Cambridge Assessment International Education
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
PHYSICAL EDUCATION 9396/33
Paper 3 October/November 2019
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 90
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2019 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
This document consists of 10 printed pages.
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over
9396/33 Cambridge International AS/A Level – Mark Scheme October/November
PUBLISHED 2019
Generic Marking Principles
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1:
Marks must be awarded in line with:
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2:
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3:
Marks must be awarded positively:
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4:
Rules must be applied consistently e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5:
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6:
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
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Question Answer Marks
1(a)(i) 5 marks for any 5 of: 5
1 anaerobic / absence of oxygen;
2 (breakdown of) carbohydrate / glycogen / glucose / glycolysis;
3 to pyruvic acid / pyruvate;
4 to lactic acid / lactate;
5 occurs in sarcoplasm;
6 2 ATP (net) produced (per molecule of glucose);
7 (enzymes) GP / GPP / glycogen phosphorylase / PFK /
phosphofructokinase / LDH / lactate dehydrogenase;
1(a)(ii) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4
1 alactacid / alactic debt / fast component of EPOC;
2 replenishment of ATP stores / PC stores / muscle phosphagen stores;
3 uses the aerobic system;
4 circulatory / respiratory rates remain elevated;
5 (replenishment of PC stores / alactacid debt) takes 2–3 minutes for full
recovery / 30 seconds for 50% recovery / uses up to 4 litres of oxygen;
6 replenishment of myoglobin with oxygen / restoration of oxy-myoglobin
link;
7 (replenishment of myoglobin with oxygen) takes 1–2 minutes / uses
0.5 litres of oxygen / happens first or very quickly;
8 lactacid debt / slow component of EPOC (starts but takes up to an hour to
complete);
9 removal of lactic acid;
1(b) 3 marks for: 3
Must use a sporting example for each term.
1 (macrocycle) for example, the training period between now and the
Olympic Games / World Championships;
2 (mesocycle) for example, an 8-week training programme to improve
speed;
3 (microcycle) for example, a weekly plan that involves strength work,
flexibility exercises and running technique sessions;
1(c)(i) 3 marks for: 3
1 (definition) the ability to maintain equilibrium / centre of mass over base of
support;
2 static AND an example, e.g. headstand;
3 dynamic AND an example, e.g. rugby player evading a tackle;
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Question Answer Marks
1(c)(ii) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3
1 (name) Stork test; Flamingo test / Balance board;
Beam balance;
2 (description subject stands subject stands on subject attempts
– protocol) on one leg with beam on one leg to stand on the
other foot with free leg balance board
resting on inside flexed, close to without letting its
of knee and buttock and held edge touch the
raises up on to with one hand; floor;
tiptoes (hands
on hips) (eyes
open or closed);
3 (description length of time number of length of time on
– measure) that subject can attempts needed board until an
hold position to complete 60 edge touches
without heel seconds is floor OR number
touching floor or recorded (each of attempts
foot moving time foot is needed to
away from knee released or complete
is recorded; balance is lost 60 seconds on
the watch is board is
stopped); recorded;
4 (evaluation) compare score to standardised table for a rating;
Accept other recognised tests of balance.
1(c)(iii) 6 marks for any 6 of: 6
1 warm up / pulse raiser / increase temperature of muscles / stretch as part
of cool down;
2 named / described stretching exercise, e.g. lunges / open the gate;
3 stretches must be done at least 3 times per week;
4 stretches should be repeated (at least two times per exercise);
5 take the joint to / just beyond point of resistance;
6 static stretching / can be active or passive;
7 hold stretch for 10 seconds or longer;
8 dynamic stretching;
9 slow controlled movements that take joint through full range of movement;
10 ballistic stretching;
11 use of faster swinging / bouncing movements;
12 PNF stretching;
13 static stretch, isometric contraction (for 6 seconds), then static stretch
again;
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Question Answer Marks
1(c)(iv) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3
1 reduced risk of muscle / connective tissue injury;
2 increased (resting) length of muscle / connective tissue;
3 increased elasticity of muscle / connective tissue;
4 reduced stimulus to / inhibition of stretch reflex;
5 delays activation of muscle spindles;
6 enhanced response of golgi tendon organs / autogenic inhibition;
1(d) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3
Max. 2 marks if no sporting example.
1 (caffeine) is a stimulant / has a stimulating effect on the CNS / more alert
improves reaction time;
2 reduces the sensation of fatigue / perception of work effort / pain;
3 improves concentration / focus during strenuous activity;
4 helps to preserve glycogen stores;
5 enhances fat utilisation in the body / increases levels of free fatty acids;
6 delays exhaustion;
7 enhances strength of contraction / by increasing calcium content;
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Question Answer Marks
2(a) 3 marks for: 3
Each component must be described, for example:
1 (cognitive component) knowledge / belief that fitness training will improve
fitness / health / sporting ability / e.g. know that going to the gym is good
for you;
2 (affective component) emotional aspect / positive
feelings / enjoyment / e.g. likes training;
3 (behavioural component) how the performer acts / e.g.
commitment / persistence / effort / high attendance at training;
2(b)(i) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3
1 highly motivated / enthusiastic / goal focused;
2 good motivator / persuasive;
3 good communicator / organiser;
4 experienced / knowledgeable / high level of skill;
5 charisma;
6 empathy / understands the needs of others;
7 respected / has a good relationship with the team;
8 flexible / adaptable / uses different leadership styles depending on
situation;
9 confident;
2(b)(ii) 5 marks for any 5 of: 5
Max. 3 marks if no example used. Max. 4 marks if only 1 example used.
1 select ‘team’ players / players who do not / have not shown evidence of
social loafing;
2 punish players who are not cohesive;
3 reward / praise good teamwork / cohesive behaviour;
4 set (team) goals;
5 give individual responsibilities / roles;
6 highlight individual performances / credit personal success / reward
‘assists’;
7 encourage friendships / team building / bonding exercises;
8 work on set plays / team tactics in practice;
9 encourage group identity / team kit;
10 appoint a strong leader (who is respected by the team);
2(c) 3 marks for: 3
Max. 1 mark if no sporting example used.
1 (product goals) focus on the outcome / result / beating an opponent, e.g.
win a 100 m race;
2 (performance goals) focus on one’s performance compared to previous
attempt, e.g. achieve a PB of 10.2 seconds in 100 m race;
3 (process goals) focus on technique / tactics, e.g. sprint start in 100 m
race;
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Question Answer Marks
2(d) 4 marks for 4 of: 4
Max. 2 marks if no examples used. Max. 3 marks if only 1 example used.
1 broad – lots of cues, e.g. footballer has many passing options;
2 narrow – few cues, e.g. basketball player taking a free-throw shot;
3 internal – cues from within performer, e.g. gymnast mentally rehearsing a
floor routine;
4 external – cues from environment, e.g. fielder focusing on the ball as it
comes towards him;
OR
5 broad external – footballer scanning field to assess passing options;
6 broad internal – rugby player thinking about all the set plays he is
involved in before a game;
7 narrow external – golfer hitting a drive off the tee;
8 narrow internal – netball player thinking about her shooting technique;
Each of the attentional styles (broad, narrow, external, internal) must be
explained for a mark.
2(e)(i) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4
1 nature of game / contact sport / aggressive cues present;
2 poor performance / losing / frustration;
3 poor refereeing decisions / fouls by opponent not penalised;
4 previous experience / scores to settle from past encounter;
5 verbal / physical abuse from opponent / retaliation / gamesmanship from
opposition;
6 hostile crowd / proximity of crowd;
7 very high arousal levels / importance of event / pressure from significant
others, e.g. coach;
8 emotional / off-the-pitch issues / personality trait;
2(e)(ii) 5 marks for any 5 of: 5
1 punish aggressive play;
2 withdraw / remove performer from situation OR teach performer to walk
away;
3 positively reinforce / reward non-aggressive play;
4 promote non-aggressive role models;
5 educate performers about the consequences of aggressive play OR use
rational thinking;
6 reduce the importance of the event / outcome;
7 emphasise performance rather than product goals;
8 lower arousal levels;
9 use cognitive strategies / stress management techniques / count to 10 /
deep breathing / imagery;
10 encourage channelled aggression / assertion;
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Question Answer Marks
2(f) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3
1 attribute failure to internal factors (that are controllable) / lack of effort;
2 attribute failure to unstable factors / luck / task difficulty;
3 attribute failure to controllable factors / poor coaching / tactics;
4 attribute success to internal / stable factors / ability;
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Question Answer Marks
3(a) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3
1 abide by the rules of the competition;
2 conform over or above the strict rules / no gamesmanship;
3 good sportsmanship / respect for other performers / officials;
4 modest in victory / shake hands;
5 generous in defeat / congratulate opponent;
3(b) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4
1 similar sports, e.g. athletics (one sport must be identified);
2 every 4 years;
3 Olympiad;
4 Olympic oath;
5 Olympic flame;
6 international athletic festival / athletes from all over the world compete /
cultural festival;
7 opening ceremony;
8 mental / physical challenge;
9 peace / harmony / cooperation between nations;
10 specialist sites used;
11 specialist training (prior to event);
12 eligibility standards must be met to qualify for Games;
3(c) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4
1 terrorism – Munich 1972 – killing of Israeli athletes by Palestinians;
2 protest – Mexico 1968 – Black power salute – race issues in USA;
3 propaganda – Berlin 1936 – promote Nazi supremacy;
4 nations banned – South Africa due to apartheid;
5 nations banned – Germany and Japan after Second World War;
6 nations banned – Iraq for the alleged torture of Iraqi athletes;
7 non-recognition of nations – e.g. Taiwan by China;
8 non-recognition of nations – e.g. former Soviet republics by Russia;
9 terrorism / protest – Atlanta 1996 bomb – anti-socialism / anti-abortion;
10 protest – Sydney 2000 – aboriginal race issues;
Accept descriptions of other relevant examples.
3(d) 5 marks for any 5 of: 5
1 (broken time) payment for playing;
2 (broken time) payment made to cover loss of earnings;
3 (broken time) and to cover costs of expenses;
4 (impact) abuse of the amateur ideal / participants should compete for no
financial gain;
5 (impact) created inequality between competing teams;
6 (impact) stimulated debate about whether Olympics could remain
amateur;
7 (impact) led to professionalism / to attract top athletes;
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Question Answer Marks
3(e) 3 marks for any 3 of: 3
1 high income / sponsorship deals / endorsements;
2 public appearances;
3 media spotlight / attention / fame;
4 representing one’s country;
5 competing at the highest level in their sport;
6 meeting / socialising with other elite athletes;
7 exposure to / learning about different cultures;
3(f) 4 marks for any 4 of: 4
1 big drug bust;
2 many of the competitors tested positive / used drugs;
3 named athletes – Johnson / Lewis / Christie / Williams / Mitchell;
4 Ben Johnson stripped of gold medal / gold medal given to Carl Lewis;
5 positive tests allegedly covered up;
6 damage to credibility of sport;
7 the fourth placed runner / Calvin Smith never tested positive;
3(g) 7 marks for 7 of (sub-max. 5 marks if only arguments on one side are given): 7
(pro-doping sub-max. 5 marks)
1 not all banned drugs are illegal;
2 loss of medical benefits / some legal health products have different
constituents in different countries, e.g. nasal sprays and cold remedies /
some banned drugs speed up healing / recovery;
3 not all banned drugs are harmful OR some legal aids are harmful;
4 some banned drugs are natural, e.g. testosterone;
5 other performance-enhancing aids are allowed / legal methods allow
athletes to train harder;
6 infringement of liberties / invasion of privacy during testing;
7 freedom of choice / let the athlete decide;
8 greater spectacle due to enhanced performances;
9 removes the cost of testing;
(anti-doping sub-max. 5 marks)
10 drugs are harmful to health / long-term health damage;
11 drugs are addictive;
12 natural athlete v laboratory athlete / best chemistry / drugs win;
13 unfair advantage / inequality of opportunity / richer countries or athletes
benefit;
14 cheating is against the spirit of the Games;
15 freedom of choice not allowed in general society, so why in sport;
16 negative effect of role models / diminishes status of sport;
17 devalues reason for training / athletic prowess questioned;
18 reduces need for tactics / strategy;
Allow other suitable evaluations.
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