Which event of hemostasis is initiated by extracellular matrix proteins?
a. Platelet adhesion.
b. Formation of fibrin.
c. Platelet aggregation.
d. Retraction of the blood clot.
2. Which procoagulant agent is available as a double barrel syringe that mixes in a single
delivery barrel when the agent is applied?
a. Zinc chloride.
b. Fibrin sealant.
c. Topical thrombin.
d. Denatured cellulose sponge.
3. Which procoagulant agent is designed for intrasocket use to promote clotting?
a. Zinc chloride.
b. Fibrin sealant.
c. Topical thrombin.
d. Denatured cellulose sponge.
4. Which disadvantage is associated with procoagulant astringent agents?
a. Ischemia and tissue necrosis.
b. Irritating acidic pH of 1.3 to 3.1.
c. Initiates a foreign body response.
d. Requires a preparation time of 30 minutes.
5. Hemophilia A results from a deficiency in which clotting factor?
a. V.
b. X.
c. VII.
d. VIII.
6. Which is NOT a vitamin K-dependent clotting factor?
a. II.
b. IX.
c. VII.
d. VIII.
7. Plasminogen activators have a 47% success rate of thrombolysis when administered within
which amount of time from the start of symptoms?
a. 1 hour.
b. 3 hours.
c. 6 hours.
d. 12 hours.
8. Aminocaproic acid is an example of which type of drug?
a. Fibrinolytic.
b. Antifibrinolytic.
c. Direct-acting anticoagulant.
d. Indirect-acting anticoagulant.
9. Which powerful, naturally occurring anticoagulant originates from the saliva of leeches?
a. Hirudin.
b. Heparin.
c. Bivalirudin.
d. Danaparoid.
10. Which anti-platelet drug is an adenosine diphosphate receptor inhibitor?
a. Aspirin.
b. Tirofiban.
c. Abciximab.
d. Clopidogrel.
1. Elevated plasma triglycerides in the absence of elevated cholesterol is
a. hyperlipemia.
b. hyperlipoproteinemia.
c. cerebrovascular disease.
d. peripheral vascular disease.
2. Atherosclerosis develops predominantly in which vessels?
a. Veins.
b. Capillaries.
c. Post-capillary venules.
d. Medium to large arteries.
3. Which class of lipoprotein has the highest lipid content?
a. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL).
b. High-density lipoprotein (HDL).
c. Very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL).
d. Intermediate-density lipoprotein (IDL).
4. Low-density lipoproteins comprise which percentage of blood’s total plasma cholesterol?
a. 25%.
b. 40%.
c. 60%.
d. 75%.
5. Excretion of cholesterol from the body is accomplished by which means?
a. Urine.
b. Feces.
c. Breath.
d. Perspiration.
6. Which is considered the cornerstone of treatment for hyperlipidemias?
a. Prescription of a single antihyperlipidemic drug.
b. Prescription of a combination of antihyperlipidemic drugs.
c. Over-the-counter remedies, like nicotinic acid and omega-3 fatty acids.
d. Nonpharmacologic remedies, like a low-fat diet, exercise, and smoking cessation
7. Which drug group acts by increasing both the catabolism of very-low-density lipoproteins
(VLDLs) and biliary excretion?
a. Nicotinic acid.
b. Bile acid sequestrants.
c. Fibric acid derivatives.
d. Cholesterol absorption inhibitors.
8. Other lipid-lowering agents do not produce which nicotinic acid-related adverse effect?
a. Nausea.
b. Diarrhea.
c. Flushing.
d. Abdominal pain.
9. Which drug is a bile acid sequestrant?
a. Clofibrate.
b. Pravastatin.
c. Gemfibrozil.
d. Colesevelam.
10. Which lipid-lowering drug group is contraindicated for use in patients with coronary artery
disease?
a. Thyroid-active drugs.
b. Cholesterol absorption inhibitors.
c. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins).
d. Omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs)
1. In addition to mast cells, histamine is stored within which type of white blood cell?
a. Basophil.
b. Monocyte.
c. Neutrophil.
d. Phagocyte.
2. Which histamine receptor produces effects in the gastrointestinal system?
a. H1.
b. H2.
c. H3.
d. H4.
3. Which toxic effect of histamine is most likely to lead to death, if untreated?
a. Dyspnea.
b. Headache.
c. Histamine shock.
d. Cutaneous flushing.
4. Which is the correct mechanism of action of histamine antagonists?
a. Inhibit the breakdown of histamine.
b. Decrease the production of histamine.
c. Compete with histamine for receptor sites.
d. Block the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.
5. The sedative effects of antihistamines are produced where?
a. CNS.
b. Periphery.
c. Respiratory system.
d. Gastrointestinal system.
6. In which case is a H1 antihistamine of little value?
a. Acute urticaria.
b. Seasonal hay fever.
c. Anti-motion sickness.
d. Systemic anaphylaxis.
7. In general, of the first-generation antihistamines, which H1 antihistamine drug group
produces the fewest sedative effects?
a. Alkylamines.
b. Phenothiazines.
c. Ethanolamines.
d. Ethylenediamines.
8. Which drug was first discovered capable of blocking the H2 receptor?
a. Ranitidine.
b. Metiamide.
c. Cimetidine.
d. Burimamide.
9. Superior drugs have replaced H2 antihistamines in which condition?
a. Gastroduodenal ulcers.
b. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
c. Symptomatic relief of acid indigestion.
d. Prevention of gastric aspiration in general anesthesia.
10. Which is a suspected, but not proven, adverse effect of cimetidine?
a. Minor CNS symptoms.
b. Occurrence of gastric cancer.
c. Reversible endocrine symptoms.
d. Increased blood concentrations of specific drugs
1. The corticosteroids used to treat inflammatory lung conditions differ from each other in
a. site of action.
b. adverse effects.
c. receptor-binding affinity.
d. optimal route of administration.
2. Which pulmonary effect of β2-adrenergic receptor agonists is NOT desirable?
a. Bronchodilation.
b. Bronchoprotection.
c. Regulation of alveolar epithelial cell fluid balance.
d. Desensitization and downregulation of β2-adrenergic receptors.
3. Which β2-adrenergic receptor agonist is most widely prescribed?
a. Albuterol.
b. Salmeterol.
c. Levalbuterol.
d. Metaproterenol.
4. Which drug or type of drug is often combined in the same preparation with salmeterol in
an inhaled form?
a. An α-adrenergic receptor agonist.
b. Glucocorticosteroid.
c. Ibuprofen.
d. Metaproterenol.
5. Each occurs when a corticosteroid is coadministered with a β2-adrenergic receptor agonist,
EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
a. Smooth muscle hyperplasia is restrained.
b. Each drug enhances the effect of the other.
c. Tolerance to β2-adrenergic receptor agonist is offset.
d. The potential of systemic effects of corticosteroids is increased.
6. Which asthmatic drug is not effective when administered as an inhalant?
a. Ipratropium.
b. Epinephrine.
c. Theophylline.
d. Isoproterenol.
7. Which drug or drug type is indicated for the treatment of aspirin-induced asthma due to
the ability of aspirin to elevate cysteinyl leukotrienes?
a. Ketotifen.
b. Cromolyn.
c. Anticholinergics.
d. Montelukast.
8. Which over-the-counter antitussive produces effects comparable to codeine phosphate?
a. Noscapine.
b. Benzonatate.
c. Hydrocodone.
d. Dextromethorphan.
9. Which nasal decongestant is commonly used and has a long duration of action?
a. Ephedrine.
b. Epinephrine.
c. Oxymetazoline.
d. Propylhexedrine.
10. Which is a common, easily treatable, adverse effect of inhaled corticosteroids?
a. Weight gain.
b. Oral candidiasis.
c. Metabolic changes.
d. Adrenal suppression.
1. Which drug is most effective in relieving the symptoms of acid-peptic conditions?
a. Ranitidine.
b. Cimetidine.
c. Amoxicillin.
d. Esomeprazole.
2. Which acid-peptic condition has been most closely linked to the bacteria Helicobacter
pylori?
a. Pyrosis.
b. Dyspepsia.
c. Peptic ulcer disease (PUD).
d. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
3. Which agent combines with antacid products to form a sodium alginate gel that protects
the mucosa during episodes of acid reflux?
a. Sucralfate.
b. Alginic acid.
c. Simethicone.
d. Aluminum hydroxide.
4. Which drug is the primary treatment for acid-related disease in pregnancy?
a. Sucralfate.
b. Prostaglandins.
c. Calcium carbonate.
d. Aluminum hydroxide.
5. Which H2 receptor antihistamine produces antiandrogenic adverse effects?
a. Ranitidine.
b. Nizatidine.
c. Cimetidine.
d. Famotidine.
6. Which statement is NOT true about syrup of ipecac?
a. It acts in the CNS and locally.
b. It is available over-the-counter (OTC).
c. Adverse effects are rare when given at recommended dosage.
d. Its efficacy increases if given 90 minutes after intake of the poison.
In which instance are antipsychotics ineffective for the treatment of nausea?
a. Motion sickness.
b. Postoperative emesis.
c. Pregnancy-related nausea.
d. Cancer therapy-related nausea.
8. Which laxative increases fecal water content by osmosis?
a. Stimulants.
b. Stool lubricants.
c. Saline cathartics.
d. Bulk-forming agents.
9. Which is NOT recommended to prevent traveler’s diarrhea when visiting other countries?
a. Prescription antidiarrheals.
b. Prescription of a fluoroquinolone antibiotic.
c. 2 fluid ounces of bismuth subsalicylate taken 4 times daily.
d. “The rule of P’s”: food is safe if it is peeled, packaged, purified, or piping hot.
10. Which class of drug does loperamide belong to?
a. Opioid.
b. NSAID.
c. Antibiotic.
d. Antihistamine.
