Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /

- 12 Papers) 8527521718

1 If density of a solution is 2.15 g mL–1, then a mass 5 One mole of carbon atom weighs 12 g, the number
of 2.5 mL solution in correct significant figures is of atoms in it is equal to, (Mass of carbon – 12 is
1. 5375 × 10–3 g g)
−23
1. 9926 × 10

2. 5.4 g (1) 1. 2 × 10 23

3. 5.38 g (2) 6. 022 × 10 22

4. 53.75 g (3) 12 × 10 22

(4) 6. 022 × 10 23

2 What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to

neutralize 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the 6 The maximum number of atoms is present in which
following reaction? of the following -
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) 1. 1 g of Mg(s)
[Calculate upto the second place of decimal point] 2. 1 g of O2 (g)
1. 9.50 g 3. 1 g of Li(s)
2. 1.25 g
4. 1 g of Ag(s)
3. 1.32 g
4. 3.65 g
7 The density of a 2 M aqueous solution of NaOH is
3 Match list-I with list-II: 1.28 g/cm . The molality of the solution is:
3

List-I List-II [molecular mass of NaOH = 40 gmol ] −1

1. 1.20 m
(a) 4.48 litres of O2 at STP (i) 0.2 moles 2. 1.56 m
22 molecules 23 3. 1.67 m
(b) 12.022 × 10 (ii) 12.044 × 10
of H2O molecules 4. 1.32 m
(c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g The number of moles of hydrogen molecules
8
(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through
(Given - Molar volume of a gas at STP - 22.4 L) Haber's process is -
Choose the correct answer from the options given 1. 40 mol
below: 2. 10 mol
(a) (b) (c) (d) 3. 20 mol
1. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) 4. 30 mol
2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 9 A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid
4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) is treated with conc. H SO . The evolved gaseous
2 4

mixture is passed through KOH pellets.

Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be:
4 An organic compound contains 80 % (by wt.) 1. 1.4
carbon and the remaining percentage of hydrogen. The 2. 3.0
empirical formula of this compound is: 3. 2.8
[Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] 4. 4.4
1. CH3
2. CH4 10 The number of water molecules are maximum in
3. CH which of the following?
4. CH2 1. 18 mL of water
2. 0.18 g of water
3. 0.00224 L water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
4. 10-3 mol of water

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
- 12 Papers) 8527521718

11 The parameter which is temperature dependent is: 15 If radius of second Bohr orbit of the ion is
+
He

1. Molarity 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li 2+

2. Mole fraction ion?

3. Weight percentage 1. 158.7 Å
4. Molality 2. 158.7 pm
3. 15.87 pm
12 Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two 4. 1.587 pm
compounds XY2 and X3Y2. If 0.1 moles of XY2 weighs
Which one of the following electrons in the ground
10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic 16
weight of X and Y ,respectively, will be state will have least amount of energy?
1. 40, 30 1. An electron in hydrogen atom.
2. 60, 40 2. An electron in 2p orbital of carbon atom.
3. 20, 30 3. The electron of copper atom present in 4s orbital.
4. 30, 20 4. The outermost electron in sodium atom.

13 Match List-I with List-II: 17 A monochromatic infrared range finder of power

List-I List-II 1mW emits photons with wavelength 1000 nm in 0.1
(quantum number) (Orbital) second. The number of photons emitted in 0.1 second is-
(a) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (i) 2s (Given -h = 6.626 × 10 J s , c = 3 × 10 m s ,
−34 8 −1

(b) n = 3, ℓ = 2 (ii) 3s Avogadro number = 6.022 × 10 ) 23

(c) n = 3, ℓ = 0 (iii) 2p 1. 30 × 10 37

(d) n = 2, ℓ = 0 (iv) 3d 2. 5 × 10 14

3. 30 × 10 34

Choose the correct answer from the options given below 4. 5 × 10 11

:
18 A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi,
(a) (b) (c) (d) broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The
1 (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by
8
2 (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) the transmitter is : [speed of light, c = 3. 0 × 10 ms ] −1

3 (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 1. 2192 m

4 (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 2. 21.92 cm
3. 219.3 m
14 When electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 300 4. 219.2 m
nm falls on the surface of a metal, electrons are emitted 19 The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in 3s
with the kinetic energy of 1.68 × 105 J mol–1. The orbital are
minimum energy needed to remove one mole of electron 1. 0 and 2, respectively
from the metal is: 2. 1 and 0, respectively
(h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js, c = 3 × 108 ms–1, NA = 6.022 × 3. 3 and 0, respectively
1023 mol–1) 4. 0 and 1, respectively
1. 2.31 × 106 J mol–1
20 The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
2. 3.84 × 104 J mol–1 175
Lu, respectively, are:
3. 3.84 × 10–19 J mol–1
71

1. 104, 71 and 71
4. 2.31 × 105 J mol–1 2. 71, 71 and 104
3. 175, 104 and 71
4. 71, 104 and 71

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
- 12 Papers) 8527521718

21 Orbital having 3 angular node and 3 total nodes is: 27 Incorrect statement among the following is:
1. 5 p 1. The uncertainty principle is Δx ⋅ Δp ≥ h

4π
2. 3 d 2. Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater
3. 4 f stability due to greater exchange energy,
4. 6 d greater symmetry, and a more balanced arrangement.
3. The energy of the 2s orbital is less than the energy of
22 In hydrogen atom, what is the de Broglie the 2p orbital in the case of hydrogen-like atoms.
wavelength of an electron in the second Bohr orbit is: 4. De-Broglie's wavelength is given by λ = h
, where
[Given that Bohr radius, a = 52. 9 pm]
0
m= mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the
mv

(1) 211.6 pm particle.

(2) 211.6 πpm
(3) 52. 9 πpm
(4) 105.8 pm
28 How many electrons can fit in the subshell for
which n = 3 and l = 1?
23 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order 1. 2
2. 6
of decreasing energy. The correct option is: 3. 10
1. 5f>6p>4d>5p 4. 14
2. 5f>6p>5p>4d
3. 6p>5f>5p>4d
4. 6p>5f>4d>5p
29 A pair of d-orbitals having electron density along
the axes is:
24 Which of the following series of transitions in the 1. d , d z
2 xz

2. d , d
spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region? xz zy

1. Brackett series 3. d , d z
2 2
x −y
2

2. Lyman series 4. d , d xy 2
x −y
2

3. Balmer series
4. Paschen series 30
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are
25 The incorrect statement among the following is: distinguished by?
1. Total orbital angular momentum of an electron in 's' 1. Magnetic quantum number
orbital is equal to zero. 2. Azimuthal quantum number
2. An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers, 3. Spin quantum number
while an electron in an atom is designated by four 4. Principal quantum number
quantum numbers.
3. The electronic configuration of N atom is 31 First ionization enthalpies of elements X and Y are
419 kJ mol–1 and 590 kJ mol–1, respectively and second
ionization enthalpies of X and Y are 3069 kJ mol–1 and
1145 kJ mol–1, respectively. The correct statement is :-
4. The value of m for dz is zero.
2

1. X is an alkali metal and Y is an alkaline earth metal.

26 The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. 2. X is an alkaline earth metal and Y is an alkali metal.
It will belong to which of the following family/group 3. Both X and Y are alkali metals.
and electronic configuration.
4. Both X and Y are alkaline earth metals.
1. Carbon f amily[Rn]5 f 6d 7s 7p
14 10 2 2

2. Oxygen f amily[Rn]5 f 6d 7s 7p
14 10 2 4

32 The correct order of first ionization enthalpy for the

3. N itrogen f amily[Rn]5 f 6d 7s 7p
14 10 2 6

given four element is:

4. H a log en f amily[Rn]5 f 6d 7s 7p
14 10 2 5

1. C < N < F < O

2. C < N < O < F
3. C < O < N < F
4. C < F < N < O

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
- 12 Papers) 8527521718

33 The IUPAC name of an element with atomic 37 For the second period elements, the correct
number 119 is: increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
1. Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
1. ununoctium 2. Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
2. ununennium 3. Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
3. unnilennium 4. Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
4. unununnium
38 Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an
34 Match list-I with list-II: ionic compound. If the ground state electronic
List-I List-II configuration of (X) is 1s 2s 2p , the simplest formula
2 2 3

Elements Atomic radii (pm) for this compound is :

(a) O (i) 88 1. Mg X
2 3

(b) C (ii) 74 2. MgX 2

(c) B (iii) 66 3. Mg X
2

4. Mg X
(d) N (iv) 77 3 2

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below: 39
(a) (b) (c) (d) In which of the following options, the order of
arrangement does not agree with the variation of the
1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) property indicated against it?
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 1. B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
3. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 2. I < Br < F < Cl (increasing negative electron gain
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) enthalpy)
3. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
35 Match the element in column I with that in column 4. Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ <F- (increasing ionic size)
II.
Column-I Column-II 40 The correct order of bond angles in the following
(a) Copper (i) Non-metal compounds/species is:
+
1. H O < NH < NH < CO
(b) Fluorine (ii) Transition metal 2 3

+
4 2

2. H O < NH < NH < CO

(c) Silicon (iii) Lanthanoid 2
4
+
3 2

3. H O < NH = NH < CO
(d) Cerium (iv) Metalloid 2
4
3 2

+
4. CO < NH < H O < NH
2 3 2 4

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
41 Match List-I with List-II :
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) List-I List-II
(Molecules) (Shape)
3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(a) NH3 (i) Square pyramidal
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) ClF3 (ii) Trigonal bipyramidal
36 Identify the incorrect match. (c) PCl5 (iii) Trigonal pyramidal
Name IUPAC Official Name (d) BrF5 (iv) T-shape
a. Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium Choose the correct answer from the options given
b. Unniltrium (ii) Lawrecium below:
c. Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium (a) (b) (c) (d)
d. Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium 1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
1. (b), (ii) 2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
2. (c), (iii) 3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
3. (d), (iv) 4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4. (a), (i)

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
- 12 Papers) 8527521718

42 Which amongst the following is an incorrect 47 Match List - I with List - II

statement? List - I List - II
+
1. O ion is diamagnetic.
2 (a) PCl 5 (i) Square pyramidal
2. The bond orders of O , O , O and O are 2.5, 2, (b) SF
+

2
2
−

2
2−

2 6 (ii) Trigonal planar

1.5, and 1, respectively. (c) BrF 5 (iii) Octahedral
3. C molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate π
2
(d) BF 3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
molecular orbitals.
+ Choose the correct answer from the options given below
4. H ion has one electron.
2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
43 Amongst the following, which one will have 1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
maximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions? 2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
1. XeF 2
3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
2. CI F 3 4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
3. I F 5

4. SF 4 48 From the following pairs of ions which one is not

an iso-electronic pair?
44 Which one of the following statements is true about 1. Mn2+, Fe3+
2−
the structure of CO ion?
3
2. Fe2+, Mn2+
1. It can be explained by considering sp3 hybridization. 3. O2-, F-
2.
Out of the three C–O bonds, two are longer and one 4. Na+, Mg2+
is shorter.
3. It has three Sigma and three π-bonds. 49 The non-polar molecule among the following is-
All three C–O bonds are equal in length with a bond 1. SbCl5
4.
order in between 1 and 2. 2. NO2
3. POCl3
45 Which one of the following is the correct order of 4. CH O
2
decreasing bond enthalpies for the given species?
2− −
1. O > O > O > N
2 2
2−
2 2

−
50 Among the compounds shown below which one
2. N > O > O > O
2 2 2 2 will have a linear structure?
− 2−
3. N > O > O > O
2 2 2 2 1. NO2
− 2−
4. O > N > O > O
2 2 2 2
2. HOCl
3. O3
46 3BF is a planar and an electron deficient compound. 4. N2O
Hybridization and number of electrons around the
central atom, respectively are:
1. sp2 and 6
2. sp2 and 8
3. sp3 and 4
4. sp3 and 6

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
- 12 Papers) 8527521718

51 Match the coordination number and type of 54 How many (i) sp2 hybridised carbon atoms and (ii)
hybridization with the distribution of hybrid orbitals in π bonds are present in the following compound?
space based on Valence bond theory.
Coordination number and Distribution of hybrid
type of hybridisation orbitals in space
(a) 4, sp3 (i) Trigonal bipyramidal
(b) 4, dsp2 (ii) Octahedral (1) 7, 5
(c) 5, sp3d (iii) Tetrahedral (2) 8, 6
(3) 7, 6
(d) 6, d2sp3 (iv) Square planar (4) 8, 5

(a) (b) (c) (d) 55 Which of the following set of molecules will have
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) zero dipole moment?
2. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 1. Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide,
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 1 3-dichlorobenzene
2. Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1 3 -
4. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
dichlorobenzene
3. Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon
52 dioxide, 1 4-dichlorobenzene
Molecule Shape or geometry of the molecule 4. Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1, 4-
a. PCl5 Trigonal dichlorobenzene
b. SF6 Octahedral
56 Match the following :
c. BeCl2 Linear Oxide Nature
d. NH3 Trigonal pyramidal (a) CO (i) Basic
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
Identify the wrong match in the above-given pair. (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
1. b
2. c (d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
3. d Which of the following is the correct option?
4. a a b c d
1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
53 The potential energy (y) curve for H2 formation as a 2. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
function of internuclear distance (x) of the H atoms is
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
shown below.
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

57 A molecule that can not exist is-

1. Li 2

2. C 2

3. O 2

4. He 2

The bond energy of H2 is:

1. (b-a)
(c−a)
2. 2

(b−a)
3. 2

4. (c-a)

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
- 12 Papers) 8527521718

58 Match the oxide given in column I with its property 64 Among CaH2 , BeH2 , BaH2 the order of ionic
given in column II character is
Column I Column II 1. BeH < CaH 2 2 < BaH2

(i)Na O 2 (a) Neutral 2. CaH < BeH 2 2 < BaH2

3. BeH < BaH < CaH2

(ii) Al O2 3 (b) Basic 2 2

4. BaH < BeH 2 2 < CaH2

(iii) N O2 (c) Acidic
(iv) Cl O 2 7 (d) Amphoteric 65
Which of the following options is correct? Consider the following species:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) +
CN , CN , NO and CN
−

1. (b) (a) (d) (c) Which one of these will have the highest bond order?
2. (c) (b) (a) (d)
3. (a) (d) (b) 1. NO
(c)
4. (b) (d) (a) 2. CN–
(c)
3. CN+
59 Which of the following is a paramagnetic 4. CN
compound?
1. N 2
66 Which of the following species has a bond angle of
2. H 2
120 °?
3. Li2
1. SF6

4. O 2 2. N Cl3

3. BCl3

60 Which of the following is the correct order of dipole 4. P H3

moment?
1. N H < BF 3 3 < N F 3 < H2 O
67 Which of the following pairs of species have the
2. BF < N F
3 3 < N H3 < H2 O
same bond order?
3. BF < N H < N F 3 < H2 O −
3 3
1. O , N O +

4. H O < N F
2 3 < N H3 < BF3
2

2. CN , CO −

water 3. N , O
−

61 The number of hydrogen bonded 2

2

2. CO, NO
molecules(s) associated with CuSO 4. 5H2 O is-
1. 3
2. 1 68 The hybridisations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in
3. 2 NO+, NO-3 and NH3 respectively are
4. 5 1. sp, sp and sp 3 2

2. sp , sp and sp 2 3

62 A diatomic molecule, among the following species, 3. sp, sp and sp 2 3

that only has π bonds according to the Molecular Orbital 4. sp , sp and sp 2 3

Theory (MOT) is -
1. Be2
69 Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic
2. O2 and isostructural?
3. N2 1. CO , NO 2− −

3 3
4. C2 2. CIO , CO − 2−

3 3
2− −
3. SO , NO
63 The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in pent- 3
−
3
2−
4. CIO , SO
2-en-4-yne is: 2 3

1. 13 σ bonds and no π bond

2. 10 σ bonds and 3 π bonds
3. 8 σ bonds and 5 π bonds
4. 11 σ bonds and 2 π bonds

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
- 12 Papers) 8527521718

70 The correct shape and hybridization for XeF4 are 74

1. octahedral, sp3d2 Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of
2. trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d3 the given statements is false?
3. planar triangle, sp3d3
1. The H-O-H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H-C-
4. square planar, sp3d2
H bond angle in CH4
71 In which of the following molecules, all atoms are 2. The H-C-H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H-N-
H bond angle in NH3
coplanar?
1. 3. The H-C-H bond angle in CH4, the H-N-H bond angle
in NH3 and the H-0-H bond angle in H2O are all greater
than 90o
4. The H-O-H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H-
N-H bond angle in NH3

2.
75 Four gas cylinders containing He, N2, CO2, and
NH3 gases, separately, are gradually cooled from a
temperature of 500 K. Which gas will liquify first?
(Given TC in K – He : 5.3, N2 : 126, CO2 : 304.1 and
3. NH3 : 405.5)
1. He
2. N2
3. CO2
4. NH3
4.
76 A vessel contains 3.2 g of dioxygen gas at STP
(273.15 K and 1 atm pressure). The gas is now
transferred to another vessel at a constant temperature,
72 Predict the correct order among the following. where pressure becomes one-third of the original
1. lone pair-lone pair > bond pair-bond pair >lone pair- pressure. The volume of the new vessel in L is:
bond pair (Given - molar volume at STP is 22.4 L)
2. bond pair-bond pair> lone pair-bond pair>lone pair- 1. 6.72
lone pair 2. 2.24
3. lone pair-bond pair > bond pair-bond pair >lone pair- 3. 22.4
lone pair 4. 67.2
4. lone pair-lone pair> lone pair-bond pair>bond pair-
bond pair 77 Which one is not the correct mathematical equation
for Dalton's Law of partial pressure? Here p = total
73 The pair of electron in the given carbanion, pressure of a gaseous mixture
1. p = χ p , where χ = mole fraction of ith gas in a
o

CH3C≡C–, is present in which orbital? i i i i

gaseous mixture
1. sp3 p = pressure of i
o th gas in a pure state
i

2. sp 2
2. p = p + p + p
1 2 3

3. sp 3. p = n + n
RT
+ n
RT RT
1 2 3
4. 2p V V V

4. p = χ p, where p = partial pressure of ith gas

i i i

th
χ = mole fraction of i
i gas in a gaseous mixture

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
- 12 Papers) 8527521718

78 A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27°C. 81 Choose the correct option for graphical
(Assume O gas is behaving ideally). The pressure representation of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of
2

inside the flask in the bar is: pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures :
-1
(Given R = 0.0831 L bar K mol ) -1 1.
1. 4.9
2. 2.5
3. 498.6
4. 49.8

79 Which of the following is not correct about

postulates of kinetic molecular theory of gases?
1 Pressure of the gas is due to the collision of
. molecules against the walls of the container.
Volume of the gas is due to the large number of
2.
molecules of the gas.
Average kinetic energy of molecules is directly 2.
3.
proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas.
The molecules move randomly with different speeds
4.
in different directions.

80 At 300 K, 250 mL of gas A at 1 bar pressure is

mixed with 500 mL of a gas B at 2 Bar pressure in a 1.0
L flask. Gas A does not react with gas B. The final
pressure of the mixture is-
1. 1.00 bar
2. 2.15 bar
3. 2.50 bar
4. 1.25 bar
3.

4.

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
- 12 Papers) 8527521718

82 The correct option for the total pressure (in atm) in 88 If van der Waals constant "a" for NH3, H2 and
a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a total CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, then
volume of one litre at 0°C is : which one of the following gases is most easily
-1 -1
[Given R=0.082 L atm mol K , T=273 K] liquefied?
1. 25.18 1. NH 3

2. 26.02 2. H 2

3. 2.518 3. O 2

3. 2.602 4. CO 2

83 The minimum pressure required to compress 600 89

dm3 of a gas at 1 bar to 150 dm3 at 40°C is The correction factor 'a' for the ideal gas equation
1. 4.0 bar corresponds to:
2. 0.2 bar 1. density of the gas molecules
3. 1.0 bar 2. volume of the gas molecules
4. 2.5 bar 3. electric field present between the gas molecules
4. forces of attraction between the gas molecules
84 A mixture of N and Ar gases in a cylinder contains
2

7 g of N and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the

2

mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial 90

pressure of N is:
2 Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in
[Use atomic masses (in g mol ): N=14, Ar=40]
−1
a container with a pin-hole through which both can
1. 12 bar escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time
2. 15 bar required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape?
3. 18 bar
4. 9 bar 1. 1/4
2. 3/8
85 In water-saturated air, the mole fraction of water 3. 1/2
vapor is 0.02. If the total pressure of the saturated air is 4. 1/8
1.2 atm, the partial pressure of dry air is-
1. 1.17 atm 91 One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded
2. 1.76 atm isothermally from 1 L to 10 L volume. ΔU for this
3. 1.27 atm process is:
4. 0.98 atm (Use R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
1. 1260 J
86 The volume occupied by 1.8 g of water vapour at 2. 2520 J
374 C and 1 bar pressure will be -
o
3. 5040 J
[Use R=0.083 bar LK −1
mol
−1
] 4. 0 J
1. 96.66 L
2. 55.87 L
3. 3.10 L
4. 5.31 L

87 A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has a molar volume 20

percent smaller than that for an ideal gas under the same
conditions. The correct option about the gas and its
compressibility factor (Z) is:
1. Z<1 and repulsive forces are dominant.
2. Z>1 and attractive forces are dominant.
3. Z>1 and repulsive forces are dominant.
4. Z<1 and attractive forces are dominant.

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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92 Which of the following p-V curve represents the 97 At standard conditions, if the change in the enthalpy
maximum work done? for the following reaction is -109 kJ mol-1
H2(g)+Br2(g) →2HBr(g)
and the bond energy of H2 and Br2 is 435 kJ mol-1 and
192 kJ mol-1, respectively, what is the bond energy (in
1. 2. kJ mol-1) of HBr?
1. 368
2. 736
3. 518
4. 259

98 Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following

3. 4. reaction
Sucrose + H2O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at 300 K, the
value of Δ G at the same temperature will be:
r
⊝

93 The work done when 1 mole of gas expands 1. 8.314 J mol-1 K-1×300 K×ln (2×1013)
reversibly and isothermally from a pressure of 5 atm to 1 2. 8.314 J mol-1 K-1×300 K×ln (3×1013)
atm at 300 K is: 3. -8.314 J mol-1 K-1×300 K×ln (4×1013)
-1
(Given log 5=0.6989 and R=8.314 J K mol ) -1
4. -8.314 J mol-1 K-1×300 K×ln (2×1013)
1. zero J
2. 150 J 99 For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct
3. +4014.6 J
option is:
4. -4014.6 J
1. Δ H > 0 and Δ S < 0
r r

2. Δ H < 0 and Δ S > 0

94 Which one among the following is the correct 3. Δ H < 0 and Δ S < 0
r r

r r
option for right relationship between Cp and CV for one 4. Δ H > 0 and Δ S > 0
r r

mole of an ideal gas ?

1. C = RC
P V 100 The correct option for free expansion of an ideal
2. C = RC
V P
gas under adiabatic condition is:
3. C + C = R
P V
1. q = 0, Δ T < 0 and w > 0
4. C − C = R
P V
2. q < 0, Δ T = 0 and w = 0
3. q > 0, Δ T > 0 and w > 0
95 For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under 4. q = 0, Δ T = 0 and w = 0
isothermal condition, the correct option is :
1. ΔU = 0, Δ S ≠ 0
total
101 An ideal gas expands isothermally from
2. ΔU ≠ 0, Δ S total= 0
m at 300 K against a constant pressure
−3 3 −2 3
10 m to 10
3. ΔU = 0, Δ S total= 0
5

4. ΔU ≠ 0, Δ S ≠ 0
of 10 N m . The work done by the gas is:
−2

total
1. +270 kJ
2. -900 J
96 If for a certain reaction Δ H is 30 kJ mol–1 at 450 3. +900 kJ
r

K, the value of Δ S (in JK–1 mol–1) for which the same 4. -900 kJ
r

reaction will be spontaneous at the same temperature is:

1. 70
2. –33
3. 33
4. -70

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102 Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under 106 For a given reaction, ∆H = 35.5 kJ mol-1 and ∆S =
isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as shown in the 83.6 J K-1 mol-1 .The reaction is spontaneous at:
figure: (Assume that ∆H and ∆S do not vary with temperature)
​1. T>425K
2. All temperatures
3. T>298K
4. T<425K

107 A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated

container against a constant external pressure of 2.5atm
from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of
4.50L. The change in internal energy U of the gas in
joules will be:
1. -500J
2. -505J
AB→Isothermal expansion 3. -506J
AC→Adiabatic expansion 4. -508J
Which of the following options is not correct?
1. ΔS > ΔS
isothermal adiabatic 108 For a sample of a perfect gas when its pressure is
2. T = T
A B changed isothermally from Pi to Pf, the entropy change
3. Wisothermal> W adiabatic
is given by:
4. T > T
C A pf
1. Δs = nR In (
pi
)

103 Under the isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K 2. Δs = nR In (

pi

pf
)

expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant external pf

pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is: 3. Δs = nRT In ( ) pi

[Given that 1 L bar=100 J] pi

1. 30 J 4. Δs = RT In ( ) p
f

2. -30 J
3. 5 kJ 109
4. 25 J The correct thermodynamic conditions for a spontaneous
reaction at all temperatures is:
104 In which case, change in entropy is negative? 1. ΔH > O and ΔS< 0
1. 2H(g) → H (g) 2 2. ΔH < O and ΔS> 0
2. Evaporation of water 3. ΔH < O and ΔS< 0
3. Expansion of a gas at a constant temperature 4. ΔH > 0 and ΔS = 0
4. Sublimation of solid to gas
110 If 0.01 M acetic acid solution is 1% ionised, then
105 The bond dissociation energies of X , Y and XY
2 2
pH of this acetic acid solution is :
are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. ∆H for the formation of XY 1. 3
is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation energy of 2. 2
X2 will be 3. 4
4. 1
1. 200 kJ mol–1
2. 100 kJ mol–1
3. 800 kJ mol–1
4. 400 kJ mol–1

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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111 Kp for the following reaction is 3.0 at 1000 K. 116 The pKb of dimethylamine and pka of acetic acid
CO2 (g) + C(s) → 2CO(g) are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
The value of Kc for the reaction at the same temperature option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution
is: is:
1. 7.75
(Given - R = 0.083 L bar K-1 mol-1)
2. 6.25
1. 0.36
3. 8.50
2. 3.6 × 10-2 4. 5.50
3. 3.6 × 10-3
4. 3.6 117 The salt solutions that is basic in nature is:
1. Ammonium chloride.
112 The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 2. Ammonium sulphate.
0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is 3. Ammonium nitrate.
[Given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.57] 4. Sodium acetate.
1. 2.57
2. 5.57 118 The solubility product for a salt of type AB is
3. 3.57 4 × 10 . The molarity of its standard solution will be:
−8

4. 4.57 1. 2 × 10 mol /L −4

2. 16 × 10 −16
mol /L
113 3O ( g) ⇌ 2O (g)
2 3

3. 2 × 10 −16
mol /L
For the above reaction at 298 K, K is found to be
c
4. 4 × 10 mol /L −4

3.0 × 10
−59
. If the concentration of O at equilibrium is
2

0.040 M, then the concentration of O in M is:

119 Find out the solubility of Ni (OH) in 0.1 M
3
21
1. 1.2 × 10 2

2. 4.38 × 10 −32 NaOH, given that the ionic product of Ni (OH) is 2x

2

−63 −15
3. 1.9 × 10 10

4. 2.4 × 10 31
1. 2 x 10 M. −8

2. 1 x 10 M
−13

114 The solubility product of BaSO in

4 water is 3. 1 x 10 M 8

−13
1.5 × 10
−9
. The molar solubility of BaSO in 0.1 M 4. 2 x 10
4

solution of Ba(NO3)2 in-

1. 2.0 × 10 M −8 120 The pH of a 0.01 M NaOH (aq) solution will be:
2. 0.5 × 10 M −8 1. 7.01
3. 1.5 × 10 M −8 2. 2
3. 12
4. 1.0 × 10 M −8

4. 9
115 Consider the following reaction taking place in 1L
121 Which of the following cannot act both as a
capacity container at 300 K.
Bronsted acid and as a Bronsted base?
A + B ⇌ C + D
1. H CO −

If one mole each of A and B are present initially and at 3

equilibrium 0.7 mol of C is formed, then the equilibrium 2. NH 3

constant (K ) for the reaction is 3. HCl

c
−

1. 9.7 4. H SO 4

2. 1.2
3. 6.2
4. 5.4

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122 The molar solubility of 127 The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2. 42 × 10

−3

CaF2 (Ksp = 5. 3 x 10
−11
) in 0.1 M solution of NaF g/ litre at 298 K. The value of the solubility product will
will be: be:
1. 5. 3 x 10 −11
mol L
−1
(Molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 gmol–1)
2. 5. 3 x 10 −8
mol L
−1
1. 1. 08 × 10 mol
−10
L
2 −2

−9
3. 5. 3 x 10 mol L
−1
2. 1. 08 × 10 mol
−12
L
2 −2

4. 5. 3 x 10 −10
mol L
−1
3. 1. 08 × 10 mol
−14
L
2 −2

2
4. 1. 08 × 10 mol L −8 −2

123 Which will make basic buffer:

1. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl+100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH 128 Which of the following conditions will favour
2. 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH+25 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH maximum formation of the product in the reaction,
3. 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH+100 mL of 0.1 M A (g) + B (g) ⇋ X (g) Δ H = − X k J ?
2 2 2 r

NaOH 1. Low temperature and high pressure

4. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl+200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH 2. Low temperature and low pressure
3. High temperature and high pressure
124 pH of a saturated solution of Ca (OH) is 9. The 4. High temperature and low pressure
2

solubility product (K sp ) of Ca (OH) is:

129 Given are three reactions and their equilibrium
2

1. 0. 5 × 10 −10

2. 0. 5 × 10 −15 constants :
N2 + 3H2 ⇄ 2 NH3 K1
3. 0. 25 × 10 −10

N2 + O 2 ⇄ 2 NO K2
4. 0. 125 × 10 −15

1
H2 + O2 → H2 O K3
2

125 The conjugate bases of Bronsted acids H2O and The equilibrium constant (K) of the following reaction
HF are respectively: will be :
+ +
1. H3O and H2F , respectively. 5
K

2 NH + O ⇄ 2NO + 3H O 3 2 2
2

2. OH- and H2F+, respectively. 1. K2K33/K1

3. H3O+ and F-, respectively. 2. K2K3/K1
4. OH- and F-, respectively. 3. K23K3/K1
4. K1K33/K2
126 Following solutions were prepared by mixing
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
concentrations : 130 The concentration of Ag+ ions in a saturated
−4

A) 60 mL H CI + 40 mL N aOH
M solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2. 2 × 10 mol L
M . The −1

10 10
M solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is
M
B) 55 mL H CI + 45 mL N aOH
10
1. 2. 66 × 10
10 −12

C) 75 mL H CI + 25 mL N aOH
M

5
M

2. 4. 5 × 10
5
−11

D) 100 mL H CI + 100 mL N aOH

M

10
M
3.5. 3 × 10
10
−12

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1? 4. 2. 42 × 10 −8

1. B
2. A
3. D
4. C

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131 A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2 (g) at 136 Among the following the correct order of acidity is
pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the 1. HClO < HClO2< HClO3< HClO4
volume of solid SrO). The volume of the container is 2. HClO2< HClO < HClO3< HClO4
now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in 3. HClO4< HClO2< HClO < HClO3
the container. The maximum volume of the container,
4. HClO3< HClO4< HClO2< HClO
when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will
be:
Given that: SrCO3(s) ⇋ SrO(s) + CO2(g) , kp = 1.6 atm
137 At room temperature, MY and NY3, two nearly
insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 x 10-13 .
1. 10 litre The true statement regarding MY and NY3 is:
2. 2 litre 1. The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that
3. 4 litre of NY3.
4. 5 litre 2. The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY
than in pure water.
132 The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms 3. The addition of the salt of KY to a solution of MY and
pyridinium ion (C5H5N+H) In A 0.10 M aqueous NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities.
pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 X 10 -9) is 4. The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are
1. 0.0060% identical.
2. 0.013%
3. 0.77% 138 Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed
4. 1.6% conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is
added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be-
133 The solubility of AgCl (s) with solubility product 1. Slower
1.6 x 10-10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be 2. Unchanged
−5 3. Doubled
1. 1. 26 × 10 M
4. Faster
2. 1. 6 × 10 M
−9

−11
3. 1. 6 × 10 M
139 Which of the following reactions is a
4. zero
decomposition redox reaction?
1. 2 Pb(NO ) (s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO (g) + O (g)
134 Boric acid is an acid because its molecule: 3 2 2 2

2. N (g) + O (g) → 2NO(g)

2 2

1. contains replaceable H+ ion. 3.

2. gives up a proton. 2
− − −
Cl (g) + 2OH (aq) → ClO (aq) + Cl (aq) + 4H O(ℓ) 2

- 4.
3. accepts OH from water releasing proton into the − −
solution. P (s) + 3OH (aq) + 3H O(ℓ) → PH (g) + 3H PO (aq)
4 2 3 2 2

4. combines with proton from water molecules.

140 Identify the incorrect statement from the following
135 Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most :
likely to behave as a Lewis base? 1. Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the
1. BF3 alkali metals.
2. Alkali metals react with water to form their
2. PF3
hydroxides.
3. CF4 3. The oxidation number of K in KO2 is +4.
4. SiF4 4. Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from
top to bottom in the group.

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141 At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of 146 What is the change in oxidation number of carbon
Cu
2+
/Cu, Zn
2+
/Zn, Fe
2+
/Fe and Ag
+
/Ag are in the following reaction?
CH + 4Cl → CCl4 + 4 HCl ( g )
0.34 V, −0.76 V, −0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively. 4 (g) 2 (g) (l)

On the basis of standard electrode potentials, predict 1. 0 to +4

which of the following reaction can not occur? 2. -4 to +4
3. 0 to -4
1. 2CuSO (aq) + 2Ag(s) → 2Cu(s) + Ag SO (aq)
4
4. +4 to +4 4
2

2. CuSO4 (aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu(s)

147 The oxidation state of Cr in CrO is - 6

3. CuSO 4 (aq) + Fe(s) → FeSO4 (aq) + Cu(s)

1. -6
4. FeSO 4 (aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Fe(s) 2. +12
3. +6
142 Identify the set from the following sets in which all 4. +4
species can exhibit disproportionation reactions.
1. ClO-2, ClO-3, ClO-4, Cl2
148 The standard electrode potential (E°) value of
3+ +
Al / Al, Ag / Ag, K /K, and Cr / Cr are + 3+

2. Cl2, ClO-2, ClO-3, S8

-1.66V, 0.80 V, -2.93 V, & -0.79 V respectively. The
3. ClO-4, ClO-, ClO-2, F2 correct decreasing order of the reducing power of the
- -
4. ClO 3, ClO 4, H2O2, ClO - metal is-
1. Ag>Cr>Al>K
2. K>Al>Cr>Ag
143 The correct example of metal displacement 3. K>Al>Ag>Cr
reaction among the following is - 4. Al>K>Ag>Cr
1. Fe + 2HCl → FeCl + H ↑ 2 2

2. 2 Pb (NO ) → 2PbO + 4 NO + O ↑
3 2 2 2
149 Which of the following displays a
Δ

3. 2 KClO 3 → 2KCl + 3O2 disproportionation reaction?

4. Cr
Δ

O3 + 2Al → Al2 O3 + 2 Cr
(a) 2 Cu → Cu + Cu
+ 2+ 0

2
2− −
(b) 3 MnO + 4H → 2 MnO
4
+
4
+ MnO2 + 2H2 O

144 The incorrect oxidation number of the underlined (c) 2 KMnO4

Δ
→ K2 MnO4 + MnO2 + O2

atom in the following species −

(d) 2 MnO + 3 Mn
4
2+
+ 2H2 O → 5 MnO2 + 4H
⊕

1. Cu2O is -1 1. (a) and (d) only

−
2. ClO is +53
2. (a) and (b) only
3. K2Cr2O7 is +6 3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. HAuCl4 is +3 4. (a), (c) and (d)

The correct order of N-compounds in its

145 From the following, identify the reaction having 150
the top position in the EMF series (standard reduction decreasing order of oxidation states is -
potential) according to their electrode potential at 298 K. 1. HNO , NO, N , NH Cl 3 2 4

2. HNO , NO , NH Cl , N
1. Mg2++ 2e–→Mg(s)
3 4 2

3. HNO , NH Cl , NO , N 3 4 2

2. Fe2+ + 2e–→ Fe(s) 4. NH Cl , N , NO , HNO 4 2 3

3+ –
3. Au + 3e Au(s)
→

4. K++ le –→K(s)
151 For the redox reaction,
− 2− + 2+
MnO + C2 O + H → Mn + CO2 + H2 O
4 4

the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced

equation are
1. 16, 5, 2
2. 2, 5, 16
3. 2, 16, 5
4. 5, 16, 2

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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152 The element used for welding metals with high 156 Match the following and identify the correct option
melting points is: (a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+Ca(HCO3)2
1. Cl2
(b) Temporary hardness (ii) An electron deficient
2. H2 of water hydride
3. Ne (c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
4. He
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar structure
153 Match List - I with List - II.
List-I List - II (a) (b) (c) (d)
(Hydrides) (Nature) 1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(a) MgH2 (i) Electron precise 2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) GeH4 (ii) Electron deficient 3. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) B2H6 (iii) Electron rich
(d) HF (iv) Ionic
157 The method used to remove the temporary
Choose the correct answer from the options given
hardness of water is-
below:
1. Synthetic resins method
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2. Calgon's method
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 3. Clark's method
2. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 4. Ion-exchange method
3. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
4. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 158 An incorrect statement among the following
regarding hydrogen is -
154 Match list-I with list-II: 1. Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts.
List-I 2. Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in a solution.
List-II 3. Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent.
(Commercial
(Chemical name) 4. Hydrogen has three isotopes of which protium is the
name)
Sodium aluminium silicate most common.
(a) Calgon (i)
(hydrated)
(b) Permutit (ii) Sodium carbonate
159 CaCl2 and Ca(OCI)2 are components of:
1. gypsum
(c) Soap (iii) Sodium hexameta-phosphate
2. Portland cement
(d) Washing soda (iv) Sodium stearate 3. bleaching powder
4. lime water
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: 160 Match List-I with List-II.
(a) (b) (c) (d) List-I List-II
1. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (a) Li (i) absorbent for carbon dioxide
2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (b) Na (ii) electrochemical cells
3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (c) KOH (iii) coolant in fast breeder reactors
4. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (d) Cs (iv) photoelectric cell
Choose the correct answer from the options given
155 Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits below:
which of the following particles? (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. Gamma (γ)
1. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
2. Neutron (n)
2. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
3. Beta (β )
−

4. Alpha (α) 3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

4. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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161 LiF is sparingly soluble in water because it has: 167 HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2,
1. partial covalent character. MgCl2, and NaCl. Compound(s) that get crystallize
2. small electronegativity. is/are-
3. high lattice enthalpy. 1. Only NaCl
4. low hydration enthalpy. 2. Only MgCl2
3. NaCl, MgCl2, and CaCl2
162 Alkali metals, though white, impart characteristic 4. Both MgCl and CaCl
2 2
color to the flame because of
excitation and coming back of valence electrons to 168 Crude sodium chloride obtained by crystallization
1.
the original level.
of brine solution does not contain-
2. oxidation of metal in the presence of flame. 1. M gSO 4

3. excitation of valence electrons. 2. N a SO 2 4

4. gain of electrons. 3. M gCl 2

4. CaSO 4

169 Which of the alkali metal chloride (MCl) forms its

163 Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, dehydrate (MCl.2H 2O ) easily?
the one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents 1. LiCl
is: 2. CsCl
1. Magnesium chloride 3. RbCl
2. Beryllium chloride 4. KCl
3. Calcium chloride
4. Strontium chloride 170 Which of the following is an amphoteric
hydroxide?
164 The structures of beryllium chloride in solid-state, 1. Be (OH)
2

and vapour state are : 2. Sr (OH)

2

1. Dimer, and Linear, respectively. 3. Ca (OH)

2
2. Chain in both. 4. Mg (OH)
2
3. Chain, and dimer, respectively.
4. Linear in both.
171 The most acidic oxide among the following is -
1. MgO
165 Identify the correct statement from the following.
2. BeO
1. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkaline 3. BaO
earth cations is 4. CaO
Be2+ < Mg2+ < Ca2+ < Sr2+ < Ba2+
2. Lithium and Magnesium show some similarities in 172 Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali
their physical properties as they are diagonally placed in metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts
the periodic table. are put under an electric field?
3. Lithium is softer among all alkali metals. 1. K
4. Lithium chloride is deliquescent and crystallizes as a 2. Rb
hydrate, LiCl·6H2O. 3. Li
4. Na
166 Among the role of gypsum, CaSO4.2H2O in the
setting of cement, identify the correct option from the 173 The suspension of slaked lime in water is known
following: as
1. It fastens the setting process 1. lime water
2. It provides water molecules for the hydration process 2. quick lime
3. It help to remove water molecules 3. milk of lime
4. It slows down the setting process 4. washing of lime

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174 In context with beryllium, which one of the 179 Which of the following statement is not correct
following statements is incorrect? about diborane?
1. It is rendered passive by nitric acid
2. It forms Be C
2 1. Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.
3. Its salts rarely hydrolyze
2. There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
4. Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric
The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two-
3.
175 electron bonds.
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron
4.
with CaC2 is . atoms lie in one plane.
1. CaCN
2. CaCN3 180 Choose the correct statement:
3. Ca2CN
4. CaCN2 1. Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.
Diamond and graphite have a two-dimensional
2.
network.
176
Which of the following statements is false? 3. Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.
Diamond is sp³ hybridised and graphite is sp²
1. Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting 4.
hybridized.
2. Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular
beating of the heart
3. Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of plants
4. Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP 181 Which of the following is the correct statement?
1. Ga+ is more stable than ln+.
177 Match List-I with List-II : 2. Al+ is more stable than ln+.
List-I List-II
3. Ga+ is more stable than Al+.
(Compounds) (Molecular formula)
4. Al+ is more stable than Ga+.
(a) Borax (i) NaBO2+B2O3
(b) Kernite (ii) Na2B4O7.4H2O 182 The chain length of silicones can be controlled by
(c) Orthoboric acid (iii) H3BO3 adding:
(d) Borax bead (iv) Na2B4O7.10H2O 1. CH SiCl 3 3

2. SiCl 4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below 3. (CH ) SiCl
3 2 2
:
4. (CH ) SiCl 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
183 Which of the following oxide is amphoteric in
2. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) nature?
3. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 1. SnO2
4. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) 2. SiO 2
heat 3. GeO2
178 N a2 B4 O 7 −−−→ X + N aBO2 4. CO2
in the above reaction the product "X" is :
1. H3BO3
2. B2O3
3. Na2B2O5
4. NaB3O5

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184 Identify the correct statements from the following: 190 The correct order of atomic radii among the group
a. CO (g) is used as a refrigerant ice-cream and frozen
2 13 elements is-
food. 1. B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
b. The structure of C customs12 six carbon rings and
60
2. B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
25 five carbon rings 3. B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
c. ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convent alcohol 4. B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
into gasoline.
d. CO is a colorless and odorless gas 191 The correct statement regarding inert pair effect is
1. (a) and (c) only -
2. (b) and (c) only 1. Sn2+ is an oxidizing agent while Pb4+ is a reducing
3. (c) and (d) only agent.
4. (a), (c) and (c) only
2. Sn2+ and Pb2+ both are oxidizing agents.
4+ 4+
185 Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution 3. Sn is a reducing agent while Pb is an oxidizing
agent.
forms a complex 'A'. The formula of A and hybridisation
state of Al in 'A' is respectively- 4. Sn2+ is a reducing agent while Pb4+ is an oxidizing
agent.
1. [Al(H2O)6]3+, sp3d2
2. [Al(H2O)4]3+, sp3 192 AlF3 is soluble in HF only in the presence of KF
3. [Al(H2O)4]3+, dsp2 due to the formation of-
4. [Al(H2O)]3+, d2sp3 1. K (AIF H )
3 3 3

2. K (AIF )
3 6

186 Which of the following compounds is used in 3. AIH 3

4. K(AIF H) 3
cosmetic surgery?
1. Silica
2. Silicates 193 What is the hybridization shown by C1 and C2
3. Silicones carbons, respectively in the given compound?
4. Zeolites OHC – CH = CH – CH2COOCH3
1. sp2 and sp3
187 The incorrect statement among the following is -
2. sp2 and sp2
1. SnF4 is ionic in nature 3. sp3 and sp2
2. PbF4 is covalent in nature
4. sp3 and sp3
3. SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
4. GeX4 (X=F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than GeX2 194 Which of the following is the most stable
carbocation?
188 Which of the following species is not stable?
2−
1. [SiCl6 ]

2− 1. 2.
2. [SiF6 ]

2−
3. [GeCl6 ]
2−
4. [Sn (OH) ]
6

3. 4.
189 An element that cannot form MF ion is -
3−

1. Ga
2. Al
3. B
4. In

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195 The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of 198 The compound which shows metamerism is:
nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen 1. C3H6O
in which one of the following compounds? 2. C4H10O
3. C5H12
4. C3H8O
1. 2.

199 The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is

:

3. 4.
1. 2.

196 The correct IUPAC name of the following

compound is :
3. 4.

200 A liquid compound (x) can be purified by steam

1. 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol distillation only if it is
2. 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol 1. Steam volatile, immiscible with water
3. 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhaxan-4-ol 2. Not steam volatile, miscible with water
4. 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chorohexan-3-ol 3. Steam volatile, miscible with water
4. Not steam volatile, immiscible with water
197 Match list-I with list-II:
List-I List-II 201 Paper chromatography is an example of:
Separation of aniline- 1. Partition chromatography
(a) (i) Fractional distillation
water mixture 2. Thin layer chromatography
Separation of aniline- Distillation under 3. Column chromatography
(b) (ii)
chloroform mixture reduced pressure 4. Adsorption chromatography
Separation of glycerol
(c) (iii) Distillation 202 A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a
from spent-lye
Separation of different secondary butyl carbocation because-
(d) (iv) Steam distillation 1. + R effect of CH groups
fractions of crude oil 3

Choose the correct answer from the options given 2. −R effect of − CH3 groups
below: 3. Hyperconjugation
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4. −l effect of −CH3 groups
1. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
2. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) 203 The most stable carbocation among the following
3. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) is
1. (CH ) CCH CH +

4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 3 3 3

2. CH CH CH CH CH
3 2
+
2 3

3. (CH3)2CH+CH2CH2CH3
4. CH CH CH 3 2
+

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204 The compound that is most difficult to protonate is: 206 Which of the following carbocations is expected to
1. be most stable?
1.

2.

3.
2.

4.

205 The correct order with respect to –I effect of the

substituents is-
(R = alkyl)
1. -NH2 > - OR < - F 3.
2. -NR2 < -OR < - F
3. -NH2 > - OR > - F
4. -NR2 > - OR > - F

4.

207 The most suitable method used for the separation

of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is-
1. Chromatography
2. Crystallization
3. Steam distillation
4. Sublimation

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208 The IUPAC name of the compound 212

Which among the given molecules can exhibit
tautomerism?

is:
1. 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
2. 5-methyl-4-2-en-5-el 1. III only
3. 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal 2. Both I and III
4. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal 3. Both I and II
4. Both II and III
209 The correct statement regarding electrophile is -­
1. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can 213 The decreasing order of boiling points of the
form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from following alkanes is :
another electrophile (a) Heptane
2. Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can (b) butane
form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a (c) 2-methylbutane
nucleophile (d) 2-methylpropane
3. Electrophiles can be either neutral or positively (e) hexane
charged species and can form a bond accepting a pair of Choose the correct answer from the options given below
electrons from a nucleophile :
4. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can 1. (a) > (c) > (e) > (d) > (b)
form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a 2. (c) > (d) > (a) > (e) > (b)
nucleophile 3. (a) > (e) > (b) > (c) > (d)
4. (a) > (e) > (c) > (b) > (d)
210 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of
the following statements is true?
1. Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
2. Both bond angle and bond length change
3. Both bond angle and bond length remains same
4. Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

211
In pyrrole

the electron density is maximum on

1. 2 and 3
2. 3 and 4
3. 2 and 4
4. 2 and 5

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214 Which compound amongst the following is not an 216 Match list-I with list-II:
aromatic compound? List-II (Boiling point in
1. List-I (Compound)
K)

(a) (i) 300.9

(b) (ii) 282.5

2.

(c) (iii) 309.1

3. (d) (iv) 341.9

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
4. 2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

215 Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by 217 The compound obtained by addition of water to an
Zn/H2 O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as alkyne having more than two carbons, in the presence of
products. The compound X is : H gSO and dilute H SO at 333K, is-
4 2 4

1. Pent-2-ene 1. a vicinal diol

2. 3-Methylbut-1-ene 2. an aldehyde
3. 2-Methylbut-1-ene 3. an alcohol
4. 2-Methylbut-2-ene 4. a ketone

218 The dihedral angle of the least stable conformer of

ethane is-
1. 60°
2. 0°
3. 120°
4. 180°

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219 The major product of the following chemical 222 Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
reaction is good yield by Wurtz reaction?
1. 2,3-Dimethylbutane
2. n-Heptane
3. n-Butane
4. n-Hexane

1. 223 An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of

the products. Its structure is:
1.

2.

2.

3.

3.
4.

220 Which of the following is a free radical

substitution reaction ? 4.
1. Benzene with Br2/AlCl3
2. Acetylene with HBr
3. Methane with Br2/hv
4. Propene with HBr/(C6H5COO)2

221 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct

about the elimination reaction of 2-Bromopentane to
form pent-2-ene? 224 The alkane that gives only one monochloro
a. β-Elimination reaction product on chlorination with Cl in presence of diffused
2
b. Follows Zaitsev rule sunlight is -
c. Dehydrohalogenation reaction 1. 2,2,-dimethylbutane
d. Dehydration reaction 2. neopentane
1. (a), (c), (d) 3. n-pentane
2. (b), (c), (d) 4. Isopentane
3. (a), (b), (d)
4. (a), (b), (c)

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225 In the following reaction 228 The reaction among the following that proceeds
H3 CC ≡ CH −−−−−−
Red
−−−−−−
Hot
→ A
Iron Tube
through an electrophilic substitution reaction is:
873 K 1.
The number of (σ) bonds present in the product (A) is-
1. 21
2. 9
3. 24
4. 18 2.

226 An alkene "A" on reaction with O and Zn − H 3 2O

gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio.

Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the major
product. The structure of product "B" is:
CH3 3.
|

1. H3 C − CH − CH
| |

Cl CH3

CH3

2. Cl − CH2 − CH2 − CH
| 4.
CH3

CH2 Cl

3. H3 C − CH2 − CH − CH3
CH3

4. H3 C − CH2 − C − CH3
|

Cl

229 Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by

227 The most suitable reagent for the following
substitution reaction to form an alkyl bromide B. B
conversion is- undergoes the Wurtz reaction to give a gaseous
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms.
The formula of (A) is-
1. CH ≡ CH
2. CH = CH
2 2

3. CH − CH
3 3

4. CH 4

1. Hg /H , H O
2+ +
2 230 The compound C 7 H8 undergoes the following
2. Na/liquid NH3 reactions
3. H2, Pd/C, quinoline 3 Cl2 / hv Br2 / Fe Zn / HCl

C 7 H8 −−−−→ A−−
−−→ B−−−−→ C
4. Zn/HCl
The product 'C' is-
1. m–Bromotoluene
2. o–Bromotoluene
3. 3–Bromo–2,4,6–trichlorotoluene
4. p–Bromotoluene

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231 233 The correct order of acidity is-

1.
CH ≡ CH > CH3 − C ≡ CH

> CH2 = CH2 > CH3 − CH3

2.
P, Q, and R in the above-mentioned sequence of CH ≡ CH > CH = CH 2 2

reactions are respectively - > CH − C ≡ CH > CH − CH3

3 3
1. 3.
CH3 − CH3 > CH2 = CH2

> CH3 − C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH

4.
CH2 = CH2 > CH3 − CH3

> CH3 − C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH

2. 234
Predict the correct intermediate and product in the
following reaction:
H2 O, H2 SO4

H3 C − C ≡ CH −−−−−−→ Intermediate → Product

HgSO (A) (B)
4

1. A : H3 C − C = CH2 ; B : H3 C − C = CH2
| |

OH SO4

3. 2. A : H3 C − C − CH3 ; B : H3 C − C ≡ CH
||

OH O

| ||

3. A : H3 C − C = CH2 ; B : H3 C − C − CH3

4. A : H3 C − C = CH2 ; B : H3 C − C − CH3
| ||

4. SO4 O

235 Which of the following compounds shall not

produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by
elimination or direct only elimination reaction?
1.

232 The molecule among the following that has the

hybridization sp , sp , sp , and
2 2
sp from left to right 2.
atoms is-
1. HC ≡ C − C ≡ H
2. CH = CH − C ≡ CH
2

3. CH = CH − CH = CH
2 2

4. CH − CH = CH − CH
2 3

3.

4.

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236 238 The correct statement regarding the comparison of

In the given reaction staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane is-
1. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable
than staggered conformation because eclipsed
conformation has no torsional strain.
2. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable
than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed
conformation has a torsional strain.
The product P is
3. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable
1.
than eclipsed conformation because staggered
conformation has no torsional strain.
4. The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable
than eclipsed conformation because staggered
conformation has a torsional strain.

2.
239
(i) NaNH2 / liq.NH3 (i) NaNH2 / liq.NH3

H − C ≡ CH −−−−−−−−−−−−→ X −−−−−−−−−−−−→ Y
( ii ) CH3 CH2 Br ( ii ) CH3 CH2 Br

X and Y in the above-mentioned reaction are

respectively -
1. X = 2–Butyne; Y = 3–Hexyne
3. 2. X = 2-Butyne; Y = 2-Hexyne
3. X = 1-Butyne; Y = 2-Hexyne
4. X = 1-Butyne; Y = 3–Hexyne

240 Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
4. (a) Biochemical oxygen
(i) Oxidising mixture
demand
(ii) Polar stratospheric
(b) Photochemical smog
cloud
(iii) Organic matter in
(c) Classical smog
water
(d) Ozone layer depletion (iv) Reducing mixture
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
237 The compound that will react most readily with
(a) (b) (c) (d)
gaseous bromine has the formula-
1. C H 1. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
3 6

2. C H2 2
2. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
3. C H4 10 3. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4. C H2 4 4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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241 The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets 245 The incorrect statement about carbon monoxide is-
enhanced due to the presence of : 1. It reduces the oxygen-carrying ability of blood.
a. particulate matter 2. The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO)
b. ozone is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
c. hydrocarbons 3. It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
d. hydrogen peroxide 4. It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below: 246 The liquefied gas that is used in dry cleaning along
1. a, c, d only with a suitable detergent is-
2. a, d only 1. Water gas
3. a , b, d only 2. Petroleum gas
4. b, c, d only 3. NO2

242 A student collected samples from two water bodies 4. CO2

A and B in a metro city. The biochemical oxygen
247 Among the following, the one that is not a
demand for 'A' is 3 ppm while for B is found to be 18
ppm. Which one of the following is true? greenhouse gas is:
1. Both A and B are clean 1. Sulphur dioxide
2. Both A and B are polluted 2. Nitrous oxide
3. A is clean but B is polluted 3. Methane
4. A is polluted but B is clean 4. Ozone

243 Match List-1 with List-II 248 Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant
introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and
List-I List-II
human activity?
(a) 2 SO 2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 SO3 (g) (i) Acid rain 1. N O
2 5
(b) 2. NO2
3. N2O
(ii) Smog 4. NO

249 Match List-I with List-II :

(c) List-I List-II
CaCO3 + H2 SO4 →
(iii) Ozone
depletion (Defects) (shown by)
CaSO + H O + CO
4 2 2
(a) Frenkel (i) non-ionic solids and density of
hv
(iv) defect the solid decreases.
(d) NO (g) → NO(g) + O(g)
2 Tropospheric
(b) Schottky (ii) non-ionic solids and density of
pollution
defect the solid increases.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(c) Vacancy (iii) ionic solids and density of the solid
(a) (b) (c) (d)
defect decreases.
1. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(d) Interstitial (iv) ionic solids and the density of the
2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) defect solid remains constant.
3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Choose the correct answer from the options given
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
244 Which of the following statement is NOT true 1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
about acid rain ? 2. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
1. It is due to reaction of SO2, NO2 and CO2 with rain 3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
water 4. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
2. Causes no damage to monuments like Taj Mahal.
3. It is harmful to plants.
4. Its pH is less than 5.6

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250 What fraction of Fe exists as Fe(III) in Fe0.96O? 254 Which statements among the following is not
(Consider Fe0.96 to be made up of Fe(II) and Fe(III) correct?
only) When conduction band and valence band overlap,
1.
1. 1
a semiconductor is obtained
12

2. 0.08 Ferrimagnetism arises due to the alignment of

3. 1 magnetic moments of the domains in the substance in
2.
16
1
parallel and anti-parallel directions in unequal
4. 20 numbers
Replacing some silicon atoms by boron atoms in
251 Select the correct option based on statements 3. crystal of silicon produces p-type semiconductor
below: Replacing some germanium atoms by phosphorus
In a particular point defect, an ionic 4. atoms in a crystal of germanium produces n-
solid is electrically neutral, even if few type semiconductor
Assertion (A):
of its cations are missing from its unit
cells. 255 The number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in
In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises hexagonal primitive unit cell are respectively:
due to dislocation of cation from its 1. 2, 1
Reason (R):
lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining 2. 12, 6
overall electrical neutrality. 3. 8, 4
4. 6, 12
1. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 256 The correct option for the number of body centred
2.
explanation of (A). unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 1. 2
3. 2. 3
explanation of (A).
4. (A) is true but (R) is false. 3. 7
4. 5
252 Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with a cell edge
−8
257 A compounds that can show both, Frenkel as well
length of 3.608 × 10 cm. The density of copper is
as Schottky defects is -
8.92 g cm
−3
. The atomic mass of copper is:
1. AgBr
1. 65 u 2. AgI
2. 63.1 u 3. NaCl
3. 31.55 u 4. ZnS
4. 60 u
258 An element has a body-centered cubic (BCC)
253 A ferromagnetic substance becomes a permanent
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius
magnet when it is placed in a magnetic field because: is:
all the domains get oriented in the direction opposite
1. 1.
√2
× 288 pm
to the direction of magnetic field. 4
4
2. domains are not affected by magnetic field. 2. × 288 pm
√3

3. domains get randomly oriented. 3. 4

× 288 pm
√2
all the domains get oriented in the direction of
4. 4.
√3
pm
magnetic field. 4
× 288

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259 The formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency 264 Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530
defect in its crystal is N i O. The crystal contains
0.98 kg m-3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol-1 . The edge
Ni
2+
and Ni ions. The fraction of nickel existing as
3+
length of a unit cell of lithium metal is:
Ni ions in the crystal is-
2+

(NA= 6.02 X 1023 mol-1)

1. 0.96
1. 352 pm
2. 0.04
2. 527 pm
3. 0.50
3. 264 pm
4. 0.31
4. 154 pm
260 A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. 265 The ionic radii of A+ and B- ions are 0.98 x10-10 m
The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice
and the cations occupy 75 % of octahedral voids. The and 1.81 x10-10 m. The coordination number of each ion
formula of the compound is: in AB is:
1. C A 3 4
1. 8
2. C A 2 3
2. 2
3. C A 3 2
3. 6
4. C A 4 3
4. 4

K value for some gases at the same temperature

261 Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. 266 H
Above 900 °C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of 'T' are given:
density of iron at room temperature to that at 900 °C is - gas KH/k bar
(Molar mass and atomic radii of iron remain constant Ar 40.3
with temperature) CO2
√3
1.67
1.
√2 HCHO 1.83 × 10-5
4√3
2. CH4 0.413
3√2

3√3 KH is Henry's Law constant in water. The order of their

3.
4√2 solubility in water is :
4. 1

2
1. Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
2. Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO
262 The incorrect statement among the following is - 3. HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky's 4. HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar
1.
defect.
2.
NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is 267 In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a
conductor, quartz is piezo electric crystal. solute, there is
Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds 1. 1000 g of solvent
3. in which sizes of cations and anions have large 2. 500 mL of solvent
difference. 3. 500 g of solvent
4. F e O has non stoichiometric metal excess defect.
0.98
4. 100 mL of solvent

One mole of sugar is dissolved in three moles of

263 In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, 268
water at 298 K. The relative lowering of vapour pressure
the coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca2+) and
is
fluoride ion (F-) are : 1. 0.25
1. 4 and 2 2. 0.20
2. 6 and 6 3. 0.50
3. 8 and 4 4. 0.33
4. 4 and 8

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269 Following solutions were prepared by dissolving 274 The freezing point of depression constant (Kf ) of
10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 g benzene is 5.12 K kg mol-1. The freezing point
of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m
sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is -
decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions (rounded off upto two decimal places) :
is: 1. 0.80 K
1. P > P > P
2 3 1
2. 0.40 K
2. P > P > P
3 1 2
3. 0.60 K
3. P > P > P
2 1 3
4. 0.20 K
4. P > P > P
1 2 3

275 The correct statement regarding a solution of two

270 The correct option for the value of vapour pressure components A and B exhibiting positive deviation from
of a solution at 45 °C with benzene to octane in a molar ideal behavior is -
ratio 3:2 is : Intermolecular attractive force between A-A and B-B
1.
[At 45 °C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg are stronger than those between A-B
and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas] 2. ∆mixH = 0 at constant T and P
1. 336 mm of Hg 3. ∆mixV = 0 at constant T and P
2. 350 mm of Hg
3. 160 mm of Hg Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-
4.
4. 168 mm of Hg B are equal to those between A-B

271 If 8 g of a non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in 276 For an ideal solution, the correct option is -
114 g of n-octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80 %, 1. Δmix G = 0 at constant T and P
the molar mass (in g mol–1) of the solute is - 2. Δmix S = 0 at constant T and P
3. Δmix V ≠ 0 at constant T and P
[Molar mass of n-octane is 114 g mol–1]
4. Δmix H = 0 at constant T and P
1. 40
2. 60
3. 80 277 The mixture that forms maximum boiling
4. 20 azeotrope is-
1. Heptane + Octane
272 Isotonic solutions have the same- 2. Water + Nitric acid
3. Ethanol + Water
1. Vapour pressure
4. Acetone + Carbon disulfide
2. Freezing temperature
3. Osmotic pressure
4. Boiling temperature 278 If the molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the
value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be-
273 The mixture that shows positive deviation from 1. Halved
Raoult's law is- 2. Tripled
1. Benzene + Toluene 3. Unchanged
2. Acetone + Chloroform 4. Doubled
3. Chloroethane + Bromoethane
4. Ethanol + Acetone 279 The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous
solution of a strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is-
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

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280 The incorrect statement among the following for 284 Two half cell reactions are given below :
an ideal solution is - Co
3+
+ e
−
→ Co
2+
,E
∘
2+ 3+ = −1.81 V
Co /Co
1. ∆mixH = 0 3+ − ∘
2Al + 6e → 2Al(s), E = +1.66 V
2. ∆mixU = 0 Al/Al
3+

3. ΔP = P ‐ P obs. calculated by
The standard EMF of a cell with feasible redox reaction
Raoult 's Law = 0

4. ∆mixG = 0 will be:

1. +7.09 V
2. +0.15 V
281 At 100 °C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 3. +3.47 V
g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52, the 4. –3.47 V
boiling point of this solution will be -
1. 100 oC 285 Standard electrode potential for the cell with cell
2. 102 oC reaction
3. 103 oC Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
4. 101 oC is 1.1 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for
the cell reaction.
-1
282 Consider the following statements about the (Given F = 96487 C mol )
-1
composition of the vapour over an ideal 1:1 molar 1. -200.27 kJ mol
mixture of benzene and toluene. The correct statement 2. -212.27 kJ mol-1
is: 3. -212.27 J mol-1
o
Assume that the temperature is constant at 25 C. 4. -200.27 J mol-1
(Given, vapour pressure data at 25 °C, benzene = 12.8
kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
286 Given below are half-cell reactions:
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of
1. MnO + 8H + 5e
−
→ Mn
+
+ 4H O,
− 2+

toluene 4 2

∘ −
The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene E /MnO = −1.510 V
2+
4
2. Mn

and toluene O + 2H
1
+ 2e → H O,
+ −
2 2
2
3. Not enough information is given to make a prediction ∘
E = +1.223 V
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of O2 /H2 O

4. Will the permanganate ion, MnO , liberate O from −

benzene 4 2

water in the presence of an acid?

283 Consider the following liquid-vapor equilibrium 1. No, because Ecell = −2.733 V ∘

∘
Liquid ↔ Vapour 2. Yes, because Ecell = +0.287 V
Which of the following relation is correct? 3. No, because Ecell = −0.287 V ∘

dlnp −ΔHv
1. = 4. Yes, because E = +2.733 V
∘

dT RT cell
dlnp −ΔHv
2. =

287 Find the emf of the cell in which the following

2 2
dT T
dlnp ΔHv
3. =
dT RT
2
reaction takes place at 298 K
dlnG −ΔHv
4. 2
=
2
Ni(s) + 2Ag
+
(0.001M) → Ni
2+
(0.001M) + 2Ag(s)
dT RT

∘
2.303RT
(Given that Ecell = 10.5 V, = 0.059 at 298 K)
F

1. 1.05 V
2. 1.0385 V
3. 1.385 V
4. 0.9615 V

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288 The three cells with their values are given 292 In a typical fuel cell, the reactants (R) and products
∘
E
(cell)
below: (P) are:
Cells E
∘

(cell)
/V 1. R = H2(g), O2(g); P = H2O2(l)
(a) Fe|Fe2+||Fe3+|Fe 0.404 2. R = H2(g), O2(g); P = H2O(l)
(b) Fe|Fe2+||Fe3+, Fe2+|Pt 1.211 3. R = H2(g) , O2(g) , C l2(g) ; P = HClO4(aq)
(c) Fe|Fe3+||Fe3+, Fe2+|Pt 0.807 4. R = H2(g) , N2(g) ; P = NH3(aq)
The standard Gibbs free energy change values for three
cells are, respectively 293 The number of Faradays (F) required to produce
(F represents the charge on 1 mole of electrons.) 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of
Ca=40 g mol-1) is:
1. -1.212 F, -1.211 F, -0.807 F 1. 2
2. +2.424 F, +2.422 F, +2.421 F 2. 3
3. -0.808 F, -2.422 F, -2.421 F 3. 4
4. -2.424 F, -2.422 F, -2.421 F 4. 1

289
o
∧m for NaCl, HCl and CH3 COON a are 126.4, 294 On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at the
425.9, and 91.05 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. If the anode will be:
conductivity of 0.001028 mol L-1 acetic acid solution is 1. Oxygen gas
4.95 × 10 S cm
−5
, the degree of dissociation of the
−1
2. H S gas2

acetic acid solution is- 3. SO gas 2

1. 0.01233 4. Hydrogen gas

2. 1.00
3. 0.1233 295 Limiting molar conductivities, for the given
4. 1.233 solutions, are :
0 2 −1
λm (H2 SO4 ) = x S cm mol
290 The molar conductance of NaCl, HCI, and 0
λm (K2 SO4 ) = y S cm
2
mol
−1

CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16, and 0

λm (CH3 COOK) = z S cm
2
mol
−1

91.0 S cm mol-1 respectively. The molar conductance of From the data given above, it can be concluded that 0
λm
CH3COOH at infinite dilution will be: in (S cm mol ) for CH3COOH will be :
2 −1

1. 698.28 S cm2 mol-1 1. x − y + 2z

2. 540.48 S cm2 mol-1 2. x + y + z
3. 201.28 S cm2 mol-1 3. x - y + z
(x−y)

4. 390.71 S cm2 mol-1 4. 2

+ z

296 For the cell reaction

291 The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 2F e
3+
(aq) + 2I
−
(aq) → 2F e
2+
(aq) + I2 (aq)

20 S cm2 mol-1. The dissociation constant of acetic acid E

o
cell
= 0.24 V at 298 K . The standard Gibbs
is - energy ∆rG⊝ of the cell reaction is:
(Λ o
= 350 S cm
2
mol
−1
) −1
H
+
[Given: F = 96500 C mol ]
(Λ o
= 50 S cm
2
mol
−1
) −1
CH3 COO
−
1. 23. 16 kJ mol
1. 1. 75 × 10 −5
mol L-1 2. −46. 32 kJ mol −1

mol L-1 3. −23. 16 kJ mol −1

2. 2. 50 × 10 −5

mol L-1 4. 46. 32 kJ mol −1

3. 1. 75 × 10 −4

4. 2. 50 × 10 −4
mol L-1

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300 The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm3 solution

⊝

297 For a cell involving one electron E cell

= 0. 59 V at
298 K. The equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is: of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity
of 5.76 x 10-3 S cm-1 at 298 K is:
2.303 RT
[Given that = 0. 059 V at T = 298 K]
F

1. 1. 0 × 10
30 1. 11.5 S cm2/mol
2. 1. 0 × 10
2
2. 21.5 S cm2/mol
3. 1. 0 × 10
5
3. 31.5 S cm2/mol
4. 41.5 S cm2/mol
10
4. 1. 0 × 10

298 Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine 301 During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride,
corresponding to different emf values as shown in the the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas
diagram below: using a current of 3 amperes is
1. 55 minutes
2. 110 minutes
3. 220 minutes
4. 330 minutes

302 If the Eocell for a given reaction has a negative

Then the species undergoing disproportionation is:- value, which of the following gives correct relationships
1.
for the values of ∆Go and Keq?
1. ΔG > 0; K < 1
o
eq

2. ΔG > 0; K > 1
o
eq
2. 3. ΔG < 0; K > 1
o
eq

4. ΔG < 0; K < 1
o
eq

3. 303 The number of electrons delivered at the cathode

during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60
seconds is :
4. HBrO (Charge on electron = 1.60x 10-19 C)
1. 6 × 10 23

299 In the electrochemical cell: 2. 6 × 10 20

Zn | ZnSO (0. 01 M ) || CuSO (1. 0 M ) | Cu, the

4 4
3. 3. 75 × 10 20

emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of 4. 7. 48 × 10

20

ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 is

The pressure of H2 required to make the potential
changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the 304
following, which one is the relationship between E1 and of H2 - electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is
E2 ? 1. 10-12 atm
(Given, RT
= 0.059) 2. 10-10 atm
3. 10-4 atm
F

1. E < E
1 2

2. E > E
1 2 4. 10-14 atm
3. E = 0 ≠ E
2 1

4. E = E
1 2 305 The half-life of a first-order reaction is 2000 years.
If the concentration after 8000 years is 0.02 M, then the
initial concentration was :
1. 0.16 M
2. 0.32 M
3. 0.08 M
4. 0.04 M

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306 For a chemical reaction 309 For the reaction, 2A → B, rates= k[A]2. If the
4A + 3B → 6C + 9D concentration of reactant is doubled, then the
–2 –1 –1
rate of formation of C is 6 × 10 mol L s and rate of (a) rate of reaction will be doubled.
disappearance of A is 4 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. The rate of rate constant will remain unchanged, however rate
reaction and amount of B consumed in interval of (b) of reaction is directly proportional to the rate
10 seconds, respectively will be: constant.
–2 –1 –1
1. 1 × 10 mol L s and 30 × 10 mol L–2 –1 rate constant will change since the rate of
2. 10 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 10 × 10–2 mol L–1 (c) reaction and rate constant are directly proportional
to each other.
3. 1 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 10 × 10–2 mol L–1
(d) rate of reaction will increase by four times.
4. 10 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 30 × 10–2 mol L–1 Identify the set of correct statements & choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
307 The given graph is a representation of the kinetics 1. (a) and (c) only
of a reaction. 2. (a) and (b) only
3. (b) and (d) only
4. (c) and (d) only
1
310 The plot of ln k vs T
for the following reaction
2N2 O5 (g) → 4N O2 (g) + O2 (g)

gives a straight line with the slope of the line equal to

−1.0 × 10 K . The activation energy for the reaction in
4

J mol-1 is:
(Given R = 8.3 J K-1 mol-1)
The y and x axes for zero and first-order reactions, 1. 4.0 × 10 2

respectively are 2. 4.0 × 10 −2

zero order (y=rate and x=concentration), first order 3. 8.3 × 10 −4

1. (y=rate and x=t )

1/2 4. 8.3 × 10 4

zero order (y=concentration and x=time), first order

2. (y=t and x = concentration)
1/2
zero order (y=concentration and x= time), first order
3.
(y=rate constant and x= concentration)
zero order (y=rate and x=concentration), first order
4. (y=t and x = concentration)
1/2

308 For a first-order reaction A → Products, initial

concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M
after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min-1 is
1. 0.2303
2. 1.3818
3. 0.9212
4. 0.4606

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311 For a reaction A→B, enthalpy of reaction is 315 The rate constant for a first order reaction is
−4. 2 kJ mol
−1
and enthalpy of activation is 4. 606 × 10 s . The time required to reduce 2.0 g of
−3 −1

9. 6 kJ mol
−1
. The correct potential energy profile for the reactant to 0.2 g is:
the reaction is: 1. 200 s
2. 500 s
3. 1000 s
4. 100 s

1. 2. 316 An increase in the concentration of the reactants of

a reaction leads to a change in:
1. heat of reaction
2. threshold energy
3. collision frequency
4. activation energy

317 A first-order reaction has a rate constant of 2.303

×10
−3
. The time required for 40 g of this reactant to
s
−1

reduce to 10 g will be [Given that log 2 = 0. 3010]

3. 4. 10

1. 230.3 s
2. 301 s
3. 2000 s
4. 602 s

1
318 For a reaction, activation energy Ea = 0 and the
312 The slope of Arrhenius Plot (ln k v/s ) of the
T rate constant at 200 K is 1.6 X 10 s . The rate 6 −1

first-order reaction is −5 × 10 K. The value of Ea of

3
constant at 400K will be [Given that gas constant,
the reaction is- R=8.314 J K mol ] −1 −1

[Given R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1] 1. 3. 2 x 10 s 4 −1

1. 166 kJ mol-1 2. 1. 6 x 10 s 6 −1

3
3. 1. 6 x 10 s −1

2. -83 kJ mol-1
4. 3. 2 x 10 s 6 −1

3. 41.5 kJ mol-1
4. 83.0 kJ mol-1 319 If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k,
the time (t) required for the completion of 99% of the
313 The half-life for a zero order reaction having 0.02 reaction is given by:
M initial concentration of reactant is 100 s. The rate 1. t=2.303/k
constant (in mol L-1 s-1) for the reaction is 2. t=0.693/k
−4
1. 1. 0 × 10 3. t=6.909/k
2. 2. 0 × 10
−4 4. t=4.606/k
−3
3. 2. 0 × 10
320 For the chemical reaction
4. 1. 0 × 10
−2

N2 (g)+3H2 (g) ⇌ 2 NH3 (g) the correct option is:

314 In collision theory of chemical reaction, ZAB 1. 3
d [ H2 ]
= 2
d [ NH3 ]

dt dt
represents 1
d [ H2 ]
1
d [ NH3 ]

(1) the fraction of molecules with energies greater than 2. −

3 dt
= −
2 dt

Ea 3. −
d [ N2 ]
= 2
d [ NH3 ]

dt dt
(2) the collision frequency of reactants, A and B d [ N2 ] 1 d [ NH3 ]

(3) steric factor 4. −

dt
=
2 dt

(4) the fraction of molecules with energies equal to Ea

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321 The correct difference between first- and second- 325 Which one of the following statements is not
order reactions is that correct?
the rate of a first-order reaction does not depend The value of equilibrium constant is changed in
on reactant concentration; the rate of a second- 1. the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at
1.
order reaction does depend on reactant equilibrium
concentrations. 2. Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions
the half-life of a first-order reaction does not 3. Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme
2. depend on [A]o; the half-life of a second-order 4. Catalyst does not initiate any reaction
reaction does depend on [A]0

3.
a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second- 326
order reaction cannot be catalyzed. The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol l‑1 s-1 at 10
the rate of a first-order reaction does depend
seconds and 0.03 mol l-1 s-1 at 20 seconds after initiation
on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-
4. of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:
order reaction does not depend on reactant
1. 44.1 s
concentrations
2. 54.1 s
3. 24.1 s
322 When initial concentration of the reactant is 4. 34.1 s
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction
1. is halved
2. is doubled
3. is tripled 327
4. remains unchanged The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction
alters which of the following quantities?
323 The mechanism of a hypothetical reaction 1. Internal energy
X2 + Y2 → 2XY is given below: 2. Enthalpy
(i) X2 → X + X (Fast) 3. Activation energy
(ii) X + Y2 ⇄ XY + Y (slow) 4. Entropy
(iii) X + Y → XY (Fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be: 328 Shown below are adsorption isotherms for a gas
1. 2 'X' at temperatures T1 , T2 and T3 :
2. 0
3. 1.5
4. 1

324 A first-order reaction has a specific reaction rate of

10-2 sec-1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the
reactant to reduce to 5 g?
1. 138.6 sec
2. 346.5 sec
3. 693.0 sec p and represent pressure and extent of adsorption,
x

m
4. 238.6 sec respectively. The correct order of temperatures for the
given adsorption is:
1. T1 > T2 > T3
2. T3 > T2 > T1
3. T1 = T2 = T3
4. T1 = T2 > T3

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329 The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is: 332 The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect
Enzymes are very specific for a particle reaction is exhibited by", is:
1. 1. Starch solution
and substrate.
2. Enzymes are biocatalysts. 2. Urea solution
3. NaCl solution
Like chemical catalysts, enzymes reduce the
3. 4. Glucose solution
activation energy of bio processes.
4. Enzymes are polysaccharides.
333 In which of the sols, the colloidal particles are with
a negative charge?
330 Given below are two statements: 1. TiO2
In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating 2. Hemoglobin
I: power of the three given ions is in the order Al3+ > 3. Starch
Ba2+ > Na+ 4. Hydrated Al2O3
In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating
II: power of the three given salts is in the order NaCl > 334 Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining
Na2SO4 > Na3PO4 which of the following property of a colloidal solution:
In the light of the above statements, choose the most 1. Solubility.
appropriate answer from the options given below: 2. Stability of the colloidal particles.
1. I is incorrect but II is correct. 3. Size of the colloidal particles.
4. Viscosity.
2. Both I and II are correct.
3. Both I and II are incorrect.
335 Which of the following represents a Freundlich
4. I is correct but II is incorrect. adsorption isotherm?
1. x
= kp
0.3

331 Match List-I with List-II: 2.

m
x
= kp
2.5

m
List-I List-II 3. x
= kp
−0.5

(Example of Colloidal (Nature of dispersion medium m

x
4. = kp
−1

systems) and dispersed phase) m

(i) Dispersion medium - liquid

(a) Insecticide spray
Dispersed phase - solid 336 Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the
(ii) Dispersion medium - gas formation of a negatively charged colloidal [AgI]I- sol?
(b) Whipped cream 1. 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI
Dispersed phase - liquid
(iii) Dispersion medium - liquid 2. 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.5 M KI
(c) Paint 3. 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI
Dispersed phase - liquid
(iv) Dispersion medium - liquid 4. 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(d) Hair cream
Dispersed phase -gas
337 On which of the following properties does the
Choose the correct answer from the options given coagulating power of an ion depend?
below: 1. The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2. Size of the ion alone
1. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 3. Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion.
2. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 4. The sign of the charge on the ion alone.
3. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
4. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
338 The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on
tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is
because the
1. rate is proportional to the surface coverage
2. rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
3. rate is independent of the surface coverage
4. rate of decomposition is very slow

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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339 The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of 344 Given below are two statements:
the electrolytes used for the coagulation of As2S3 are The Ellingham diagram provides an idea about the
I:
given below feasibility of a reaction.
I. (NaCl) = 52, II. (BeCl2) = 0.69, III. (MgSO4) = 0.22 The Ellingham diagram explains the rate of the
II:
What is the correct order of their coagulating power? reduction reactions.
1. I > II > III In light of the above statements, choose the most
2. II > I >III appropriate answer from the options given below:
3. III > II > I 1. I is correct and II is incorrect.
4. III > I >II 2. I is incorrect and II is correct.
3. Both I and II are correct.
340 What are the characteristics associated with
4. Both I and II are incorrect.
adsorption?
1. ∆G, ∆H, and ∆S are all negative.
2. ∆G and ∆H are negative, but ∆S is positive. 345 Which one of the following methods can be used
3. ∆G and ∆S are negative, but ∆H is positive. to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
4. ∆G is negative, but ∆H and ∆S are positive. temperature?
1. Distillation
341 What is the colloidal solution of fog? 2. Zone refining
1. Gas in liquid 3. Electrolysis
2. Solid in gas 4. Chromatography
3. Gas in gas
4. Liquid in gas 346 The maximum temperature that can be achieved in
blast furnace is :
342 Which one of the following is not a calcination 1. Upto 1900 K
reaction? 2. Upto 5000 K
Δ 3. Upto 1200 K
1. ZnCO − → ZnO + CO
3 2 4. Upto 2200 K
Δ
2. Fe O ⋅ xH O ⟶ Fe O + xH O
2 3 2 2 3 2

Δ 347 Match the elements in Column I with methods of

3. CaCO ⋅ MgCO ⟶ CaO + MgO + 2CO
3 2
3

Δ
purification in Column II.
4. CaCO + 2HCl ⟶ CaCl + H O + CO
3 2 2 Column I2 Column II
(a) Boron (i) Van Arkel method
343 Match List-I with List-II (b) Tin (ii) Mond's process
List- I (ores) List- II (Composition) (c) Zirconium (iii) Liquation
(d) Nickel (iv) Zone refining
(a) Haematite (i) F e O 3 4
1. (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
(b) Magnetite (ii) ZnCO 3
2. (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(ii) (d)-(i)
(c) Calamine (iii) F e O 2 3 3. (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(iii)
(d) Kaolinite (iv) [Al (OH ) Si O ] 2 4. (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
4 2 5

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below: 348 The correct statement among the following is:
(a) (b) (c) (d) Blister copper has a blistered appearance due to the
1. evolution of CO .
1. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 2
2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Vapour phase refining is carried out for nickel by the
2.
3. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) Van Arkel method.
4. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 3. Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
4. Wrought iron is impure iron with 4 % carbon.

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349 Identify the incorrect statement: 354 The reaction that is a part of large scale industrial
The scientific and technological process used preparation of nitric acid is:
1. for isolation of the metal from its ore is known Pt

as metallurgy 1. NaNO 3 + H2 SO4 −−−−−−−→ NaHSO4 + HNO3

500 K, 9 bar
Minerals are naturally occurring chemical Pt
2. 2. 4NH + 5O2 (from air) −−−−−−−→ 4NO + 6H O
substances in the earth's crust 3 2

500 K, 9 bar
3. Ores are minerals that may contain a metal Pt

Gangue is an ore contaminated with 3. 4HPO 3 + 2 N O5 −

2
−−−−−−→ 4HNO3 + P4 O10
4. 500 K, 9 bar
undesired materials Pt

4. Cu(NO 3 )2 + 2NO2 + 2H2 O −−−−−−−→ 4HNO3 + Cu

350 Which one is a malachite from the following? 500 K, 9 bar

1. CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
2. CuFeS2
355 Fluorine is a stronger oxidizing agent than chlorine
because:
3. Cu(OH)2
4. Fe3O4 (a) F–F bond has a low enthalpy of dissociation.
(b) Flouride ion (F-) has high hydration enthalpy.
351 Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
following metals can be used to reduce alumina? Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative
(c)
1. Fe than chlorine.
2. Zn (d) Fluorine has a very small size.
3. Mg
4. Cu Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given :
352 Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching 1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a) and (c) only
with CN- ion. Silver is later recovered by:
3. (a) and (d) only
1. Distillation
4. (b) and (c) only
2. Zone refining
3. Displacement with Zn
4. Liquation 356 Select the correct option based on the statements
below:
353 Match items of Column I with the items of
Column II and assign the correct code. Assertion (A): ICI is more reactive than I₂.
Column I Column II Reason (R): I-Cl bond is weaker than I-I bond.
A) Cyanide process 1) Ultra pure Ge
B) Froth floatation 1. (A) is false but (R) is true.
2) Dressing of ZnS Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Process 2.
3) Extraction of Al explanation of (A).
C) Electrolytic Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
Reduction 3.
D) Zone refining 4) Extracting of Au explanation of (A).
4. (A) is true but (R) is false.
A B C D
1. 2 3 1 4
2. 1 2 3 4
3. 3 4 2 1
4. 4 2 3 1

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357 Given below are two statements: 361 Which of the following is incorrect regarding
noble gases?
The boiling points of the following hydrides of group
I: 16 elements increase in the order 1. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
H O < H S < H Se < H Te
2 2 2 2 Noble gases have large positive values of electron
2.
The boiling points of these hydrides increase with gain enthalpy.
II:
the increase in molar mass. 3. Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
appropriate answer from the options given below: 4.
points.
1. I is incorrect but II is correct
2. Both I and II are correct 362 In which one of the following arrangements the
3. Both I and II are incorrect
given sequence is not strictly according to the properties
4. I is correct but II is incorrect
indicated against it?
358 The correct order for boiling points of the 1. NH3 < PH3 < Increasing acidic
following compounds is: AsH 3 < SbH 3 character
1. AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < Increasing
2.
2. BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 PbO2 oxidizing power
3. HF < HCl < HBr < HI Increasing acidic strength
3. NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
H2O < H2S < H2Se <
4. PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 4. Increasing pKa values
H2Te

363 Match the compounds of Xe in column I with the

359 Chlorine shows the bleaching action in the molecular structure in column II.
presence of moisture due to the formation of Column-I Column-II
1. HOCl (a) XeF2 (i) Square planar
2. HOClO (b) XeF4 (ii) Linear
3. H2O2
(c) XeO3 (iii) Square pyramidal
4. O
(d) XeOF4 (iv) Pyramidal
360 In the light of the below statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Acid strength increases in the order given as 1. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
I:
HF < HCl < HBr < HI. 2. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases 3. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
II: down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCI, HBr, 4. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.
1. I is correct but II is false. 364 Which one of the following reactions does not
2. I is incorrect but II is true. come under hydrolysis type reaction?
3. Both I and II are true. (1) SiCl + 2H O → SiO
4(l) 2 + 4H Cl
(l) 2(s) (aq)

4. Both I and II are false. (2) Li N + 2H O → N H

3 (s) 2 (l)
+ 3LiOH 3(g) (aq)

(3) 2F + 2H O
2(g) → 4H F
2 (l) + O (aq) 2(g)

(4) P O
4 + 6H O
10(s)
→ 4H P O
2 (l) 3 4(aq)

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365 Which of the following compound of sulphur has 370 Match the Xenon compounds in ColoumnI with its
−O − O − linkage? structure in Column-II and assign the correct code:
1. H 2 SO4 , sulphuric acid Column I Column II
2. H 2 S2 O 8 , peroxodisulphuric acid
(a) XeF (i) pyramidal
4
3. H 2 S2 O 7 , pyrosulphuric acid
(b) XeF6 (ii) square planar
4. H 2 SO3 , sulphurous acid

(c) XeOF4 (iii) distorted octahedral

366 A compound "X", upon reaction with H 2 O, (d) XeO3 (iv) square pyramidal
produces a colourless gas "Y" with a rotten fish smell. Code:
Gas 'Y' is absorbed in a solution of CuSO4 to (a) (b) (c) (d)
give Cu3P2 as one of the products. The compound 'X' 1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
will be: 2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
1. Ca3P2 3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. NH Cl 4
4. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
3. As O 2 3

4. Ca3(PO4)2
371 Match the following:
367 Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus (a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
has the strongest reducing property? (b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
1. H4P2O7 (c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia
2. H3PO3 (d) Deacon's process (iv) Sodium azide or Barium azide
3. H3PO2
4. H3PO4 (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
368 Identify the correct formula of 'oleum' from the 2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
following 3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
1. H2S2O7 4. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
2. H2SO3
3. H2SO4 372 Which of the following statements about PCl5 is
4. H2S2O8 false?
1. PCl5 molecule is non-reactive
369 Which is the correct thermal stability order for Three equatorial P-Cl bonds make an angle of 120°
2.
H E(E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
2
with each other
1. H Se < H Te < H Po < H O < H S
2 2 2 2 Two axial P-Cl bonds make an angle of 180° with
2
3.
2. H S < H O < H Se < H Te < H Po
2 2 2 2 each other
2

3. H O < H S < H Se < H Te < H Po

2 2 2 2 Axial P-Cl bonds are longer than equatorial P-Cl
2

4. H Po < H Te < H Se < H S < H O 4.

2 2 2 2 bonds 2

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373 The correct structure of tribromo octoxide is: 375 In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs
1. of electrons on central atom 'Cl' is
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

376 Match the interhalogen compounds in column I

with the geometry in column-II and assign the correct
code:
2.
Column-I Column-II
(A) XX’ (i) T-shape
(B) XX’3 (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(C) XX’5 (iii) Linear
(D) XX’7 (iv) Square Pyramidal

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3. 2. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

377 Which of the following pairs of the compound is

isostructural?
1. TeF2, XeF2
2. IBr2-, XeF2
4.
3. IF3, XeF2
4. BeCl2, XeF2

378 In which pair of ions both the species contain S-S

bond?
2−
1. S O
2
2−

7
, S2 O
8

2. S O
4
2−

6
, S2 O
2−

3. S O
4
2−

6
, S2 O
2−

374 4. S O
2
2−

7
, S2 O
2−

Which of the following statements is not true for

halogens? 379 Which of the following reactions does not exhibit
1. All form monobasic oxyacids. the oxidising behaviour of H2SO4?
2. All are oxidizing agents. 1. Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
3. All but fluorine show positive oxidation states. 2. 3S + 2H2SO4 → 3SO2 + 2H2O
4. Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy. 3. C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
4. CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF

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380 Among the following, which one is a wrong 385 Given below are two statements:
statement? I: Cr2+ is oxidising and Mn3+ is reducing in nature.
1. PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist 3+
2. pπ - dπ bonds are present in SO2 II: Sc compounds are repelled by the applied
magnetic field.
3. SeF4 and CH4 have same shape
+
In light of the above statements, choose the most
4. I has bent geometry
3 appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. Both I and II are correct
381 Match the compounds given in Column I with the 2. Both I and II are incorrect
hybridization and shape given in Column II and mark
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
the correct option.
Column I Column II 4. I is incorrect but II is correct
A) XeF6 1) Distorted octahedral
B) XeO3 2) Square planar 386 Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation
C) XeOF4 3) Pyramidal enthalpy because of
1. high basic character
D) XeF4 4) Square pyramidal
2. small size
1. A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3 3. high exchange enthalpy
2. A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 4. high electronegativity
3. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
4. A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2 387 In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KM nO 4

oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation

state of manganese in this reaction is from
1. +6 to +5
382 2. +7 to +4
Which is the correct statement for the given acids? 3. +6 to +4
1. Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while 4. +7 to +3
phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
2. Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic 388 Match List-I with List-II:
acid is a monoprotic acid
3. Both are triprotic acids List-I List-II
4. Both are diprotic acids Element which exhibits +3 oxidation
(a) (i) Mn
state only
Element which exhibits more number of
(b) (ii) Zn
383 oxidation states
Which one of the following orders is correct for the (c) Element which is a reducing agent in its (iii) Sc
bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules? +2 oxidation state
1. Cl2> Br2> F2> l2 Element which is not considered as
(d) (iv) Cr
2. Br2> l2> F2> Cl2 a transition element
3. F2> Cl2> Br2> l2 Choose the correct answer from the options given
4. l2> Br2> Cl2> F2 below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
384 The decrease in size from left to right in the 1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
actinoid series is greater and more gradual than that in 2. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
the lanthanoid series due to : 3. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
4. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
1. 4f orbitals are penultimate
2. 4f orbitals have a greater shielding effect
3. 5f orbitals have a poor shielding effect
4. 5f orbitals have a greater shielding effect

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389 Identify the pair of Lanthanoides with one strong 394 Match the following aspects with the respective
oxidant and one strong reductant metal.
1. Ce(IV), Tb(IV) Aspects Metal
2. Yb(II), Eu(II) The metal which reveals the
3. Eu(IV), Lu(III) (a) maximum number of oxidation (i) Scandium
4. Ce(IV), Eu(II) states
The metal although placed in 3d
390 Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic (b) block is not considered as a (ii) Copper
and ionic radii because of: transition element
1. lanthanoid contraction The metal which does not exhibit
2. having similar chemical properties (c) (iii) Manganese
variable oxidation states
3. belonging to same group
4. diagonal relationship The metal which in +1
(d) oxidation state in aqueous solution (iv) Zinc
undergoes disproportionation
391 The incorrect statement among the following is:
Select the correct option :
Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat (1) (a)-(i) (b)-(iv) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)
1.
and electricity. (2) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when (3) (a)-(iii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii)
2.
finely divided. (4) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(iii)
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element
3.
than Lanthanoid contraction. 395 The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+
Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in ion is :
4.
the solid-state. 1. 4.90 BM
2. 5.92 BM
392 Match List-I with List-II 3. 2.84 BM
List-I List-II 4. 3.87 BM

(a) [FeCN6]3- (i) 5.92 BM 396 Identify the incorrect statement.

(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM 1. The transition metals and their compounds are known
for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4- (iii) 4.90 BM multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM 2. Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when
small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. lattices of metals.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 3. The oxidation states of chromium in CrO and 2−

4
1. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) Cr O
2−
are not the same.
2 7
2. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4. Cr (d ) is a stronger reducing agent than
2+ 4

3. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(d ) in water.
2+ 6
Fe
4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
397 Urea reacts with water to form A which will
393 Identify the incorrect statement from the 2+
decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu
following: (aq), deep blue color solution C is formed. What is the
(1) Zirconium and Hafnium have identical radii of 160 formula of C from the following?
pm and 159 pm, respectively as a consequence of 2+

lanthanoid contraction. 1. [Cu (NH ) ] 3

4

(2) Lanthanoids reveal only +3 oxidation state. 2. Cu (OH) 2

(3) The lanthanoid ions other than the f0 type and the f14 3. CuCO . Cu (OH)
3 2

type are all paramagnetic. 4. CuSO 4

(4) The overall decrease in atomic and ionic radii from

lanthanum to lutetium is called lanthanoid contraction.

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398 Match the catalyst with the process: 402 Match the metal ions given in Column I with the
Catalyst Process spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II
The oxidation of ethylene and assign the correct code:
(i) V O (a) Column I Column II
2 5
to ethanal
(ii) T iCl + Al(CH ) (b) Polymerisation of alkynes a. Co 3+ i. √8 B.M.
4 3 3

(iii) P dCl (c)

Oxidation of SO in the
2 b. Cr3+ ii. √35 B.M.
2
manufacture of H SO
c. Fe3+ iii. √15 B.M.
2 4

(iv) Nickel complexes (d) Polymerisation of ethylene 2+ iv. √24 B.M.

Which of the following is the correct matching of d. Ni
Catalyst & Process?
(1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b) a b c d
(2) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d) 1. iv iii ii i
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(n), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) 2. i ii iii iv
(4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b) 3. iv i ii iii
399 When neutral or faintly alkaline KM nO is 4. 4
iii iv i ii
treated with potassium iodide, iodide ion is converted
into 'X'. 'X' is- 403 A gas that can readily decolorize an acidified
1. I
2
KMnO4 solution is:
2. I O −

4
1. SO 2

3. I O − 2. NO 2
3

4. I O − 3. P O 2 5

4. CO 2

400 The manganate and permanganate ions are

404 HgCl2 and I2 both, when dissolved in water
tetrahedral, due to:
containing I ions the pair of species formed is
−

The π-bonding which involves overlap of d-

1. 1. HgI , I −

orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese 2

2− −
2. HgI , I
The π-bonding which involves overlap of p- 4 3

2. 3. Hg I , I −

orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese 2 2

−

3. Absence of π-bonding 4. HgI , I 2 3

The π-bonding which involves overlap of p-

4.
orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese 405 The reason for greater range of oxidation states in
actinoids is attributed to:
401 Which of the following ions displays the d-d 1. Actinoid Contraction
2. 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies.
transition and paramagnetism? 3. 4f and 5d levels being close in energies.
2−
1. CrO 4 4. The radioactive nature of actinoids
2−
2. Cr O2 7

3. MnO −

4
406 Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanised
4. MnO 2−

4
iron, but the reverse is not possible because:
1. Zinc is lighter than iron.
2. Zinc has a lower melting point than iron.
3. Zinc has a lower negative reduction potential than
iron.
4. Zinc has a higher negative reduction potential than
iron.

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407 Which one of the following statements related to 411 Match List-I with List-II :
lanthanons is incorrect? List-I (Complexes) List-II (Types)
1. Europium shows +2 oxidation state. [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and
The basicity decreases as the ionic radius (a) (i) ionisation isomerism
2. [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2
decreases from Pr to Lu.
[Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6]
All the lanthanons are much more reactive than (b) (ii) coordination isomerism
3. and [Cr(CN)6][Co(NH3)6]
aluminium.
+4 [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Br
4. Ce solution are widely used as oxidizing agent (c)
and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
(iii) linkage isomerism
in volumetric analysis.
[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
When copper is heated with conc. HNO it (d) (iv) solvate isomerism
408 3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
produces : Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. Cu(NO3) and NO below:
2. Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
3. Cu(NO3)2 and N2O 1. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
4. Cu(NO3)2 and NO2 2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
3. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
409 The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic no. 4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
63), Gd (Atomic no. 64), and Tb (Atomic no. 65) are,
respectively: 412 Select the correct option based on statements
1. [Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2, and [Xe] 4f9 6s2 below:
2. [Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe] 4f75d1 6s2, and [Xe]4f8 5d1 6s2
3. [Xe] 4f7 6s2, [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2, and [Xe] 4f9 6s2 The metal carbon bond in metal
Assertion (A): carbonyls possesses both σ and π
4. [Xe] 4f7 6s2, (Xe]4f8 6s2, and [Xe]4f8 5d1 6s2
character.
410 The correct statement among the following when The ligand to metal bond is a π bond
Reason (R):
and metal to ligand bond is a σ bond.
SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is -
1. The solution is decolorized.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
2. SO2 is reduced. 1.
explanation of (A).
3. Green coloured Cr2(SO4)3 is formed.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
4. The solution turns blue. 2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

413 The IUPAC name of the complex-

[Ag(H₂O)₂][Ag(CN)₂] is:
1. diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate (I)
2. dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)
3. diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)
4. dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)

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414 Identify the incorrect statement from the 419 The correct order of increasing field strength of
following. ligands is:
The shapes of dxy, dyz, and dzx orbitals are similar to 1. SCN < F − −
< CN
−
< C2 O
2−

1. each other; and dx2 -y2 and dz2 are similar to each 2. F < SCN
− −
< C2 O
2−

4
< CN
−

other. 3. CN < C O −
2
2−

4
< SCN
−
< F
−

All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when 4. SCN −

< F
−
< C2 O
2−
< CN
−

2. 4
compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
3.
All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the 420 The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) for
respective 3d orbitals.
[CoCl6]4 - is 18000 cm-1. What will be the CFSE for
In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy
4. [CoCl4]2-
in free state.
1. 6000 cm −1

415 The order of energy absorbed which is responsible 2. 16000 cm −1

for the color of complexes is: 3. 18000 cm −1

2+ 4. 8000 cm −1

(A) [Ni(H O) ( en ) ]
2 2
2

421 What is the correct electronic configuration of the

2+
(B) [Ni(H2 O) (en)] and
4

(C) [Ni(en)3 ]
2+ central atom in K4 [Fe (CN) ]
6
based on crystal field
1. B > A > C theory?
2. A > B > C 1. e t 4 2

2g

3. C > B > A 2. t
4
2g
eg
2

4. C > A > B 3. t
6
eg
0
2g

416 The number of bridging carbonyl groups in 4.

3 3
e t
2g

[Co2(CO)8] and [Mn2(CO)10], respectively are

1. 2 and 0 422 The type of isomerism shown by the complex
2. 2 and 2 [CoCl2(en)2]+ is:
3. 2 and 4
4. 0 and 2 1. Geometrical isomerism
2. Coordination isomerism
417 The correct order of spin-only magnetic moment 3. Ionization isomerism
for the given complexes is: 4. Linkage isomerism
1. [Co(H O) ] > [M nCl ] > [F e(CN ) ]
2 6
2+
6
3−
6
3−

2. [F e(CN ) ] > [Co(H O) ] > [M nCl ]

6
3−
2 6
423 2+
6
3−

3. [M nCl ] > [F e(CN ) ] > [Co(H O) ]

6
3−
6
3− The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex
2 6
2+

4. [M nCl ] > [Co(H O ] > [F e(CN ) ]

3− 2+ [Ni(CO)4] are 3−
6 2 6 6

418 Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is: 1. square planar geometry and diamagnetic
2. tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
1. Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms 3. square planar geometry and paramagnetic
2. Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms 4. tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N'' donor
3.
atoms 424 Iron carbonyl, Fe (CO) is: 5

4. Unidentate ligand 1. Tetranuclear

2. Mononuclear
3. Trinuclear
4. Dinuclear

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425 An example of a sigma bonded organometallic 431 Which of the following has longest C ­—O bond
compound is: length? (Free C—O bond length in CO is 1.128
1. Grignard's reagent
2. Ferrocene
3. Cobaltocene )
4. Ruthenocene 1. [Co(CO)4]-
2. [Fe(CO)4]2-
426 The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl 3. Mn(CO)6]+
formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the
4. Ni(CO)4
complexes:
CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3, CoCl3.4NH3 respectively is:
432 Predict the order of reactivity of the following four
1. 3AgCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl
2. 3AgCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl isomers towards SN2 reaction.
3. 2AgCl, 3AgCl, 1AgCl (I) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
4. 1AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl (II) CH3CH2CH(Cl)CH3
(III) (CH3)2CHCH2Cl
427 The correct increasing order for the wavelengths of (IV) (CH3)3CCl
absorption in complexes of Co3+ is:
1. [Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Co(en)3]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3 + 1. (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
2. [Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(en)3]3+ 2. (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
3. (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
3. [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(en)3]3+ < [Co(H2O)6]3+
4. (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
4. [Co(en)3]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(H2O)6]3+
433 Select the correct option based on the statements
428 Pick out the correct statement with respect to
below:
[Mn(CN)6]3-
1. It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral Chlorine is an electron-withdrawing
2 3 Assertion (A): group but it is ortho, para directing in
2. It is d sp hybridised and octahedral
electrophilic aromatic substitution.
3. It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar Inductive effect of chlorine destabilises
4. It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral the intermediate carbocation formed
during the electrophilic substitution,
429 The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the Reason (R): however due to the more pronounced
following species is resonance effect, the halogen stabilises
1. NH > CN > Br > C H
3
−
6
−

5
the carbocation at ortho and para
−
2. CN > C H > Br > NH
6
− −
3
positions.
5

3. Br
−
> CN
−
> NH3 > C6 H
−
5

4. CN
−
> Br
−
> C6 H
−
> NH3
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
5 1.
explanation of (A).
430 Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin 2.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
complexes of explanation of (A).
1. d7 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
2. d8 4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
3. d4
4. d9

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434 The incorrect method for the synthesis of alkenes 438 The product formed in the following reaction
is: sequence is
1. treatment of alkynes with Na in liquid NH3
2. heating alkyl halides with alcoholic KOH
3. treating alkyl halides in aqueous KOH solution
4. treating vicinal dihalides with Zn metal

435 Which of the following is suitable to synthesize

chlorobenzene? 1.

1. 2. CH3 − CH = CH − CH3

3. CH3 − CH2 − CH = CH2

4. CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − OH

2. Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
3. Phenol, NaNO2, HCl, CuCl 439 For the following compounds, what is the correct
sequence of the bond enthalpy of the "C-X" bond?
1. CH3-F < CH3-Cl > CH3-Br > CH3-I
4.
2. CH3-Cl > CH3-F > CH3-Br > CH3-I
3. CH3-F < CH3-Cl < CH3-Br < CH3-I
4. CH3-F > CH3-Cl > CH3-Br > CH3-I
436 The incorrect statement regarding chirality is:
1. A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation 440 The major product formed in the
2. SN1 reaction yields a 1:1 mixture of both enantiomers dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is
The product obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on:
3. having chirality at the reactive site shows the 1. Hofmann Rule
inversion of configuration 2. Huckel's Rule
3. Saytzeff's Rule
Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on
4. 4. Hund's Rule
each other
441 A compound that does not undergo SN1 reaction
437 The correct reaction among the following is
with OH- is-
1. 1. CH2=CH-CH2Cl 2. (CH3)3CCl

2.
3. 4.
Mg

3. 2CH3 CH2 Br −−−−−→ CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3

dry ether

Na

4. 2CH3 CH2 Br −−−−−→ CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3

Ethanol

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442 Among the following, which hydrolysis reaction 445 A few reactions are given below:
occurs at the slowest rate? i. CH3 CH2 CH2 Br + KOH → CH3 CH = CH2 + KBr + H2 O

ii.
1.

iii.
2.

3. Select the reaction type for the above reactions:

(i) (ii) (iii)
4. 1. Elimination Substitution Addition
2. Elimination Substitution Substitution
3. Substitution Addition Addition
443 Which of the following compounds can be used as 4. Elimination Elimination Addition
the halide component in the Friedel-Crafts reaction?
1. Chlorobenzene
2. Bromobenzene
3. Chloroethene
4. Isopropyl chloride

444 Consider the reaction,

This reaction will be the fastest in

1. Ethanol
2. Methanol
3. N, N'-dimethylformamide (DMF)
4. Water

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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446 Which of the following biphenyls is optically 447 Match the reagents (List-I) with the product (List-
active? II) obtained from phenol.
1. List-I List-II
(i) NaOH
(a) (ii) CO2 (i) Benzoquinone
(iii) H+
(i) Aqueous NaOH +
(b) CHCl3 (ii) Benzene
(ii) H+
(c) Zn dust, Δ (iii) Salicylaldehyde
2. (d) Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4 (iv) Salicylic acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
3.
448 Which one of the following reaction sequence is
the incorrect method to prepare phenol?

1. Aniline, NaNO2 + HCl, H2O, heating

2. Cumene, O2, H3O+

3.
4.

4.

449 Given below are two statements:

The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is
I: higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing
nitro group.
o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will
II: have same acidic strength as they have one nitro
group attached to the phenolic ring.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. I is incorrect but II is correct.
2. Both I and II are correct.
3. Both I and II are incorrect.
4. I is correct but II is incorrect.

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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450 Given below are two statements: 452 Given the following compounds:
In Lucas test, primary, secondary, and tertiary (a) CH 3 − CH2 − OH

alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their (b)

I.
reactivity with conc. H Cl + ZnCl , known as Lucas
2

Reagent.
Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately
II. produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction
with Lucas Reagent.
In light of the above statements, choose the most (c)
appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. I is incorrect but II is correct
2. Both I and II correct
3. Both I and II are incorrect
4. I is correct but II is incorrect (d) CH − C(CH ) − OH
3 3 2

The increasing order of reactivity of the above

451 Given below are two statements: compounds towards acid catalysed dehydration is
The product of reaction of phenol with bromine 1. (b) < (c) < (a) < (d)
I
depends on the nature of solvent. 2. (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
Reaction of phenol with bromine in CHCl3 gives 3. (a) < (c) < (d) < (b)
4. (c) < (a) < (b) < (d)
II monosubstituted bromo derivative whereas reaction
of phenol with bromine water yields trisubstituted
bromo derivative of phenol. 453 The correct order of acid strength of the following
In light of the above statements, choose the most molecules is
appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. I is correct and II is incorrect 1.
2. I is incorrect and II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect 2.

3.

4.

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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454 The major products formed in the following 457 The strongest acid among the following is:
reaction are

1. 2.
1. 2.

3. 4.

455 What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound 3. 4.

formed in the following chemical reaction ?
(i) C H MgBr, dry Ether
2 5

Acetone −−−−−−−−−−−−−−→ Product

+
(ii) H O, H
2

1. pentan-3-ol
2. 2-methyl butan-2-ol 458 Z in the below reaction is:
3. 2-methyl propan-2-ol B 2 H6

4. pentan-2-ol CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 −−−−−−−−−−−→ Z

−
H2 O, H2 O2 , OH

456 The most reactive compound among the following 1. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH

for electrophilic aromatic substitution is:

2.

3. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH O

1. 2. 4. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3

459 Anisole on reaction with HI gives -

3. 4. 1. 2.

3. 4.

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460 A reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium 464 The structure of intermediate A in the following
chloride followed by hydrolysis will give: reaction is:
1. sec-Butyl alcohol
2. tert-Butyl alcohol
3. iso-Butyl alcohol
4. iso-Propyl alcohol

461 The reaction that does not give benzoic acid as the
major product is-
1. 2.
1.

2.
3. 4.

3.

465 Compound A, C 8 H10 O is found to react with NaOI

(produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yield a yellow
4. precipitate with a characteristic smell. A and Y are
respectively-

462 When vapour of a secondary alcohol is passed over 1.

heated copper at 573 K, the product formed is -
1. A carboxylic acid
2. An aldehyde 2.
3. A ketone
4. An alkene

463 The major products C and D formed in the 3.

following reaction respectively are:
Excess H I
CH3 CH2 CH2 OC(CH3 ) −−−−−−→ C + D
3
Δ

1. H3C-CH2-CH2-I and I-C(CH3)3 4.

2. H3C-CH2-CH2-OH and I-C(CH3)3
3. H3C-CH2-CH2-I and HO-C(CH3)3
4. H3C-CH2-CH2-OH and HO-C(CH3)3 466 The compound A on treatment with Na gives B,
and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to give
diethyl ether.
A, B and C are respectively-
1. C H OH, C H , C H Cl
2 5 2 6 2 5

2. C H OH, C H Cl, C H ONa

2 5 2 5 2 5

3. C H Cl, C H , C H OH
2 5 2 6 2 5

4. C H OH, C H ONa , C H Cl
2 5 2 5 2 5

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467 The heating of phenylmethyl ether with HI 469 Identify A and predict the type of reaction
produces-
1. Iodobenzene
2. Phenol
3. Benzene
4. Ethyl chloride

468 The most acidic compound among the following

is:
1.

1. 2.

2.

3. 4.

3.

4.

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470 The below mentioned reaction can be classified as: 472 The product formed from the following reaction
sequence is:

1. Alcohol formation reaction

2. Dehydration reaction
3. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
4. Williamson ether synthesis reaction

471 The product formed from the following reaction 1. 2.

sequence is:

3. 4.

1. 2.

3. 4. 473 Which of the following reactions is not an example

for nucleophilic addition – elimination reaction ?

1.

2.
3.
4.

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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474 The incorrect method to synthesize benzaldehyde 476 Given below are two statements:
is:
The boiling points of aldehydes and
ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of
1. comparable molecular masses because
Assertion (A):
of weak molecular association in
aldehydes and ketones due to dipole-
dipole interactions.
2. The boiling points of aldehydes and
ketones are lower than the alcohols of
Reason (R):
similar molecular masses due to the
absence of H-bonding.
3.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
4.
1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
475 The products A and B in the following reaction 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
sequence are :
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

477 Match List - I with List - II.

1. List-I List - II
(Products (Reaction of carbonyl
formed) compound with)
(a) Cyanohydrin (i) NH₂OH
(ii) RNH₂
2.
(b) Acetal
(c) Schiff's base (iii) alcohol
(d) Oxime (iv) HCN
3. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4.
2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
4. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
+
dry
478 RMgX + CO2 ⟶ Y −−−→ RCOOH
H3 O

ether
What is Y in the above reaction?
1. (RCOO)2Mg
2. RCOO-Mg+X
3. R3CO-Mg+X
4. RCOO-X+

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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479 Which one of the following is not formed when 482 The product(s) formed from the following reaction
acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute is/are
NaOH followed by heating?

1. 2.
1. RCOOH only
2. RCH2COOH only

3. 4. 3.

4. RCOOH and RCH2COOH

480 Given below are two statements: 483 Consider the below reaction and identify the
Aldehydes and ketones having at least one α missing reagent/chemical.
Statement
-hdyrogen undergo aldol condensation in the NaOH, + ?
I: − +
presence of dilute alkali as catalyst. CH3 CH2 COO Na −−−−−−→ CH3 CH3 + Na2 CO3

Heat
When aldol condensation is carried out
1. CaO
Statement between two different aldehydes, it is called
2. DIBAL-H
II: cross aldol condensation. Ketones do not
3. B2H6
give this reaction.
4. Red Phosphorus
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: 484 Match List-I with List-II.
1. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect. List-I
2. Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
3. Both statement I and statement II are correct. (a) (i)
4. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

481 The correct IUPAC name of the following (b) (ii

compound is:

(c) (ii

(d) (iv
1. 2-ethylhex-3-en-4-one
2. 4-methylhex-3-en-2-one Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
3. 4-ethylpent-3-en-2-one
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4. 3-methylhex -3-en-4-one
1. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

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485 The product formed in the following chemical 486 The intermediate compound 'X' in the following
reaction is : chemical reaction is :

1.

1.

2.

2.

3.

3.
4.

487 An acid that forms an anhydride (X) on heating

4. and an acid imide (Y) on strong heating with ammonia
is:

1. 2.

3. 4.

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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488 The reactant 'A' in the below mentioned reaction 491 The product of the below mentioned reaction is:
is-

1. 2.

1. Benzoyl chloride
2. Toluene 3. 4.
3. Acetophenone
4. Benzoic acid

489 The reaction between benzaldehyde and 492 What is the name of the electrophile involved in
the below reaction?
acetophenone in the presence of dilute NaOH is known
as:
1. Cannizzaro's reaction
2. Cross Cannizzaro's reaction
3. Cross aldol condensation
4. Aldol condensation 1. Dichloromethyl cation ( CH Cl )
+
2

2. Formyl cation ( CH O)
+

490 The product 'X' in the below mentioned reaction is: 3. Dichloromethyl anion ( CH Cl )
−
2

4. Dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)

493 Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than

aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable
molecular mass. It is due to:
1. Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
2. Formation of carboxylate ion
More extensive association of carboxylic acid
3.
via van der waals force of attraction
1. 2.
4. Formation of intermolecular H-bonding

3. 4.

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494 A, X, Y, and Z in the above-mentioned reaction 496 In the below reaction, the structure of "A" is:
are:

1. 2.

A X Y Z
Methoxy- Ethanoic
1. Ethanol Semicarbazone
methane acid
But - 2 -
2. Ethanal Ethanol
enal semicarbazone 3. 4.
3. Ethanol Acetaldehyde Butanone Hydrazone
Methoxy-
4. Ethanoic acid Acetate Hydrazine
methane

495 Cyclohexanone when undergoes aldol

497 What is the correct order of the carboxylic acids'
condensation and heating produces: strength?

I. II. III.
1. 2.

1. I > II > III

2. II > III > I
3. 4. 3. III > II > I
4. II > I > III

498 The correct statement regarding a carbonyl

compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon is:
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its
alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
1.
corresponding enol and this process is known as
aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its
alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
2.
corresponding enol and this process is known as
carbonylation.
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its
alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its
3.
corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-
enol tautomerism.
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its
4. alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its
corresponding enol.

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499 A reagent that can distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1,2- 503 The product formed from the following reaction
diol from the trans-isomer is: sequence is
1. Ozone
2. MnO2
3. Aluminium isopropoxide
4. Acetone

500 The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde

with a primary amine is
1. Ketone 1. 2.
2. Carboxylic acid
3. Aromatic acid
4. Schiff base
3. 4.
501 Match List - I with List - II :
List - I List - II
(Reaction) (Product fromed)
(a) Gabriel synthesis (i) Benzaldehyde 504 Match list-I with list-II:
(b) Kolbe synthesis (ii) Ethers List-I (Amines) List-II (pKb values)
(c) Williamson synthesis (iii) Primary amines (a) N-methylmethanamine (i) 9.30
(d) Etard reaction (iv) Salicylic acid (b) Ammonia (ii) 9.38
Choose the correct answer from the options given (c) N-methylaniline (iii) 4.75
below: (d) Benzenamine (iv) 3.27
(a) (b) (c) (d) Choose the correct answer from the options given
1. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) below:
2. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)
3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 1. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
4. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 2. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
3. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
502 Given below are two statements: 4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give
I
unstable diazonium salts.
Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form
II
diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. I is incorrect but II is correct
2. Both I and II are correct
3. Both I and II are incorrect
4. I is correct but II is incorrect

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505 The major product (P) formed in the following 507 The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of a chemical
reaction sequence is reaction is :

1. 2.

1. HI
3. 4. 2. CuCN/KCN
3. H2O
4. CH3CH2OH

508 The reaction of propanamide with ethanolic

506 Identify the compound that will react with
sodium hydroxide and bromine will give:
Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in 1. Ethylamine
alkali. 2. Methylamine
3. Propylamine
4. Aniline
1. 2.
509 Which amine gives the carbylamine test?

3. 4.
1. 2.

3. 4.

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510 Which amine reacts with Hinsberg's reagent to 514 Which of the following reactions is appropriate for
produce an alkali insoluble product? converting acetamide to methanamine?
1. Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
2. Stephens reaction
3. Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
1. 2. 4. Carbylamine reaction

515 A nitro-compound among the following that does

not react with nitrous acid is:

3. 4. 1. 2.

3. 4.
511 What is the correct order of the methyl-substituted
amines' basic strength in an aqueous solution?
1. CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
2. (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
3. (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
4. (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH 516 A nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A reacts
with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an unstable
512 Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also compound B. On treatment with phenol, B forms a
gives m-nitroaniline because: beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular
formula C12H10N2O. The structure of compound A is:
In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to
1.
only m-position
In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is 1. 2.
2.
meta directive
In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to
3.
only m-position
In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as
4. 3. 4.
anilinium ion

513 For the following compounds, what is the correct

increasing order of basic strength?

(I) (II) (III)

1. III < I < II
2. III < II < I
3. II < I < III
4. II < III < I

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517 The correct statement regarding the basicity of 522 Deficiency of which vitamin causes osteomalacia ?
arylamines is: 1. Vitamin A
Arylamines are generally more basic than 2. Vitamin D
alkylamines because the lone-pair electrons 3. Vitamin K
1. 4. Vitamin E
of nitrogen are not delocalized by interaction with the
aromatic ring π-electron system.
Arylamines are generally more basic than 523 Which of the following statement is not true about
2.
alkylamines because of the aryl group +I effect. glucose?
Arylamines are generally more basic than 1. It is an aldohexose.
3. alkylamines because the nitrogen atom in arylamines 2. It contains five hydroxyl groups.
is sp-hybridized. 3. It is a reducing sugar.
Arylamines are generally less basic than 4. It is an aldopentose.
alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons
4.
are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic 524 Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
ring π-electron system. 1. α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
2. α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
518 The incorrect statement about the denaturation of 3. α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
4. β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
proteins is:
1. It results due to change of temperature and/or pH.
525 Which of the following metal ions activates many
2. It results in the loss of biological activity of proteins. enzymes participating in the oxidation of glucose to
A protein is formed from amino acids linked by produce ATP and with Na it is also responsible for the
3.
peptide bonds. transmission of nerve signals:
4. Uncoiling of the helical structure takes place. 1. Copper
2. Calcium
519 Which one is not a D-sugar? 3. Potassium
4. Iron

1. 2.
526 Which of the following is a basic amino acid?
1. Alanine
2. Tyrosine
3. Lysine
4. Serine

3. 4. 527 Which structure(s) of proteins remains(s) intact

during denaturation process?
1. Both secondary and tertiary structures
2. Primary structure only
520 The RBC deficiency is a deficiency disease of: 3. Secondary structure only
1. Vitamin B1 4. Tertiary structure only
2. Vitamin B1
528 Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer
3. Vitamin B12
require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the cofactor.
4. Vitamin B6 M is:
1. Sr
521 The reaction of concentrated sulphuric acid with 2. Be
carbohydrates (C12H22O11) is an example of 3. Mg
1. Dehydration 4. Ca
2. Oxidation
3. Reduction
4. Sulphonation

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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529 The non-essential amino acid among the following 536 The correct corresponding order of names of four
is : aldoses with configuration given below respectively, is
1. Lysine
2. Valine
3. Leucine
4. Alanine

530 The difference between amylose and amylopectin

is :
Amylopectin has 1→4 α - linkage and 1→6 α-
1.
linkage.
2. Amylose has 1→4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage.
Amylopectin has 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-
3.
linkage.
4. Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose.

531 A compound that can form a zwitterion is -

1. Aniline
1. L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose
2. Acetanilide
2. D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose
3. Benzoic acid
3. L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose
4. Glycine
4. D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose
532 In humans, the main oxygen carrier in the blood is
537 Amino acids are linked together in protein by :
-
1. β-glycosidic bond.
1. Hemocyanin
2. Peptide bond.
2. Proteins
3. Dative bond.
3. Haemoglobin
4. α-glycosidic bond.
4. Both microorganisms and haemoglobin.

533 Which of the following statements is not correct? 538

The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA,
1. Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg white.
respectively is
2. Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved
1. The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar
in blood clotting.
component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose
3. Denaturation makes the proteins more active.
2. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the
4. Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human
sugar component in DNA is ribose
body.
3. The sugar component in RNA is 2'-deoxyribose and
the sugar component in DNA is arabinose
534 Which one of the following compounds show the 4. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the
presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond? sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose
1. H2O2
2. HCN
3. Cellulose 539
4. Concentrated acetic acid A non-reducing sugar among the following is -
1. Lactose
535 The central dogma of molecular genetics states that 2. Glucose
the genetic information flows from 3. Sucrose
1. amino acid - proteins - DNA 4. Maltose
2. DNA - carbohydrates - proteins
3. DNA - RNA - proteins
4. DNA - RNA - Carbohydrates

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540 Which among the following is a thermoplastic 545 The natural polymer among the following options
polymer? is:
1. Bakelite 1. Poly(Butadiene-styrene)
2. Polythene 2. Polybutadiene
3. Urea-formaldehyde resin 3. Poly(Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
4. Melamine polymer 4. Cis-1,4-polyisoprene

541 Which statement regarding polymers is not 546 The polymer that is used as a substitute for wool in
correct? making commercial fibres is -
1. Thermosetting polymers are reusable 1. Melamine
Elastomers have polymer chains held together by 2. Nylon-6, 6
2. 3. Polyacrylonitrile
weak intermolecular forces
4. Buna-N
3. Fibers possess high tensile strength
Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly
4. softening and hardening on heating and cooling
547 The biodegradable polymer is:
respectively
1. Buna-S
2. Nylon-6, 6
542 Match list-I with list-II: 3. Nylon 2-nylon 6
List-I List-II 4. Nylon-6
(Monomers) (Polymers)
(a) Caprolactam (i) Bakelite 548 Incorrect statement regarding cross-linked or
Ethylene glycol and Benzene-1, 4- network polymers is:
(b) (ii) Nylon 6, 6
dicarboxylic acid They contain covalent bonds between various linear
1.
Hexamethylenediamine and adipic polymer chains.
(c) (iii) Nylon-6
acid They are formed from bi and tri
2.
(d) Phenol and Formaldehyde (iv) Terylene functional monomers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given 3. Examples are bakelite and melamine.
below: They contain strong covalent bonds in same polymer
4.
(a) (b) (c) (d) chain.
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
4. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

543 Which one of the following polymers are prepared

by addition polymerization?
1. Novolac
2. Dacron
3. Teflon
4. Nylon-66

544 The correct statement regarding Bakelite is :

1. It is a cross linked polymer.
2. It is an addition polymer.
3. It is a branched chain polymer.
4. It is a linear polymer.

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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549 The correct structure of Nylon-6,6 polymer is- 552 Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List-II
(Drug class) (Drug molecule)
(a) Antacids (i) Salvarsan
1. (b) Antihistamines (ii) Morphine
(c) Analgesics (iii) Cimetidine
(d) Antimicrobials (iv) Seldane
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2. 1. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
4. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

553 The incorrect statement among the following

3. regarding food preservatives is:
sorbic acid and propanoic acid are good food
1.
preservatives.
2. antioxidants used in a wine are SO2 and sulphites.
3. antioxidants help in preserving the food longer.
4. antioxidants react with oxygen with a slower rate
4.
than food.

554 Based on the statements below:

550 Natural rubber has: Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
I:
1. All trans-configuration narcotic analgesics.
2. Alternate cis - and trans-configuration II: Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.
3. Random cis - and trans-configuration
4. All cis-configuration Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
551 Match List - I with List - II 1. I is correct but II is false.
List - I List - II 2. I is incorrect but II is true.
(a) Sodium laurylsulphate (i) Toilet soap 3. Both I and II are true.
(b) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium (ii) Non-ionic 4. Both I and II are false.
chloride detergent
(c) Sodium stearate (iii) Anionic detergent 555 Which of the following is not true about
(d) Polyethyleneglycyl stearate (iv) Cationic detergent chloramphenicol ?
Choose the correct answer from the options given 1. It inhibits the growth of only grampositive
below: bacteria.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2. It is a broad spectrum antibiotic.
1. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 3. It is not bactericidal.
2. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) 4. It is bacteriostatic.
3. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

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 Chemistry PYQs (2016 to 2022 Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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556 Which of the following is a cationic detergent?

1. Sodium stearate Fill OMR Sheet*
2. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
3. Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
4. Sodium lauryl sulfate where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
557 The artificial sweetener stable at cooking for the questions in the test.
temperature that does not provide calories is-
1. Saccharin
2. Aspartame
3. Sucralose
4. Alitame CLICK HERE to get
558 Among the following, the narrow-spectrum FREE ACCESS for 2
antibiotic is:
1. chloramphenicol days of ANY
2. penicillin G
3. ampicillin NEETprep course
4. amoxicillin

559 Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as:

1. Antiseptic
2. Antipyretic
3. Antibiotic
4. Analgesic

560
Which of the following is an analgesic?
1. Penicillin
2. Streptomycin
3. Chloromycetin
4. Novalgin

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