BOARD LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR CRIMINOLOGISTS
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CRIMINAL DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (20%)
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the
answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Knowledge used to prevent or mitigate cyber-attacks by studying the threat data and
provide information on adversaries is known as –
A. electronic intelligence C. data mining
B. cyber intelligence D. data intelligence
2. This type of investigation report enables other co-investigators to take the next
appropriate and logical step in the investigation process.
A. Progress C. Crime
B. Alarm D. Final
3. It is a normal offshoot of an incident report requiring immediate solution.
A. Crime Report C. Initial Report
B. Alarm Report D. Spot Report
4. To support his observation about the case or to establish his findings the investigator
shall write his arguments in what part of the investigation report?
A. Conclusion C. Matters to be investigated
B. Findings D. Discussion
5. Cyber crime investigation refers to the process of investigating, analyzing, and
recovering _________ for digital evidence of a crime.
A. crime data C. forensic data
B. electronic information D. digital information
6. Application of technologies, processes, and controls to protect systems, networks,
programs, devices and data from cyber attacks is known as –
A. cybercrime C. electronic data protection system
B. cyber protection D. cyber security
7. Evidence-based knowledge about adversaries - their motives, intents, capabilities,
enabling environments and operations - focusing on specific events, trends or
relationships and helping the defender make better decisions. Which is being
described?
A. Cyber threat C. Data mining
B. Cyber threat intelligence D. Cyber threat investigation report
.
8. What part of affidavit that the notarial officer indicates that the affiant has subscribed
and sworn to in his presence and that the latter has shown a proof of his/her identity?
A. Verification C. Certificate of Non-Forum Shopping
B. Attestation D. Jurat
9. As a standard practice, police blotter logbook contains the following:
1. Official summaries of arrest
2. Daily registry of all crime incident reports
3. Directives from the superior officer
4. Other significant events reported in a police station
5. News reports involving heinous crimes
6. Records of all types of operational and undercover dispatches
A. 3 and 5 C. 1, 3 and 5
B. 1, 2, 4 and 6 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
10. In police stations, a separate blotter is maintained for crime incident reports involving
violence against women and children and those cases involving a child in conflict with
the law. This statement is__.
A. True, to protect their privacy
B. False, it disorganize the police recording system
C. True, to closely monitor the case
D. False, this is discriminatory
11. It refers to a distinctive mark, characteristics and/or sound in electronic form
representing the identity of a person.
A. Electronic signature C. Password
B. Electronic key D. User code
12. Any visual or audible signal produced by a device to warm the occupants of the building
of the presence or danger of fire
A. Fire Alarm B. Fire hydrant C. Fire exit D. Fire drill
13. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light of combustion.
A. Flash point B. Boiling point C. Fire D. Fire point
14. The fire triangle is composed of heat, oxygen and –
A. burning. B. fuel C. smoke D. flame
15. The service provider is duty bound to disclose or submit subscriber’s information, traffic
data or relevant data in its possession or control to law enforcement or competent
authorities within _______ after receipt of order and/or copy of the court warrant.
A. 48 hours C. 1 day
B. 72 hours D. 20 days
16. All EXCEPT one, are authorized to possess chain saws.
A. Person who has a subsisting timber license agreement.
B. An orchard and fruit tree farmer;
C. An industrial tree farmer;
D. Wood processor and the chain is used to cut timber sold
17. Permit to possess or use a chain saw for legitimate purpose is valid for________ upon
issuance
A. 2 years C. 6 years
B. 3 years D. 6 months
18. Permits to possess and use chainsaw issued to non-commercial orchard and fruit tree
farmers is valid for a period of ___ years upon issuance.
A. two C. ten
B. three D. five
19. Which is NOT punishable under the Chain Saw Act of 2002?
A. Selling and possessing a chain saw with permit
B. Unlawful importation or manufacturing of chain saw
C. Tampering of engine serial number
D. Actual unlawful use of chain saw
20. EXCEPT one, all are crimes punishable under Republic Act No. 9003, otherwise known
as Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000
A. Open burning of solid waste
B. Causing or permitting the collection of non-segregated or unsorted wastes
C. Use of environmentally acceptable packaging materials
D. Squatting in open dumps and landfills
21. Which act is NOT punishable under the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of
2000?
A. Dumping of biodegradable materials in flood prone areas
B. Removal of recyclable material intended for collection
C. Mixing of source-separated recyclable material with other solid waste
D. Construction of establishment within two 200 meters from open dumps
22. Heat energy is emitted from a hot body to a cold body, Light is visible through
intervening space by heat rays or electromagnetic ray.
A. Conduction B. Convection C. Radiation D. Combustion
23. It is a method of extinguishing fire by cutting the supply of oxygen.
A. Smothering B. Cooling C. Suffocating D. Starving
24. The fourth element in Fire tetrahedron.
A. Fire B. Fuel C. Oxygen D. Chemical reaction
25. Integrity of traffic data and subscriber information is required to be kept, retained and
preserved by a service provider for a minimum period of_______ from the date of the
transaction
A. 1 year C. 3 months
B. 6 months D. 72 hours
26. Words or phrases such as finally, furthermore, in addition and moreover that show relationships between
thoughts, sentences, or paragraphs is called-
A. adverbs C. modifiers
B. adjectives D. transitions
27. Whatisthecorrectabbreviationof“RegisteredCriminologist”?
A. RCrim. C.RegCrim
B. RC D.RCrim
28. Abbreviatetheprofessionaltitle“DoctorofPhilosophy”.
A. PH.D. C.D.P.
B. Ph.D. D.Ph.d.
29. When operating against illegal drugs, it requires that apprehending law enforcement
officers having initial custody and control of the drugs should physically inventory the
same__.
1. Immediately after seizure and confiscation
2. Within 12 hours after seizure and confiscation
3. Within 24 hours after seizure and confiscation
4. In the presence of the witnesses
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4
30. If the confiscating law enforcement officers fails to physically inventory and photograph
the confiscated illegal drugs or controlled precursors and essential chemicals (CPECS),
does it necessarily follow that the confiscation and custody of said items will render it
void and invalid?
A. Yes strict adherence to this rule is required by the implementing rules and
regulations of Republic Act 9165
B. No provided that non-compliance with these requirements is based on justifiable
grounds and for as long as the integrity and evidentiary value of the confiscated
items were properly preserved
C. Yes strict adherence to this rule is required by the implementing rules and
regulations of Republic Act 10640
D. No as long as the chain of custody of the confiscated items will be clearly
established
31. One of whom need NOT be present during the physical inventory of confiscated illegal
drugs?
A. Suspect C. Municipal mayor
B. Mediamen D. Public prosecutor
32. In the anti-illegal drug operation, the lawmen undertaking the operation should take
photographs___.
1. Upon discovery of evidence
2. After the physical inventory of evidence
3. While the search for evidence is ongoing
4. Without altering the position of evidence in the place where it was hidden
5. Without moving the position of evidence in the place where it was situated
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 4 and 5
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
33. When the seized evidence are properly marked, the seizing officer should preserve and
place it in a suitable or appropriate container___.
A. For laboratory examination
B. For the taking of photograph
C. For presentation to the media as need arises
D. For presentation to the evidence custodian officer
34. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with air in the proper proportion and
ignited will cause an explosion.
A. Oxygen B. Air C. Atmosphere D. Dust
35. A building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks adequate
exits or fire escapes
A. Fire Hazard B. Fire Trap C. Fire drill D. Fire threat
36. Any condition or act which increases or may cause an increase in the probability of the
occurrence of fire
A. Fire Hazard B. Fire Trap C. Fire risk D. Fire exposure
37. What should the seizing officer do to a suspected drug evidence in a situation that
requires urgent action?
A. The suspected drug evidence may be field tested using a drug test ki t
B. The suspected drug evidence may be immediately sent to the nearest crime
laboratory office
C. The suspected drug evidence may be thoroughly examined by a well-experienced
anti-illegal drug law enforcement operative
D. The suspected drug evidence may be tested in the field by a known expert in illegal
drugs
38. Upon seizure of dangerous drugs, how long should the seizing officer submit the drug
evidence to the Crime Laboratory for examination and proper disposition?
A. Within 12 hours C. Within 24 hours
B. Within 18 hours D. Within 36 hours
39. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the
hose. What is the most likely reason for taking this position?
A. The stream is projected farther
B. The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
C. A backward force is developed which must be counter acted
D. The firemen can see better where the stream strikes
40. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:
A. murder with arson C. murder
B. arson with murder D. arson
41. What is the most effective cooling agent for firefighting operation?
A. CO2 C. dry powder
B. H20 D. NaCl
42. During anti-illegal drug operations, who is PRIMARILY responsible for the inventory and
initial custody of all drug and non-drug evidence?
A. The field tester C. The team leader
B. The investigator D. The seizing officer
43. Regardless of the volume of drug evidence to be examined, the final certification on the
completed forensic laboratory examination should be issued within how many hours
upon receipt of the seized drug evidence?
A. 48 hours C. 24 hours
B. 36 hours D. 72 hours
44. In police undercover buy operations of illegal drugs, which of the following would
generally be LEAST correct?
A. The undercover police officer has more experience than the drug dealer
B. In such operation, the drug dealer values drugs, money and his/her freedom
C. The drug dealer wants the undercover’s money more than the police want the drugs
D. The location of the meet with the drug dealer should be studied before the actual
meet
45. Consider the following statements concerning an undercover police operation designed
to purchase illegal drugs from a drug dealer:
I. One of the potential risks of such an operation is an overzealous undercover
officer
II. An undercover officer should not enter the car of the suspect drug dealer
III. A confidential informant should be allowed to do as much as possible even if it
means controlling the situation
Which of the following choices best classifies above statements into those which
are accurate and those which are inaccurate?
A. Statement I is inaccurate; statements II and III are accurate
B. Statement II is inaccurate; statements I and III are accurate
C. Statement III is inaccurate; statements I and II are accurate
D. All statements are accurate
46. Abbreviatethe uniformedservicerank “PoliceLieutenantColonel”.
A. PLT.COL. C. PLTCOL
B. Lt.Col. D. PLTCOL.
47. When you refer to the officer writing the reports, you will used -
A. first person pronouns C. pronoun
B. third person pronouns D. proper noun
48. Fill in with the first person pronoun the sentence: Diego told me, “___ ran as fast as I
could.”
A. He C. I
B. You D. Me
49. PSMS Joey Morales’ investigation report was based on factual information that he
obtained in inquiry. His report can be described as –
A. Factuality C. Objective
B. Comprehensiveness D. Accuracy
50. Assume that you are a driver who travels on a wide expressway. When you are
approaching in a lane dividers, you____.
A. Should observe the maximum speed limit under existing law
B. Should not enter adjoining premises or side road
C. Should keep you vehicle between them
D. Should slow down to give way to overtaking vehicles
51. Can an accidental injury from inhalation of exhaust gas be considered as a motor
vehicle traffic accident?
A. Yes because the unintended injury is attributed directly to the motion of a motor
vehicle on the road
B. No because there is only one motor vehicle involved
C. Yes because the sustained injury of the person was due to the motor vehicle
D. No because the injury sustained by the person is not causes by a direct impact of
the vehicle upon his person
52. Can an accidental injury arising from the motor vehicles loading or unloading
from another conveyance be considered as motor vehicular accident?
A. Yes because the person’s unintended injury was caused by a motor vehicle
B. Yes because there are two motor vehicles involved in the accident
C. No because the accident occurred while the motor vehicle was not under its
power or while in motion on the road
D. No because it is not one of the case classified as motor vehicle traffic accident
53. When a motor vehicle accident occurs in a private driveway, you should consider
it as___.
A. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. Non-motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. Motor vehicle traffic accident
D. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident
54. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells; mescaline is______.
A. Buttons C. Brain eaters
B. Dope D. Herbals
55. Which of the following is the obvious sign of opium addict?
A. Presence of needle marks in the arm C. Dizziness
B. Hilarity and gait D. Trance-like appearance
56. The sentence, “PCMS Reynaldo and PSMS Ronwaldo are interrogating the suspect.” is written in
what voice?
A. Passive C. strong
B. Active D. weak
57. Joc Joc Mabilog, a person suffering from sexually transmitted disease (STD) applies for
a professional driver’s license. May he be issued such license?
A. Yes because his disease will not in any way affect his driving performance
B. No because a driver infected with STD is a health hazard particularly to passengers
of his vehicles
C. Yes, he is no prohibited from acquiring a driver’s license even in such a condition
D. No, Republic Act 4136 explicitly prohibits persons suffering from contagious
diseases from being issued a professional driver’s license
58. As a general rule, when a person applies for a student driver’s permit he must meet the
following requirements at the time of the application. Which of the following is NOT one
of those qualifications?
A. Know how to read and write
B. Be medically cleared from illegal drug use and physically and mentally fit to drive a
motor vehicle
C. Be at least 15 years of age at the time of the issuance of the license
D. Be clinically free from contagious disease
59. Rigor is issued a student driver’s license. What does it mean?
A. Rigor is allowed to drive his own vehicle only
B. Rigor can drive light vehicles in minor thoroughfares only
C. Rigor can drive vehicles only in the presence of a duly licensed drive r
D. Rigor can drive the vehicles of another person except for livelihood purposes
60. When more freight or passengers are carried by a public utility trucks or buses than
their registered carrying capacity, the one who is exclusively liable is___.
A. The driver C. The operator
B. The conductor D. The dispatcher
61. When a person operates a passenger automobile for hire, he is required to
conspicuously mark on both sides of his vehicle, in letters and numerals, the____.
A. Drivers name C. The vehicle’s plate number
B. The vehicles body number D. The vehicle’s passenger capacity
62. May a motor vehicle with metallic tires be allowed to operate upon any public highway?
A. Yes for as long as only light vehicles will use metallic tires
B. No, use of metallic tires is expressly prohibited under Republic act 413 6
C. Yes, use of metallic tires is not prohibited by law as long as it will not impede the
flow of traffic
D. No, metallic tires can damage road surface hence their use is prohibited
63. Forty km per hour (40kph) is the maximum speed limit when you drive a motor truck
in___.
A. City or municipal streets C. Crowded street
B. Exclusive subdivision D. Expressway
64. When a driver drives his car in an open country road, he is allowed a maximum speed
limit of___.
A. 50 kph C. 40 kph
B. 60 kph D. 80 kph
65. One of the methods of collecting information where in the information is gathered openly
and without having to exert any sort of effort in trying to hide the identities of the
intelligence agents.
A. overt C. covert
B. surveillance D. shadowing
66. The art and science o breaking codes and ciphers
A. Cryptography C. Crypto-analysis
B. Cryptogram D. Cryptograph
67. Critical appraisal of an item of information to determine its pertinence, reliability and
accuracy.
A. analysis C. interpretation
B. integration D. evaluation
68. It means translation of intercepted message into proper language or text, EXCEPT:
A. decode C. decrypting
B. decipher D. encoding
69. Intelligence information which is of an immediate nature and vital for a more effective
police operation and planning.
A. Military Intelligence C. Police Intelligence
B. Line Intelligence D. Strategic Intelligence
70. One of the functions of intelligence as an organization which relates to the procurement
of information.
A. interpretation C. analysis
B. integration D. collection
71. Twenty kilometer per hour (20 kph) is a maximum allowable speed limit when a person
drives a car in__.
A. A residential area C. A park
B. A crowded street D. The provincial thoroughfare
72. A person who drives a bus on a city or municipal street is allowed only to a maximum
speed limit of___.
A. 20 kph C. 40 kph
B. 30 kph D. 50 kph
73. The following are classified as destructive arson, EXCEPT.
A. Any archive, museum, whether public or private, or any edifice devoted to culture,
education or social service
B. Any church or place of worship or other building where people usually assemble.
C. Any train, airplane or any aircraft, vessel or watercraft, or conveyance for
transportation of persons or property
D. Garbage
74. If any building used as offices of the government or any of its agencies was burned it is
classified as.
A. Destructive Arson B. Malicious arson C. Other cases of arson D. Heinous
arson
75. Assume that you are a driver of a vehicle. Before traversing any thorough highway or
railroad crossing, you must___.
A. Bring your vehicle to a full stop
B. Observe the normal speed limit
C. Slow down when it is apparent that hazards exists
D. Slow down even when there are no hazard ahead
76. Assume that you a driver of a car entering a highway from a private subdivision’s drive.
Under existing traffic rules, you shall____.
A. Have the right of way to all vehicles approaching on such a highway
B. Yield the right of way only if it is apparent that hazards exist due to approaching
vehicles on such a highway
C. Have the right of way to all vehicles, except emergency vehicles, approaching on
such a highway
D. Yield the right of way to all vehicles approaching on such a highwa y
77. The art and science of making, devising, venting or protecting codes and cipher.
A. Cryptography C. Crypto-analysis
B. Cryptogram D. Cryptograph
78. The use of disguise and sometimes deception is needed in this type of information
collection method. The target must not suspect of what is going on.
A. overt C. covert
B. surveillance d. shadowing
79. This concerns one or more aspects of human activity which should be known in
advance in order to determine our future actions.
A. information C. procurement
B. line intelligence D. intelligence
80. A kind of target who is easy to gather information from.
A. soft C. medium
B. hard D. very hard
81. It is the end result of information processing.
A. strategic intel C. information
B. raw information D. intelligence
82. Under the existing traffic law, no driver is allowed to park a vehicle or permit it to stand,
whether attended or unattended, upon a highway in any of the following places,
EXCEPT:
A. On a cross walk
B. Within an intersection
C. Within 4 meters of the driveway entrance to any fire station
D. Within 10 meters of a fire hydrant
83. Which of the following is NOT a crime against persons?
A. Physical injury C. Abduction
B. Mutilation D. Parricide
84. This is the process of burning the dead body into ashes:
A. Cremation C. Exhumation
B. Arson D. Embalming
85. This is the medical report stating the cause of death of an individual:
A. Ante-mortem report C. Death certificate
B. Medical certificate D. Necropsy report
86. Anyone who, with evident premeditation, killed another shall be charged with the crime
of –
A. homicide C. infanticide
B. parricide D. murder
87. This is the first that an investigator must do upon his arrival at the scene of the crime:
A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness (es)
B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency
88. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb:
A. Infanticide C. Abortion
B. Parricide D. Murder
89. In cadaveric spasm, the stiffening of the muscle usually starts at the –
A. Hand and fist C. Neck and jaw
B. Arm and neck D. Legs and feet
90. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of the following:
A. The actual cause of death of the victim
B. The modus operandi involved
C. The actual killer of the victim
D. The motive behind the killing
91. The following are the special aggravating circumstances in arson, EXCEPT.
A. If committed with intent to gain
B. If committed by insane person
C. If committed for the benefit of another;
D. If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred towards the owner or occupant of the
property burned
92. The offense is committed by a syndicate if it is planned or carried out by a group of ___
or more persons.
A. 2 C. 3 C. 4 D. 1
93. Correct choice of words which is essential for the accuracy of the message conveyed
to the readers of the report is known as –
A. diction C. choice of word
B. vocabulary D. grammar
94. Who among the following is a target subject of police interrogation?
A. Cooperative witness C. Ready witness
B. Complainant D. Hostile witness
95. A stole a very huge amount of money from the house of B by entering through the gates
left open and through the doors left unlocked while everyone was having a picnic at the
backyard, what crime committed?
A. Robbery C. Robbery in band
B. Theft D. Qualified theft
96. Robbery is classified into robbery with violence against or intimidation of persons and-
A. robbery by force upon things C. complex crime of robbery
B. robbery by a band D. robbery with homicide
97. Duties of the driver of a motor vehicle when accident occurs in the highway:
1. Stop immediately
2. Sow his driver’s license
3. Give his true name and address
4. Give the true name and address of the owner of the motor vehicle
A. Only 1 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
98. Under the traffic law, a driver of a motor vehicle involved in a vehicular traffic accident
is under obligation to remain at the scene of accident and aid his victim, EXCEPT:
1. When he has to summon a physician or nurse to aid the victim
2. When he intends to report the accident to the nearest officer of the law
3. When his life is in imminent danger of being seriously harmed by any person by
reason of the accident
A. 1 only C. 3 only
B. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Vehicular traffic accident is consists of series of chain of events which the investigator
needs to analyze in order to discern the clear picture of the incidents.
Questions:
99. What phase in the chain of events presented in figure 52?
A. Stopping C. Accident approach
B. Perception of hazard D. Start of evasive action
100. What phase in the chain of events shows by figure 54?
A. Engagement C. Initial contact
B. Maximum engagement D. Actual accident
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