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Victor’s
Knowledge
Make your preparation stronger

MCQs for EXCISE INSPECTOR SIDO,

BLEO EXAM 2021

By: Cheenu Sharma

Copyright © by Victor’s Knowledge

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1.Expand TRIMs
a) Tariff related investment measures
b) Trade related institutions measuring
c) Trade related investment measures
d) None of the above

2. Which is not a tariff barrier?

a) Compound duty
b) Sliding Scale
c) Specific duty
d) Quota system

3. Which among the following is the advanced form of economic integration?

a) Free trade area
b) Custom union
c) Economic union
d) Common market

4.____refers to the investment in a foreign country where the investor retain

control over the investment.
a) FDI
b) Portfolio investment
c) FII
d) Investment in GDR

5. Which of the following is not an international organization?

a) SAARC
b) ASEAN
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c) ADB
d) CBDT

6. Multilateral trade negotiation under GAAT is called…..

a) Rounds
b) Council
c) Conference
d) Discussion

7. WTO is headquartered in ……
a) Paris
b) Geneva
c) Colombo
d) Washington DC

8. NTB stands for…..

a) Non-trade barriers
b) No trade between
c) Non-tariff barriers
d) None of these

9. IMF was established in ……

a) 1950
b) 1948
c) 1947
d) 1944

10. Expand TRIPs

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a) Trade relates aspects of investment property

b) Trade related aspects of intellectual property right
c) Tariff related aspects of international property rights
d) None of the above

11. The first-year plan was launched on……

a) 1st April 1951
b) 1st April 1952
c) 1st April 1955
d) 1st April 1960

12. What was the duration of 12th plan?

a) 2011-15
b) 2012-17
c) 2009-14
d) 2013-18

13. NITI in NITI Aayog stands for…..

a) National Institution for Transforming India
b) National Institute for Trade in India
c) National Institute for Transforming Industries
d) None of the above

14. Who is the current Chairman of NITI Aayog

a) Narendra Modi
b) Amitabh Kant
c) Nirmala Sitharaman
d) None of these
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15. NITI Aayog was formed on

a) 1st April 2015
b) 1st March 2015
c) 1st January 2015
d) 1st January 2016

16. Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

a) President
b) Finance Minister
c) A senior IAS Officer
d) Prime Minister

17. Who represents a State in NITI Aayog Governing council?

a) State Finance minister
b) Chief Minister
c) Governor
d) Chief Secretary

18. Who represents a State in NITI’s Regional council?

a) State Finance minister
b) Governor
c) Chief Minister
d) Chief Secretary

19. NITI Aayog is headquartered in …..

a) Delhi
b) Noida
c) Chennai
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d) Kolkata

20. Planning Commission of India is dissolved on…

a) 1st January 2015
b) 17th August 2014
c) 1st April 2014
d) 15th August 2014

21. Who was the predecessor of WTO?

a) GATT
b) GAAT
c) ITO
d) UNCTAD

22. GATT was transformed into a WTO with effect from …….
a) April 2000
b) March 1991
c) January 1995
d) April 1995

23. MFA stands for ……

a) Multilateral Finance Agreement
b) Multifiber Arrangement
c) Multilateral Federation of Agriculture
d) None of these

24.FEMA is a replacement to which Act?

a) MRTP Act
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b) FERA
c) Competition Act
d) Companies Act

25. Critical success factors in the public sector usually relate to one of the
following:
a) More than one stakeholder
b) The expectation of service users
c) Government imposed standards
d) The expectation of providers of fund

26. Which one is not the main objective of fiscal policy of India?
a) To increases liquidity in the economy
b) To minimize inequalities of income
c) To promote price stability
d) To promote employment opportunity

27. Which of the following denote the structural changes in Indian economy?
a) Service sector contribution has gone up.
b) Secondary sector has not changed much
c) Primary sector contribution has gone down
d) All the above

28. Public Enterprise is defined as___

a) An organization run by joint efforts of Centre and State Governments.
b) An organization which caters to the needs relating to public utilities.
c) An organization in which capital is invested by public.
d) An organization owned and managed by public
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29. Expand MSME

a) Medium , Small and Micro Enterprises
b) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
c) Minimum, Small and Medium Enterprises
d) None ofthese

30. Which among the following is limitation of Trade Union in India

a) Multiplicity of unions
b) Outside leadership
c) Lack of integrity
d) All the above

31. NDC stands for ___

a) National Defense Council
b) National Development Council
c) National Development Committee
d) None of these

32. Practice of charging different price for a product from different markets is
called…….
a) Dumping
c) Differential pricing
b) Price discrimination
d) Strategic pricing

33. …….. refers to the enterprise owned and managed jointly by the
Government and Private sector.
a) Joint sector
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c) Joint venture
b) Public private participation
d) None of these

34. Which among the following is a demerit of privatization?

a) Connivance
c) Wrong labour strategies
b) Monopoly elements
d) All the above

35. PSE stands for…..

a) Private sector enterprises
c) Public sector enterprises
b) Private service enterprises
d) None of these

36. In 1993 Government of India set up a committee on disinvestment under

the chairmanship of ….
a) Dr. Manmohan Singh
c) C. Rangarajan
b) Raghuram Rajan
d) Y.V Reddy

37. IDRA stands for…………….

a) Industrial Development Registration Act
b) Industries Development and Regulation Act
c) Industries De-recognition and Registration Act
d) None of these
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38. Which among the following in is included in Navaratnas?

a) NTPC
c) ONGC
b) BHEL
d) All the above

39. UNCTAD stands for………….

a) United Nations Committee on Trade and Development
b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
c) Union of National Committee on Trade and Commerce
d) None of the Above

40. Which of the following is part of monetary policy decision?

a) Fixing SLR
c) Fixing CRR
b) Demonetization
d) All the above

41. …………….. is a part of economic policy of a country

a) Industrial policy
c) Import policy
b) Export policy
d) All the above

42. Approaches of a government towards public expenditure and revenue are

known
as………
a) Budgets
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c) Monetary policy
b) Fiscal policy
d) Industrial policy

43. Monetary policy in India is framed by the…..

a) RBI
c) Ministry of finance
b) Ministry of corporate affairs
d) Planning commission

44. Entry barriers include………

a) Capital requirements
b) Monopoly
c) Requirement of investment
d) All the above

45. Low-income economies are also called…………

a) Third world
b) Underdeveloped nations
c) Developing nations
d) Second world

46. …….sector contributes more than 70% of world GDP

a) Agriculture
b) Service
c) Automobile
d) Manufacturing
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47. The analysis which helps to diagnose the competitive forces and to identify
the strength and weakness is called…..
a) SWOT analysis
b) Competitive analysis
c) Structural analysis
d) Financial analysis

48. A mission statement explains ………………… of a firm.

a) Philosophy
b) Scope
c) Tasks
d) All the above

49. Strategy of a firm is shaped by…………………

a) Mission
b) Objectives
c) SWOT
d) All the above

50. …… process by which a firm determine whether their strategic choice as

implemented in
meeting the objectives.
a) Evaluation of strategies
c) SWOT analysis
b) Screening of strategies
d) None of these

51. Generation of electricity includes in which sector?

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a) Industry
b) Tertiary
c) Primary
d) Service

52. Commodities are the goods produced by …… sector

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) None of these

53. Industrial Relation refer to :

a) Central Government and State Government relations.
b) Employer, Employees and Government relationship.
c) management and Customer's relationship.
d) Government and Public relations.

54. Who is known as ‘safety valve’ in the field of industrial relations ?

a) Employer
b) Trade Union
c) Safety officer
d) Welfare officer.

55.Which one of the following cannot be included under the purview of

industrial relations?
a) Relations between trade unions and trade unions
b) Relations between employers and trade unions
c) Relations between employers and customers
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d) Relations between state, employer and trade unions

56. Absence of strikes and lock-outs is an indicator of:

a) Peaceful industrial relations.
b) Friendly industrial relations
c) Disturbed industrial relations
d) None of the above

57. The Government’s strategy in maintaining industrial relations in India is:

a) Laissez fair
b) Total intervention
c) Required intervention.
d) none of the above

58. Bipartite industrial relations include relations between:

a) Management and unions.
b) Union and government
c) Management & Government
d) Management, Government & Union

59. Which of the following machinery cannot be said to be bipartite machinery

in the field of industrial relations?
a) Works Committee
b) Joint Management Council
c) Shop Level Council
d) Canteen committee.
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60.Which of the following cannot be said to be tripartite machinery in the field

of industrial relations?
a) Indian Labour Conference
b) Standing Labour Committee
c) International Labour Organisation
d) Wage board.

61.Which of the following ministries looks after industrial relations situation in

the country?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
c) Ministry of Welfare
d) Ministry of Labour and employment.

62. Which one of the following international organisations is directly related to

industrial relations?
a) United Nations Organisation
b) UNESCO
c) World Health Organisation
d) International Labour Organisation.

63. Which of the following legislations cannot be included in the category of

industrial relations legislations in India?
a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
b) Trade Union Act, 1926
c) Industrial Employment (Standing orders)Act, 1946.
d) Equal Remuneration Act. 1976
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64. Which of the following is not included under industrial relations policy of a
country?
a) Recognition of trade unions and collective bargaining.
b) Restrictions on strikes and lock-outs.
c) Workersparticipation in management
d) Principles of wages determination.

65. Which of the following regulates industrial relations in India?

a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and Trade Unions Act, 1926.
b) Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act, 1946
c) Code of Discipline and Inter-union Code of Conduct
d) All of the above.

66. Peaceful industrial relations denote: Ans.

a) Absence of strike and lock out
b) Emphasis on bipartitism.
c) Co-operation between the parties
d) All of the above.

67. A board of conciliation under the industrial disputes act, 1947 may consist
of :
a) Three persons.
b) Five persons.
c) Three or five persons.
d) None of the above.
68. The appropriate government may appoint one or more industrial tribunals
for adjudication of industrial disputes relating to any matter, whether specified
in :
a) The second Schedule.
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b) The Third Schedule.

c) Second or third schedule.
d) None of the above.

69. Section 22 and 23 of the industrial disputes act, 1947 are related to
a)lay-off and Retrenchment.
b)Strikes and lock-outs.
c)Closure.
d)Protect workmen

70. The industrial disputes act in India was passed in :

a) 1926
b) 1946
c) 1947
d) 1948

71. Works-committee is a:
a) Bi-partite body.
b) Tripartite body.
c) Adjudication machinery.
d) Wage fixing machinery.

72. The conciliation officer generally concludes his proceeding within:

a) Ten Days
b) Fourteen days.
c) One month.
d) Two months.
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73. Which of the following methods is not incorporated under the industrial
disputes act, 1947.
a) Collective bargaining.
b) Conciliation
c) Arbitration.
d) Adjudication

74. Till what period from the conclusion of adjudication proceedings a

workman cannot go on strike under the industrial disputes act’ 1947
a) Six Months.
b) Four months.
c) Three months.
d) Two months.

75. According to Mahatma Gandhi which one is the best method for
settlement of industrial
disputes?
a) Conciliation
b) Mediation.
c) Collective bargaining
d) Voluntary Arbitration.

76. A lightening strike denotes:

a) Going on strike after serving a notice of strike.
b) Going on strike after obtaining strike ballot.
c) Going on strike after making all necessary preparation
d) Going on strike suddenly.
77. Lockout is:
a) A reward.
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b)An industrial action.

c) An incentive.
d) None of the above.

78. A lockout in an industry is declared by:

a) Union Government.
b) State Government.
c) Management.
d) Trade Union.

79. In India, the ‘right to strike’ is:

a) A Fundamental Right.
b) Conferred by legislation.
c) Provided under the directive Principal of state policy.
d) Conferred of Government order.
80. As per the industrial disputes act, 1947 strikes and lockouts in public utility
services will be legal only when :
a) A written notice of strikes or lock out is given within six weeks of strike or
lockout.
b) Not resorting to strikes or lockouts within 14 days or giving such a notice.
c) During the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a Conciliation
Officer and 07 days after the conclusion of such proceeding.
d) All the above.
81. General provisions regarding lay-off are given in the industrial disputes act,
1947 in its :
a) Chapter –V A
b) Chapter-VB.
c) Chapter-VI.
d) Chapter-VII.
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82. The period of one year of continuous service under the industrial Disputes
Act, 1947 means?
a) An uninterrupted service of the all 365 days.
b) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.
c) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.
d) 240 days service in a year.

83. Retrenchment in organisations employing less than 100 workers can be

done only when:
a) The workmen has been given atleast one month notice in writing indicating
the reasons of retrenchment or wages in lieu of notice.
b) The workmen has been paid retrenchment compensation.
c) A notice served on the appropriate government.
d) All the above

84. The provisions regarding closure have been given under:

a) Trade union Act, 1926.
b) Industrial disputes act, 1947
c) Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1948.
d) None of the above.

85. No notice of closure will be required to be given to the appropriate

government indicating the reasons if the undertaking is set-up for the
construction of:
a) Building.
b) Bridges.
c) Roads, Canals & Dams.

d) All the above.

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86. Award means an interim or final determination of any industrial dispute by:
a) Labour Court.
b) Industrial Tribunal or National Tribunal.
c) An Arbitrator under section 10A.
d) All of the above.

87. An Award must be published by the appropriate government in the official

gazette within:
a) 15 days from date of the receipt.
b) 30 days from date of the receipt.
c) 45 days from date of the receipt.
d) 60 days from date of the receipt

88. Which of the following is not an unfair labour practice on the part of
Employers and Trade Unions of Employers?
a) To interfere with restrain from or coerce workmen in the exercise of their
right to organize.
b) To dominate, interfere with or contribute, support, financial or otherwise to
any trade union.
c) To establish employer-sponsored trade unions of workmen.
d) To submit list of workmen for recognition as protected workmen to the
appropriate government.

89. Who among the following can be said to be the first labour leader of India.
a) N.M. Joshi
b) V.V. Giri.
c) N.M. Lokhande
d) D.C. Athaide
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90. In a factory employing less than 1000 workers, the wages of every person
employed
therein shall be paid:
a) Before the expiry of pay day.
b) Before the expiry of the fifth day.
c) Before the expiry of the seventh day.
d) Before the expiry of the tenth day.

91.Wages under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 can not be paid:
a) In Cash
b) In Kind
c) By Cheque.
d) By crediting in his Bank Accounts

92. Which of the following is authorized deduction under Payment of Wages

Act, 1936?
a) Contribution under the E.S.I. Act, 1948.
b) Contribution under the Employees Provident Fund Act, 1952.
c) Recovery of loan and advance.
d) All the above

93. Minimum wages may be fixed by an appropriate government:

a) by Notification method
b) by committee method
c) both “a” and “b”
d) none of the above.

94. Minimum wages can be fixed by the appropriate government under the
minimum wages act, 1948:
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a) only for scheduled employments.

b) only for non-scheduled employments.
c) both “a” and “b”
d) none of the above

95. An employee shall be disqualified for receiving bonus under the payment
of bonus act 1965 if :
a) he is a member of a trade union
b) he has not completed one year of continuous service
c) he is not an efficient worker
d) he has been dismissed from service for fraud or violent behavior.

96. Wages or salary under the payment of bonus act, 1965 will include only:
a) basic wages and dearness allowances.
b) house rent allowance
c) attendance bonus
d) medical allowance.

97. Under the factories act, 1948 a child is prohibited from employment if he is
below:
a) 18 years
b) 16 years
c) 14 years
d) 12 years

98. Which of the following is not a welfare amenity under the factories act,
1948:
a) First aid
b) Shelter and rest rooms
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c) washing facilities
d) Co-operative society

99. As per the factories act, 1948 one additional first aid box must be provided
for every :
a) 100 workers
b) 150 workers
c) 500 workers
d) 1000 workers

100. According to the factories act, 1948 the employer must provide a canteen
where atleast :
a) 100 workers are employed
b) 150 workers are employed
c) 250 workers are employed
d) 500 workers are employed

101. The factories act, 1948 does not make provision for workers regarding
their :
a) insurance
b) health
c) safety
d) welfare

102. No adult worker will be required to work in a factory for more than:
a) 10 hours a day and 48 hours a week
b) 8 hours a day and 48 hours a week
c) 9 hours a day and 48 hours a week
d) none of the above
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103. The spread over for an adult worker in a normal situation in a factory
should no be more than :
a) 12 hours a day
b) 10 ½ hours a day
c) 9 hours a day
d) none of the above

104. After which of the following incidents in India, a separate chapter relating
to the
hazardous processes” was incorporated in 1987 under the factories act, 1948 :
a) Railway Accident of Bombay
b) Jharia Coal Mine Accident
c) Bhopal Gas Incident
d) All the above

105. Which of the following risks of life is covered by the workmen’s

compensation act,
1923?
a) Rs.2400 per month
b) Rs.5000 per month
c) Rs.6500 per month
d) There is no wage limit.

106. The impact of accidents under the workmen’s compensation act must
remain atleast for:
a) two days
b) three days
c) one week
d) three months
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107. Which of the following risks of life is covered by the workmen’s

compensation act,
1923?
a) Sickness and Disablement
b) Maternity and Death
c) Disablement, Death and Occupational Diseases
d) Unemployment and Old-age

108. Temporary disablement benefit will be paid to an injured workman under

the workmen’s compensation act, 1923 for a maximum period of
a) three months
b) six months
c) one year
d) five years

109. An appeal against the decision of the workmen’s compensation

commissioner can be
filed:
a) in any district court
b) only in high court
c) in a labour court
d) none of the above

110. The 10% contribution under the employees' provident funds and
miscellaneous
provisions act, 1952 will be of :
a) basic wages only
b) basic wages and dearness allowance only
c) Basic wages, dearness allowance and retaining allowance if any
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d) basic wages, dearness allowance, house rent allowance city compensatory

allowances
111. The maternity benefit act, 1961 applies to :
a) Factories, Mines, Plantation
b) Shops, Establishments
c) An establishment where persons are employed for the exhibition of
equestrian or
acrobatics.
d) All the above.

112. During the period of maternity leave a woman will be paid at the of :
a) half of her average daily wages
b) average daily wages
c) less than Rs. 10 per day
d) none of the above

113. In case of miscarriage a woman employee under the maternity benefit

act, 1961 is
entitled to :
a) 12 weeks maternity leave
b) 6 weeks maternity leave
c) no maternity leave at all
d) none of the above

114. In which of the following the payment of gratuity act, 1972 is not
applicable?
a) factory, mine
b) plantation, port, railway company
c) shops and establishments
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d) agriculture

115. Gratuity has been defined under the payment of gratuity act as:
a) social security benefit
b) retrenchment benefit
c) Unemployment benefit
d) it has not been defined at all

116. According to the payment of gratuity act, 1972, who among the following
can be
declared as nominee by an employee after completion of one year of service:
a) wife or wives
b) son or sons
c) daughter or daughters
d) all the above

117. In which year the trade unions act in India was enacted?
a) 1923
b) 1924
c) 1926
d) 1936

118. An application for registration by a trade union shall become invalid if :

a) 25% of the total number of persons who made the application have ceased
to be members of the trade union.
b) exceeding 50% of the total number of persons who made the application
have ceased to be members of the trade union
c) 75% and above of the total number of persons who made the application
have ceased to be members of the trade union
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d) none of the above

119. Every registered trade union shall send to the registrar every year :
a) a quarterly return
b) half yearly return
c) annual return
d) none of the above

120. Real wage is

a) the living wage
b) the fair wage
c) the purchasing power of the wage
d) the minimum wage

121. India’s economic planning cannot be said to be:

a. Indicative
b. Imperative
c. Limited
d. Democratic.

122. The one rupee not bears the signature of :

a. RBI governor
b. President of India
c. Finance Minister
d. Finance Secretary

123. The term “Exempted Employee” is defined under section …….

of the PF Act, 1952
A. 2 (gg)
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B. 2(hh)
C. 2(ff)
D. 2(cc)

124. An employee is said to be exempted if the exemption is granted

under section………
A. 26
B. 17
C. 14
D. 20

125. The Insurance Scheme is framed under sub-section (1) of the

Section ……… of the PF Act, 1952.
A. 8-A
B. 7-B
C. 6-C
D. 5-D

126. The Employees’ Pension Fund is established under sub-section

(2) of the section ………
A. 8-A
B. 7-A
C. 6-A
D. 5-A

127. An employer who contravenes or makes default in complying

with the provisions of section 6 of EPF act, shall be punishable with
imprisonment for a term which may extend to _____ years
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A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5

128. Which of the following labour legislations is implemented only by

the Central Implementation Machinery?
A. Trade Unions Act
B. Maternity Benefit Act
C. Industrial Disputes Act
D. Employees’ State Insurance Act
129. Which of the following benefits is covered under social security
schemes?
A. Medical facilities
B. Retirement benefits
C. Compensation facilities
D. All ofthe above

130. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing

Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a member of
the body if he fails to attend
A. Three consecutive meetings
B. Three meetings intermittently
C. Four consecutive meetings
D. Two consecutive meetings

131. Which of the following benefits have not been provided under
the Employee’s State Insurance Act, 1948?
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A. Disablement Benefit
B. Children’s’ Allowance
C. Sickness Benefit
D. Unemployment Allowance

132. In order to qualify for sickness benefit, the insured worker is

required to contribute for -------days in a contribution period of 6
months.
A.78 days
B. 60 days
C. 75 days
D. 91 days

133. The employee welfare facilities available inside the organization

are called
A. intra-mural facilities
B. extravagance
C. extra-mural facilities
D. None of the above

134. An individual who starts, creates and manages a new business can be
called
_____________.
A. A leader
B. A manager
C. A professional
D. An entrepreneur
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135. Which could provide an individual with the motivation to start a new
business venture?
A. The financial rewards.
B. A desire to be independent.
C. Risk taking

D. All the above

136. Which industrial sector promotes small-scale businesses and
Entrepreneurship, and has lower barriers to market entry?
A. Service.
B. Manufacturing.
C. Distribution.
D. Agriculture.

137. Which of the following is the reason for business failure __________.
A. Lack of market research.
B. Poor financial control.
C. Poor management.
D. All the above.

138. A new venture's business plan is important because ______.

A. It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the venture.
B. Can help demonstrate the viability of the venture.
C. Provides a guide for business activities by defining objectives.
D. All the above.

139. State Industrial corporations engage in the development of__________.

A. industrial estates.
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B. institutional estates.
C. individual investors.
D. agricultural entrepreneurs.
140. IFCI stands for_____________.

A. Industrial finance corporation of India.

B. Institutional finance corporation of India.
C. Industrial funding corporation of India.
D. Indian finance corporation and institution.

141. PERT stands for __________.

A. Programme Evaluation and Research Techniques.
B. Project Evaluation and Review Techniques.
C. Programme Evaluation and Review Techniques.
D. Project Evaluation and Research Techniques

142. _____________ is used to accomplish the project economically in the

minimum available
time with limited resources
A. Project Scheduling.
B. Network Analysis.
C. Budget Analysis.
D. Critical Planning.

143. . In _________, machines and equipmentsare arranged in the order or

sequence in which
they are to be used for manufacturing the product
A. Factory Layout.
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B. Product Layout.
C. Process Layout.
D. Combined Layout

144. New Small-Scale industries are exempted from the payment of income tax
under section 80J
is called __________
A. Development Rebate..
B. Investment Allowance.
C. Rehabilitation Allowance.
D. Tax Holiday

145. ____________ is primarily concerned with the identification of the

project demand
potential and the selection of the optimal technology.
A. Techno-economic analysis.
B. Feasibility analysis.
C. Input analysis.
D. Financial analysis.

146. ______________ is an event-oriented approach .

A. CPM.
B. GERT.
C. PERT.
D. WASP

147. _______________ is an activity-oriented approach.

A. CPM
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B. PERT
C. GERT
D. WASP

148. _______________ is the analysis of costs and benefits of a proposed

project with the goal
of assuming a rational allocation of limited funds.
A. Project formulation.
B. Project evaluation.
C. Project appraisal .
D. Project Design.

149. __________________ is the systematic development of a project idea for

the eventual purpose of arriving at an investment decision.
A. Project identification.
B. Project formulation.
C. Project feasibility.
D. Project evaluation.

150. The process of preparing an inventory of skills needed for effective

implementation of
the project is called as ____________.
A. Economic viability.
B. Financial feasibility.
C. Technical feasibility.
D. Managerial competence

151.CPM stands for____________.

A. Continuous Path Method.
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B. Clear Path Method.

C. Critical Path Method.
D. Critical Probabilistic Method.

152. The 'T' in a PESTLE analysis refers to ___________.

A. Time.
B. Technology.
C. Training.
D. Talent.

153. Strategic entrepreneurial marketing has been summarisedas the 4Is:

identification of target
markets, interactive marketing methods, informal intelligence gathering and
what is the fourth?
A. independence.
B. instructiveness.
C. innovation.
D. internet

154. . _____________ is primarily concerned with the identification,

qualification and evaluation
of the project resources.
A. Techno-economic analysis.
B. Feasibility analysis.
C. Input analysis.
D. Financial analysis.

155. Underestimation of project cost leads to ___________.

A. Time under run.
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B. Cost under run

C. Time over run.
D. Cost over run

156. EXIM bank is a __________.

A. State-level institution.
B. Regional -level institution.
C. All India institution.
D. International institution

157. The policy which stressed the role of cottage and small-scale industries for
balanced
industrial development of the country is ___________.
A. IPR 1940.
B. IPR 1948.
C. IPR 1956.
D. IPR 1977.

158. The policy which emphasized the need of promoting small-scale industries
through
integrated industrial development is_____________.
A. IPR 1948.
B. IPR 1956.
C. IPR 1977.
D. IPR 1980.

159. Business means ________.

A. Commerce.
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B. industry and commerce.

C. trade and commerce.
D. selling and buying of goods

160.The Markets and Competitors section of a business plan should contain

____________.
A. A statement of the target market.
B. The size of each market segment.
C. The key characteristics of buyers in each business segment.
D. All the above.

1. The term Entrepreneur is derived from the word

A.English
B .Tamil
C. Hindi
D. French

2. There are ___________ stages in project life cycle.

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

3. ______________ presupposes commitment to tasks to be performed with

well defined
objectives, schedules and budget.
A. Plan
B. Project
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C. Schedule
D. Proposal

4. Projects concerned with industrial development, power generation, mineral

development
will be considered as ___________.
A. Quantifiable project
B. Sectoral project
C. Techno-economic project
D. Feasibility project

5._______________ is concerned with the collection, compilation and analysis

of economic
data for the eventual purpose of locating possible opportunities for
investment.
A. Project selection
B. Project evaluation
C. Project identification
D. Project segmentation

6.What are the 3 basic dimensions of a project?

A. Input, output and process
B. Input, output and materials
C. Input, output and social cost and benefits
D. Input, output and features

7._____________ is an important element in the project planning cycle.

A. Project objective
B. Project idea
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C. Project identification
D. Project selection

8.___________ is the heart of a project.

A. Project idea
B. Project design
C. Project identification
D. Project selection

9.The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
______________.
A. Project Management.
B. Manager life cycle.
C. Project Management Life Cycle.
D. All the mentioned.

10.'E' in MSME sector stands for?

A.Entrepreneurs
B.Enterprises
C.Entities
D.Establishments

11.____ acts as a Principal Financial Institution for the Promotion, Financing

and Development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector.
A) Mudra Bank
B) RBI
C) SBI
D) SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India)
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12. Economies are ranked on their ease of doing business by World Bank. A
high ease of doing business ranking means ____.
A) the regulatory environment in a country is more conducive to the starting
and operation of a local firm
B) the regulatory environment in a country does lesser checks on parameters
of doing business
C) the regulatory environment can be managed very easily in a country while
doing business
D) All of these

13. One of the biggest threats Indian MSME sector faces is —————
A) Lack of financial assistance
B) Lack of Marketing Skills
C) Quality of products still to meet International standards
D) lack of bilateral trade

14.Out of which of these activities one of it is supporting growth of MSME

sector in India?
A) ISO Standards
B) Management Education
C) IT revolution
D) Cluster based activities

15. _____is a full-servicecredit rating agencyexclusively set up for micro, small

and medium enterprises (MSME) inIndia.
A) Dun & Bradstreet Information
b) SMERA
c) ADFIAP
D) MUDRA
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16. The body, by whatever name called, to which the management of the
affairs of a trade union is entrusted under Trade Union Act, 1926 means:
(A) Executive
(B) Office Bearer
(C) Registered Office
(D) Trade Union

17. Every woman entitled to maternity benefit under the theMaternity Benefit
Act, 1961 shall also be entitled to receive from her employer
(A) Medical bonus
(B) Leave for miscarriage
(C) Leave with wages for tubectomy operation
(D) All of the above

18. The term Sabbatical is connected with

(A) Paid leave for study
(B) Paternity leave
(C) Maternity leave
(D) Quarantine leave

19. Section 2 (K) of the Factories Act 1947Says about

(A) Manufacturing Process
(B) Factory
(C) Worker
(D) None of these

20. If the factory employs more than 1000Workers, they should appoint
qualified ——————to carry out the prescribed duties
(A) Safety Officer
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(B) Welfare officer

(C) Security officer
(D) None of these

21. Section 41-G of the Factories Act 1948 says about

(A) Fencing of machineries
(B) Facing of machineries
(C) Work on near machinery in motion
(D) Workers participation in safety mgt.

22. Who is responsible for payment to a person employed by him in a Factory

under the Payment of wages Act 1936
(A) Accounts Manager
(B) HR manager
(C) Manager
(D) Owner

23. The occupier of a Factory has to submit the document on or before———

of every year to renewalof a license for a factory.
(A) 31st October of every year.
(B) 30th June of every year
(C) 31st March of every year
(D) 31st December of every year

24. The renewal application for a license submitted by a factory after

December 31st of the every year shall pay the fine amount.
(A) 10 % of the license fee
(B) 20% of the license fee
(C) 30 % of the license fee
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(D) none of these

25. To close down a factory, the occupier has to give———days notice to the
authorities.
(A) 30 Days
(B) 60 Days
(C) 90 Days
(D) 14 Days

26. The annual return under the Factories Actshall be submitted to Inspector of
Factories onor before
(A) 31st January
(B) 31st December
(C) 30th April
(D) 31st March

27. DIKSHA’ web portal is associated with which Union Ministry?

1. Ministry of Education
2. Ministry of Labour and Employment
3. Ministry of Skill Development
4. Ministry of Agriculture

28.The factors which caused variation of minimum wages in India are:

I. Prices of essential commodities
II. Paying capacity
III. Productivity
IV. Differences in exchange rates.
Select the correct answer form the codes given bellow:
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(A) I only
(B) IV only
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

29. The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 protects the interest of workers
in contingencies
such as —
I. Sickness
II. Maternity,
III. Temporary or permanent physical disablement,
IV. Death due to employment injury resulting in loss of wages or earning
capacity.
Select the correct answer form the codes given bellow:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

30. Bockaro steel plant was started during Plan?

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

31. When the productive capacity of an economy is inadequate to create

sufficient number of jobs is called.
a. Seasonal unemployment
b. Structural unemployment
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c. Disguised unemployment
d. Cyclical unemployment

32.The mid day meal scheme was launched on:

a. August 15, 2000
b. August 15, 1992
c. August 15,1995
d. August 15,2001

33. Consider the following statements and identify the right ones
.i. The 1980 industrial policy emphasized "economic federalism"
ii. Liberal license policies were advocated for agro-based industriesa.
c. Both
d. none

34. Which of the following industries was de-reserved in 1993?

a. Atomic energy
b. Atopic mineralsc.
c. Mining of copper and zinc.
d. Railways

35. Which of the following is a category I mini-Ratna?

a. Airports Authority of India
b. MMTC Limited
c. Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Limited
d. All the above

36. Economic liberalization in India started with

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a) Substantial changes in industrial licensing policy

b) The convertibility of Indian rupee
c) Doing away with procedural formalities for foreign direct investment
d) Significant reduction in tax rates

37. Consider the following statements regarding arguments for free trade :
Free trade leads to specialization in production.
Free trade prevents monopoly.
Free trade protects domestic industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c)2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

38. Which of the following factors hamper the development of food-processing

industry in India ?
1.Lack of organized retail sector in India
2.Lack of entrepreneur skills among the people of rural area
3.Lack of support services for food-processing units
4.Adverse government policy towards food-processing units
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c)2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
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39. Regional disparity in per capita income in India has increased in the post-
reform period due to many factors. Which among the following factors has not
contributed to the growth in such disparity ?
a) Decline in the share of public investment
b) Change in policy regime regulating investment location
c) Poor governance and poor infrastructure
d) Allocation of funds by the central government

40. Consider the following statements about the Micro, Small or Medium
Enterprise (MSME) sector –
1. Nearly 50% of the industrial units belong to this sector.
2. It employs nearly 40% of the India’s workforce.
Which of the statement given above is / are correct?
a)1 only
b)2 only
c)Both 1 & 2
d)Neither 1 nor 2

41. Consider the following statements regarding MSMEs(Micro, Small, Medium

Enterprises)-
1. All PSUs, central government ministries and departments have been
directed to procure at least 30
per cent of products and services required by them f rom micro and small
enterprises.
2. There are criteria of previous experience and prior turnover micro, small and
medium startups.
3. MSMEs are formed after MSMEs act, 2006
Which of the given above statement (s) is/ are correct?
a)1 and 2
b)1, 2 and 3
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c)1 and 3
d)3 Only

42. Which of the following is the support and outreach initiative for MSME
sector?
1. the prime minister has launched the historic support and outreach
programmefor the micro,
small and medium enterprises sector.
2. loan amount uptoRs. 1 crore can be granted in -principle apporvalthrough
this portal, in just 59
minutes.
3.all public sector undertakings of the union government must now
compulsorily be a part of GeM.
SELECT THE CORRECT ONE ABOVE:
a)2 and 3
b)1 and 3
c)1 and 2
d)all of the above

43.Which programmewas launched to prevent child trafficking and rescue

children from persons who try to engage them in begging, sexual trade and
antisocial activities?
1.Kilkaari
2.Muskaan
3.Rahat
4.Khusz

44.Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayats:1.

Each such panchayat brings together about a hundred women LPG customers
on an interactive platform to discuss about safe and sustainable usage of
53 | P a g e

LPG.2. One lakh such panchayats will be conducted across India before 31st
March 2019.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1.1 only
2.2 only
3.Both 1 and 2
4.Neither 1 nor 2

45.The ‘Startup India Yatra’ is an initiative that is related toDevelopment of

startup ecosystems in villages.
1.The search for entrepreneurial talent in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities.
2.Awareness workshops on the Startup India Initiative being held at technical
universities across the country.
3.Startup India Hub’s international bilateral cooperation with countries having
strong startup ecosystems.
4.None of the above

46.Consider the following statements about UjwalDiscomAssurance Yojana:1.

It targets reducing the aggregate losses from power theft to 15% by 2019.2. An
envisaged impact of the scheme is increased demand for power.3.The Central
Government will not include the discomdebt taken over by States as per the
above scheme in the calculation of fiscal deficit of respective States for the
financial years 2015-16 to 2019-20.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1.1 and 2 only
2.2 and 3 only
3.1 and 3 only
4.1, 2 and 3

47.GIAN is an initiative aimed at tapping the talent pool of scientist and

entrepreneurs internationally by collaborating Indian institutes of Higher
Education in India with Foreign academics. What is “I” stands for GIAN?
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1.Initiative
2.Interconnection
3.Intelligency
4.Intercommunication

48.What is the full form of the SWAYAM –an indigenous IT platform for hosting
the Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs)?
1.School Website of Active Lesson for Youth Aspiring Minds
2.Study Webs of Active Learning For Young Aspiring Minds
3.Student Website of Active interaction for Young Aspiring Minds
4.Swayam Website of Approachable learning for Youth aspiring minds

49.The ‘Safeguarding the Intangible Cultural Heritage and Diverse Cultural

Traditions of India’ scheme is implemented by which Ministry?
1.Ministry of Culture
2.Ministry of Science and Technology
3.Ministry of Urban Development
4.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

50.The Union Ministry of Culture introduced a new scheme called

_____________ to reimburse the central share of CGST and IGST on items for
food/prasad/langar/bhandaraoffered free of cost by charitable religious
institutions.
1.Jan BhojYojana
2.Jan AaharYojana
3.Seva BhojYojna
4.Seva AaharYojana
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51.The Union Government has reduced the minimum annual deposit

requirement for accounts under Sukanya SamriddhiYojana from Rs 1000 to
_______________.
1.Rs 750
2.Rs 500
3.Rs 250
4.Rs 150

52.With an aim to integrate information technology for better roll out of its
major social sector schemes, Ministry of Woman and Child Development
organized a day-long Seminar on Technology Partnerships for Steering POSHAN
Abhiyaancalled ______________.
1.POSHA-THON
2.POSHA-TECH
3.TECH-THON
4.None of the given options is true

53.Which scheme was launched, to create an ecosystem by promoting

innovations, to foster Start Ups growth in India?
1.Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)
2.Self-Employment and Talent Utilization(SETU)
3.Start Up India Scheme
4.Both A & B

54. What are the other facilities are needed for employees by an organization,
as per the Contract Labour (Regulation And Abolition) Act, 1970
1.washing facilities
2.Washrooms
3.drinking water
4.All the above
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55. The payment of wages Act is applicable to

A. Whole of India
B. India except for J & K
C. Only to J&K
D. Only to limited factories

56.In the case of the factory, ___________ of that factory shall be liable to pay
the wages to employees employed by him as per the Payment of Wages Act.
A. HR manager
B. Manager
C. Production manager
D. Trade Union Leader

57. Which of the following statements is not correct as per

the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?
A. It is applicable to construction industry.
B. It does not apply to employees in Life Insurance Corporation of India.
C. Allocable surplus means 67% of the available surplus.
D. Employee means any person including apprentice

58. The bonus should be paid in cash within ———–months

from the close of the accounting year
A. 8 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 3 months
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59.Which Section of The Child Labour (Prohibition and

Regulation) Act, 1986 defines the term “Child”?
A. Section 1
B. Section 2 (i)
C. Section 2 (ii)
D. Section 2 (iii)

60.Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act is the result of

the ratification by India of which of the following
Conventions of I.L.O?
(A) Unemployment Convention, 1919
(B) Forced Labour Convention, 1930
(C) Weekly Rest (Industry Convention) 1921
(D) Right of Association (Agriculture) Convention, 1921