1. What do you call tin mill steel without a coating?

(a) Dechromate tin

(b) Black plate
(c) White plate
(d) Tin steel free
2. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and high strength at
red heat temperatures. making it useful in resistance heating?
(a) Nichrome
(b) Hastelloy
(c) Aluminum bronze
(d) Alnico
3. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of chromium?
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 5%
(d) 25%
4. What do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron oxide content of the steel?
(a) Deoxidizers
(b) Detoxifiers
(c) Deorizers
(d) Deterrent
5. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?
(a) Malleable iron
(b) Gray iron
(c) White iron
(d) Alloy iron
6. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?
(a) Ductile iron
(b) Gray iron
(c) Malleable iron
(d) White iron
7. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?
(a) White iron
(b) Malleable iron
(c) Ductile iron
(d) Gray iron
8. What is considered as the general purpose, oldest type and widely used cast iron?
(a) Gray iron
(b) Alloy iron
(c) Ductile iron
(d) Malleable iron
9. The effect of manganese in cast iron is to?
(a) deoxidize molten cast iron
(b) reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increas hardness above 0.5%
(c) affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form
(d) increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature
10. The effect of aluminum in cast iron is to?
(a) deoxidize molten cast iron
(b) reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%
(c) affect the machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form
(d) increase hardness above 0.5%
11. The effect of silicon in cast iron is to?
(a) softens iron and increases ductility below 3.25%, hardens iron above 3.25% and increase acid and corrosion
resistance above 13%
(b) reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and Increase hardness above 0.5 %
(c) increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature
(d) deoxidizes molten cast iron
12. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earth's crust is iron?
(a) 20%
(b) 10%
(c) 5%
(d) 8%
13. What is the advantage of quench hardening?
(a) Wear characteristics
(b) All of the choices
(c) Improved strength
(d) Hardness
14. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench?
(a) Tempering
(b) Carburizing
(c) Nitriding
(d) Heat-treating
15. The following statements are true except one. Which one?
(a) Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.
(b) Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.
(c) Carburizing does not harden a steel.
(d) Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels
16. Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel?
(a) Sufficient carbon content
(b) All of the choices
(c) Adequate quench
(d) Heating to the proper temperature
17. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?
(a) Geology
(b) Metallurgy
(c) Material Science
(d) Metalgraphy
18. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?
(a) Gangue
(b) Magnetite
(c) Ore
(d) Hematite
19. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?
(a) Diamond
(b) Tuyere
(c) Hematite
(d) Coke
20. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?
(a) Brass
(b) Zinc
(c) Nickle
(d) Aluminum
21. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel near the surface of a
part is increased?
(a) Annealing
(b) Carburizing
(c) Martempering
(d) Normalizing
22. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical temperature,
followed by any desired rate of cooling?
(a) Carburizing
(b) Normalizing
(c) Tempering
(d) Spheroidizing
23. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite composition and a
definite temperature of transformation within the solid state?
(a) Austemite
(b) Eutectoid
(c) Pearlite
(d) Delta solid solution
24. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?
(a) Silicon
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Sulfur
(d) Manganese
25. What impurity in steel can cause "red shortness", which means the steel becomes unworkable at high
temperature?
(a) Sulfur
(b) Manganese
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Silicon
26. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened is machined,
heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to about 1000°F?
(a) Carburizing
(b) Annealing
(c) Nitriding
(d) Normalizing
27. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond
to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surfacs?
(a) Induction hardening
(b) Cyaniding
(c) Flame hardening
(d) Nitriding
28. What is the most common reinforcement for polymer composites?
(a) Glass fiber
(b) Graphite
(c) Boron
(d) Ceramic
29. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a loss of
(a) ion
(b) anode
(c) proton
(d) electron
30. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to a metal?
(a) Ionization
(b) Oxidation
(c) Reduction
(d) Corrosion
31. Oxidation in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?
(a) At both cathode and anode
(b) At the electrode
(c) At the anode
(d) At the cathode
32. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?
(a) At the electrode
(b) At the anode
(c) At the cathode
(d) At both cathode and anode
33. What do you call a fluid that conducts electricity?
(a) Solution
(b) Electrolyte
(c) Acid
(d) Water
34. The________________of an environment serves as a measure of the strength of acids or bases.
(a) pH measurement
(b) humidity
(c) impurities
(d) passivity
35. What is the pH value for a neutral solution?
(a) 7
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 9
36. The solutions with pH values from 1 to 6 are
(a) alkaline
(b) neutral
(c) acid
(d) base
37. The solutions with pH values from 7 to 12 are
(a) neutral
(b) acid
(c) alkaline
(d) base
38. pH stands for
(a) positive hydrogen iori
(b) polyhydrate
(c) positive helium ion
(d) polyhelium
39. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?
(a) Pitting
(b) Erosion
(c) Cracking
(d) Cavitation
40. What do you call the removal of zinc from brasses?
(a) Graphitization
(b) Dealloying
(c) Stabilization
(d) Dezincification
41. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?
(a) Scaping
(b) Expoliation
(c) Fretting
(d) Corrosion fatigue
42. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?
(a) Filiform corrosion
(b) Fretting corrosion
(c) Microbiological corrosion
(d) Stray current corrosion
43. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude (20 to 100 µm)
between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?
(a) Fretting corrosion
(b) Microbiological corrosion
(c) Filiform corrosion
(d) Stray current corrosion
44. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.
(a) Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not good conductors of
electricity.
(b) Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.
(c) The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode
(d) Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protection of many metals
45. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than____________percent.
(a) 1-5
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 2
46. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel?
(a) 16% to 20%
(b) 20% to 24 %
(c) 10% to 12 %
(d) 12% to 18%
47. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?
(a) Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.
(b) Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat.
(c) Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity.
(d) The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
48. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?
(a) Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel
(b) Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
(c) Iron, chromium, carbon and copper
(d) Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
49. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as times that of carbon steel.
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15
50. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?
(a) All of the choices
(b) Forming
(c) Molding
(d) Casting
51. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?
(a) Water-cooled metal cavities
(b) Machined metal holding blocks
(c) Ejection mechanism
(d) Metal mold (maching halves)
52. What cast iron has nodular or spheroidal graphite?
(a) White iron
(b) Gray iron
(c) Wrought iron
(d) Ductile iron
53. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generated by pulling resin-impregnated
glass strands through a die?
(a) Bulk molding
(b) Vacuum bag forming
(c) Resin transfer moulding
(d) Continuous pultrusion
54. What is a natural substance that makes up a significant portion of all plant life?
(a) Polycarbonates
(b) Cellulose
(c) Polyacetal
(d) Polyimides
55. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products of alcohols and
acids?
(a) Aldehyde
(b) Alkaline
(c) Alkydes
(d) Alcocids
56. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?
(a) 13XX
(b) 31XX
(c) 23XX
(d) 25XX
57. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?
(a) 23XX
(b) 12XX
(c) 31XX
(d) 13XX
58. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?
(a) 600°C to 1100°C
(b) 1000°C to 1500°C
(c) 1100°C to 2000°C
(d) 200°C to 800°C
59. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steels except
(a) Cobalt
(b) Chromium
(c) Molybdenum
(d) Tungsten
60. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?
(a) 0.20
(b) 0.30
(c) 0.10
(d) 0.40
61. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadiurn?
(a) 0.05 to 0.15
(b) 0.30 to 0.45
(c) 0.15 to 0.30
(d) 0.45 to 0.60
62. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?
(a) 5 to 10
(b) 14 to 18
(c) 11 to 14
(d) 1 to 5
63. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to____________that is, the hardness is
increased greatly when the steel is cold worked.
(a) stress harden
(b) cool-temperature resistant
(c) strain harden
(d) cold harden
64. The special chrome steals of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium?
(a) 9 to 10
(b) 4 to 8
(c) 17 to 21
(d) 11 to 17
65. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it will become
hard?
(a) Surfacehardening
(b) Carburizing
(c) Casehardening
(d) Annealing
66. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?
(a) Malleability
(b) Spheroidability
(c) Hardenability
(d) Rigidity
67. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite?
(a) 1000° F
(b) 1222° F
(c) 1333° F
(d) 1666° F
68. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of the curve?
(a) Austenite
(b) Pearlite
(c) Martensite
(d) Bainite
69. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature to 1670°F?
(a) Gamma iron
(b) Beta iron
(c) Alpha iron
(d) Delta iron
70. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above
(a) 660° C
(b) 440° C
(c) 550° C
(d) 770° C
71. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000°F for up to 100 hours in an ammonia
atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?
(a) Nitriding
(b) Carburizing
(c) Precipitation hardening
(d) Flame hardening
72. What is the chief ore of tin?
(a) Ilmanite
(b) Cassiterite
(c) Bauxite
(d) Galena
73. What is the chief ore of zinc?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Sphalerite
(c) Ilmanite
(d) Cassiterite
74. What is the chief ore of titanium?
(a) Ilmanite
(b) Cassiterite
(c) Bauxite
(d) Sphalerite
75. What is a mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?
(a) Sphalerite
(b) Bauxite
(c) Galena
(d) Rutile
76. The term "brass" is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily________and___________
(a) zinc and nickel
(b) copper and aluminum
(c) aluminum and iron
(d) copper and zinc
77. The term "bronze" is used to designate any alloy containing:
(a) copper and aluminum
(b) copper and nickel
(c) copper and zinc
(d) copper and tin
78. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What does the first digit
indicates?
(a) The purity of aluminum
(b) The strength of the alloy
(c) The identity of the alloy
(d) The alloy group
79. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents?
(a) The identity of the alloy
(b) The purity of aluminum
(c) The alloy group
(d) The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits
80. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number indicates what
condition of the alloy?
(a) As fabricated
(b) Artificially aged
(c) Strain hardened
(d) Annealed
81. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except:
(a) Aluminum alloys
(b) Magnesium alloys
(c) Zinc alloys
(d) Manganese alloys
82. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?
(a) 50000 lbf/in^2
(b) 100000 lbf/in^2
(c) 35000 lbf/in^2
(d) 25000 lbf/in^2
83. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?
(a) less than 0.1 percent
(b) exactly 0.1 percent
(c) ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent
(d) more than 0.1 percent
84. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?
(a) 14%
(b) 10%
(c) 22%
(d) 18%
85. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called
(a) white brass
(b) Muntz metal
(c) yellow brass
(d) red brass
86. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 15%
87. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?
(a) 50 %
(b) 30%
(c) 20%
(d) 40%
88. Indicate the false statement.
(a) Aluminum bronzes contain no tin.
(b) Tin is relatively soluble in copper.
(c) Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners.
(d) Bronze is a copper-tin alloy.
89. What is the most abundant metal in nature?
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) Steel
(d) Aluminum
90. Indicate the false statement about aluminum.
(a) It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel
(b) It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.
(c) It has 1/3 the weight of steel.
(d) It has high strength-to-weight ratio.
91. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?
(a) Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting
(b) Improve conductivity
(c) Lowers castability
(d) Improves machinability
92. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?
(a) Increases fluidity in casting
(b) Improves machinability
(c) Reduces shrinkage
(d) Increases strength up to about 12 %
93. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for permanent
magnets?
(a) Alnico and Cunife
(b) Nichrome and Constantan
(c) Elinvar and Invar
(d) Invar and Nilvar
94. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except:
(a) alumina
(b) asphalt
(c) lime
(d) silica
95. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear region in the
stress-strain diagram?
(a) Proportionality limit
(b) Modulus of elasticity
(c) Tangent modulus
(d) Secant modulus
96. What is the ratio of the ultimate failure strain to the yielding strain?
(a) Resilience
(b) Fatigue
(c) Poisson's ratio
(d) Ductility
97. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?
(a) Gibb's phase test
(b) Stress relief test
(c) Jominy end-quench test
(d) The lever rule
98. What steel relief process is used with hypoeutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?
(a) Tempering
(b) Normalizing
(c) Spheroidizing
(d) Annealing
99. What is another term for tempering?
(a) Spheroidizing
(b) Drawing or toughening
(c) Annealing
(d) Recrystallization
100. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?
(a) Annealing*
(b) Nitriding
(c) Flame hardening
(d) Carburizing