1

Honsbridge International School

Building Bridges, Exceeding Expectations

SCHOOL INTERNAL EXAMINATION

International General Certificates of Secondary Education
Term 2 2023
G28ABC / Year 11

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) August 2023
You must answer on the multiple-choice answer sheet. 45 minutes
You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet
Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

CANDIDATE NAME : EXAMINER : Ms Yani

CLASS : MARKS : / 40

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all the questions.
For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple-choice answer sheet.
Write your name on all the work you hand in.
Write in soft pencil.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
You may use calculator.

At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely together.
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.
The total number of marks for this paper is 40.

By signing below the Candidate affirms that he/she has briefed on, read and understood the Rules of
Examinations that apply to all Honsbridge International students which have also been posted throughout the
school.

___________________________________________

This document consists of 13 printed pages.

[Turn over]
 2

1 A gaseous substance is slowly cooled and the temperature recorded every second.
The results are shown on the graph.

At which point is the substance a solid?

2 A gas is released at point Q, in the apparatus shown.

Which gas changes the colour of the damp universal indicator paper most quickly?

3 There are two stable isotopes of bromine.

The mass number of isotope 1 is 79.
The mass number of isotope 2 is 81.
Which statement is correct?

A The isotopes have the same number of neutrons.

B The isotopes have different chemical properties.
C The isotopes have different numbers of protons.
D The isotopes have the same number of outer electrons.
 3

4 Which dot-and-cross diagram shows the arrangement of outer shell electrons in a molecule
of hydrogen chloride?

5 The formula of ammonia is NH3.

Which statement about a molecule of ammonia is correct?

A The bonding in a molecule of ammonia is ionic.

B The nitrogen atom has a noble gas configuration, the hydrogen atoms do not.
C The nitrogen atom shares all of its electrons with hydrogen atoms.
D There are six shared electrons in a molecule of ammonia.

6 Elements X and Y react to form a compound.

Element X loses two electrons and element Y gains one electron.
What is the charge on the ions of elements X and Y and what is the formula of the
compound?

7 Which statement about graphite explains why it is used as an electrode?

A It contains ions.
B It has a giant covalent structure.
C It has mobile electrons.
D It is a metal.

[Turn over]
 4

8 Aqueous iron(III) sulfate and aqueous sodium hydroxide react to give a precipitate of
iron(III) hydroxide and a solution of sodium sulfate.

What is the balanced symbol equation for this reaction?

A Fe2(SO4)3 3(s) + Na2SO4(aq)

B Fe2(SO4)3 3(s) + 3Na2SO4(aq)
C Fe2(SO4)3 3(s) + 3Na2SO4(aq)
D 2Fe2(SO4)3 3(s) + 6Na2SO4(aq)

9 The equation for the reaction between sodium carbonate and excess dilute hydrochloric acid
is shown.

Na2CO3 2O + CO2

When 26.5g of sodium carbonate reacts with excess dilute hydrochloric acid, what is the
maximum volume of carbon dioxide produced?

A 6 dm3 B 12 dm3 C 18 dm3 D 24 dm3

10 What is the concentration of the solution when 31.8 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3, is
dissolved in water to make a solution of 250 cm3?

A 0.075 mol /dm3

B 0.30 mol /dm3
C 1.2 mol / dm3
D 1.5 mol / dm3

11 When powdered sodium carbonate and aqueous ethanoic acid are mixed, the temperature
of the mixture falls.
Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A
B The
C
D
 5

12 The diagram shows the electrolysis of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated
aqueous sodium chloride using carbon electrodes.

At which electrodes is hydrogen produced?

A electrode 1 only
B electrodes 1 and 3
C electrode 2 only
D electrodes 2 and 4

13 Iron(II) chloride solution reacts with chlorine gas.

The equation is shown.

2FeCl2(aq) + Cl2(g) 2FeCl3(aq)

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

1 Fe2+ ions are reduced to Fe3+ ions.

2 Chlorine acts as a reducing agent.
3 Fe2+ ions each lose an electron.
4 Cl2 molecules are reduced to Cl ions.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

14 Concentrated aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.

Which ionic half-equation describes the reaction taking place at the cathode?

A 2H+ + 2e H2
B 4OH O2 + 2H2O + 4e
C Cu Cu2+ + 2e
D Cu2+ + 2e Cu

[Turn over]
 6

15 Which statements explain why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate
of reaction?

1 It increases the collision rate of particles.

2 It lowers the activation energy.
3 A greater proportion of the colliding molecules have the required activation energy.
4 There are more particles per unit volume.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

16 Water is added to anhydrous copper(II) sulfate.

What happens during the reaction?

A The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets hotter.
B The copper(II) sulfate turns blue and the solution formed gets colder.
C The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets colder.
D The copper(II) sulfate turns white and the solution formed gets hotter.

17 Ammonium sulfate is used as a fertiliser.

It is made from ammonia and sulfuric acid.
The ......1...... is made by the ......2...... process in which ......3...... is used as a catalyst.
Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

18 An aqueous solution reacts with a solid. The products are an alkaline gas, a salt and water.
What are the aqueous solution and the solid?
 7

19 Methanol is prepared by the reversible reaction shown.

CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g)
The forward reaction is exothermic.
Which conditions produce the highest equilibrium yield of methanol?

20 Butanoic acid partially dissociates in aqueous solution.

Which row about butanoic acid is correct?

21 Elements in Group I and Group II show the same trends in their reactions with water and in
their density.
Which row shows how the properties of barium compare with calcium?

[Turn over]
 8

22 The reactions of metals P, Q, R and S are shown.

What is the order of reactivity of the metals?

23 A period of the Periodic Table is shown.

The letters are not their chemical symbols. Which statement is correct?

A Element R does not conduct electricity.

B Element Z exists as a diatomic molecule.
C Elements R and Y react together to form an ionic compound.
D Element Z reacts with element T.

24 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Which element has two electrons in its outer shell and three electron shells?
 9

25 Which pair of compounds shows a transition element in two different oxidation states?

A Cr2O3 and Cr2(SO4)3

B Cu2O and CuCO3
C ZnS and ZnSO4
D NiO and Ni(NO3)2

26 The properties of the element titanium, Ti, can be predicted from its position in the Periodic
Table. Which row identifies the properties of titanium?

27 The apparatus shown is used to prepare aqueous copper(II) sulfate.

What are X and Y?

[Turn over]
 10

28 Which statement describes a weak acid?

A It is a proton acceptor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution.

B It is a proton acceptor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution.
C It is a proton donor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution.
D It is a proton donor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution.

29 A chromatogram of a single substance T is shown.

Which measurements are used to find the Rf value of T?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

30 The diagrams show the structures of three macromolecules P, Q and R.

What are P, Q and R?

 11

31 Which description of brass is correct?

A a compound of copper and zinc

B a compound of copper and tin
C a mixture of copper and zinc
D a mixture of copper and tin

32 Which substances react to form hydrogen gas?

1 calcium and water

2 silver and dilute hydrochloric acid
3 magnesium and steam
4 zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid

A 1, 3 and 4 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 4 only

33 Ethanol can be produced by fermentation or by the catalytic addition of steam to ethene.

Which row shows an advantage and a disadvantage for each process?

34 Which equation representing a reaction of methane is correct?

A CH4 + Cl2 3Cl + HCl

B CH4 + Cl2 4Cl2

C CH4 + Cl2 2Cl2 + H2

D 2CH4 + 2Cl2 3Cl + Cl2 + H2

[Turn over]
 12

35 A student tests an unknown compound M.

The compound:

What is M?

A sodium sulfate
B sodium carbonate
C potassium sulfate
D potassium carbonate

36 The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen releases 486 kJ / mol of energy.

2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g)

The bond energy of H H is 436 kJ /mol and that of H O is 464 kJ / mol.

What is the bond energy of O=O?

A 430 kJ / mol
B 458 kJ / mol
C 498 kJ / mol
D 984 kJ / mol

37 Which equation represents the formation of poly(propene) from propene?

 13

38 Which statement defines structural isomers?

A They are compounds with the same displayed formula but a different molecular
formula.
B They are compounds with the same molecular and displayed formulae but a different
structural formula.
C They are compounds with the same molecular formula but a different structural
formula.
D They are compounds with the same structural formula but a different displayed
formula.

39 The structure of organic compound X is shown.

What is X?

A ethyl ethanoate
B methyl ethanoate
C ethyl methanoate
D methyl methanoate

40 What is the structural formula of the compound formed in the addition reaction of propene
with bromine?

A CH3CHBrCH2Br
B CH2BrCH2CH2Br
C CHBr2CH2CH3
D CH3CBr2CH3