. Prone with the torso elevated

d. Bent over with hands touching the floor

2. The nurse is caring for a male client with cirrhosis. Which assessment 1/1
findings indicate that the client has deficient vitamin K absorption
caused by this hepatic disease? *

a. Dyspnea and fatigue

b. Ascites and orthopnea

c. Petechiae

d. Gynecomastia

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3. Mandy, an adolescent girl is admitted to an acute care facility with 1/1

severe malnutrition. After a thorough examination, the physician
diagnoses anorexia nervosa. When developing the plan of care for this
client, the nurse is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis? *

a. Hopelessness

b. Powerlessness

c. Low self esteem

d. Deficient knowledge

4. Which diagnostic test would be used first to evaluate a client with 0/1
upper GI bleeding? *

a. Endoscopy

b. Upper GI series

c. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

d. Arteriography

5. To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a male client with hiatal hernia, 1/1

the nurse should provide which discharge instruction? *

a. Lie down after meals for digestion

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b. Avoid coffee and alcohol

c. Take antacids with meals

d. Decrease OFI

6. What laboratory finding is relevant for pancreatitis? * 1/1

a. Elevated BUN

b. Elevated serum lipase

c. Elevated LDL

d. Elevated serum creatinine

7. A male client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common 1/1
bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note: *

a. Yellow sclera

b. Light amber urine

c. Pallor

d. Black tarry stools

8. Nurse Hannah is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic 1/1

ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should
mention: *

a. Sedentary lifestyle and smoking

b. Hemorrhoids and smoking

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c. Alcohol abuse and history of Renal failure

d. Alcohol abuse and smoking

9. While palpating a female client’s right upper quadrant (RUQ), the nurse 1/1
would expect to find which of the following structures? *

a. Sigmoid colon

b. Appendix

c. Spleen

d. Liver

10. A male client has undergone a colon resection. While turning him, 1/1
wound dehiscence with evisceration occurs. The nurse’s first response is
to: *

a. Call the physician

b. Place saline-soaked sterile dressing on the wound

c. Take BP and pulse rate

d. Pull the dehiscence closed

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11. A patient with chronic alcohol abuse is admitted with liver failure. You 1/1
closely monitor the patient’s blood pressure because of which change
that is associated with the liver failure? *

a. Hypoalbuminemia

b. Increased capillary permeability

c. Abnormal peripheral vasodilation

d. Excess renin release from the kidneys

12. You’re advising a 21 y.o. with a colostomy who reports problems with 1/1
flatus. What food should you recommend? *

a. Peas

b. Cabbage

c. Broccoli

d. Yougurt

13. You’re preparing a teaching plan for a 27 y.o. named Jeff who 1/1
underwent surgery to close a temporary ileostomy. Which nutritional
guideline do you include in this plan? *

a. There is no need to change eating habits

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b. Eat six small meals daily

c. Eat the largest meal per day

d. Restrict fluid intake

14. You’re caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical 1/1
removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer.
Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping
syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure? *

a. Flushed, dry skin

b. Headache and bradycardia

c. Dizziness and sweating

d. Dyspnea and chest pain

15. You’re developing the plan of care for a patient experiencing dumping 1/1
syndrome after a Billroth II procedure. Which dietary instructions do you
include? *

a. Omit fluids with meal

b. Increase carbohydrate intake

c. Decrease protein intake

d. Decrease fat intake

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16. You’re caring for Lewis, a 67 y.o. patient with liver cirrhosis who 1/1
developed ascites and requires paracentesis. Relief of which symptom
indicated that the paracentesis was effective? *

a. Pruritus

b. Dyspnea

c. Jaundice

d. Peripheral neuropathy

17. You’re caring for Jane, a 57 y.o. patient with liver cirrhosis who 1/1
developed ascites and requires paracentesis. Before her paracentesis,
you instruct her to: *

a. Empty bladder

b. Lie supine in bed

c. Remain NPO 4 hours

d. Clear bowels with enema

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18. After abdominal surgery, your patient has a severe coughing episode 1/1
that causes wound evisceration. In addition to calling the doctor, which
intervention is most appropriate? *

a. Irrigate organs with betadine

b. Cover the wound with a saline-soaked sterile dressing

c. Apply a dry sterile dressing and binder

d. Push the organs back with moist and sterile dressing

19. You’re caring for Betty with liver cirrhosis. Which of the following 1/1
assessment findings leads you to suspect hepatic encephalopathy in
her? *

a. Asterixis

b. Chvostek’s sign

c. Trosseau’s sign

d. Hepatojugular reflex

20. You are developing a care plan on Sally, a 67 y.o. patient with hepatic 1/1
encephalopathy. Which of the following do you include? *

a. Administer lactulose as ordered

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b. Increase protein in diet

c. Administer sedatives

d. Encourage ambulation

21. The student nurse is preparing a teaching care plan to help improve 1/1
nutrition in a patient with achalasia. You include which of the following: *

a. Swallow meals while leaning forward

b. Omit fluids with meals

c. Eat in an upright position

d. Avoid soft and semisoft food

22. Britney, a 20 y.o. student is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which 1/1
laboratory findings do you expect to be abnormal for this patient? *

a. Serum creatinine

b. BUN

c. Serum amylase

d. Cardiac enzymes

23. A patient with Crohn’s disease is admitted after 4 days of diarrhea. 1/1
Which of the following urine specific gravity values do you expect to find
in this patient? *

a. 1.005

b 1 011
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b. 1.011

c. 1.020

d. 1.035

24. Michael, a 42 y.o. man is admitted to the med-surg floor with a 1/1
diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. His BP is 136/76, pulse 96, Resps 22 and
temp 101. His past history includes hyperlipidemia and alcohol abuse. The
doctor prescribes an NG tube. Before inserting the tube, you explain the
purpose to patient. Which of the following is a most accurate
explanation? *

a. It empties the stomach of fluids and gas

b. It prevents spasm of the sphincter of oddi

c. It prevents air from forming in the small intestine and large intestine

d. It removes bile from gallbladder

25. Jason, a 22 y.o. accident victim, requires an NG tube for feeding. 1/1
What should you immediately do after inserting an NG tube for liquid
enteral feedings? *

a. Aspirate for gastric secretions with a syringe

b. Begin feeding slowly to prevent cramping

c. Order an x-ray to check for placement

d. Clamp off the tube until the feedings begin

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26. Stephanie, a 28 y.o. accident victim, requires TPN. The rationale for 1/1
TPN is to provide: *

a. Necessary fluids and electrolytes in the body

b. Complete nutrition via i.v. route

c. Tube feedings for nutritional supplementation

d. Dietary supplementation with liquid given between meals

27. Matt is a 49 y.o. with a hiatal hernia that you are about to counsel. 1/1
Health care counseling for Matt should include which of the following
instructions? *

a. Restrict intake of high carbohydrate foods

b. Increase fluids with meals

c. Increase fat intake

d. Eat three regular meals per day

28. Jerod is experiencing an acute episode of ulcerative colitis. Which is 0/1

priority for this patient? *

a. Increase sodium in the diet

b Monitor for increase in glucose in the blood

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b. Monitor for increase in glucose in the blood

c. Restrict dietary intake of potassium

d. Note any change in color and consistency of stools

29. A 29 y.o. patient has an acute episode of ulcerative colitis. What 1/1
diagnostic test confirms this diagnosis?

a. Barium swallow

b. Stool examination

c. Gastric analysis

d. Sigmoidoscopy

30. Regina is a 46 y.o. woman with ulcerative colitis. You expect her 1/1
stools to look like:

a. Watery and frothy

b. Bloody and mucous

c. Firm and well-formed

d. Alternating constipation and diarrhea

31. Brenda, a 36 y.o. patient is on your floor with acute pancreatitis. 1/1
Treatment for her includes: *

a. Soft foods like raw egg via NGT

b. Regular diet with increased fat

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c. Nutritional support with TPN

d. Insertion of T-tube to drain the pancreas

32. Glenda has cholelithiasis (gallstones). You expect her to complain of: *1/1

a. Pain in the right upper quadrant radiating on the shoulder

b. Pain in the right lower quadrant with rebound tenderness

c. Pain in the left upper quadrant with shortness of breath

d. Pain in the left lower quadrant with mild cramping

33. After an abdominal resection for colon cancer, Madeline returns to 1/1
her room with a Jackson-Pratt drain in place. The purpose of the drain is
to: *

a. Irrigate the incision with saline solution

b. Prevent bacterial infection of the incision

c. Measure the amount of fluid loss after surgery

d. Prevent accumulation of drainage in the wound

34. Your patient has a GI tract that is functioning, but has the inability to 1/1
swallow foods. Which is the preferred method of feeding for your
patient? *

a. TPN
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b. Regular diet

c. NG feeding

d. Oral liquid supplement

35. Ralph has a history of alcohol abuse and has acute pancreatitis. 1/1
Which lab value is most likely to be elevated? *

a. Calcium

b. Glucose

c. Magnesium

d. Potassium

36. Sharon has cirrhosis of the liver and develops ascites. What 1/1
intervention is necessary to decrease the excessive accumulation of
serous fluid in her peritoneal cavity? *

a. Restrict fluids

b. Encourage ambulation

c. Increase sodium in the diet

d. Give antacids as prescribed

37. Katrina is diagnosed with lactose intolerance. To avoid complications 1/1

with lack of calcium in the diet, which food should be included in the
diet? *

a. Fruit
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b. Whole grains

c. Milk and cheese products

d. Dark green and leafy vegetables

38. Hepatic encephalopathy develops when the blood level of which 1/1
substance increases? *

a. Ammonia

b. Amylase

c. Calcium

d. Potassium

39. Dark, tarry stools indicate bleeding in which location of the GI tract? * 1/1

a. Upper colon

b. Lower colon

c. Upper GI tract

d. Small intestine

40. Your patient, Christopher, has a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis and has 1/1
severe abdominal pain aggravated by movement, rebound tenderness,
fever, nausea, and decreased urine output. This may indicate which
complication? *

a. Fistula

b Bowel perforation
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b. Bowel perforation

c. Bowel obstruction

d. Abcess

41. A patient has a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Long-term 1/1

medications will probably include: *

a. Antacids

b. Antibiotics

c. Corticosteroids

d. H2-blockers

42. The student nurse is teaching the family of a patient with liver 1/1
cirrhosis who has confusion and loss of memory. You instruct them to
limit which foods in the patient’s diet? *

a. Meats and beans

b. Butter and gravy

c. Potatoes and pastas

d. Cakes and pastries

43. Your patient with peritonitis is NPO and complaining of thirst. What is 1/1
your priority? *

a. Increase IV infusion rate

b Use diversional activities

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b. Use diversional activities

c. Provide frequent mouth care

d. Give ice chips every 15 minutes

44. Which stoma would you expect a malodorous, enzyme-rich, caustic 1/1
liquid output that is yellow, green, or brown? *

a. Ileostomy

b. Ascending colostomy

c. Transverse colostomy

d. Descending colostomy

45. George has a T tube in place after gallbladder surgery. Before 1/1
discharge, what information or instructions should be given regarding
the T tube drainage? *

a. If there is any drainage, notify the physician

b. The drainage will decrease daily until bile duct heals

c. Dark green and dark yellow initially

d. If drainage stops, milk towards the puncture wound

46. Nurse Pippy is reviewing a client’s fluid intake and output record. Fluid 1/1
intake and urine output should relate in which way? *

a. Fluid intake should be double the urine output

b Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output

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b. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output

c. Fluid intake should be half the urine output

d. Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output

47. A male client develops acute renal failure (ARF) after receiving I.V. 1/1
therapy with a nephrotoxic antibiotic. Because the client’s 24-hour urine
output totals 240 ml, Nurse Billy suspects that the client is at risk for: *

a. cardiac arrhythmia

b. Paresthesia

c. Dehydration

d. Pruritus

48. A female adult client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen 1/1
is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory laparotomy.
Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing acute
renal failure (ARF)? *

a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 20 mg/dl

b. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl

c. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dl

d. Urine output of 400 ml/24 hours

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49. A female client with acute renal failure is undergoing dialysis for the 1/1
first time. The nurse in charge monitors the client closely for dialysis
equilibrium syndrome, a complication that is most common during the
first few dialysis sessions. Typically, dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes:
*

a. confusion, headache, and seizures

b. acute bone pain and confusion

c. weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias

d. hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea

50. A male client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 1/1
6.8 mEq/L. What should nurse Olivia assess first? *

a. Blood pressure

b. Respirations

c. Temperature

d. Pulse

GI-GU POST TEST 0 of 0 points

END OF POST TEST 0 of 0 points

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