948, SEWAGE DISPOSAL. AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING problems and impacts of the project, rather than the result of revealing adverse impacts, ty the time you begin the BIA study programme, your project will most likely be known to the public and will begin to be watched closely by the interested ind \s and groups. Thus, throughout the conduct of BIA studies, it is advisable to maintain frequent and close communication with the regulatory Govt. agencies, so that no ‘aurprises” are presented to agencies upon submission of the EIA report, which they have to review and aprove, 22.8. Role of the General Public in Environmental Clearance Itis evident that a large degree of latitude exists for interaction with the public at various stages of a project. Recognising that the EIA is a fall disclosure document and that it will ultimately be ‘made public, and further recognising that a project which impacts ‘a community will be of public interest, the EIA tust be written in simple and effective manner, as to be appreciated by publie man. greatest concern of Corporations is how to interact in the early stages of project development prior to ‘the preparation of an BIA. There are strategies which may be ‘employed ranging from a very elaborate and highly visible public relations programme to'a very low profile. The degree of such interactions and the amount of information given about the project, is largely a matter of Corporate choice. Moreover, if desi chniques such a8 surveys can be itudes, and thus provide some basis for determining how beat ta intoract with the public. Regardless of which strategy a Corporation choses to employ, the following general points should be taken into account : i) Prepare:in advance, the type and amount of information you choose to release to the public. Jake sure the information released is consistent with the action of the Corporation that are observable by the publie. Make sure that the information given by various Corporate sourees is consistent between the sources. (iv) Be prepared to discuss your project in a manner that is responsive, and which will not be viewed as evasive. (v) Do not oversell the project or avoid diseussion of potential problems, but remain prepared to give a positive response about what you are doing about public concerns, Chapterwise Objective Multichoice Questions Chapter 1 : Introduction to the Subject Q.1. ‘The’ liquid wastes originating from residential and industrial buildings, are collectively called : (a) domestic sewage (b) combined sewage (e) sanitary sewage (d) none of these, Q.2. The sewer which transports the sewage to the point of treatment, is called (a) house sewer () main sewer (o) outfall sewer (d) none of these. Q.3. A combined sewerage system, collectively carries : (a) domestic sewage and industrial sewage rorm sewage and domestic sewage storm sewage and industrial sewage (d) storm sewage and sanitary sewage. Q. 4. The sewerage system originates from (@) outfall sewer (6) main sewer (©)house sewer (@) none of these. Q.5. A sewer which receives the discharge from a number of independent houses, is called : ‘house sewer (b) intercepting sewer iteral sewer (@) none of these. Q.6. A sewer pipe carrying sewage from a building to the point of its immediate disposal, is called : (a) intercepting sewer (house sewer 949950 (CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS Q.7, When rainy season is confined to a few months, like that in India, the preferred sewerage system would be : (a) combined system (©) separate system (©) partially separate system (d)none of these. . The suitable system of sanitation for an area having uniformly distributed mild rains throughout the year, like that in England, is : eparate system combined system. (©) partially separate system. (@) partially combined system. Q.9. The water carriage system of collection of waste products referred to dry conservancy system, because it is cheaper in initial cost oes not require treatment before disposal more hygienic in nature 2 2 Q. 10. The wastewater coming from kitchens and bath rooms is popularly known as : (a) domestic sewage discharge (8) sludge discharge ) drainage discharge (d) none of these. + In a city drainage system, having drainage to sewage ratio as 20, the peak dry weather flow would amount to = (a) 20% of the design discharge (6) 5% of the design discharge (c) slightly less than 5% of the design discharge (@ slightly more than 5% of the design discharge. Chapter 2: Estimating the Design Sewage Discharge Q. 12. For the design of sewers in India, the percentage of sewage discharge, is assumed as : (a) 25—30% of water supplied from water works '5_80% of water supplied from water works 100% of water supplied from water works. @) none of these. SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 951 Q. 13. The sower pipes have to be designed and checked for (@) only maximum flow (®) only minimum flow (©) both maximum and minimum flows (d) none of them, Q. 14. Sewage treatment works are normally designed for a design period of : (@) 40—50 years (6)30—40 years (©) 15—20 years (@)5—10 years, ex) ‘Sewage pumping plants are normally designed for a jn period of : 40—50 years (6) 30—40 years (©) 15—20 years (d)5—10 years, Q-16. For Indian cities, like Dethi or Calcutta, the per capita sewage production may be of the order of (a) 500 litres (®) 200 litres () 100 litres (d) none of these. Q.17, The peak design flows, expressed as number of times their ayerage valu be: (a) greater for smaller lateral sewers, as compared to these for larger trunk sewers (b) greater for larger trank sewers, as compared to these for smaller lateral sewers (e) equal for all sizes and types of sewers, @ 18, The ratio of maximum daily sewage flow to the average daily sewage flow for sewer mains of 0.5 to 1 m diameter, is generally taken as : (@)15 0 Iy Sewage flow to the ~ a ‘sewage flow for trunk sewers, above 1.25 m in diameter, is : (6) 2.0 z (@)40. Q. 20. The ratio of the max. daily sewage flow to the ay erage daily flow for small sewers and laterals ‘up to say 0.25 m in diameter, is : ()2.0 40952 Q. 21. Q.22. ‘CHAPTERWISE ORIECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS ‘The ratio of the max. sewage flow to the average flow for branch sewers, up to say 0.5 min diameter, is @15 (6)2.0 3.0 (a4. ‘The ratio of minimum hourly flow to the average flow of sewage, is: @} oy Oz @)3. For moderate sized areas and sewers, say up to 1 m in diameter, tho maximum hourly drafts may be considered as equal to: (a) 1.5 times the maximum daily (8) 3 times the maximum daily (©) } times the maximum daily ) none of the above. ‘The peak flow for the design of sewers, has been connected to the average flow and the population of the city in thousands, by an empirical relation, given by 18+VP 4 Q-eFe. motte, 18+P ©Q= Fy p (a) none of the above. Point out the wrong statement, in the following generally made in the design of moderate @) average daily flow = annual average daily flow (6) minimum daily flow = } average daily flow minimum hourly flow = } average daily flow ) maximum daily flow = 2 average daily flow (e) maximum hourly flow = 3 average daily flow (Pnone of them. 4 to } space is left vacant in the design of sewer pipes at maximum discharge, due to (a) possible low estimates of maximum and average flows (®) large scale possible infiltration of storm water SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 953 ‘unexpected increase in population (d) all the above factors. The minimum and the maximum diameter of sewers, generally adopted in the designs, may be : 15m and 100 em (&) 15 em and 800 em (©) 25 em and 450 em (@) 60 em and 300 em. Chapter 3: Estimating the Peak Drais ge Discharge Q.28. The Rational formula, for evaluating peak drainage discharge, can be safely applied to catchments, up to : (a) 25 hectares (6) 500 hectares (©) 2000 hectares, (@) up to any limit. Q. 29. ‘The value of the coefficient of runoff for paved areas is of the order of : (a) zoro 0.8 09 (qd) greater than 1, e value of the coefficient of runoff for perfectly impervious areas, tend to: Q.88. The Rational formula for peak drainage discharge computations, was evolved Kuichling Lloyd David 12 km, and the difference in levole between these points is 14.5 m, then the inlet time would be of the (d)8 hours954 1OICE QUESTIONS Q.35. ‘The drainage discharge of a town of 16 hectares area, consisting of 40% hard paved (k = 0.80), 30% unpaved (k= and remaining as wooded (/e = 0.10), with «max. rain intensity of 5 em/hr, would be computed by Rational formula; as equal to (0.91 cumecs (6) 0.091eumecs (©)9.1 cumecs (d) none of these. Chapter 4 : Hydraulic Design of Sewers and S.W. Drain Sections ing of sewers is usually done with the help of : ‘theodolite ) sight rails and boning rods. ick up the incorrect statement : ) sewer pipes carry sewage flow by gravity (sewer pipe material has to withstand wear and tear due to abrasion (e)sewer pipes should be designed for selfcleansing velocity of at Ieast 0.45 m/sec at minimum discharge, or 0.8 m/sec at full design discharge (d) sewer pipes can be carried up and dwn the hills and valleys (©) none of the above. Q. 38.% The diameter of a R.C.C, sewer pipé gradient required to generate self would be of the order of : is 300 mm 5 the ansing velocity is! Lin 200 1000, -adient required to ces self cleansing velocity is of the order of : Q. 40, The flow velocity in a circular sewer at discharge is about, x times the full design. velocity at ‘maximum design discharge, where is about : "Hinte for solving starred questions are given at the end of the chapter. SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIK POLLUTION ENGINEERING 955) (8) 30% (d) 100%. Q. 41. Minimum self cleansing velocity in sewers, caleulated as 0.45 m/sec for ensuring non-settlement of 1 mm size sand and 6 mm size organics, should bo: checked, for a minimum discharge, equal to : ax design discharge (b) average discharge max design discharge (d) } average dischiirge. Q. 42. Sewer pipes of dia less than 0.4 th, are designed at ‘maximum flow, to be running at : (a) fall dopt, (6) Z full depth ) ¥ full depth (a) 3 fall depth, 43. Sewer pipes of dia 0.4.t0.0.9 mare designed at maximum flow, running at : ) full depth (&) } fu depts 2 full depth (a) § full depth, Q. 44. Main trunk sewers, larger than 0.9 m in dia, are designed due to ventilation considerations, at max. discharge, running at : (a) fall depth (®) 4 fall depth (©) 3 full depth (a) 2 full depth, Q.45. The most suitable section of a sewer ‘in & separate sewerage system is (a) rectangular (®) circular (©) new egg-shape (@) parabolic. Q.46. The most suitable section of a sewer in A combined sewerage system is: (@) rectangular (6) circular ‘ (©) new ege-shape” @ parabolic ex) ‘An egg-shaped sower, When compared to a circular sewer, ‘economical (6) more stable (©) easier to construct (d) provides better self-cleansing velocity at low discharges.956 [CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS Q. 48. ‘The flow velocity in a sewer does not depend on: Q.49. The effect of increasing the diameter of a sewer, on the self- cleansing velocity, is: (a) to increase it (0) to decrease it {c) not to eause any effect, Q.50. Pick up the correct statement from the following With seif cleansing velocity in sewers, (a) the silting occurs at the bottom (8) the scoring occurs at the bottom (©) the silting and souring both occur at the bottom (d) neither siting nor scouring occur at the bottom. Q.51.* Inacircular sewer of dia D, ifthe depth of lowis } D, the wetted perimeter will be equal to : xD. o> o® ae xD oy @.52. Two sewer sections, laid at the same grade, will bo hydraulically equivalent, if: (a) their discharging capacity, when running full, are equal (b) their flow velocities, when running full, are equal (c) their flow areas, when running full, are equal (d) all the above factors are equal. Chapter 5 : Sewers, Their Construction, Maintenance ‘and Required Appurtenances @.53. For trunk and outfall sewers, the typo of section used ta bbe preferred in olden days, was ) Horse shoe shaped (b) parabolic shaped (@)semi-elliptical shaped. SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIK POLLUTION ENGINEERING 957 Q. 54, Boussinesq’s equation for computing unit pressure (p,) at a depth H on the sewers, due to traffic load (P) is given by _ SHR. pea oP 2z where, Z is the slant height of the considered point from the load @.55. Pick up the incorrect statement : (a) The pressure exerted by sewage, when Tunning full in a pipe, is called the internal pressure ; and it may in- duce tensile stresses in the pipe material (@) The pressure exerted by back fill on an underground sewer, the self weight of sewer, and the superimposed traffic loads, may cause compressive stresses in, the pipe material (c) Temperature stresses are usually computed on under- ground sewers, to avoid the eracking of their joints, by the formula L aT (@) Flexural stresses, caused by the beam aetion, are nor- mally ignored, while designing underground sewer pipes. Q.56, The most prominent force, acting on the underground sewer pipes, would be : (a) compressive force __(b) tensile force bending force (d)all ofthese. Q.57. Pick up the incorrect statement : Asbestos cement pipes are (a) light: weight ‘to corrosion by chemicals in sewage wvailable in different sizes, say 10—90 em in di strong enough to withstand traffie and other compressive loads, Q.58. Pick up the incorrect statement ) R.C.C. pipes are very strong to withstand compressive forces (8)R.C.C. pipes are very strong to withstand tensile forees| @), ©p,==_—- ..- 958 CCHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS .C. pipes are quite resistant to erosion and abra- C.C, pipes are not easily corroded by the hydrogen Q.59. reinforcement on R.C. sewer pipes isx% jonal area of concrete, where xis glazed stono-ware (d) cast iron. Q.61. House connections and lateral sewers are widely made of RCC. (©) glazed stoneware @. 62. Stoneware pipes are general because they are (a) weak in compression (d) less resistant to organic corrosion. Q.68. The best sewer material to resist hydrogen sulphide corrosion, is : (@RC.C. (by brick masonry. (©) glazed stoneware (d) asbestos cement. Q. 64. Sewers are generally laid, starting from their : (a) off take point (6) outfall point (©) mid point (@) any point along the alignment. Q.65, Sheeting and bracing of excavation trench for laying sewers, will be more @ necessity, in : (@) clayey soils (b) silty soils (¢) sandy soils (d)quick sands. Q..66., Testing of sewer pipes may involve (a) water test (©) mirrortest (c) ball test (d)all these tests, SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 959, jipes of dia Jess than 0.6 m or Q. 68,, For joining bigger the preferred joi socket and spigot joint joint bandage joint ) mechanical joint. Q. 69. Asbestos cement pipes are normally joined by using : (a) bell and spigot joint (©) Tock joint Q.71. Manhole covers are made circular (a) for achitectural reasons ()to strengthen the cover (@) to prevent falling of the cover into the manhole (@) to make the entry convenient. Q.72. Manholes are generally located (q) at all changes of direction of sewer (b) at all changes of gradient of sewer 2) at all junetions of different sewers (@) all of the above. cS) Amanhole is generally classified as a deep manhole, ifits depth is more than = @oom (12m. (d)2m. generally classified as shallow manhole, if jess than (6) 12m (o15m @2m. Q.75. The maximum spacing of manholes on sewers, having diameter more than 1.5 m, is : @ 75m (8) 150 m (©) 200 m (d) 300 m.80. ;. When a sheet of paper [CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS . For very small sized sewers, of say up to 0.3 m diameter, the maximum manhole spacing, specified by Indian standards, is (2)30m Om (6) 45 m (d) 100 m. . A drop manhole may be provided along a sewer line : (q) when the sewer drops from a height of more than 0.6 mor so, (b) when a branch sewer outfalls into it from a height of jore than 0.6m or so. provide inspection chambers in the sewer line (@) for none of these, . Cleanouts help in : (a) admitting sewage into the sewer () cleaning the sewer (o) inspecting the sewer (a) none of these. ). When a sewer line is dropped below the hydraulic gradient line to pass it through an obstruction, the arrangement is known as : (a) inverted syphon (b) sag pipe (c) depressed sewer (d) all of these. Of the following, the most effective type of storm relief work to divert excess drainage in combined sewers, (a) leaping weir (6) overflow weir iphon spillway G@) all of these. up the incorrect statement : small sewers are cleaned by flushing edium sewers are cleaned by eane rodding (c) ventilation columns are provided to ereate airlocks in the sewers (@) large sized sewers are cleaned by actually entering into the sewers, . The gas which is generally found present in sewers, is : @HS (6) CO, (CH, id) all of these. jistened with lead acetate, held for 5 minutes in a manhole, turns black ; then the sewer certainly contains : SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 961 Q.84. Q. 86. 88, Q. 90. (a) hydrogen sulphide gas _(b) carbon dioxide gas () methane gas (@) petrol vapours. Extinguishing of the flame of a miners safety lamp within 5 minutes, when held at the lovel of sewage in a manhole, indicates in the sewer, the presence of : (a) hydrogen sulphide gas (5) carbon dioxide gas () methane gas (d) petrol vapours. . Insertion of safety lamp in the upper portion of a manhole, causing flames, surely indicates in the sewer, the presence of (a) hydrogen sulphide gas _(b) carbon dioxide gas (©) methane gas @ petrol vapours. In a ventilating column, a cow is provided (a) to prevent entry of foul gases 0 prevent entry of objects prevent the exit of heat for none of these. . Ventilation columns, in sewers, are provided to (a) help lp in preventing spread of foul gases Provide support to the sewers (@) none of these. Ventilation columns are placed along a sewer line, at intervals of about : (@) 30—50.m, (6) 725-100 m (¢) 150-300 m (d) 500—750 m. Chapter 6 : Pumps for Lifting Sewage . The pump, which permits the sewage solids to pass out with liquid sewage, without clogging the pump, is a (a) reciprocating pump —_(6) centrifugal pump (©) pneumatic ejector none of these A disintegrating pump, which breaks the sewage solids, while passing sewage through it, is a special type of iprocating pamp none of these.SEWAGE!DISPOSAL AND Allt POLLUTION ENGINEERING 963 962 CHAPTERWISE OB/ECTIVE ICE QUESTIONS Q.91. Pick up the incorrect statement : (a) nitrites! (a) centrifugal pumps are the most widely used type. of pumps for lifting sewage rridised sewage will contain sillphur, largely in the (b) reciprocating pumps have become obsolete these days form of (c) centrifugal pumps are also known as air pressure (@) sulphites (6) sulphates (hydrogen sulphide (qd) all of these, 100. Gases, Which are” generally evolved during’ acrobie decomposition of sewage, are: (a) CO, +NH, + 1,8 (6) CO, +NH, + 1,8 + CH, CO, +NH, +80, CO, + NH, + SO, + CH, Q. 101. Gases, which are generally evolved during anacro-bie decomposition of sewage, are pumps (a) none of them. Q.92." A ylindrical ejector having a height of 2m fills after every 10 minutes with a peak sewage discharge of 0.0146 cumecs ; the diameter of the ejector could be chosen as : (a) 2.5m ()2m 1.5m @ im, 93." A J cusecs pump, for a lift of 10 m (including losses), should have a horse power of about, (a) 1 3 5 @i (a) CO, + NH, + H,8 (00, +NH, + H,S¥eH, (©)CO,+NH,+S0, (a) C0, + NH, + $0, + CH. Q. 102. Temperature Variations affect the (@) biological activity of bacteria in sewage ©) viscosity of sewage Chapter 7: Quality and Characteristics of Sewage Q.94. The appropriate percentage of water in sewage is Q. 108," 1000 Kg’ of sewage is estimated’ t contain, approxi- Gate han: mately, total solids, equal to: (c) 99.9% (d) 99.99% o 4 weg, % 7 aoe (©) 5—10 kg @ 10-201 kg. .95. The specific gravity of sewage ist 104. Imhof cone is used to measure, in Sow (q) zero ightly less than 1 SM aotipal tt Oat CSU ta 1 Coa ao targa site Q.96. Pick up the incorrect statement : ie Ca ea pueenest r e Q.105. The pH of fresh sewage is usually (a) aerobic bacteria flourish in the presence of oxygen (b) anaerobic bacteria flourish in the absence of oxygen ey andar? t 4 ‘more than 7. (©) facultative bacteria flourish in the presence as well as ‘eoibieo tia sa Anadis peaieer oe - 108. Acidicity of sewage is indicated by a pH value of: (@) none of the above. & wisi wa () more than 7 )- 97. Well oxidised sewage will contain nitrogen, largely in the Sere (@) equal to 14, Rae a Sree @- 107.pH = 3, when compared to pH = 5, will be more acidic by (a) nitrites (0) nitrates (@)2 times (b)20 times (c) free ammonia (di) all of these. 00 times (d) none of them. Q.98. Partially oxidised stale sewage will contain nitro-gen when compared to pH = 7, will be more acidic by mainly in the form of (@)3 times (6) 300 times (©) 1000 times (@) none of them.964 (CHAPTERWISE, OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS Q. 109. Chlorine content in ordinary municipal sewage is (a) more than the usual tolerable limit (®) less than the usual tolerable limit. (©) equals the usual tolerable limit (@) very much high, necessitating its compulsory re- moval. Q. 110. Methaemoglobinemia disease is caused in children, by : (a) conversion of nitrites to nitrates (6) conversion of nitrates to nitrites (© reaction between haemoglobin and carbon dioxide solubility in distilled water, is (a) 80% (B) 90% (c) 99% (99.9% Q. 112. Pathogenic bacteria, enter wastewaters, primarily from : dustrial wastes domestic wastes (©) both industrial as well as domestic wastes (@) infiltration in sewers from the surrounding soils. Q. 113. Biodegradable organics enter wastewaters, from (a) industrial wastes (b) domestic wastes (©) both industrial and domestic wastes (q) infiltration from the surrounding soils, Q. 114. Soluble organics in domestic wastewaters, include : (a) carbohydrates (®) proteins lipids of these, Q. 115. Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) of sewage is the : (a) oxygen required to oxidise biologically active organic vatter oxygen Tequired to oxidise biologically inactive or- ganic matter (@) (a) and (6) both (d) none of these, jochemieal Oxygen Demand (BOD) of sewage is the = (a) oxygen required to oxidise biologically active organic matter Qs. SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIK POLLUTION ENGINEERING: 965 Q17. Qs. Q119, Q. 120. Q. 121, Q. 122. Q, 123. Q. 124, (b)oxygen required to oxidise biologically inactive organic matter (©) (@) and (6) both (d) none of these. imum D.O, prescribed for a river stream, to avoid fish BOD, represents 5 days-biochemical oxygen demandat'a temperature of : none of these. ‘Standard 5 day BOD at 20°C, when compared to ultimate BOD, is about : (a) 58% (6) 68% (©) 98% (d) none of these. If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2 mg/l after incubating 3 ml of sewage diluted to 300 ml, at 20°C for 5 days, then the BOD, of the sewage would be : (@) 200 mg (b) 300 mgf (©) 600 mg (d) none of these. While testing for COD of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by K,Cr,0, in the presence of : (@) HCL (b) HO, (HNO, (@) none of these. ‘The microbial utilisation of organics is a: )first order reaction _—_(b) second order reaction (d) none of these. jetween BOD and COD, the greater of the two, is, ) depends on sewage characteristics, ‘The average BOD, of domestic sewage is: (a) 80 kg/day/person (6) 8 kg/day/person (©) 0.8 kg/day/person (d) 0.08 kg/day/ person.966 (HAPTERWISE, OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS, Q, 125,, The graphical representation of BOD (¥) exerted against time in days (¢) is given by : Q. 126. ‘The graph between the amount of organic matter left in sewage, and time elapsed in days, is : (b) parallel to time axis (d) none of these. @. 127, Ifa 2% solution of sewaize sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C, and the dissolved oxygen depletion is 10 mg/l, then the BOD of'the sewage would be : 50-mg/t 100 me. (©) 500 mel (a) 5000 me. Q. 128. The rélative stability of a sewage sample, Whose D.O. uals the total oxygen required to satisfy its BOD, is : zero 1% (©) 100% (a) infinity. Chapter 8 : Disposing off the Sewage Effluents Q. 129. Not withstanding any legal by laws, the sewage can generally be disposed of without any specific treatment, in a water body, ifthe dilution factor available, is : (a) more than'100 (&) more than 300 (©) more than 500, (d) none of these. Q. 130. Complete thorough treatment should generally be given to sewage, before its disposal in a stream, if the dilution factor available is : ss than’ 250 }) none of these. Q. 131.* Dissolved exygen in streams is ! (a) max. at noon, (By min. at noon ‘max, at midnight (@) same throughout the day. SEWAGE Q. 132. Q. 133, Q. 134. Q. 135, Q. 136. Q. 137, Q. 138. Q. 139. Q.140, DISPOSAL, AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 967 Algae dies out, though fish life may survive, in a river zone, known as : (a) zone of degradation, zone of active decomposition zone of recovery none of these, .0, concentration may fall to zero, causing anaero-bie conditions in a river reach, called : (a) zone of degradation (b) zone of active decomposition (c) zone of recovery (d) none of these. Ifa sewer drain carrying a discharge of 2 cumecs, outfalls into a river carrying a discharge of 10 cumecs, ing ‘DO equal to 8.4 mg/i, the resultant DO of the mix. will be equal to : (a) men () 7 mgh (©) 10.5 mg (d) none of these. As compared to fresh river water, sea water contains (a) 10% more oxygen (b) 20% more oxygen 10% less oxygen (d) 20% Mss oxygen, Disposal of sewage causes formation of sludge banks in : (a) river waters (6) sea waters fe) lake waters (a) none of these. ‘The most common method of wastewater disposal is : ‘evaporation ilution in surface water (c) rapid infiltration, (@) application in irrigation, The phenomenon by virtue of which a soil is clogged with sewage matter, is called sewage farming (0) sewage sickness (c) sewage bulking (d) none of these, Most of the bacteria in sewage are z (a) anaerobic ()parasitic (c) saprophytie (@) pathogenic, Disposal. of sewage for sewage farming will be most favourable, where : (a) rivers run with very low flows during summer (©) climate is wet and rate of evaporation is lowRWISE OWJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS Q. 141. Sewage disposal by dilution is most preferred, where (a) the sewage arriving at outfall point is fresh and nonseptic (b) there are strong forward currents scharge in water body is not low of these, The natural process, under which the flowing river water Jeaned, is known as oxidation (0) self-purification photosynthesis none of these. @.149., When the sewage is distributed over a level area surrounded by dikes, for sewage farming, the method is Q.142, known as: (a) surface irrigation (8) free flooding (©) furrow irrigation (@) none of these. Chapter 9: Treatment of Sewage Chapter 10 : Process Design of a Complete ‘Treatment Plant + Chapter 11 : Treatment of Industrial Waste Waters Q.144. During preliminary treatment of sewage (a) oils and greases are removed by skimming tanks (6) floating materials are removed by screening (c) grit and sand are removed by grit chambers @)all of the above are correct. age treatment units are generally designed for maximum flow only minimum flow only Q. 145. Q. 146. If the sewage contains greases and fatty oils, they dre removed in. (a) grit chambers (6) detritus tanks (©)sedimentation tanks (d) skimming tanks (@) aeration tanks (A) none of thse SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 968 Q.147. Q.148, Q. 149. Q.150. Q.151. Q. 152. Q. 153, Q 154. Q. 155. ‘The detention period adopted for grit chambers is of the order of : (a) 1 minute (b) 5 minutes (24 hours (@ 12 hours. The detention period adopted for sewage sedimentation tanks is of the order of : (a) 1-2 hours (©) 4—8 hours (8-16 hours (d) 24—36 hours. ‘The detention period adopted for oxidation ponds is of the order of : ()2—4 days (@) 2-6 weeks. ‘The detention period in a septic tank is of the order of : (a) 2—6 hours ()4—8 hours (c) 12-86 hours (@)2—4 days. Primary treatment of sewage is meant for : (a) removal of larger suspended matter () removal of fine suspended organic matter (©) removal of dissolved organic matter (@) removal of pathogenic bacteria, ‘The spacing of bars in coarse screens is generally more than: (a) 6 mm or 80 (b) 10 mm or 80 {c) 25 mm or 80 (d) 50 mm or so. ‘The settling velocity of a spherical body in still water is given by : (a) Lacey’s formula (c) Darcy's law (c) Hazen William's formula (d) Stoke’s law. ‘The ratio of flowing through period’ to ‘detention period” sedimentation tank, is called surface loading - (®) displacement efficiency (©) theoretical efficiency settling velocity. ‘The BOD, of the effluents obtained from septic tanks, is of the order of : (a) zero—6 mg (6) 10-20 mgf. (c) 100200 mg (qd) 500—2000 mg/l.970 Q. 156. Q. 157. Q. 158. Q. 159. @. 160. Q. 161. Q. 162. Q. 163. Q. 164. ‘CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS ‘The detention period in Imhoff tanks is of the order of 5 (@) 30 min—1 hour (&)1—2 hours (©) 2—4hours @ 6—12 hours. The short-circuiting occuring in a sedimentation tank is represented by : (a) surface loading (6) displacement efficiency (©) recirculation ratio detention time, Surface loading for a rectangular sedimentation tank of length L, width B, and height H, is given by : @ @ armas Omer BLH fe) @ (d) none of them. (where Q is the design discharge through the tank) The ratio of the design discharge to the surface area of a sedimentation tank is known as its : (a) surface loading (6) overflow velocity (©) overflow rate (d) all of these Normal values of surface loading for primary sewage sedimentation tanks, ranges between : (a) 10—15 cum/m*/day (6) 25—30 cum/m7/day (c) 40—50 cum/m*/day (d@) none the these. Normal values of surface loading for secondary sewage sedimentation tanks, ranges between ; (a) 10—15 cum/m"/day (b) 25—30 apes () 40—50 cum/m*/day (d) none the ie. A grit chamber, having higher detention period (about 34 times), is called a: (@) grit basin tritus tank (©) vacuator it channel. ‘The sewagé treatment units, which work on anaero- bie decomposition of organic matter, are: (a) oxidation ponds (b) septic tanks (©) activated sludge plants (d) (6) and (c) both. ‘The sewage treatment units, which work on aerobic decomposition of organic matter, are: (q) trickling filters (0) imhoff tanks (@\sludge digestion tanks (a) none of these. 7 SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 7 @- 165. Activated “sludge treatment plants are normally preferred for! (a) towns and sinaller cities (6) medium sized cities (©) large sized cities Q, 166. Trickling filter plants are pretérred for sewage treatment for: : towns ‘and smaller cities (6) medium sized cities (c) large sized cities id (b) both. . 167. To exclude the floating debris from sewage, screens are used and fixed : : (@) parallel to the direction of flow. perpendicular to the direction of flow at an angle 30°—60° to the direction of flow orientation is immaterial. : grit chambers of a sewage treatment plant, normally need cleaning : (a) every hour (b) every day. (c) every fortnight (d) every year. Q. 169. For a grit channel, if the recommended flow. velocity is 0.25 m/sec, and the detention period is 1 minufe, then the length of the tank is (@)15m (6) 25 m (240m (d) none of these: Q.170. In the design of grit chambers in sewage treatient (a) baffles are'essential (©) the maximum flow v 0.3 m/sec (d) the detention period should ‘at least'be'10 minutes, Qi, (c) aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment @ anaerobic in lower compartinént aid 4erobie in upper compartment.© 9 aie a on CCHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS ‘SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AI POLLUTION ENGINEERING 73 Q. 181. A reactor, in which the randomly packed solid medium provides the surface area for biofilm growth, is : (a) an oxidation pond ease biological activity of bacteria avoid bulking of activated sludge 174, srobie secondary treatment of sewage is : foul, containing large amount of suspended » needing sedimentation (6) reduction. (d) none of these. Q. 175. The gas, which is evolved in a sludge digestion tank, is mainly composed of : a shallow waste stabilisation pond, the sewage is (a) nitrogen. (5) ammonia ad by a (©) hydrogen sulphide (@) methane. srobie bacteria only Q.176. The rate of sludge accumulation in a septic tank is Igae only. generally of the order of : (c) dual action of aérobic bacteria and algae (a) 10 litres/person/yr tres/person/day (@) sedimentation, (©) 30 litres/person/day litres/person/day. @, 184. Which of the following units work on the principle or anaerobic decomposition : (a) sedimentation tanks (6) trickling filters (©) sludge digestion tanks (d) activated sludge plant. 1 m/min. (0) 0.3 m/min Q. 185. The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in : Tmimnin @1.0 m/min. tity of solids removed by screening depends on the : (®) oxidation pond length of vertical bars (b) thickness of vertical bars (@) trickling filter. ereen opening size _(d) none of these. Q.179. Oxygen-utilisation rate in biological reactors is a function (@) a settling tank (0) a digestion tank of: (©) both (a) and (6) (d) none of these. (a) wastewater characteristics only sting and lagooning are the methods of (0) reactor characteristics only (a) filtration (b) sedimentation | (©) both (a) and (b) (©) sludge digestion (d) sewage disposal. (@) atmospheric characteristics. Q.188. For tory working of a sludge digestion unit, the . 180. Dissolved organie solids in wastewater treatment may be pH f digested sludge should be maintained in the removed by : rans (a) coagulation (b) hypochlorination (a) (6)6.5t08 (e)reverse osmosis (d) none of them. (8.5 to10 (@) any of these, @.189. The gas coming out from a sludge digestion tank is (@) methane only4 CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS eu() carbon dioxide only ‘Of methane and 30% carbon dioxide 30% methane and 70% carbon dioxide. Q. 190. For the same solids content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 97% is x litres, then the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 94% will be : £ x @) § litres (6) F hitwes (©) 2rlitres (d) 3x litres. Q. 191. A given sludge with 98% moisture is x times more bulky than with 95% moisture, where x is : @6 2.5, 3 (d) none of these. Q. 192. When there is no recirculation of treated sewage in high tion of sewage, then the (0) (d)none of the above. When the recirculation ratioin a high rate trickling filter is unity, then the recirculation factor is : @a (6) more than 1 (c) less than 1 (@) zero, Q. 194.* Activated sludge isthe : (@)aerated sludge in the aeration unit (6) sludge settled in the humus tank. (c) sludge in the secondary tank after aeration and rich in microbial mass (d) sludge in the secondary tank after aeration and rich in nutrients, (GATE, 1993), Q. 195. In a conventional activated sludge plant, the oxygen demand is highest near the : (c) inlet end of the clarifier @ outlet end of the clarifier. Q. 196. A conventional activated sludge*plant involves a mixing regime, which is essentially of : G@) plug flow type (6) completely mixed type (©) both (a) and (6) (d) none of the above. (CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS 975 Q. 197. Lower F/M value in a conventional activated treatment plant will mean : (@) lower BOD removal _(6) higher BOD removal (©) no effect on BOD removal. Q. 198. The aeration process adopted. in an activated sludge plant, which ensures optimal utilisation of air, is known as: (@) conventional process step aeration (©) activated aeration ) tapered aeration. Q. 199. The torm sludge age is associated with : (@) sedmentation eration. (© sludge drying none of these, Q.200. High COD, to BOD. ratio of an. organic pollutant represents : (a) high biodegradability of the pollutant, (6) low biodegradability of the pollutant presence of free oxygen for aerobic decomposition (d) presence of toxic material in the pollutant. (GATE, 1993) Chapter 12 : Exereta Disposal in Unsewered and Rural Areas Q. 201. The minimum horizontal distance for locating a privy pit, from a well or a hand pump, ) 500m. @. 202. The minimum vertical distance between the bottom of the privy pit and the ground watertable is : Chapter 1 : Sewage Collection from Houses and Buildings @. 204. An intefeepting trap is provided at the junction of : (a) house sewer and a municipal sewer9716 SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING! (6) an unfoul house drain and a foul house drain (©) any two house drains (@)none of these. Q. 205. A gully trap is provided at the junction of : (a) ahouse sewer and a municipal sewer (®) an unfoul roof or room drain and a foul bath or a kitchen drain (©) any two house drains (@) none of these, Q. 206. A nahni trap is provided : (a) at the head of each house drain (6) at the outfall end of each house drain (©) at the junction of two house drains (d) none of these. Q. 207. The waste pipe in house plumbing, which carries the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, ete. ; is (®) soil pipe (©) anti-siphonage pipe _(d) vent pipe. Q. 208. A pipe which is installed in house drainage, to preserve the water seal of traps, is called : . Two pipe system of providing building drainage consists of: (a) one soil pipe + one wastepipe + one vent pipe + one sullage pipe Q.210. A pipe installed in house drainage for ventilation purposes is called a : (@) soil pipe (b) antisiphonage pipe (©) vent pipe (d) none of these. Q.211. The pipe in buildings, through which human excreta flows, is called (a) soil pipe (®) waste pipe (©) vent pipe (d) none of these. ‘CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS on” Q. 212, Ventilation of house drainage is required to : (a) dilute the foul air in the drain (®) reduce the obnoxious effects of foul air (o) relieve the pressure of foul gases (d) all of the above, Q. 213. In one pipe system of plumbing, wastewater is carried down in soil pipe from (a) water-closets: (6) kitchens and bath rooms () wash basins and sinks (d) all of the above. é=4) one pipe system of building drainage, we provide : one soil pipe one waste pipe (©) one soil pipe and one vent pipe (d) one waste pipe and one vent pipe. . Q. 215. In single stack drainage system in houses, we provide : (a) one soil pipe only ipe and one vent pipe lage pipe only ipe and one sullage pipe. Q. 216. In house plumbing system, the leakage of different pipes is tested by : (a) smoke test (c) water test Q. 217. Point out the incorrect stat building drainage (a) a.floor trap prevents the evolution of foul gases (6) an antisiphonage pipe provides the basic water seal of W.C.’s and bath rooms, (c) a vent pipe removes foul gases into the atmosphere above the roof level (d) soil and waste pipes carry down the sewage, produced in the house fixtures. jent, in connection with Chapter 14: Disposal of Municipal and Industrial Solid Wastes @-218, The anaerobic method of mechanical composting, as practised in India, is called the (a) Indore method (®) Mangalore method (c) Bangalore method (d) none of these,978 SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING Q.219, The method of refuse disposal, involving burial in trenches, is called (b) pulverisation, (@) none of these. ‘The aerobic method of mechanical composting, as practised in India, is called the (a) Bangalore method _. (6) Nagpur method Q, 220. (© Bhopal method (@) Indore method. Q-221. Sanitary landails may eause troubles during (q) peak summers @) peak winters (©) peak monsoons (d) none of these. Q.222. coloured liquid, that comes out of sanitary landfills ts (d) aerated lagoons. €=)E ‘quantity of refuse produced in an average Indian city town is of the order of (a) }-} veday 2-5tieday (ce) 4~5 te day none of these. Chapter 15: Disposal of Environmentally Hazardous Biomedical and Radioactive Wastes Q. 224. Biomedical wastes consist of id wastes @) liquid wastes (@ and (b) @ none of these. approximate quantity of biomedical waste generated in Indian hospitals per patient per day approximates to (a) 05kg (8) 0.75 (c) 1.45 kg d) 4.0 kg. Q. 226. Biomedical waste (Management and Handling Rules) ‘were enacted in India under Environment Protection Act, Q. 225. ) 1989) (a) 2000. /. Which of the fallowing'is nota provision of the Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling Rules) (@)all the health care institutes are reqd. to make arrangements to ensure that their produced wastes (CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS. 979 are handled and. managed without, causing any adverse health effects (b)it is necessary to segregate the various types of bio- medical wastes by collecting the wastes into yellow, red, and black coloured containers, (c) sharp wastes should be handled with extra-ordinary care and placed in puncture-resistance containers or should he mutilated at the point of generation by some needlo destroyer. (d) The offenders cannot be punished. Q. 228. For proper disposal of biomedieal wastes, all infected, soiled, pathological, human and sharp wastes should be marked as cytotoxic wastes, by using the symbol a) AX [ec @ fey (d) none of them. Q. 229, Which of the following methods is generally not adopted safe disposal of biomedical wastes ? shredding after disinfection incineration can be adopted for disposal of biomedical wastes of the type Q. 231. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to autoclaving for disposal of biomedical wastes ? ‘meant for disposal of solid wastes only the wastes are shredded and dis- both (a) and (5) none of the above.980 ‘SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING Q. 283, Throughout the world, rotary kiln incinerators are being widely used for burning and disposing off biomedical (@) none of the above. (@.234. A conventional rotary kiln incinerator is provided with an duced draft fan to \aintain a negative pressure in the entire system ) ensure that all leakages from the kiln occur into the system rather than out of it Q.235. Which of the following statements in relation to a conventional rotary kiln incinerator is incorrect ? (a) An induced draft fan is provided into the system, and ‘sized to maintain a negative pressure in the entire system (0) The horizontal kiln is mounted on a slight incline of 2 to 4% slope, with higher end at the feed end of the kiln, (©) The kiln designed for incinerating liquid wastes may not have any longitudinal slope or may have a nega- tive slope (d) None of the above, Q. 286. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (a) The call damaging capacity of different types of radio- active radiations is compared by relative biological ef- fectiveness (RBE). (0) The RBE for alpha particles is 20, while electrons have RBE of 1 (©) (6) above means that the dense track of ions formed by alpha particles causes about 20 times as much dam- ‘age to a biological body as is caused by a thin ion trail generated by electrons. (d) None of the above. @. 287. The commonly used unit of absorbed radiation is defined as that dose of ionizing radiation that imparts 1 Joule of energy to 1 kg of absorbing material. This unit is known (a) rad (6) gray (Gr) @ient @) silvert. (CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS 981 288, The biological damage produced in a human body by Q. 239, different types of radiations is obtained by multiplyin; the radiation dose in rad with RBE of the radiation type, ‘This damage is then measured in units of (@)rem (6) silvert (©) gray (@) none of them. ‘The relation between the old and new units of absorbed radiation is 1 (@) 1rad = 33 gray (®) 1 rad = 100 gray @) none of them, The relation between the old and new units of biological demage produced in a human body by radiations is given as: (©) 1rad=1 gray (0) 1 rem = 100 silvert (©) Lrem = 1 silvert (d) none of these, 241. Radiation sickness may be produced by radiation dose cf about (@) 100 rem (c) 20 rem . Q. 242, ‘Thorelation between rem and rad is given as (@) rem = rad x =a mrad xRBE (6) rem = 70d RBE © rem = BE (@ none of the above, Q6S. An ondinary chest Xray subjects human body to radia a of 5 rad, and if RBE of X-rays is 1, then the biological damage in radiation terms of rem will be equal @5 (©) 1og 05 Tog, 2. |. Exposure of human body toradiation of: rems may cause severe changes in blood cells and haemorrhage, where x may be about — (a) 50 ©) 100 (©)300 (@) 1000.982 Q. 245, 246. Q.247, Q.248. Q. 249. Q. 250, Q. 251. Q. 252. SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND Alle POLLUTION ENGINEERING ‘Tho ino, of roms of radiation exposure of a hn which may cause hair loss and loss of body’ fight infections, usually resulting in death, is (a) 50 rem (6) 100 rem (©) 300 rem (d) 600 rem, ‘The aquatic animals which are most badly affected by radioactive radiations are ) fish, (6) mollusks lgae (q)none of them. ‘The most common impacts of radioactive radiations, which appear late in life are (a) shortened life span and increased ‘probability of devel- oping cancers and cataracts (®) damage to genes, causing dangerous mutagenic ef- fects leading to birth of abnormal offsprings (©) both (@) and (6) (d) none of them, Which .of the following radio. isotope is capable to contaminate the milk of cows and other animals, due to their exposure to the radiation caused by that isotope ? (a) Strontium-90 ) Cesium-137 (©) Todine-131 (d) none of them. Radioactive radiations may cause mutagenic effects in (a) humans ©) animals (©) both (a) and (b) (d) none of them. "Trees are very badly affected by longer exposure to (a) ocrays: (6) Brrays (©) prays (d) none of them. Which of the following is a natural souree of radioactivity in the environment ? (a) cosmic rays (®) radioactive rocks and minerals Radiation sickness may be caused by as low a radiation dose as about (@) 25 rem (©) 100 rem (®) 50 rem @) none of them: CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS 983 Q. 253. Q. 254. Q.255. Q, 256. Q. 257, Q. 258. Q. 259. Which among the following is'not a mantmade source of radioactivity in the environment? (a) nuclear power plants. |.(6) nuclear explosions (©) cosmic rays (@) none of the above. igh lovel radioactive wastes are those which have radio- activities measured in terms of, (a) curies per litre (b) millicuries per litre (c)miero-curies pe (@) none of the above. Low level radioactive wastes are those which have radio: activities measured in terms of (a) euries per litre (6) millicuries per litre (©) micro-curies per litre _(d) none of the above, High. level radioactive wastes generated’ in a nuclear power plant in the form of spent fuel remain a great hazard for several thousands of years, because it contains Plutonium-239 which has a very long half life of about : (@) 5,000 years (b) 10,000 years, (©) 14,000 years (d) 24,000 years. ‘Which of the following is not a stage in disposal of High Level liquid wastes ? (a) Storage for about 5 years in leak proof under-ground depositories. (®) Solidification by using advanced. technological methods, (©) burial of solidified wastes into permanent deep dis- posal sites, (@ynone of the above, ‘The quantum ofhigh level wastes, annually generated by the world’s 442 nuclear power plants and reactors, is about (@) 4000¢ (&) 8000 (©) 12000 (a) 20000 ‘The country which is not having any permanent site for disposal of high level wastes is (a) USA (6) Russia (©) India Gd) none of them,984 SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING Chapter 16 : Ventilation of Buildings for Controlling Indoor Air Pollution Q. 260. Air changes for ventilation of occupied rooms and halls in yuilding is mainly required to : ‘keep carbon dioxide content under control dissipate body heat Q.261. Fresh air is required to be supplied to an occupied hall at the rate of : (6)15—80 cum/e/hr (d)none of these. Q, 262. Number of air changes required per hour to ensure good ventilation of kitchens, is of the order of : 10—40 (6)6—10 (2-5 (3. Q. 263. Number of air changes required per hour to ensure sufficient ventilation of offices and libraries, is of the order of : (6)6—10 (a3. . changes required per hour to ensure sufficient ventilation of cinema halls, is of the order of : (a) 10—40 (o)6—10 2-5 @3. @. 265. The ventilation of kitchens by exhaust fans, as adopted in ventilation, called.» Q. 266. ion of public halls, by means of air-coolers: (a) the plenum system (6) the vacuum system (©) the A.C. system, (d) none of these. Q. 267. The most wholesome ventilation of buildings is provided plenum system of ventilation CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS 985, (AC. system of ventilation (@) vacuum system of ventilation. Q. 268. A cooling room-air-conditionor, modifies the moisture content of the air, before letting it out, by : (a) reducing humidity \ereasing humidity optimally reducing as well as increasing humidity (@none of these, as it does not modify humidity. recirculation of room air takes place in a summer A.C. a3 well as in a winter A.C. @) all the above are correct. Chapter 17: The Environment, Its Pollution, and Present Status Q. 270. The zone on Harth, where new species are born due to disturbances in the eco- carnivorous animals are non-veg animals, like lions CO, gas produces heating effects on earth, (d) Bangalore is the most polluted Indian city, as far as air pollution is concerned. Q.272, ‘The polluting gas, which is primarily responsible for causing the green house effect and global warming, is (a) sulphur dioxide (b) hydrogen s (©) carbon dioxide (d) none of the Q.273. According to the WHO's reports of 1992, the most996 (CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS Chapter 18 : Engineering of Air Pollution, Its Control and Monitoring Q.274, The average consumption of air by an adult human being is of the order of () 12 kg. (d) none of them. 275. Air pollution causes harmful effects on : (a) biotic world (b) abiotic world (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these: . 276. Air pollution may be caused by : amen acti (b) natural disastrous events th (a) and (b) (@)none of them. Q.277. of the following is not an anthropogenic cause of air pollution f (a) burning of fossil fuels _ (b) burning of firewood ) agricultural activities : ining of forests due to lightening. eS) yndon smog’ was primarily caused by (a) burning of coal (b) burning of oil (c) eruption of voleano —_(d) none of the above. Q.279. A major disaster, known as ‘London smog’, occurred in the British city of London in the year (@) 1942 (6) 1952 (e) 1962 (a) 1972. |. 280. Which of the following statements is incorrect - @) air pollution causes local, regional, as well as global adverse impacts on the environment (®) air pollution has been in existence at some places even in the ancient times 4 (c) air pollution does not cause adoptations and environ- ‘mental imbalances in biological species (d) none of the above. @. 281. The factor which is primarily responsible for causing air pollution in modern days is (c) industries & automobiles (6) dust storms (©) forest fires (d) none of them. SEWAGE DISPOSAL: AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 987 Q, 282. About 90% of world’s air pollution is caused by (a) primary air pollutants (6) secondary air pollutants (©) volcanism (@) none of them. Q. 283. Tho primary air pollutant which is formed due to incomplete combustion of organic matter is (a) methane (©) sulphur dioxide (©) ozone (d) carbon monoxide. Q, 284. Among the following, the only secondary pollutant is (a) sulphur-dioxide (b) hydrocarbons, (©) ozone (@) sulphur tetracxide. Q. 285, ich among the following is not a secondary” air pollutant ? () sulphuric acid (8) formaldehyde Peroxyacyl nitrate. (d) none of the above. Which among the following is not aprimary air pollutant? (a) oxides of nitrogen (®) volatile organic compounds like hydrocarbons (c) suspended particulate matter (@) PAN. @, 287. Which among the following statements is incorrect? (@) Secondary sir pollutants are formed from a simple chemical reaction between two primary pollutants (6) The sun light plays an importantrole in the formation of secondary pollutants (©) The photochemical reaction is responsible for the formation of secondary pollutants (@)No secondary pollutant was involved in ‘London 1952 killing more than 4000 Q. 288. In 1929, several deaths occurred in a fite in a dlinic in Cleviand (USA) due to burning of X-ray films, due to evolution of (b) sulphur trioxide it (d) PAN. Q. 289. More than 4000 people died in December 1952 in ‘London smog’, which was caused by ‘olution of smoke containing sulphur dioxide in the city988 (CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS (e) arrival of antieyclone in the city of the above. : ; Q.290. Hairs of human nose can remove all particles of size ter (6) 1 micron (d) 100 micron. Q.291. The chemical compounds which are responsible for production of photochemical smog are causing the 292. ‘The. poisonous gas’ responsible for ing - catastrophic Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984 in India was (a) sulphur dioxide (0) methyl isocynante -arbon monoxide and methane both wughing gas. “ i @.293. Which of the following is not a major constituent of a photochemical smog ? (a) PAN ®)CO (HC (2) 05. Q. 294, ‘The major photochemical oxidant is (a) hydrogen peroxide (b) ozone (c) nitrogen oxides. ste (PAN). @. 295. ‘The secondary pollutant among the following is, (@) sulphur dioxides (b) methane (c) earbon dioxide (@) peroxyl acetyl nitrate. (@. 296. ‘The particles in cigarette smoke are usually smaller than (a) Lmieron (@) 10 micron (©) 25 micron @) 100 micron. @.297. The most hazardous gaseous air pollutant for human health is: (a) carbon dioxide (b)oxygen (© nitrogen, (d) sulphur dioxide. @.298. The maximum permissible average annual. specified standard of SO, for residential areas in India is (2) 30 wef? (©) 60 g/m’ Foe pin sl OEE SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 989 @.299. During temperature inversion. in atmosphere, air pollutants tend to : (a) accumulate above inversion layer (d) disperse vertically. (GATE, 1993) Q. 300. The primary air pollutant; which is formed due to incomplete combustion of organic matter, is : (a) methane (0) sulphur dioxide (c) ozone (d) carbon monoxide. Qi) Sakerccicscsaes (a) sulphur dioxide (b) particulate matter (©) both @) and (6) (d) none of them. Q. 302, Among the following, the only secondary pollutant, is : (a) sulphur dioxide (by ozone (©) hydrocarbons (d) sulphur tetroxide. Q. 303. The percentage of particles eminating from cigarette smoking, which get deposited in lungs, is about (a) 10% (25% (0) 65% (a) 100%. Q. 804. The Respiratory Suspended Partictilate Matter (RSPM) concentration includes all particles in an sir mass of size upto (a) 10 ©) 25 (©) 50 (@)none of them. Q. 305. The RSPM is also designated as (@) PM2.5 (6) PMe10 (©) PM 25 (d) none of them. Q. 306. The monitoring of the particles of size lesser than 10 micron (PM 10) or even lesser than 2.5 micron (PM 2.5) is a better indicator of air pollution, because (a) such smaller particles’ tend to be deposited in nasopharyngeal region, causing serious health prob- tems (®) such smaller particles are mostly deposited in tracheo bronchial and pulmonary region causing bronchitis and other lung diseases (©) both (a) and (6) (@)none of them. nl990 (CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS @. 307, The air pollutant which causes sever damage to plants, even at much lower cor tions than what may be harmful to human health, (@) fluorine ) ozone (©) PAN (d)none of them. 308, The air pollutant which does not cause any major adverse impacts on the cattle is (a) fluorine (b) arsenic (lead (d) none of them. Q. 309. ‘The max. permissible average annual standard for NO, for residential area in India is (a) 30 jefe? (6) 60 pe/m? RS (©) 90 pgm’ (a) 120 pghm’. Q. 310., Sulphur dioxide exposures to quantities higher than the permissible in ambient air may cause breathing and respiratory illnesses typhoid (d) malaria. |. High lead exposures in humans through inhalations or food may cause disorder of central nervous system. igh blood pressure all of the above. Q.312. Higher exposures of humans to nitrogen oxides may cause (a) bronchitis (©) pneumonia allergies and viral attacks (d) all of the above. Q. 813. Carbon monoxide is hazardous to health, because -auses loss of sense of smell it may cause conjunctivitis. Q.314. Longer exposure to NO, even in small concentrations may cause disease pertaining to (@) lever lung () kidneys (a) heart SEWAGE DISPOSAL. AND'AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 991 Q. 315. Heavy loading of pollen grains in air'may eause G@) anaemia (c) hayfever Q. 816. The permissible TSPM (annual average) standard in residential areas in India is (2) 60 gin? (8) 140 g/m? (©) 200 jig/m3 (a) 360 g/m, Q. 317. The permissible TSPM (annual average) ambient air ality standard for indus 200 g/m’ (@) 360 g/m’, permissible RSPM (annual. aver quality standard for residential areas i (@) 60 g/m? (@) 140 jig/m® (©) 200 igi? (2) 360 ugh’. @-819. The permissible RSPM (annual average) ambient air quality standard for industrial areas in India is, (a) 60 gi? (©) 140 g/m? (4) 360 we/m’, Q, 320. The permissible SO, (annual average) ambient. air quality standard for residential areas in India is (@) 15 pg/m?* (0) 60 g/m? (©) 80 g/m’ @) 120 pghn’. Q, 821, The permissible NO, (annual average) ambient. air quality standard for residental areas in India is (a) 15 ug’ (6) 60 g/m (©) 80 g/m? (2) 120 g/m, Q. 822, ‘The most significant primary gaseous pollutant, found in vehicular emissions, is : (@) co (8) CO, 80, (2)0,. Q. 829. ‘The device, which can be used to control gaseous as well as particulate pollutants in the industrial emissions, is known as : (a) cyclone (©) dynamic precipitator (®) spray tower992 CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS aeeaee Chapter 19 : Global Environmental Issues @. 824, The region most affected by acid rains, is = (q) India and China Burope and North east America (©) Africa (@) South Ameria @. 825. The acid rains are more prominent in : (@) temperate regions (6) tropical regions (©) arid regions (@) equally prominent in all regions. @. 326. A rainfall is generally classified as acidic, if its pITis less ‘than equal to: @56 7 5. @. 827. ‘An ordinary rain, will generally be : slightly acidic ightly alkaline neither acidie nor alkaline. @. 328. ‘The important geous pollutants, contributing to acid (®)CO, and HS (d) none of these. Q. 329. int environmental issue, threatening (®) acid rain (d) none of these. jan-matle emission of chiro fluorocarbons (CFCs), is ely to deplete the ozone layer in the troposphere, (©) ozone hole Q. 330. (heat (d) ultra violet radiations Q. 831. ‘Two third of acid rains are caused by sulphur dioxide gas (SO, 1) which is chiefly produced by the burning of (a) coals (6) oils (c) both (a) and (6) (d) none of the above. = ‘SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION. ENGINEERING 993 sil fuels responsible for causing acid rains are (©) automobiles (d) all of the above. Q. 833. One third of acid rains are caused by nitrogen oxides (NO,) which are chiefly produced by wuto and industrial emission nitrogenous fertilizers and grasslands on fire 1e above, Q, 884, How many times more acidie a rain having pH = 5.6 will be in comparison to a neutral rain having pH = 7? 7 1 (@) 5g 7125 () Sen = 156 3%, = 20 (2) none of them. tc) Tone = none Le Q..335. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? (a) To neutralise the acidic nature of lake waters, lime is sprayed on lake waters, sed to trees by acidic rains is coun- the damaged trees with calcium, jum, ete. 8 are installed in thermal power plants to check emission of SO, and NO, gases, to reduce acid rains. (d) None of the above. @. 336. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to checking and controlling acid rains ? (a) Expensive scrubbers are installed in industries and ‘thermal power stations. (b) Catalytic convertors are installed in cars. (c) Use of petrol cars is promoted by discouraging the use of diesel ears. (d) None of the above. Q.337. The ozone depletion in the stratosphere (outer atmosphere) is chiefly caused by the release ofM Q. 338. Q.339, Q.340. Q.841. CCHAPTERWISE OB/ECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS (a) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) (&) carbon dioxide (CO,) (c) methane (CH,) (d) none of them. ‘The chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are released into the environment by humans, as they are largely used (a)in refrigeration and air-conditioning (0) as cleaning solvents in factories in aerosol sprays (@)as blowing agents to create certain kinds of plastic foams (call of the above. Depletion of ozone layer in the outer atmosphere is likely ‘to increase the ce of (a) skin cancer bronchitis llution by depletion of ozone layer in stratosphere, threatening the environment, is caused due to reaction of ozone with (a) carbon monoxide () chlorine (c) sulphur dioxide @) nitrous oxide. ‘The most. significant environmental issue, causing serious diseases in humans, is () tung cancer @) none of them. (a) acid rain (6) ozone hole (c) global warming (d) none of these. ‘The chances of development of an ozone hole are more at (e) arctic and antarctic regions (6) equatorial regions (c) regions of mid latitudes (d) none of the above. |. ‘The ozone hole appears in antarctica during (a) early winter (® peak summer () late winter (©) autum. Which of the following is crucial for the formation of anthropogenic (man-made) ozone hole ? chlorides and bromides in the stratosphere radiation and thin ice erystals in the stratosphere ‘and (6) both (@) none of the above SEWAGE Q. 345. Q. 346. Q.s47, Q. 348. Q.s49. Q. 350. Q. 351. Q. 352. a | DISPOSAL AND AIR POLLUTION ENGINEERING 995 ‘Harmful UV. radiations eminating from the sun are prevented from reaching the Earth by the presence of ozone in the (a) thermosphere ©) mesosphere (c) stratosphere (@) troposphere. ‘The ozone layer thickness is measured in (a) Decibels (db) () Dobson Units (DU) (c) Beequerel (1 (d) None of them. ‘One Doboson Unit (DU) is equal to (@)1mm @) 0.1mm (c)0.01mm (d) 0.001 mm. The normal average thickness of stratospheric ozone across the globe is (a) 150 DU (6) 350 DU (c) 500 DU (d) none of them. ‘Tha possible substitutes of CFCs are (a) HCFs (6) ODSs (© Halons @all of the above, ‘The thickness of stratospheric ozone, particularly above the polar regions, have been noticed to have fallen to as low a value as (a) 250 DU. (©) 100 DU, (®) 150 DU (@) none of them. ‘The depletion of stratospheric ozone thicknéss to as low a value as about 150 DU (1.5 mm) as against the usual value of 350 DU (3.5 mm) to 250 DU (2.5:mm), creates, ozone hole, the area of which in the southern hemisphere has been observed to be maximum in Sept. 2000 and Sept. 2006, equalling about, (6) 19 million sq.km In order to control depletion of ozone in the stratosphere, itis necessary to reduce CFC’s and other such substances, which release chlorine atoms, which, inturn, react with ozone to convert it into ClO and O,, thereby reducing ‘ozone (Q,). To achieve this objective, an international treaty was signed in 1987, imposing bans on the use of substances which release CC's. This treaty is known as996 CHAPTERWISE OBJECTIVE MULTICHOICE QUESTIONS (@) Geneva Convention London Amendment (o) Kyota Protocol ) Montreal Protocol Q. 353. The ozone strongly absorbs ultraviolet light in the region having wave length in the range of (a) 360-460 nm (6) 220-880nm (©) 135-200.nm. (d) none of the above, Q. 354, High altitude aircrafts lead to (a) destruction of oxygen _(b) destruction of ozone (©) formation of ozone Q. 355, The world ozone day is celel (a) 16 September (c) 14% January Q.356. The major green house gas which is responsible for causing about 60% of the green house effect on Earth, among the following, is (a) carbon monoxide (b) methane (NO, (d) carbon dioxide, Q. 357, Increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the Earth's atmosphere (a) leads to cooling on Barth, leads to warming on Earth does not cause any change in Barth’s temperature (@) may sometimes cause cooling and sometimes warm- ing, depending upon the climatic conditions. @. 358, The green house effect causes (a) cooling of the Earth (6) warming of the Earth ‘both (a) and (6) depending upon the season none of the above. Q. 359. Had there been no or little earbon dioxide in the Earth’s atmosphere, the temperature on Earth would have been below freezing as that existing on (@) Mars (6) Venus (e) Moon (d) none of them. Q. 360. Had there been too much quantity of carbon dioxide in the Earth's atmosphere, the temperature on arth would have been much higher to make life impossible, as that existing on ‘SEWAGE DISPOSAL AND AIR’ POLLUTION ENGINEERING 997 () Venus (c) Moon (d) none of them. Q. 361. The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere used to be about 316 ppmy (parts per million by volume) in the year 1959, which has now (2005) inereased to a value of about (a) 330 ppmv (6) 350 ppmv (©) 380 ppmv (d) 480 ppmv. Q. 362. The average annual rate of increase of carbon dioxide in the Barth’s atmosphere, has over the last five decades, been observed to be of the order of (a)0.01% (6) 0.04% ©) 0.4% (@) 4%. Q. 363. The carbon dioxide in Earth’s atmosphere, has during the t about 50 years, increased by about 1% 0) 5% (©) 10% (a) 20%. @-.364, ‘The warming of the Earth’s atmosphere due to increasing. concentration of Green house gases (GhGs) is not likely to cause (a) increased heat conditions leading to warmer weather and long summers on Earth (©) melting of snow of glaciers and of the poles, and rise in sea levels (©) severe climate changes (d) none of the above. @, 365. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? (a) Continued global warming due to increasing concentrations of GhGs at its present rate, increase the Ba g the 2ist century by about 2°C ; and by about 1°C even if the GhGs and aerosols is kept ‘constant at year 2000 level (®) Continued global warming due to increasing concentration of CO, in the ambient air in likely to cause severe climate changes, leading to more floods, droughts, and eyclones. (¢) The rising ‘sea levels due to global warming may sub- ‘merge the coastal habitats and spoil the ground water