ANESTHESIOLOGY

QUESTION COLLECTOR
CONTENTS:

2019 FINAL 1

2018 FINAL 10

2015 FINAL 17

2015 CREDIT 23

2015 FINAL 30

2012 FINAL 45
2019 FINAL

Choose if the sentence is ​TRUE​ or ​FALSE

1. Reversible causes of cardiac arrest are

A) Hyperoxia FALSE

B) Cardiac tamponade TRUE

C) Simple pneumothorax FALSE

D) Morphine overdose TRUE

E) Hypothermia TRUE

2. Defibrillation should be performed in

A) Ventricular tachycardia with no pulse TRUE

B) Ventricular fibrillation TRUE

C) Atrial fibrillation FALSE

D) PEA FALSE

E) Asystole FALSE

3. Drugs used in ​standard ALS guidelines​ during cardiac arrest ​can​ include

A) Amiodarone TRUE

B) Lidocaine 100 mg TRUE

C) Adrenaline TRUE
Lidocaine could be used as an alternative for amiodarone.
Atropine may be used for bradycardia.
Noradrenaline is used in shock not cardiac arrest.
D) Noradrenaline FALSE
E) Atropine FALSE

4. Concerning ALS guidelines

A) Number of chest compressions to breaths is 30:2 TRUE

B) The recommended doses for amiodarone are 300 mg and after 5 shock 150 mg i.v TRUE FALSE

C) Chest compressions should be stopped for defibrillator pad placement FALSE

D) The recommended depth of chest compressions is 7 to 8 cm FALSE

E) Return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) is only identified by searching for a pulse FALSE

5. The energy applied during defibrillation is

A) 120 to 150 J 120-200 TRUE

B) If not known apply the maximum setting on the defibrillator TRUE

C) 100 J FALSE

D) 380 J FALSE

E) All above FALSE

6. The ASA score

A) ASA I E implies an unwell person planned for surgery FALSE

B) ASA V implies a healthy person for labour analgesia FALSE

C) ASA II E is a person with treated hypertension for appendectomy TRUE

D) Informs of mortality risk related to surgery TRUE

E) Is marked on an anesthesia card TRUE

7. Anesthesia pre procedure consultation must include

 A) Marking the correct side for surgery TRUE

B) Obtaining mainly oral consent for anesthesia writing FALSE

C) Assessing the airways and using mallampati scoring TRUE

D) Assessing venous access TRUE

E) Stopping beta blockers FALSE

8. Fasting guidelines before surgery

A) Stop clear fluids 3 hours before surgery FALSE

B) Stop solid food 12 hours before surgery FALSE

C) Stop breast milk in infants 4 hours before surgery TRUE

D) Use rapid sequence induction when a full stomach is suspected TRUE

E) A full stomach is suspected in labour and trauma TRUE

rapid sequence induction is used in pregnancy, trauma, full stomach, GI pathology (gerd), pts without good airway access

9. When performing a neuraxial block

A) Stop ​prophylactic dose​ of low-molecular weight heparins for 12 hours

TRUE

B) Stop acetylsalicylic acid at least ​a month​ before surgery FALSE

C) Stop ​therapeutic dose​ of low-molecular weight heparins for 48 hours FALSE

D) Can be performed in patients on warfarin TRUE

E) Can be performed 6 hours after a dose of rivaroxaban (Xarelto) FALSE

Aspirin may be given wo/ issues. LMWH should be stopped at least 12 h prior to the block. Heparin should be stopped at least 6h prior to the block. Xa
oral inhibitors should be discontinued at least 72h prior t surgery. Warfarin should be stopped 4-5 days before the block. Clopidogrel must be stopped 5-7
days prior to the block
10. Standard anesthesia monitoring ​must​ include

A) Pulse oximetry TRUE

B) Non invasive blood pressure monitoring TRUE

C) Oxygen level analyzer TRUE

D) Temperature TRUE

E) Depth of anesthesia FALSE TRUE

11. Capnography

A) Confirms endotracheal intubation TRUE

B) Guides ventilation settings TRUE

C) Is used in cardiac arrest resuscitation TRUE

D) Can help to assess the PaCO2 in arterial blood TRUE

E) Is high in intraoperative cardiac arrest FALSE

12. Intraoperative monitoring ​can​ include

A) Pulmonary catheter for hemodynamic monitoring TRUE

B) Central venous catheter for venous pressure TRUE

C) TOF for neuromuscular blockade TRUE

D) Invasive blood pressure for beat to beat systolic blood pressure TRUE

E) Thromboelastometry for clotting disorders TRUE

13. Local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) signs and symptoms

A) Tinnitus TRUE

B) Hiperlipidemia FALSE

C) Seizures TRUE

D) Ventricular tachycardia with a pulse TRUE

E) Diplopia TRUE
14. The maximum doses of local anesthetics are

A) Lidocaine 5 mg/kg 7mg w/ epi TRUE

B) Bupivacaine 2 mg/kg 3mg w/ epi TRUE

C) Ropivacaine 3 mg/kg TRUE

D) Ropivacaine with adrenaline 7 mg/kg FALSE

E) Bupivacaine has no maximum dose FALSE

15. Treatment of LAST includes

A) Intravenous intralipid TRUE

B) Treatment of hypercarbia and acidosis TRUE

C) Stopping the infusion of local anesthetics TRUE

D) Securing the airway to comatose patient TRUE

E) Performing ALS in cardiac arrest TRUE

16. Peripheral nerve blocks performed for analgesia

A) Interscalene brachial plexus block for shoulder surgery TRUE

B) Femoral nerve block for knee surgery TRUE

C) Sciatic nerve block for foot surgery TRUE

D) TAP (transversus abdominis plane) block for lower abdominal surgery TRUE

E) Lumbar plexus block for ankle surgery FALSE

17. Spinal anatomy

A) The spinal cord ends at L1-L2 in adults TRUE

B) Blocking Th1-Th4 can cause bradycardia TRUE

C) Dural sac ends at S2 TRUE

D) Epidural space contains veins and lymphatic vessels TRUE

E) CSF is contained only in the lumbar area FALSE

18. Contraindications to neuraxial blocks are

A) Platelet count <50 000 TRUE

B) Severe hypertension FALSE

C) Lack of consent TRUE

D) Increased intracranial pressure TRUE

E) Severe abdominal pain FALSE

19. Labour analgesia

A) Epidural analgesia is the most optimal TRUE

B) Epidural analgesia causes newborn deformities FALSE

C) Paracetamol is contraindicated FALSE

D) Morphine should be used fentanyl or petidine FALSE

E) Epidural analgesia is performed on patient request TRUE

20. Post-dural puncture headache

A) Pain is worse in standing position TRUE

B) Headache is fronto-occipital TRUE

C) An epidural blood patch can be performed TRUE

D) Intravenous fluids are recommended FALSE

E) A 27G needle is preferred to a large bore 18G TRUE

21. Spinal anesthesia

A) Can be performed in the thoracic level FALSE

B) Is used for head and neck surgery FALSE

C) Can be done for an inguinal hernia repair TRUE

D) Is used for cesarean section TRUE

E) Is used for lower limb surgery TRUE

22. Pain levels are assessed using

A) Faces TRUE

B) NRS TRUE

C) VAS TRUE
also verbal descriptor scale

D) Levels of crying FALSE

E) GCS FALSE

23. Analgesia after major surgery ​can​ include

A) Morphine PCA patient controlled analgesia TRUE

B) Epidural continuous analgesia TRUE

C) Intravenous lidocaine infusion false TRUE

D) Subcutaneous fentanyl TRUE

E) Amitriptyline TRUE
 24. Side effects of strong opioids

A) Respiratory depression TRUE

B) Nausea and vomiting TRUE

C) Urinary retention TRUE

D) Bowel obstruction TRUE

E) Sedation TRUE

25. Intensive care admission ​criteria​ includes

A) PaO2 below 60 mmHg not responding to oxygen therapy TRUE

B) Corrected hypotension with intravenous fluids FALSE

C) Hyperkalemia not reacting to standard treatment TRUE

D) Traumatic brain injury with coma TRUE FALSE

E) Palliative care for renal tumor FALSE

26. Quick SOFA

A) Helps to identify patients in sepsis requiring intensive care TRUE

B) Includes a systolic blood pressure below 100 mmHg TRUE

C) Includes a respiratory rate equal to or > 22/minute TRUE

GCS<15

D) Is used only in intensive care units FALSE

E) Helps to discharge patients from intensive care TRUE

27. SHOCK

A) Only possible with hypotension

FALSE
B) First treat cause and then stabilize the patient FALSE

C) Is related to tissue hypoxia and organ hypoperfusion TRUE

D) Cardiac output should be measured FALSE TRUE

E) Lactate levels aid treatment evaluation TRUE

28. Treatment of septic shock

A) Noradrenaline is the first choice vasopressor TRUE

B) Vasopressin can be added to optimize Mean Arterial pressure (MAP) TRUE

C) Intravenous fluids are given at the ​initial​ resuscitation TRUE

D) Urine output should be measured TRUE

E) Hemodiafiltration is contraindicated TRUE

29. Respiratory failure

A) Type I is hypoxic with PaO2 below 60 mmHg TRUE

B) Type II is hypercarbic with PaCO2 above 50 mmHg 45 TRUE

C) ARDS can cause respiratory failure TRUE

D) Pulmonary embolism can cause respiratory failure TRUE

E) High altitude can result in pulmonary edema TRUE

30. Treatment options in respiratory failure can include

A) PEEP TRUE

B) Mechanical ventilation TRUE

C) CPAP (continuous positive airway pressure) TRUE

 D) Forced diuresis

FALSE

E) Barotrauma FALSE

2018 FINAL

Choose if the sentence is ​TRUE​ or ​FALSE

1. Glasgow Coma Scale:

A) There are three elements assessed, motor, sensory & eye FALSE

B) A confused patient receives 14 points TRUE

C) The lowest score is 2 points FALSE

D) It is used to assess the severity of acute pancreatitis FALSE

E) A score of 5 points suggests the need for securing an airway TRUE

2. American Society of anesthesiology (ASA) physical status:

A) ASA 1E means an otherwise healthy patient for planned surgery FALSE

B) A patient with uncontrolled hypertension for emergency surgery is ASA 3E TRUE

C) ASA 7 means a patient planned for elective major surgery FALSE

D) A patient with a blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is likely to be ASA 5 FALSE

E) Is used to assess the severity of surgery FALSE

3. The ​standard monitorin​g during general anesthesia includes:

 A) Non-invasive blood pressure TRUE

B) Capnometry TRUE

C) Train of four (TOF) assessment

FALSE

D) End expiratory oxygen level TRUE

E) Temperature of the patient TRUE

4. Postdural puncture headache:

A) Is a complication of general anesthesia FALSE

B) Is fronto-occipital in nature TRUE

C) Becomes more severe on standing TRUE

D) A needle 27G reduces the risk compared to needle 25G (larger) TRUE

E) Paracetamol is contraindicated FALSE

5. Contraindications for spinal anesthesia:

A) Lack of consent TRUE

B) A platelet count of 20,000 in a full blood count TRUE

C) Severe aortic stenosis TRUE

D) Increased intracranial pressure TRUE

E) Severe hypovolemia TRUE

6. Anatomy of the epidural space:

A) The dural sac ends at S2 level TRUE

B) ligamentum flavum needs to be punctured during epidural anesthesia TRUE

 C) it contains fat and vessels TRUE

D) is widest at mid lumbar region TRUE

E) Contains cerebrospinal fluid FALSE

7. Pain secondary to surgery can be treated with:

A) Paracetamol TRUE

B) Intravenous infusion of lidocaine TRUE

C) Morphine TRUE

D) Perineural infusion of bupivacaine TRUE

E) Gabapentinoids TRUE

8. Pain:

A) Numerical Rating Scale NRS) is used to assess the severity of pain TRUE

B) Chronic pain has a duration of more than 3 months TRUE

C) FACES can be used to assess pain in children TRUE

D) Labour pain is essential for healthy baby delivery FALSE

E) Immobilisation and electrostimulation (TENS - transcutaneous stimulation are there to reduce pain TRUE

9. Indications for intensive care can include:

A) Need for noradrenaline infusion to support arterial pressure TRUE

B) Need for intermittent haemodialysis in a patient with long standing isolated renal failure secondary to

glomerulonephritis FALSE

C) Patients resuscitated after cardiac arrest TRUE

D) Patients with oliguria and lactic acidosis TRUE

E) Life threatening hyperkalemia after standard treatment failure TRUE

10. Peripheral nerve blocks:

A) A femoral nerve block can be used for analgesia after total knee replacement TRUE

B) A nerve stimulator is used to indicate a nerve TRUE

C) Ultrasound can be used TRUE

D) interscalene block is used for shoulder surgery TRUE

E) The maximum dose of lidocaine that can be used is 5 mg/kg TRUE

11. Preparation for anaesthesia includes:

A) Mallampati scale is used to assess venous access difficulty FALSE

B) An infant should be at least 4 hours after last breast milk feeding for elective surgery TRUE

C) Oral consent for anaesthesia is sufficient FALSE

D) Stopping metformin on the day of surgery TRUE

E) Stopping antiepileptic medications at least 4 days before surgery FALSE

12. Reversible causes of cardiac arrest

A) Hypertension FALSE

B) Hypothermia TRUE

C) Ischialgia FALSE

D) Tension pneumothorax TRUE

E) Opioid overdose TRUE

13. Rhythms in cardiac arrest requiring defibrillation:

A) Ventricular fibrillation TRUE

B) Atrial fibrillation FALSE

C) Pulseless ventricular tachycardia TRUE

D) Asystole ​FALSE

E) Pulseless electrical activity ​FALSE

14. Advanced life support:

A) Capnography is useful TRUE

B) The proportion of chest compressions to breaths is 30:2 TRUE

C) The number of chest compressions should be at least 120 before stopping ​FALSE

D) Defibrillation should be done with direct current at minimum 400J ​FALSE

E) Chest compressions should be ​3-5 cm deep​ in an adult or 1/3 of the chest TRUE

15. Shock

A) Sepsis is a life threatening condition secondary to an infection TRUE

B) Pulmonary embolism can cause shock TRUE

C) Hypotension is mandatory to diagnose shock FALSE

D) Addisonian crisis can cause shock TRUE

E) Severe acute pancreatitis can lead to shock TRUE

16. Anaesthesia can comprise of:

A) Arrhythmia FALSE

B) Analgesia TRUE

C) Autonomic stability TRUE

D) Nerve block TRUE

E) Areflexia TRUE

17. Likely cause of respiratory failure:

A) Hypoventilation TRUE

B) Impaired diffusion of gases in the lungs TRUE

C) Excessive pulmonary shunt TRUE

D) Abnormal ventilation-perfusion ratio TRUE

E) Hyperventilation FALSE

18. Drugs that can be used during a cardiac arrest:

A) Adrenaline TRUE

B) Lidocaine TRUE

C) Amiodarone TRUE

D) Noradrenaline FALSE

E) Dobutamine FALSE

19. In local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST):

A) Seizures can be treated with diazepam TRUE

B) Intralipid can be used TRUE

C) Intravenous bupivacaine is cardiotoxic and can lead to ventricular fibrillation TRUE

D) Acidosis is protective and decreases symptoms FALSE

E) Can occur during intravenous regional anaesthesia TRUE

 20. Relevant to anaesthesia:

A) Last oral fluid should be at least ​2 hours​ before elective anaesthesia TRUE

B) Neuraxial block can be performed 24 hours after last therapeutic low molecular heparin dose TRUE

C) Propofol is used as an induction agent TRUE

D) Elective surgery can be performed 12 months after drug eluting stents were placed for an acute coronary

event TRUE

E) Consider an ECHO if an adult has an unknown heart murmur before elective surgery TRUE

2015 FINAL

Choose if the sentence is ​TRUE​ or ​FALSE

1. Preoperative anaesthetic assessment must:

A) be performed minimum 24 h before elective surgery TRUE

B) be performed after surgical consent TRUE

C) identify all requirements for safe conduct of perioperative period TRUE

D) provide the patient with all details of risk/ benefit before consent is signed TRUE

2. ASA

A) describes patients fitness to anaesthesia TRUE

B) predicts probability of perioperative death FALSE

C) takes into account different items for adults and for children FALSE
D) patient NYHA III with diabetes and hypertension is classified ASA IV FALSE

3. Preparation before anaesthesia

A) ECG should be performed in every adult patient undergoing anaesthesia FALSE

B) Chest RTG is performed by every adult patient undergoing anaesthesia FALSE

C) Blood group should be determined in every patient undergoing anaesthesia TRUE

D) Blood products must be preordered for every patient undergoing major surgery TRUE

4. Premedication

A) should be given orally an evening before surgery TRUE

B) should be given one hour before surgery with a sip of water FALSE

C) should not be given on the morning of scheduled cesarean section FALSE

D) should not be given for patient scheduled to regional anaesthesia FALSE

5. Medication taken chronically by the patient

A) furosemide should ​not​ be taken on the morning of surgery TRUE

B) antidiabetics should be taken on the morning of surgery FALSE

C) antihypertensive should ​not​ ​be discontinued​ on the morning of surgery TRUE

D) steroids should ​not​ ​be discontinued​ on the morning of surgery TRUE

6. Midazolam

A) given as premedication in a dose of 0,1 mg/kg FALSE

B) provides anxiolysis TRUE

C) provides sedation TRUE

D) decreases muscle tone TRUE

7. Induction of anaesthesia

A) Propofol is the fastest sleep induction agent TRUE

B) Etomidate is agent of choice for head trauma patients propofol, thiopental FALSE

C) Thiopenton is an agent of choice for cardiac patients etomidate, ketamine FALSE

D) Ethomidate can suppress adrenocortical function TRUE

8. Rapid sequence induction

A) Is performed to reduce the risk of gastric contents in emergency cases TRUE

B) Is performed in every ​pregnant​ patient undergoing general anaesthesia TRUE

C) thyroid cartilage is pressed manually FALSE

D) is contraindicated by children FALSE

9. Oro-tracheal intubation

A) the cuff of the tube should be placed in subglottic space TRUE

B) pressure in the cuff should not exceed 10mmH2O 20-30 mmhg FALSE

C) uncuffed tubes are not used in preschool children uncuffed tubes are> cuffed until 7yo FALSE

D) armed tubes are used for head and neck surgery TRUE

10. Continuation of general anaesthesia

A) monitored propofol infusion is used TRUE

B) inhaled anaesthetic agents are used TRUE

C) require short acting opioids TRUE

 D) always require muscle relaxants FALSE

11. Intraoperative analgesia

A) is provided with short acting opioids TRUE

B) is provided with local anaesthetics TRUE

C) fentanyl is more potent analgesic than morphine TRUE

D) is provided by inhalational agents FALSE

12. Muscle relaxants

A) non- depolarising are giver to every patient undergoing major surgery TRUE

B) non depolarising muscle relaxant action must be monitored by TOF FALSE TRUE

C) succinylcholine and mivacurium can cause prolonged apnea TRUE

D) succinylcholine and mivacurium undergo biodegradation in serum atraconium, cisatraconium TRUE

false

13. Emergence of anaesthesia

A) VAS should be > 6 FALSE

B) TOF should be < 1 FALSE

C) MAC should be < 0,2 TRUE

D) BIS should be > 90 - TRUE

14. Postoperative nausea and vomiting ( PONV)

A) propofol protects patients from PONV

TRUE
B) ondansetron 4 mg is the treatment of choice TRUE

C) metoclopramide can be given to reduce gastric motility increase FALSE

D) dexamethasone may be given in prophylaxis of PONV TRUE

15. Post operative bleeding

A) blood loss after surgery should not exceed 1 ml /kg/h TRUE

B) can be enhanced in body hypothermia TRUE FALSE

C) can be enhanced in metabolic acidosis TRUE

D) require blood transfusion if loss> 30% of circulating blood volume TRUE

16. Removal of endotracheal tube can be performed if

A) patient can stick the tongue out upon request TRUE

B) patient is able to swallow TRUE

C) patient has strong coughing reflex TRUE

D) patient can generate the pressure of 50mm H2O during inspiration false TRUE

17. Regional anaesthesia

A) central blockades are performed with bupivacaine and ropivacaine TRUE

B) adrenaline is added to speed up the action of local anaesthetics FALSE

C) opioids are added to enhance analgesia TRUE

D) continuous central blockade enables surgery > 3h TRUE

18. Local anaesthetic agents

A) safety dose of bupivacaine is 2 mg/kg 3mg/epi TRUE

rupicavaine 3mg/kg
B) bupivacaine overdose can cause life threatening bradycardia also tachy TRUE

C) ropivacaine is as potent analgesic as bupivacaine FALSE

D) adult of 70 kg can safely receive a blockade with 50 ml 0f 0,25% bupivacaine 56 ml TRUE

19. Pain control during labour

A) is provided with opioids injected i.m. TRUE

B) is provided with local anaesthetics given epidurally TRUE

C) is provided with entonox TRUE

D) is provided with TENS TRUE

20. Anatomy

A) central blockade is performed at lumbar level at L1- L2 FALSE

B) analgesia for vaginal delivery should exceed below Th8-Th10 TRUE

C) anaesthesia for caesarian section should exceed below Th8 th4 TRUE

D) central blockade above Th5 is dangerous for the patient TRUE

21. Resuscitation

A) defibrillation energy for children should not exceed 4J/kg in the first attempt TRUE

B) PEA is a rhythm for defibrillator FALSE

C) adrenaline should be given at the dose of 10 mcg/kg i.v. TRUE

D) Hypoxia belongs to reversive causes of cardiac arrest TRUE

22. Atropine

A) Is not given routinely during CPR TRUE

B) the first dose should not exceed 0,5 mg for adults TRUE

C) At the end of anaesthesia is given parallelly with neostigmine physostigmine TRUE

D) is given to patients exposed to organophosphate poisons TRUE

23. Oxygen therapy

A) standard oxygen mask provides 0,23% oxygen FALSE

B) Ambu bag without reservoir provides 0,21% oxygen TRUE

C) nasal prongs provide 0,5% oxygen 20-40 FALSE

D) mask with reservoir provides up to 90% oxygen TRUE FALSE

24. Fluid therapy

A) Fluid should be transfused at the temperature of 25*C false TRUE

B) Fluid resuscitation should not exceed should be guided by blood pressure TRUE

C) Crystalloids restore blood pressure faster than colloids false TRUE

D) Balanced electrolyte solution contain a buffer TRUE

25. Safety

A) oxygen must always be present at anaesthesia stand TRUE

B) defibrillator must always be present at anaesthesia stand TRUE

C) anaesthetic machine must be checked before anaesthesia TRUE

D) patient must always have venous access during anaesthesia TRUE

2015 CREDIT

Choose if the sentence is ​TRUE​ or F

​ ALSE

1. Preoperative anaesthetic assessment must:

A) Be performed minimum 24h before elective surgery TRUE

B) Be performed after surgical consent TRUE

C) Patient laboratory test, ECG and X-ray should be available FALSE

D) Sedative medication should be prescribed for the night before surgery FALSE

2. ASA (American Society of Anesthesiology classification)

A) Describes patients risk of death FALSE

B) Calculation is based on patients physical activity FALSE

C) Is not calculated in children FALSE

D) Emergency surgery is always classified as ASA IV FALSE

3. Preparation before anesthesia

A) ECG should be performed in every adult patient > 40 years old FALSE

B) Chest RTG is performed by every adult patient < 40 years old FALSE
C) Blood group should be determined in every patient undergoing anesthesia TRUE

D) Blood products must be preordered for every patient undergoing major surgery TRUE

4. Premedication

A) Is not given to children (​ changed from other version) FALSE

B) Should be given one hour before surgery with a sip of water FALSE

C) Should not be given on the morning of scheduled cesarean section FALSE

D) Should not be given for patient scheduled to regional anesthesia FALSE

5. Medication taken chronically by patient

A) Furosemide should not be taken on the morning of surgery TRUE

B) Oral antidiabetics should be taken on the morning of surgery FALSE

C) Antihypertensive should not be discontinued on the morning of surgery FALSE

D) Steroids should not be discontinued on the morning of surgery TRUE

6. Midazolam

A) Given as premedication in a dose of 0,1 mg/kg ? FALSE

B) Provides amnesia TRUE

C) Provides sedation TRUE

D) Decreases muscle tone TRUE

7. Induction of anesthesia CHECK again

A) Propofol is the fastest sleep induction agent TRUE

B) Etomidate is agent of choice for head trauma patient what is it?

FALSE
 C) Thiopental is an agent of choice for cardiac patients FALSE

D) Etomidate can suppress adrenocortical function TRUE

8. Rapid sequence induction

A) Is performed to reduce the risk of gastric contents in emergency surgery TRUE

B) Is performed in every pregnant patient undergoing general anesthesia

TRUE

C) Thyroid cartilage is pressed manually FALSE

D) Is contraindicated in children FALSE

9. Oro-tracheal intubation

A) The cuff of the tube should be placed in subglottic space TRUE

B) Pressure in the cuff should be kept at 25 mmH2O ? TRUE

C) Uncuffed tubes are not used in preschool children FALSE

D) Armed tubes are used for head and neck surgery TRUE

10. Continuation of general anesthesia

A) Monitored propofol infusion is used TRUE

B) Inhaled anesthetic agents are used TRUE

C) Require short acting opioids TRUE

D) Always require muscle relaxants TRUE

11. Intraoperative ​analgesia

A) Is provided with short acting opioids TRUE

B) Is provided with local anesthetics TRUE

C) Fentanyl is more potent analgesic than morphine TRUE

D) Is provided by inhalation agents FALSE

12. Muscle relaxant

A) non- depolarising are giver to every patient undergoing major surgery TRUE

B) non- depolarising muscle relaxant action must be monitored by TOF TRUE

C) succinylcholine and mivacurium can cause prolonged apnea TRUE

D) succinylcholine and mivacurium undergo biodegradation in serum TRUE

13. Emergence of anaesthesia

A) VAS should be > 6 FALSE

B) TOF should be < 1 FALSE

C) MAC should be < 0,2 TRUE

D) BIS should be > 90 TRUE

14. Post-operative nausea and vomiting ( PONV)

A) propofol protects patients from PONV TRUE

B) ondansetron 4 mg is the treatment of choice TRUE

C) metoclopramide can be given to reduce gastric motility FALSE

D) dexamethasone may be given in prophylaxis of PONV TRUE

15. Post-operative bleeding

A) blood loss after surgery should not exceed 1 ml/kg/h TRUE

B) can be enhanced in body hypothermia TRUE FALSE

C) can be enhanced in metabolic acidosis TRUE

D) require blood transfusion if loss> 30% of circulating blood volume TRUE

16. Removal of endotracheal tube can be performed if

A) patient can stick the tongue out upon request TRUE

B) patient is able to swallow TRUE

C) patient has strong coughing reflex TRUE

D) patient can generate the pressure of 50mm H2O during inspiration 20-30 TRUE

17. Regional anaesthesia

A) central blockades are performed with bupivacaine and ropivacaine TRUE

B) adrenaline is added to speed up the action of local anaesthetics FALSE

C) opioids are added to enhance analgesia TRUE

D) continuous central blockade enables surgery > 3h TRUE

18. Local anaesthetic agents

A) safety dose of bupivacaine is​ 3 mg/kg FALSE

B) bupivacaine overdose can cause life threatening tachycardia TRUE

C) ropivacaine is less cardiotoxic than bupivacaine TRUE

D) adult of 70 kg can safely receive a blockade with 50 ml 0f 0,25% bupivacaine TRUE

18. Pain control during labour

A) is provided with opioids injected i.m. TRUE

B) is provided with local anaesthetics given epidurally TRUE

C) is provided with entonox TRUE

D) is provided with NSAID FALSE

19. Anatomy

A) central blockade is performed at lumbar level at L1- L2 FALSE

B) analgesia for vaginal delivery should exceed below Th8-Th10 TRUE

C) anaesthesia for caesarian section should exceed below Th8 TRUE

D) central blockade above Th5 is dangerous for the patient TRUE

20. Resuscitation

A) defibrillation energy for children should not exceed 4J/kg in the first attempt TRUE

B) PEA is a rhythm for defibrillator FALSE

C) adrenaline should be given at a dose of 10 mcg/kg i.v. FALSE

D) Hypoxia belongs to reversive causes of cardiac arrest TRUE

21. Atropine

A) Is not given routinely during CPR TRUE

B) the first dose should not exceed 0,5 mg for adults TRUE

C) At the end of anaesthesia is given parallelly with neostigmine TRUE

D) is given to patients exposed to organophosphate poisons TRUE

22. Oxygen therapy

A) standard oxygen mask provides 0,23 % oxygen FALSE

B) Ambu bag without reservoir provides 0,21% oxygen TRUE

C) Nasal prongs provide 0,5% oxygen FALSE

D) mask with reservoir provides up to 90% oxygen FALSE

23. Fluid therapy

A) Fluid should be transfused at the temperature of 25*C TRUE

B) Fluid resuscitation should not exceed should be guided by blood pressure FALSE

C) Crystalloids restore blood pressure faster than colloids FALSE

D) Balanced electrolyte solution contain a buffer TRUE

24. Safety

A) oxygen must always be present at anaesthesia stand TRUE

B) defibrillator must always be present at anaesthesia stand TRUE

C) anaesthetic machine must be checked before anaesthesia TRUE

D) patient must always have venous access during anaesthesia TRUE

2015 FINAL

1. Succinylcholine

A) is not given to children FALSE

B) is not given to pregnant patient FALSE

C) is not given to geriatric patient FALSE

D) is not given to burned patient TRUE?? FALSE

2. Succinylcholine

A) Increases blood concentration of calcium FALSE

B) Increases blood concentration of glucose FALSE

C) Increases blood concentration of potassium TRUE

D) Increases blood concentration of troponin FALSE

3. Pre anaesthetic assessment of the candidate to anaesthesia

A) should be performed minimum 24 h before anaesthesia TRUE

B) can be performed by phone FALSE

C) can be performed on operating table FALSE

D) can be performed by anaesthetic nurse FALSE

4. WHO Preoperative checklist

A) is developed to increase patient safety during surgery TRUE

B) is developed to document risk of surgery FALSE

C) is developed to control perioperative pain FALSE

D) is developed to control completeness of medical files FALSE

5. NRS scale

A) allows assessment of the depth of come FALSE

B) allows assessment of intensity of pain TRUE

C) allows assessment of severity of complications FALSE

D) allows assessment of difficult intubation FALSE

6. Preoperative fasting

A) does not apply to children FALSE

B) does not apply to diabetics FALSE

C) does not apply to water FALSE

D) does not apply to emergency surgery TRUE

7. On the morning of surgery

A) patient should receive prophylactic dose of low molecular heparin FALSE

B) patient should receive prophylactic dose of antibiotic FALSE

C) patient should receive infusion of 5% glucose to compensate for night fasting FALSE

D) Patient should receive pain killer FALSE

8. Blood products

A) blood should be cross -matched before every surgery TRUE

B) patient should give consent for blood transfusion in case one is required TRUE

C) blood products can not be given to neonates FALSE

D) Packet of red blood cells contains erythrocytes only

9. Crystalloid fluids

A) are given to every patient who lost blood ​Probably FALSE true

B) are given to compensate fasting and blood loss ​FALSE not fasting

C) are given to compensate blood loss >35% TRUE

D) restore blood pressure faster than colloids false, colloids 1:1, crystalloid 3:1 TRUE

10. premedication

A) premedication is given to every patient scheduled to surgery FALSE

B) morphine 10 mg p.o is given on the evening before surgery FALSE

C) lorazepam 1 mg is given to patient the evening before or on the morning of surgery FALSE

D) morphine 10 mg is given i.m to every patient before surgery FALSE

11. blood pressure drop during surgery – indicate the false answer

A) may be due to rapid blood loss TRUE

B) may be due to stress related to surgery​ FALSE

C) may be due to the action of local anaesthetic given epidurally ​TRUE

D) may be due to pneumothorax ​TRUE

12. Induction of anaesthesia – indicate the false answer

A) always require monitoring of patients vital signs TRUE

B) may cause apnea to patient TRUE - anesthetics cause the breathing to stop

C) is performed with intravenous and inhalational agents TRUE

D) is performed with local anaesthetics TRUE

13. Oxygen therapy

A) nasal prongs provide 40% oxygen - ​TRUE - 44%

B) standard face mask provides 40% oxygen ​TRUE

C) face mask with reservoir provides 40% oxygen​ FALSE - 100%

D) AMBU bag provider 21% oxygen ​FALSE -100%

14. Vocal cords

A) are open during general anaesthesia TRUE

B) are closed during general anaesthesia FALSE

C) are open during coughing TRUE

D) are open during expiration TRUE

15. adequate depth of anaesthesia

A) coughing reflex is present FALSE

B) BIS is < 30 FALSE

C) gag reflex is present FALSE

D) VAS > 4 FALSE

16. opioids

A) provide analgesia TRUE

B) fentanyl is stronger analgesic than morphine TRUE

C) fentanyl is weaker analgesic than morphine FALSE

D) fentanyl provides longer lasting analgesia than morphine​ FALSE

17. Endotracheal tube

A) armed tubes are used during neurosurgery

B) uncuffed tubes are used in children < 5 years

C) pressure in the cuff should be kept at 15 cmH2O

D) all of the above are true

18. Indication for endotracheal intubation

A) GCS < 8 TRUE

B) absent cough reflex TRUE

C) absent gag reflex TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

19. postoperative nausea and vomiting

A) occur more often in smoking patients FALSE

B) affects patients after regional anaesthesia TRUE

C) propofol is protective against nausea and vomiting TRUE

D) propofol enhances postoperative nausea and vomiting FALSE

20. ASA score

A) is performed only in adult patients FALSE

B) assesses patients comorbidities TRUE

C) is not performed in emergency cases ​FALSE- you add an E to the score in EMERGENCY

D) assesses patient’s physical status before anaesthesia TRUE

21. continuation of anaesthesia

A) hypnosis analgesia and muscle relaxation are required elements TRUE

B) crystalloid infusion is implemented TRUE

C) inhalational agents are used TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

22. inhalational agents

A) desflurane can be used for induction of anaesthesia FALSE

B) provide hypnosis ​analgesia​ and muscle relaxation False

C) sevoflurane is used in children and adults for maintenance of anaesthesia TRUE

D) all of the above are true FALSE

23. Indications for transfusion of blood products

A) massive blood loss during surgery TRUE

B) bleeding diathesis PROBABLY TRUE

C) Hemoglobin concentration < 8 g/dL is indication TRUE

D) all of the above are true

24. day case anaesthesia

A) only for patients ASA 1

B) patients stay in hospital 24 hours

C) there must be always accompanying adult who takes care of the patient at home

D) all of the above are true

25. analgosedation

A) in performed for some diagnostic procedures

B) in never performed outside operating theatre FALSE

C) patient receive infusion of benzodiazepine

D) is never performed in children

26. monitoring during anaesthesia

A) Blood pressure should not drop more than by 1/3 during anaesthesia

B) peripheral blood saturation reading can be disturbed by low surface temperature TRUE

C) Diathermy can interfere with ECG reading

D) all of the above are true

27. muscle relaxants

A) are used in every anaesthetized patient TRUE

B) depolarizing muscle relaxants are used during maintenance of anaesthesia FALSE

C) TOF is method of monitoring degree of neuromuscular blockade after atracurium TRUE

D) none of the above is true FALSE

28. orotracheal intubation

A) tube is placed above vocal cords FALSE

B) tube is placed in subglottic space FALSE

C) Internal diameter of the tube for adult patients is usually <7mm FALSE

D) none of the above is true TRUE

29. body temperature during anaesthesia

A) decreases due to infusion of cold fluids TRUE

B) decreases due to paralysis of autoregulation by regional anaesthesia TRUE

C) decreases due to impaired shivering mechanism

D) all of the above are true

30. Morphine

A) is a painkiller for deep visceral pain TRUE

B) works 3-4 hours after i.v/i.m injection TRUE

C) work longer ( up to 8 h ) when given epidurally TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

31. Mallampati score

A) assesses difficulty of orotracheal intubation TRUE

B) assesses pain threshold FALSE

C) assesses the risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting FALSE

D) assesses residual muscular blockade FALSE

32. Beta Blockers

A) decrease oxygen consumption in cardiac muscle TRUE

B) should be abandoned on the morning of the day of surgery FALSE

C) patient on oral beta blockers should switch to i.v.beta blocker

D) none of the above is true FALSE

33. AMBU bag

A) should be present on every anaesthesia workstation TRUE

B) should be present on resuscitation trolley TRUE

C) can be used with oxygen reservoir TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

34. cardiopulmonary resuscitation

A) external chest compression in adults should be done with frequency 30:2( 100/min) TRUE

B) external chest compression in adults should be at least 5 cm deep into chest cavity FALSE

C) Defibrillation should be performed in first 3-4 minutes after cardiac arrest in adults TRUE

D) all of the above are true FALSE

35. adrenaline

A) is given during resuscitation before chest compression FALSE

B) is given during resuscitation after every other external chest compression ventilation cycle FALSE

C) adrenaline is given before defibrillation TRUE

D) adrenaline is given after defibrillation TRUE

36. orotracheal intubation during CPR

A) intubation if performed after CPR FALSE

B) intubation is performed simultaneously with chest compression FALSE

C) intubation is performed before defibrillation FALSE

D) Intubation should be performed after defibrillation

37. defibrillation
A) biphasic defibrillator are more effective than monophasic TRUE

B) biphasic ventilation use more energy than monophasic FALSE

C) monophasic defibrillators are more effective than biphasic FALSE

D) electrodes for biphasic defibrillation are place differently than electrodes for monophasic one FALSE

38. atropine during CPR

A) is given as a vagolytic therapy

B) single dose in adults should not exceed 0,5 mg

C) the maximum dose of atropine is 0,04mg/kg i.v

D) all of the above are true

39. Reversible causes of cardiac arrest

A) Hypothermia TRUE

B) Cardiac tamponade TRUE

C) Hypercapnia FALSE

D) All of the above are true FALSE

40. energy of defibrillation

A) recommended energy of defibrillation for children is 4J/kg TRUE

B) recommended energy of biphasic defibrillation is 300J FALSE

C) recommended energy for monophasic defibrillation is 200J FALSE

D) patient with pacemaker should have defibrillation with lower energy

41. Fentanyl
A) is an opioid analgesic for deep visceral pain TRUE

B) mean action time is 20-25 minutes TRUE

C) fentanyl patch is used for cancer pain TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

42. albumines

A) it is natural colloid TRUE

B) albumin solutions are rich in sodium TRUE

C) is used in extracorporeal blood purification procedures TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

43. Pain after ​chest trauma​ is treated with

A) thoracic epidural analgesia TRUE

B) Morphine TRUE

C) regional thoracic nerve blockade TRUE

D) all of the above TRUE

44. Monitoring during anaesthesia

A) continuous ECG monitoring must be performed in every patient TRUE

B) Peripheral blood saturation probe should not be placed on a thumb

C) blood pressure cuff with should be equal to 2/3 of upper arm circumference

D) all of the above are true

45. pre operative fasting

A) 2 hours for water TRUE

B) 4 hours for liquids TRUE

C) 6 hours for solid food TRUE

D) all of the above is true TRUE

46. indication for mechanical ventilation

A) Dyspnea TRUE

B) Cyanosis TRUE

C) hypercapnia PaCO2> 60 mmHg TRUE

D) all of the above are false FALSE

47. indications for extracorporeal renal replacement therapy

A) Potassium > 5,5mmol/L

B) 30 % increase in Creatinine concentration TRUE

C) Overhydration FALSE

D) all of the above are true FALSE

48. Paracetamol

A) maximum daily dose should not exceed 6,0 grams FALSE

B) can be given p.o. or i.v. and p.a TRUE

C) is suitable for middle intensity pain TRUE

D) all of the above are true FALSE

49. Heparin
A) unfractionated heparin can be reversed with heparin sulphate true

B) heparin infusion can lead to thrombocytopenia true

C) prophylactic dose of unfractionated heparin is 80 units/kg every 8 h s.c

D) all of the above are true

50. steroids

A) should not be given on the morning of surgery

B) should not be withdrawn on the morning of surgery

C) should be given to every COPD patient on the day of surgery

D) none of the above is true

51. urine catheter

A) is placed in most of patients who will have central blockade for surgery TRUE

B) is placed to monitor diuresis during major surgery TRUE

C) should be placed on the operating table TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

52. epidural anaesthesia

A) needle is placed in L1-L2 space FALSE

B) drop in pressure identifies the right space TRUE

C) is performed only in orthopedic surgery FALSE

D) none of the above is true FALSE

53. Pain control during labour

A) is performed with 50 % mixture Oxygen and nitrous oxide TRUE

B) is performed with low concentration bupivacaine TRUE

C) is performed with TENS TRUE

D) all of the above is true TRUE

54. cardiac risk before surgery depends on

A) extend of surgical procedure TRUE

B) exercise tolerance TRUE

C) experience of the surgeon FALSE

D) all of the above FALSE

55. in case of Cardiac arrest on the operating table

A) surgery should be stopped TRUE

B) surgeon should be informed TRUE

C) help should be called TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

56. In case of anaphylactic reaction during anaesthesia

A) patient should be switched on 100 % oxygen TRUE

B) patients airways should be secured TRUE

C) adrenaline should be given immediately TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

57. blood tests before surgery

A) full blood count should be determined in every patient TRUE

B) coagulation times should be determined in every patient TRUE

C) potassium concentration should be determined in every diabetic and patient taking diuretic TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

58. information about anaesthetic procedure

A) patient must be informed about the purpose and technical details how procedure is performed TRUE

B) patient must be informed about complications TRUE

C) patient must be informed about alternatives TRUE

D) all of the above are true TRUE

2012 FINAL

1. A 5-year-old boy, scheduled for elective hernia repair (at 9 AM), should be fasted:

A) Since midnight

B) For 6 hours, regardless of the type of food

C) For 6 hours, regarding solid foods and/or milk, for 2 hours regarding clear fluids

D) Fasting is not necessary in children before minor surgery

E) Time of fasting it meaningless, because in hernia surgery a rapid sequence induction should be used anyway

2. Train-of-four stimulation (TOF):

A) Can be used for diagnosis of myopathy

B) Can be used for determine reversibility from the neuromuscular block

C) Should be performed before anaesthesia to assess the neuromuscular function

D) Can be used for assessment of intraoperative analgesia

E) All the above are true

3. During post near-drowning accident hypothermia at 33°C:

A) Ventricular fibrillation is common

B) An increased diuresis is expected

C) Serum potassium is elevated

D) Shivering occurs

E) All the above are true

4. The following muscle relaxants are recommended for rapid sequence induction:

1. Suxamethonium (Succinylcholine)

2. Vecuronium

3. Rocuronium

4. Mivacurium

5. Atracurium

The correct answer is:

A) 1 and 2

B) 1, 3 and 5

C) 2, 4 and 5
D) 2 and 3

E) 1 and 3

5. Postoperative pneumonia and atelectasis can be caused by:

A) Residual neuromuscular block

B) Overdoses of opioid analgesic agents

C) Pain

D) ​Aspiration

E) All of the above

6. A neonate is found to be cyanosed and moribund 6 hours after an uneventful delivery

A) ​The urgent priority is transfer to a specialist unit for investigation and subsequent treatment

B) Oxygen should be withheld

C) The condition will improve with adequate environmental warmth and a feed

D) Prostaglandin E2 should be given by intravenous infusion

E) 10 mg/kg hydrocortisone should be given by intramuscular injection

7. In adult resuscitation

A) A lay person should check the carotid pulse up to 30 seconds

B) In the unconscious, pulseless patient the rescuer should call for help and wait for the arrival of an ambulance

C) 30 chest compressions should be given at a rate of 100/min

D) Chest compression and rescue breaths should be continued in a ratio 10: 2

E) Chest compression should interrupted every 2 minutes to reassess the cardiac function
8. Which of these preparations should ​not​ be used for correction of severe hypovolaemia?

A) 0.9% NaCI solution

B) Ringer's lactate

C) Hydroxyethylstarch (HES)

D) 5% glucose

E) 5% human albumin solution

9. In resuscitation of an infant CPR should be started with:

A) Opening the airway

B) Two rescue breaths

C) Electrical defibrillation

D) IV adrenaline injection

E) Chest compressions

10. The most reliable and fastest method to confirm the correct placement of an endotracheal tube is:

A) Auscultation

B) Pulse oximetry

C) Capnometry (measurement of CO2 concentration in exhaled air)

D) Chest X-ray

E) ECG

11. Common early complications of central venous cannulation include:

1. IV catheter sepsis

2. Haemorrhage
 3. Pulmonary oedema

4. Pneumothorax

5. Venous thrombosis

The correct answer is:

A) 1, 2 and 4

B) 2, 3 and 4

C) 2, 3 and 5

D) 2 and 4

E) 1, 2 , 3, 4 and 5

12. Regarding regional anaesthesia:

A) Epidural block should be always performed in a conscious child

B) A patient should not move and lay in a supine flat position for 24 hours after spinal analgesia

C) The onset of epidural analgesia is faster, compared to spinal analgesia

D) Post dural puncture headache may complicate accidental dural puncture during epidural catheter placement,

but never spinal analgesia

E) Central blocks should not be attempted in a patient with low platelets count and/or coagulation

disturbances

13. Which of the following opioid analgesic agents has the​ shortest duration of action​:

A) Pethidine (meperidine)​ (60-180 minutes)

B) Fentanyl (​ 30-60 minutes)

C) Sufentanil ​(95 minutes)

 D) ​Remifentanil​ ​(5-10 minutes)

E) Morphine ​(3-4 hours)

14. A 45-year-old man, previously healthy, with ​well controlled arterial hypertension​ has been scheduled for

elective knee surgery. Which class of the ASA physical status does he belong to?

A) 1

B) ​2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

15. The most commonly used during total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA) iv anaesthetic agent is:

A) Thiopentone

B) Propofol

C) Etomidate

D) Ketamine

E) Midazolam

16. A 87-yr-old man with ​mitral regurgitation and atrial fibrillation​ is presented for biphasic cardioversion.

The anaesthetic of choice in this case is:

A) Thiopentone

B) Propofol

C) ​Etomidate

D) Ketamine
 E) Midazolam

17. A 22-yr-old professional football player suddenly collapsed in a field, CPR was started and subsequently

attached ECG monitor revealed the following rhythm:

What would you do?

A) Continue CPR and fly the patient over to a cardiac center

B) Defibrillate

C) Give 1 mg adrenaline iv

D) Give 300 mg amiodarone iv

E) Give 3 mg adenosine iv

18. Regarding results of a blood gas analysis (BGA): pH 7.21, PaCO2 24, Pa02 88, BE -18; which of the

following descriptions is correct?

A) Compensated metabolic acidosis

B) Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

C) Normal BGA in hypokalemia

 D) Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

E) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

19. Postoperative pain

A) Is a natural occurrence in the postoperative period and should not be treated too aggressively to avoid

respiratory depression

B) Might be considered positive as it stimulates respiratory drive

C) Should be treated appropriately as it stimulates hormonal stress response and can be the cause of

shallow breathing, atelectasis, and even pneumonia

D) Should be managed with a single analgesic (monotherapy) to avoid side effects

E) Does not require treatment in premature infants since they are not able to feel pain

20. Which of the following is true?

A) Bupivacaine is an intravenous anaesthetic agent

B) 20 ml of 0.5% bupivacaine contains 100 mg of the drug

C) Bupivacaine is a short-acting analgesic agent

D) Overdosing of bupivacaine is manifested by double vision and convulsions

E) Overdosing of bupivacaine is manifested by serious cardiac arrhythmias

21. Intracranial pressure is increased by:

A) Head-up tilt

B) Intubation

C) Mannitol

D) Hypothermia
 E) Atracurium

22. A 2-year-old infant choked when stealing peanuts. The child is still conscious, but dyspneic, coughing

ineffectively, turning blue, Your appropriate action would be:

A) Encourage cough and monitor consciousness level

B) Remove the foreign body with a single finger sweep

C) Give back blows, than chest thrusts and monitor consciousness and breathing pattern

D) Give abdominal thrusts (Heimlich manoeuvre) immediately

E) Start CPR immediately

23. Which of the following is a true statement?

A) pH is given by log [H+]

B) pH is given by log (HCO3)

C) pH is given by the integral of H+ —> fH+

D) Normal pH of human blood is around 6.55

E) A weak acid will have pH larger than 9

Read the following clinical scenario then answer questions 24, 25 and 26

2 year-old boy is brought to an emergency because of a f​ ever of 40°C​ and vomiting (3x). He became unwell three

hours earlier. The boy is ​toxic, disorientated, his heart rate is 190 bpm​, arterial ​blood pressure is 60/30 mmHg​,

r​espiratory rate 30/min​, breathing sounds are normal, the skin is cold, mottled, c​ apillary refill time is > 5s​.

24. Your probably most appropriate clinical diagnosis would be:

 A) SIRS ( systemic inflammatory response syndrome)

B) Sepsis ( SIRS + suspected infection)

C) Septic shock

D) Anaphylaxis

E) Meningitis

25. The first and the most important step should be:

A) Establish iv access and start antibiotics

B) Establish a central venous access and perform a lumbar puncture

C) Take blood cultures and delay antibiotics until the results are known, because blind antibiotic therapy may

lead to multiple resistance

D) Establish iv or intraosseous access, take blood samples and start administer crystalloid fluids in 20 cc/kg

bolus portions, repeated every 5 — 10 minutes

E) Give rectal paracetamol for fever and perform a CT scan to exclude encephalitis

26. Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of halogenated anaesthetic agents describes:

A) Potency of halogenated anaesthetic agents

B) Speed of induction with different halogenated anaesthetic agents

C) Degree of respiratory depression during inhalation anaesthesia

D) Solubility of halogenated anaesthetic agents

E) None of the above

27. The common side effects of morphine are:

1. Obstipation
2. Hypertension

3. Nausea and vomiting

4. Pruritus

5. Supraventricular arrhythmia

The correct answer is:

A) 1, 3 and 4

B) 2 and 5

C) 3 and 4

D) 1, 3 and 5

E) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

28. During resuscitation of an infant, pulse should be checked at:

A) Carotid artery

B) Femoral artery

C) Radial artery

D) Temporal artery

E) Over the fontanel

29. 0.5% paediatric ​propofol solution​ is white because:

A) All phenol derivatives are white

B) Is easy spotted

C) Children like the colour

D) It is dissolved in lipid emulsion

E) Is sensitive for light and white colour protects the preparation

30. The ventilatory changes to hypoxia:

A) Include decreased peripheral chemoreceptor activity

B) Include rapid increase in minute ventilation

C) Include very high values of PaCO2 depressing ventilation

D) Are reduced in presence of hyperglycaemia

E) Are observed in the deep (REM) phase of sleep only