CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination

Second Day - 12:30 p.m. – 2:30 p.m.

=================================================================

REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION SET ONE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer
sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it

was made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge

2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D. Department of Justice

3. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to
question criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation

4. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work

5. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not losing
the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail

6. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits and
associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail

7. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a suspect or
observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
 B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage

8. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises

with the purpose of discovering contrabands or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure

9. A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different character to the
same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence

10. The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence collected during the
investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service

11. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker
during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment

12. A special qualification for an undercover agent.

A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory

13. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining
information concerning the identities or activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance

14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been taken
into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination

15. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
 D. weekdays

16. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present when
they are committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for
wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures

17. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals
and the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged
crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation

18. An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

A. initial investigation
B. custodial investigation
C. secondary investigation
D. follow-up investigation

19. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of

A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D. Interrogation

20. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to
believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with
the offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D. res ipsa loquitur

21. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45

22. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and that
the person named in his report committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae

23. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be
committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their
property vulnerable.
A. opportunity denial
B. order maintenance
 C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence

24. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation

25. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some
essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation

26. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an

acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation

27. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information regarding
the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview

28. It means method of operation.

A. corpus delicti
B. parens patriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi

29. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain
conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement

30. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion on
their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure

31. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.

A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
32. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time of
the commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to a
minimum.
A. chain of command
B. chain of custody
C. evidence tracking
D. tracing evidence

33. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. Examples
are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence

34. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which help
in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime
was committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
A. physical evidence
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence

35. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:

A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness

36. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The
searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method

37. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one
quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method

38. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and
circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method

39. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed.

A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
40. Another term for tailing.
A. Impersonating
B. Backing
C. Supporting
D. Shadowing

41. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the
information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator
surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant

42. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other
people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping

43. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who knows
about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry

44. An objective of criminal investigation.

A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes

45. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire, when, for
example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter

46. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very complicated,
since the proportion of different flammable vapours varies from one material to another
and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter

47. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to that
of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
48. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction

49. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to

A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. phot opportunity in the fire/crime scene

50. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is either set for revenge or self
aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter

51. The primary course of action in case of a fire.

A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm

52. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxiant
which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide

53. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply to the
fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide

54. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building material in
a fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength

55. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms;
magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D

56. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other carbonaceous
materials. Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
 A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D

57. The following are components of fire except one:

A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat

58. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of
origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern

59. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.

A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring

60. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish an
alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper

61. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common examples are
gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper

62. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect
flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper

63. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and
satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia

64. It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”

A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
 D. PD 1185

65. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer

66. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable

67. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree
Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid

68. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid

69. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current across the
space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember

70. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire

71. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.

A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

72. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one temperature
and density moves under the influence of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion

73. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.

A. burning point
B. melting point
 C. freezing point
D. boiling point

74. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position

75. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.

A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey

76. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more reference
points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C. triangulation
D. accident investigation

77. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity

78. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more
persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious

79. The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”

A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136

80. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury, death
or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events

81. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.

A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
82. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. traffic violation

83. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact

84. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation

85. The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”

A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195

86. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought disruption
and ego distortion. They are called psyhedelics.
A. Tranquillisers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants

87. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with
delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens

88. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit.
A. Gynaecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade

89. The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.

A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl

90. The original components of heroin and morphine.

A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
91. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration

92. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and
corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue

93. The most common form of stimulant.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu

94. It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these

95. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.

A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine

96. Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine

97. Another term for psychological drug addiction.

A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence

98. Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a physician’s
order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs

99. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and
functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice
 100. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and
cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects

- End of Set One -

CRIMINOLOGISTS Licensure Examination

Second Day - 12:30 p.m. – 2:30 p.m.
=================================================================

REVIEW QUESTIONS IN
CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION SET TWO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer
sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What legal doctrine was established in the case Mapp vs. Ohio?
A. Archipelagic Doctrine
B. Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine
C. Miranda Doctrine
D. Eclectics Doctrine
E. None of these

2. The testimony of witnesses reduced in writing while under oath is generally called
A. Admission
B. Declaration
C. Information
D. Deposition

3. Human sources of information who voluntarily provide facts to the detectives are
generally known as
A. Informers
B. Suspects
C. Informants
D. Respondents

4. Proof beyond reasonable doubt is the weight and sufficiency of evidence needed to
convict the defendant in
A. administrative cases
B. civil cases
C. criminal cases
D. all of the above

5. The stage of criminal interview purposely done to clarify information already gathered or
to gather additional facts about the case is the:
 A. initial interview
B. follow-up interview
C. concluding interview
D. preliminary interview

6. The prosecutor is the proper authority to subscribe in the

A. Affidavit
B. Complaint
C. Joint affidavit
D. Information

7. Any person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation shall at all times be
assisted by
A. Prosecutor
B. police officer
C. counsel
D. complaint

8. Remuneration gain is the main motive of

A. Informants
B. Criminals
C. Informers
D. Witnesses

9. As established by our Supreme Court through the case People vs. Galit, the first step in
arresting an offender is
A. show the warrant of arrest
B. inform the nature and cause of accusation
C. identify yourself as a law enforcer
D. give the Miranda warning

10. Planned and coordinated legal search conducted to locate physical evidences at the
locus criminis refers to
A. Crime scene search
B. Intelligence
C. Instrumentation
D. Covert operation

11. A self-incriminatory statement not tantamount to acknowledgement of criminal guilt is

called
A. Complaint
B. Admission
C. Confession
D. Deposition

12. The fundamentals responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting the crime scene is
A. interrogating the witnesses
B. engaging in the search for traces left by the search for traces left by the criminal
C. removal of evidence which may prone important to the case
D. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical condition as it was
left by the perpetrator

13. Which of the following is NOT among the rules to be observed in questioning a suspect?
 A. simplicity of the question
B. one question at a time
C. accepted applied answer
D. saving faces

14. One of the following is an art, which deal with the identity and location of the offender and
provides evidence of his guilt through criminal proceedings.
A. information
B. interrogation
C. instrumentation
D. criminal investigation

15. The declaration made under a consciousness of an impending death is called

A. Res gestae
B. Declaration against interest
C. Dying declaration
D. all of these

16. A police officer testifying to the fact that he observed the defendant assault the victim is
presenting to the court ____ evidence.
A. circumstantial evidence
B. direct evidence
C. artificial evidence
D. real evidence

17. A standard arrow to designate the north must be indicating to facilitate proper orientation.
This is known as
A. map
B. wind whirl
C. compass direction
D. window

18. The profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition, identification,
individualization and evaluation of physical science by application of natural sciences in
matters of law and science.
A. chemist
B. scientist
C. toxicologist
D. criminalistics

19. The number of person who handle the evidence from the scene of the crime and between
the times of the commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the case.
A. time of disposition
B. chain of custody
C. time of custody
D. time of disposal

20. A technique useful in investigation with the application of instrumental detection of

deception is called
A. ballistic test
B. questioned document test
C. fingerprint testing
 D. polygraph testing

21. The warrant of arrest is good only for

A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. none of these

22. The effectiveness of this tool in investigation depends on the craft, logic, and
psychological insight of the initiator in interpreting the information relevant to the case is
called
A. instrumentation
B. information
C. interrogation
D. interview

23. The systematic classification of the fundamentals or basic factors of a criminal method is
called
A. corpus delicti
B. modus operandi
C. methodology
D. all of the above

24. It is a type of reconstruction of crime wherein collected information is analysed carefully

thereby developing a theory of the crime.
A. deductive reasoning
B. physical reconstruction
C. inductive reasoning
D. mental reconstruction

25. The defense of the suspect that he was present in a place other than the crime scene
during the estimated time when the crime was committed is called
A. Defense
B. Allegation
C. Alibi
D. Statement

26. These are hints that suggest lines of investigative actions and information that is valuable
in expanding the universe of suspects, identifying prime suspects and finding the guilty
person. This is called
A. Information
B. Investigative leads
C. Corpus delicti
D. Modus operandi

27. Complaint document is filed by the

A. Police to the prosecutor's office
B. Offended party directly to the court
C. Fiscal against the offended party
D. Prosecutor directly to the court

28. That type of reasoning used in reconstruction of the crime whereby the detective
assumes a theory based on collected information is regarded as
 A. deduction approach
B. logical reasoning
C. inductive approach
D. positive approach

29. The lawful act of restraining a person believed to have committed a crime and
placing him under custody is termed as
A. Imprisonment
B. Restraint
C. Arrest
D. Detention

30. The use of scientific instruments, methods and processes while detecting and
investigating crimes is technically called
A. Criminal Justice
B. Forensic Science
C. Criminalistics
D. Instrumentation

31. Preponderance of evidence is the weight and sufficiency of evidence needed to convict a
person in
A. Murder cases
B. Civil cases
C. Criminal cases
D. None of these

32. The two forms of arrest are arrest by actual restraint and
A. By forcible surrender
B. By detention
C. By voluntary submission
D. By virtue of a warrant

33. In portrait parle method the witness provides a vivid physical appearance of the offender.
Portrait parle means
A. Oral discussion
B. Verbal description
C. Photographic files
D. Facial appearance

34. The application of the same or substantially the same pattern, plan, system of a particular
offender in committing a crime is known as
A. Premeditation
B. plan
C. modus operandi
D. all of the above

35. The method employed by peace officers to trap and catch malefactor in inflagrante
delicto is known as
A. modus operandi
B. “buy-bust”
C. Entrapment
D. Instigation
36. An effort made to determine what actually occurred and what the circumstances of a
crime were is called
A. physical construction
B. crime scene investigation
C. mental reconstruction
D. crime reconstruction

37. Which of the following is under the Field Laboratory Work of the SOCO?
A. Macro-etching
B. DNA examination
C. Casting
D. DNA typing

38. “Releases the crime scene to the officer on case” is the function of
A. evidence custodian
B. team leader
C. sketcher
D. technician

39. “The xerox copy signed by Rose” is an example of

A. document evidence
B. direct evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. positive evidence

40. Evidence which the law does not allow to be contradicted is known as
A. competent evidence
B. conclusive evidence
C. expert evidence
D. substantial evidence

41. An interrogation technique where to police officers are employed, a relentless investigator
and a king-hearted man is called
A. shifting the blame
B. mutt and jeff
C. tom and jerry
D. none of the above

42. What law enumerated and provided definition of the different felonies in the Philippines?
A. RA 8177
B. RA 6975
C. RA 8353
D. None of these

43. The following are authorized to issue a valid search warrant, except:
A. Appellate Judge
B. Presiding Judge of MCTC
C. Chief Prosecutor
D. RTC Judge

44. Which of the following detective system prioritized on information that are bought?
A. American System
B. English System
 C. French System
D. All of these

45. In crime reconstruction, gathering information first then developing a theory on how the
crime was committed is one approach, otherwise known as:
A. Deductive reasoning
B. Inductive reasoning
C. Productive reasoning
D. Pragmatic reasoning

46. The branch of medicine, which deal with the application of medical knowledge to the
purpose of law and in the Administration of justice.
A. Nursing
B. Medico Legal
C. Legal
D. None of these

47. It pertains to law, arising out of, it also refer anything conformable to the law.
A. Legal
B. Rule
C. Sanction
D. All of these

48. One of the following denotes things belonging to the court of law or use in court or legal
proceeding or something fitted for legal or legal argumentation.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Jurisprudence
C. Law or Legal
D. None of these

49. The legal maxim which means “both drivers displayed negligence”
A. Res Ipsa Loquitor
B. Pare Delicto
C. Inflagrante Delicto
D. Locus criminis

50. Which of the following is useful in the investigation of hit and run accidents?
A. Motor vehicle registers
B. Employees of the body fender shops
C. Records of accidents and stolen vehicles
D. all of the above

51. When 6 pedestrians who witnessed an automobile accident all tell identical stories, the
investigating officer might reasonably suspect that:
A. the story which they tell is true since they all agree so perfect
B. the delay between the time of the accident and the witnesses time together to
discuss and compare their observations
C. all of the witnesses are close friends with similar physical abilities opinions,
educational and the like
D. all of the witnesses are dishonest

52. The police must arrived at the scene of the crime as quickly as possible because:
A. he is the source of the most productive evidence
 B. the principals are there or may still be present
C. some physical evidence may deteriorate
D. all of the above

53. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red colored border is known as:
A. information sign
B. instruction sign
C. direction sign
D. caution sign

54. The systematic examination of all the facts relating to condition, actions and physical
features associated with motor collision or accident is called:
A. traffic engineering
B. reckless driving
C. traffic accident investigation
D. hit and run investigation

55. An event in the road which characterizes the manner of occurrence of a motor vehicle
traffic accident is
A. Accident
B. key event
C. chain of accident
D. all of these

56. The delay resulting from traffic congestion affect not only the time of travel but also the
productivity of individual is part of what we call
A. traffic engineering
B. traffic environment
C. traffic economy
D. traffic congestion

57. The traffic enforcement action that does not contemplate possible assessment of penalty
by the court
A. traffic arrest
B. traffic citation
C. traffic warning
D. traffic violation

58. In accordance with Sec. 6 of PD 1613, which of the following circumstances does not
constitute a prima facie evidence of arson?
A. The property was insured substantially more than its actual value at the time of
the issuance of the policy.
B. Substantial amounts of flammable substances were stored within the building
not necessary in the business.
C. Doors and windows that were normally kept open in the course of
business were found closed during the fire.
D. The fire started in more than one part of the building or establishment.

59. After a fire in which arson is suspected, you may be able to trace the fire to its origin
because __.
A. the alligator pattern of charring is not as light absorbent of the surrounding areas
B. the checks of the charring process will be larger then the surrounding areas
 C. the pattern of charring at the point of origin is smaller and deeper than the rest of
the areas
D. the point of origin will be darker than the rest of the areas

60. One of the following situations is a good indication of an accidental fire.

A. Smell of ammonia
B. Fire of several origin
C. Intense heat
D. Fire of only one origin

61. The purpose of closing the doors and windows during fire is to __.
A. stop the fire
B. confine the fire
C. slow the spread of fire
D. spread the accelerants

62. The purpose of opening the doors and windows of adjacent rooms in a burning building is
to __.
A. extinguish the fire
B. supply the oxygen in the area
C. prevent back draft
D. serve as entrance of firemen

63. An arsonist may rearrange materials or furniture in a room prior to setting it on fire in
order to __.
A. mislead the investigators
B. camouflage the odor of accelerants
C. provide a quick burning situation
D. all of the above

64. If the fire is set by rationale motive, the important point to establish is ___.
A. intensity of fire
B. size of fire
C. rapidity of spread
D. origin of fire

65. The “eyes and ears” of the investigators in fire investigation are the
A. By standers
B. Arsonists
C. Victims
D. Firemen

66. The fire that started in almost all corners of the building at the same time is called __.
A. separate burning
B. simultaneous burning
C. non-related burning
D. related burning

67. A building which is unsafe in case of fire because it lacks adequate fire exit is said to be a
__.
A. Fire hazard
B. Fire trap
 C. Fire resistive
D. Fire unsafe

68. In cases where a structure is completely burned to the ground, the position of doors and
windows during the fire whether opened or closed may be ascertained by __.
A. consulting the original structure blueprint on file
B. interviewing spectators
C. collecting broken pieces of window glasses
D. locating the hardware used in the construction of such doors

69. Using electrical appliances, which draws electrical current beyond the designed capacity
of the electrical circuit, is known as __.
A. Over using
B. Over loading
C. Over plugging
D. Over capacity

70. The introduction of drugs into the deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric
current is known as:
A. Topical method
B. Injection method
C. Iontophoresis
D. Oral method

71. When too much drug is taken into the physiological system of the human body, there
maybe an over extension of its effect which is commonly called:
A. Overdose
B. Allergic reaction
C. Side effect
D. Idiosyncracy

72. When two drugs are taken together, or with in a few hours of each other, they may
interact with:
A. good effects
B. bad effects
C. unexpected results
D. no effects

73. The actual action of a particular drug depend on the basis of:
A. it’s chemical component
B. person’s tolerance
C. body absorption
D. food and water intake

74. Which of the following is considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of
prohibited drug?
A. Marijuana
B. Coca Bush
C. Opium Poppy
D. Peyote Cactus

75. The opium poppy plant is scientifically known as:

A. Cannabis Sativa
 B. Hashis
C. Erythroxylon coca
D. None of these

76. The word hashis is derived from the name Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashis
refers to:
A. male marijuana plant
B. female marijuana plant
C. the marijuana resin
D. marijuana leaves

77. Opium use in China was stemmed out from India and became widespread in the 19th
Century. From Middle East, the plant was cultivated in India, Pakistan, Iran and
Afghanistan which is known as the:
A. City of Dope
B. Golden Crescent
C. Green triangle
D. Golden triangle

78. Among the following was the German pharmacist who discovered the morphine drug.
A. Allan Heithfield
B. Troy Mcweigh
C. Freidrich Serturner
D. Alder Wright

79. What do you call the incident where vast numbers of American soldiers were addicted on
the morphine drug during the American Civil War?
A. Morpheum Illness
B. Soldier’s Disease phenomenon
C. American Addiction
D. Dreamer’s syndrome

80. What is the chemical name of the Heroin drug?

A. Amphetamine Sulfate
B. Diacetylmorphine
C. Acetonyl Dioxide
D. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride

81. Which of the following law was enacted to provide for the registration of collection, and
the imposition of fixed and special taxes upon all persons who engage in illegal drug
production?
A. R.A. 953
B. PD 44
C. R.A 7659
D. R.A. 6425

82. The cause of majority of fire deaths is:

A. Shock
B. Burn
C. Falling materials
D. Asphyxiation

83. One of the following is a fire resistant item.

 A. Asbestos
B. Borax
C. Phosphate of ammonia
D. Sulfur

84. Uncontrollable impulse to incendiarism is commonly known as

A. Kleptomania
B. Pedophilia
C. Manic depressive
D. Arson

85. Normally, fire feeds in all directions, but the least likely path a fire will follow is
A. Upward
B. Sideward
C. Downward
D. Outward laterally

86. What part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of the major investigative
steps accomplished?
A. Details
B. Synopsis
C. Undeveloped
D. Conclusions

87. He was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a master criminal who became London’s
most effective criminal investigator. He was the most famous thief catcher in 1720s.
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Chales Dickens

88. The America’s most famous private investigator and founder of Criminal Investigation in
USA. He established the practice of handwriting examination in American courts and
promoted a plan to centralize criminal identification records.
A. Henry Fielding
B. Jonathan Wild
C. John Fielding
D. Allan Pinkerton

89. In this method, the three searchers follow each other along the path of a spiral, beginning
on the outside and spiraling in toward the center.
A. Skip method search
B. Round the clock method of search
C. Quadrant search
D. None of these

90. A fire started from the basement of the building. After 30 minutes, the whole building has
turned into ashes. Which among the following is responsible for the spread of fire in the
building?
A. Heat
B. Smoke
C. Flame
 D. Combustion products

91. These are used by fire setters in spreading the fire throughout the building
A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Gasoline

92. The sudden ignition of accumulated radical gases produced when there is incomplete
combustion of fuel
A. Backdraft
B. Flashfire
C. Flashover
D. Biteback

93. A flow which would be obtained if there is a continuous flow of vehicle and are given a
one hundred percent green time is called:
A. Saturation flow
B. Traffic flow
C. Acceleration flow
D. Smooth flow

94. A signal system is created when two or more signals on any traffic route is coordinated
with a fixed time relationship among the several intervals known as:
A. Signal system
B. Traffic system
C. Traffic lights
D. Traffic signals

95. The time within which the traffic indicates of any particular traffic signal face does not
change:
A. Interval
B. Cycle
C. Phase
D. Timing

96. The total time required for the complete sequence of the phase is known as:
A. Cycle
B. Cycle length
C. Timing
D. Interval

97. the objective of traffic signal time apportionment to secure movement with safety through
an intersection with a minimum delay is called:
A. Timing
B. Cycle length
C. Phase
D. Interval

98. A portion of a signal cycle during which an assignment of right of way is made to given
traffic management:
A. Offset
B. Traffic phase
 C. Signal cycle
D. Cycle split

99. The number of times allocated to each phase of traffic light is called:
A. Split
B. Cycle time
C. Cycle split
D. Traffic phase

100. On a highway, a yellow or white line with a dotted white line means that
A. you cannot overtake if the solid is in your side
B. absolutely no overtaking
C. overtaking allowed
D. keep right

Criminal Detection, Identification & Prevention

Set One

1. C 14. B 27. A 40. D

2. D 15. C 28. D 41. D
3. D 16. C 29. B 42. A
4. D 17. D 30. A 43. C
5. D 18. D 31. A 44. B
6. A 19. D 32. A 45. C
7. C 20. B 33. C 46. B
8. A 21. A 34. A 47. C
9. A 22. A 35. C 48. D
10. A 23. A 36. B 49. C
11. D 24. B 37. D 50. D
12. D 25. B 38. C 51. D
13. D 26. A 39. C 52. D
53. B 65. A 77. D 89. A
54. A 66. B 78. B 90. C
55. D 67. A 79. D 91. A
56. A 68. A 80. B 92. A
57. A 69. A 81. D 93. D
58. A 70. D 82. A 94. D
59. A 71. B 83. D 95. A
60. C 72. B 84. D 96. A
61. A 73. B 85. B 97. D
62. B 74. C 86. B 98. D
63. C 75. A 87. B 99. C
64. D 76. C 88. B 100. C

Criminal Detection, Investigation & Prevention

Set Two

1. B 13. D 25. C 37. C

2. D 14. D 26. B 38. B
3. C 15. C 27. A 39. C
4. C 16. B 28. A 40. B
5. B 17. C 29. C 41. B
6. D 18. D 30. C 42. D
7. C 19. B 31. B 43. C
8. C 20. D 32. C 44. C
9. C 21. D 33. B 45. B
10. A 22. C 34. C 46. B
11. B 23. B 35. C 47. A
12. D 24. D 36. D 48. B
49. A
50. D
51. A
52. D
53. D
54. C
55. B
56. C
57. B
58. C
59. B
60. D
61. B
62. C
63. D
64. D
65. D
66. B
67. A
68. D
69. B
70. C
71. D
72. C
73. A
74. A
75. D
76. C
77. B
78. C
79. B
80. B
81. A
82. D
83. A
84. A
85. C
86. B
87. B
88. D
89. D
90. A
91. C
92. C
93. A
94. A
95. A
96. B
97. A
98. B
99. A
100. A