1.

When taking a health history from a female client who has a moderate level of cognitive

impairment due to dementia, the nurse would expect to note the

presence of:

a Accentuated premorbid traits

b. Enhance intelligence

c Hypervigilance

d. Increased inhibitions

2. The PRIMARY nursing diagnosis for a female client with a medical diagnosis

of major depression would be:

a Impaired verbal communication related to depression

b. Powerlessness related to the loss of idealized self

c. Situational low self-esteem related to altered role

d. Spiritual distress related to depression

3. When developing an initial nursing care plan for a male client with a Bipolar I disorder (manic

episode) nurse Ron should plan to:

a. Encourage his active participation in unit programs

b. Encourage his participation in programs

c Isolate his gym time

d. Provide food, fluids and rest

4. One morning a female client in the inpatient psychiatric service complains to Nurse Hazel that

she has been waiting for over an hour for someone to accompany her to perform some activities.

Nurse Hazel replies to the client "We're doing the best we can. There are a lot of other people on

the unit who needs attention too." This statement shows the nurse's use of:

a Defensive behaviour

b. Impulse control

c. Limit-setting behaviour

d. Reality reinforcement

5. Jose who has been hospitalized with schizophrenia tells Nurse Ron, "My heart

has stopped and my veins have turned to glass!" Nurse Ron is aware that this

is an example of:

a. Depersonalization

b. Echolalia

c. Hypochondriasis
d. Somatic delusions

6. In recognizing common behaviours exhibited by a male client who has a

diagnosis of schizophrenia, nurse Josie can anticipate:

a. Disorientation, forgetfulness, and anxiety

b. Grandiosity, arrogance, and distractibility

c. Slumped posture, pessimistic outlook, and fight of ideas

d. Withdrawal, regressed behaviour, and lack of social skills

7. Nurse Bea notices a female client sitting alone in the corner smiling and talking to herself.

Realizing that the client is hallucinating. Nurse Bea should:

a. Ask the client why she is smiling and talking

b. Invite the client to help decorate the dayroom

c. Leave the client alone until she stops talking

d. Tell the client it is not good for her to talk to herself

8. When being admitted to a mental health facility, a young female adult tells Nurse Mylene that

the voices she hears frighten her. Nurse Mylene understands that the client tends to hallucinate

more vividly:

a. During group activities

b. During mealtime

c. When she is alone

d. While watching TV

9. Nurse John recognizes that paranoid delusions usually are related to the defense mechanism

of:

a. Identification

b. Projection

c. Regression

d. Repression

10. When planning care for a male client using paranoid ideation, nurse Jasmin

should realize the importance of:

a. Giving the client difficult tasks to provide stimulation

b. Not placing any demands on the client

c. Providing the client with activities in which success can be achieved

d. Removing stress so that the client can relax

11. Nurse Gerry is aware that the defense mechanism commonly used by clients

who are alcoholics is:

a. Compensation

b. Denial

c. Displacement

d. Projection

12. In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her

with a shoe. After the healthcare team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis

intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence by the husband. Suddenly the

client's husband arrives, shouting that he wants to "finish the job." What is the

priority of the healthcare worker who witnesses this scene?

a. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance

b. Determining why the husband feels so angry

c. Remaining with the client and staying calm

d. Telling the client's husband that he must leave at once

13. Within a few hours of alcohol withdrawal, nurse John should assess the mate client for the

presence of:

a. Disorientation, paranoia, tachycardia

b. Irritability, heightened alertness, jerky movements

c. Tremors, fever, profuse diaphoresis

d. Yawning, anxiety, convulsions

14. A client who's at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure

the client's safety, the nurse should:

a. Assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says

b. Check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night

c. Disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common in

suicidal clients

d. Repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client

15. For a client with anorexia nervosa, the goal which takes the highest priority is;

the client will:

a. Establish adequate daily nutritional intake

b. Identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic

c. Make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight

d. Verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation

16. A client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification.

Which of the following medications is the nurse most likely to administer to reduce the

symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

a. Naloxone (Narcan)

b. Haloperidol (Haldol)

c. Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4)

d. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

17. During postprandial monitoring, a client with bulimia nervosa tolls the nurse, "You can sit

with me, but you're just wasting your time. After you sat with me

yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice." What is

the nurse's best response?

a. "Don't worry. I won't allow you to purge today."

b. "How are you purging and when do you do it?"

c. "I know it's important for you to feel in control, but I'll monitor you for 90 minutes

after you eat."

d. "I trust you not to purge."

18. A client is admitted for an overdose of amphetamines. When assessing this client, the nurse

should expect to see:

a. Constipation

b. Hypotension

c. Slow pulse

d. Tension and irritability

19. The nurse is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with

disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of

the following products?

a. Aftershave lotion

b. Carbonated beverages

c. Cheese

d. Toothpaste

20. A client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, "When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I

look so fat and ugly." Which strategy should the nurse use to deal

with the client's distorted perceptions and feelings?

a. Avoid discussing the client's perceptions and feelings

b. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight

c. Focus discussions on food and weight

d. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client's weight and

attractiveness

21. A client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a

motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident.

Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2% (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to

drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling

and numbness in the hands and feet. The nurse realizes that these symptoms probably result

from:

a. A below-normal serum potassium level

b. Acetate accumulation

c. Thiamine deficiency

d. Triglyceride buildup

22. The nurse is assigned to care for a suicidal client. which of the following is the nurse's

HIGHEST care priority?

a. Assessing the client's home environment and relationships outside the hospital

b. Discussing the future with the client

c. Exploring the nurse's feelings about suicide

d. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

23. When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), which

of the following is the HIGHEST PRIORITY?

a. Client's medical needs

b. Client's physical needs

c. Client's psychosocial needs

d. Client's safety needs

24. A client with disorganized type schizophrenia has been hospitalized for the past 2 years in a

unit for chronically mentally ill clients. The client's behaviour is labile and fluctuates from

childishness and incoherence to loud yelling to slow but appropriate interaction. The client needs

assistance with all activities of daily living. Which behaviour is characteristic of disorganized

type schizophrenia?

a. Elevated affect

b. Extreme social impairment

c. Suspicious delusions

d. Waxy flexibility

25. A client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with

moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, she sits staring blankly at her
bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should the nurse approach her

initially?

a. Approach her slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling her name, and

telling her that the nurse is here to help her

b. Call for staff backup before entering the room and restraining her

c. Enter the room quietly and move beside her to assess her injuries

d. Move as much glass away from her as possible and sit next to her quietly

26. Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported

history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7 C); heart rate,

126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The

client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. The

nurse should suspect:

a. A postoperative infection

b. Acute sepsis

c. Alcohol withdrawal

d. Pneumonia

27. One of the goals for a client with anorexia nervosa is that the client will demonstrate

increased individual coping by responding to stress in

constructive ways. Which of the following actions is the BEST indicator that

the client is working toward meeting the goal?

a. The client drinks 4 L of fluid per day

b. The client keeps a journal and discusses it with the nurse

c. The client paces around the unit most of the day

d. The client talks almost constantly with friends by telephone

28. Which medication can control the extrapyramidal effects associated with

antipsychotic agents?

a. Amantadine (Symmetrel)

b. Clorazepate (Tranxene)

c. Doxepin (Sinequan)

d. Perphenazine (Trilafon)

29. The nurse in the substance abuse unit is trying to encourage a client to attend Alcoholics

Anonymous meetings. When the client asks the nurse what he

must do to become a member, the nurse should respond:

a. "Admit you're powerless over alcohol and that you need help."

b. You must bring along a friend who will support you."

c. "You must first stop drinking."

d. "Your physician must refer you to this program."

30. An attorney who throws books and furniture around the office after losing a case is referred

to the psychiatric nurse in the law firm's employee assistance program. The nurse knows that the

client's behaviour most likely representsthe use of which defence mechanism?

a. Intellectualization.

b. Projection

c Reaction-formation

d. Regression

31. After completing chemical detoxification and a 12-step program to treat crack addiction, a

client is being prepared for discharge. Which remark by the client indicates a realistic view of the

future?

a I know what I have to do. I have to limit my crack use."

b. "I will substitute crack for something else"

c. I'm going to take 1 day at a time. I'm not making any promises."

d. "I'm never going to use crack again

32. A 38-year-old client is admitted for alcohol withdrawal. The most common

early sign or symptom that this client is likely to experience is:

a Impending coma

b. Manipulating behaviour

c. Perceptual disorders

d. Suppression

33. The nurse is caring for an adolescent female who reports amenorrhoea, weight loss, and

depression. Which additional assessment finding would

suggest that the woman has an eating disorder?

a. Excessive and ritualized exercise

b. Increased blood pressure

C. Oily skin

d. Wearing tight-fitting clothing

34. Which of the following groups are considered to be at the highest risk for suicide?

a. Adolescents, men over age 45, and persons who made previous suicide

attempts

b. Alcohol abusers, widows, and young married men

c. Depressed persons, physicians, and persons living in rural areas

d. Teachers, divorced persons, and substance abusers

35. The nurse is providing care for a female client with a history of schizophre who's

experiencing hallucinations. The physician orders 200 mg of haloperidol (Haldol) orally or

intramuscularly (IM) every 4 hours as needed.

What is the nurse's best action?

a. Administer the haloperidol orally if the client agrees to take it

b. Call the physician to clarify the order because the dosage is too high

c. Call the physician to clarify whether the haloperidol should be given orally or IM

d. Withhold haloperidol because it may worsen hallucinations

36. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of borderline

personality disorder. The nurse expects the assessment to reveal:

a. Coldness, detachment, and lack of tender feelings

b. Inability to function as a responsible parent

c. Somatic symptoms

d. Unpredictable behaviour and intense Interpersonal relationships

37. A client receiving haloperidol (Haldol) complains of a stiff jaw and difficulty

swallowing. The nurse's first action is to:

a. Administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) by mouth as ordered

b. Administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) IM as ordered

c. Administer as needed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) by mouth

d. Reassure the client and administer needed lorazepam (Ativan) IM

38. A 24-year-old client is experiencing an acute schizophrenic episode. He has

vivid hallucinations that are making him agitated. The nurse's best response

at this time would be to:

a. Engage the client in reality-oriented activities

b. Explore the content of the hallucinations

c. Take the client's vital signs

d. Tell him his fear is unrealistic

39. A client with paranoid schizophrenia has been experiencing auditory hallucinations for many

years. One approach that has proven to be effective

for hallucinating clients is to:

a. Go to their room until the voices go away

b. Practice saying "go away" or "stop" when they hear voices

c Sing loudly to drown out the voices and provide a distraction

d. Take an as-needed dose of psychotropic medication whenever they hear

voices

40. A dystonic reaction can be caused by which of the following medications?

a. Amitriptyline (elavil)

b. Clonazepam (klonopin)

c. Diazepam (valium)

d. Haloperidol (haldol)

41. All the following are causes of mental illness EXCEPT:

a. Biological factors

b. Brain injury

c. Environmental issues

d. Schizoaffective disorder

42. Psychotic symptoms include:

a Delusions, happiness to anger, chaotic speech and behaviour

b. Disorganized thoughts, inability to move, and impulsive behaviour

c. Hallucinations blank facial expressions and risky behaviours

d. Losing touch with reality, anxiety, and apathy

43. How many chromosomes are present in "Down Syndrome"?

a. 3 Chromosomes

b. 21 Chromosomes

c. 46 Chromosomes

d. 47 Chromosomes

44. The tall, lanky, skinny, and narrow-chested people fall under which body build of

Kretchmer's description?

a. Asthenic

b. Athletic

c. Mosaic

d. Pyknic

45. A preoccupation with the fear of contracting or belief of having a serious

disease despite lack of pathology is known as:

a. Dysmorphophobia

b. Hypochondriasis

c. Hysteria

d. Somatization disorder

[Link] excess of dopamine neurotransmitters in the brain leads to:

a. Depression

b. Mania

c. Manic depression psychosis

d. Schizophrenia

47. When a client is said to have a 'flight of ideas', it means he:

a. Is overwhelmed by his thought

b. Repeats ideas with disconnection

c. Sees his mind to be full of ideas

d. Verbalizes his ideas to others

48. When fixation occurs at the oral stage, it is likely to result in:

a Emotional problems
b. Hatred for others

c. Oral sex

d. Verbal hostility

49. A means of obtaining sexual gratification by looking at sexual organs or

others engaged in sexual activities is:

a. Exhibitionism

b. Fetishism

c. Frotteurism

d. Voyeurism

50. Patrick sees a piece of rag on her writing table and screams it's a snake,

please help me. What symptom is this:

a Delusion

b. Hallucination

c. Illusion

d. Phobia

51. Which of the following may cause Dementia?

a. Alcohol
b. Cocaine

c. Marijuana

d. Scurvy

52. The type of schizophrenia characterized by extreme social withdrawal

deteriorated behaviour is:

a. Catatonia

b. Hebephrenic

c. Paranoid

d. Undifferentiated

53. A patient displaying manic behaviour will exhibit which of the undermentioned:

a. Compulsion, panic, regressive behaviour

b. Euphoria, accelerated speech, insomnia

c. Hypochondriasis, hostility, insomnia

d. Insomnia, confabulation, mannerisms

54. Which of the following BEST describes the appearance of a panic state?

a. Abnormal eye blinking, anger, flashbacks

b. Anger, poverty of ideas, withdrawal

c. Nightmares, flashbacks, anger

d. Palpitations, pressure on the chest, heartburn

55.A paranoid personality disorder is characterized by:

a, Antisocial behaviour

b. History of mistrust of others

c Instability of affect

d. Procrastination and inefficiency

56. Which of the following will indicate that the patient can make a suicidal attempt?

a. Asking the nurses to give him a knife

b. Hiding knives or storing drugs

c. Holding a knife and shouting that I want to kill myself

d. Telling the nurse "I want to kill myself

57. Catatonic schizophrenia is characterized by:

a. Auditory hallucinations
b. Disorganized behaviour and incoherence

c. Marked psychomotor disturbances

d. Systematized delusion.

58. When a girl child experiences sexual feelings for the father, Freud describes it

as:

a Electra complex

b. Nymphomaniac

c. Oedipus complex

d. Temper tantrums

59. Which of the following factors has contributed to the rise in depression among

the elderly?

a. Faltering self-esteem

b. Inability to use appropriate aid in walking

c. Loss of effective support system

d. Struggle to cope with trauma

60. You noticed that a child has a small skull, slanted eyes, protruding tongue, short neck and

enlarged abdomen. Which disorder is likely to be diagnosed?

a. Down's syndrome

b. Fetal alcohol syndrome

c. Fetal tobacco syndrome

d. Klinefelter's syndrome

61. At birth, a neonate will receive all the following vaccines if available EXCEPT:

a. BCG

b. Hepatitis B

C. OPVO

d. OPV 1

62. In Ghana, which specie of the Plasmodium parasite causes the severest form of malaria

among children under five years?

a. Falciparum

b. Malariae

c. Ovale

d. Vivax

63. Nana Ama, an 8-month-old infant is presented at the Child Welfare Clinic. When you plotted

her weight on the growth monitoring chart, you observed that her weight-for-age is more than

two z-scores above the International reference,

Which of the following does the child's data reflect?

a. Obesity

b. Stunting

c. Underweight

d. Wasting

64. Maame Nyarko Asem, a 14 weeks-old was brought to the Child Welfare Clinic. Which of the

following vaccines will be given to her?

a. DPT/Hep B/Hib 2

b. DPT/Hep B/Hib 3

c. Rotavirus 1

d. Rotavirus 2

65. Which of the following is a guiding principle for primary health care:

a. Appropriate terminologies

b. Committee participation

c. Multi-factor approach

d. Multi-sectoral approach

66. Health education seeks to bring about........... change in health behaviour among the populace.
a. Influential

b. Negative

c. Normal

d. Positive

[Link] mortalities due to gastrointestinal diseases will reduce when oral

rehydration........ are promoted.

a. and pneumococcal vaccine

b. with zinc, and home remedies

c. with zinc, and pneumococcal vaccine

d. with zinc, and rotavirus vaccine

68. During the health Education of a client who is at high risk for coronary artery disease which

of the following lifestyle modifications will be emphasized?

I. Limit smoking to one pack per day

Ii. Regular exercises such as daily walking

III. Maintain an acceptable body mass index

IV. Limit daily sodium intake

A. I II and III

B. I, II, and IV.

C. II, III and IV

D. I, II, III, and IV

69. During the planning stage of a community-based health planning and services program which

of the following activity is undertaken?

A. Analysis of healthcare delivery within nearby communities

B. Counseling consultation and socialization of health workers

C. Dialogue with the community leadership

D. Discussion of key activities with volunteers

70. Adolescents are free to patronize family planning commodities according to the world Health

Organization who is an adolescent?

A. A person aged between 10 to 19 years

B. A person aged between 11 to 18 years

C. A person aged between 12 to 19 years

D. A person aged between 13 to 19 years

71. Which of the following is a benefit of home visit

A. Ability to individualized services

B. Challenges with transportation

C. Inconvenience for the client or family

D. Time spent with 1 client or family

72. Complete vaccination against covid-19 is what level of disease prevention

A. Individualized level prevention

B. Primary level prevention

C. Secondary level prevention

D. Tertiary level prevention

73. Baby Yaw Ansah has received the pentavalent vaccine. Baby Yaw Ansah is protected against

all of the following diseases except:

A. Diphtheria

B. Hepatitis B

C. Pertussis

D. Poliomyelitis

74. Adolescent girls' attitudes toward menarche are influenced mainly by:

a. Maternal education on sexual health

b. Interactions with same-gender friends

c. Opinions of male colleagues in school

d. Readings about menarche in school

75. Which of the following vaccines must be stored at -20°C to maintain its potency?

a. Hepatitis vaccine

b. Measles vaccine

c. Pentavalent vaccine

d. Polio vaccine

76. The Assiamahs married 12 months ago. The couple had regular sexual Intercourse. However,

Mrs Assiamah did not become pregnant. What type of

infertility is described?

a. Barrenness

b. Primary infertility

c Secondary infertility

d. Tertiary infertility

77. An adolescent girl confides in her mother about her curiosity about sex and contraceptives.

What is the MOST reliable family planning method?

a. Abstinence

b. Condoms

c. Implant

d. Tubal ligation
78. The unit of measurement for the calculation of neonatal mortality rate is per:

a. 100 live births

b. 1000 live births

c. 10,000 live births

d. 100,000 live births

79. Ela Kusi is 24 months. What dosage of Vitamin A will you administer to her?

a. 1000 IU

b. 10,000 IU

c. 100,000 IU

d. 200,000 IU

80. Nurse Ansah has administered the BCG vaccine to Baby Yaa. Which of the following details

will NOT be documented?

a. Batch number

b. Date given

c. Dosage given

d. Place given

81. Sexual characteristics occur mostly as changes in the external appearance.

a. Adolescent
b. Primary

c. Secondary

d. Tertiary

82. Alex, a 20-year-old man received the second dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine in May 2023.

When is Alex expected to receive the third dose?

a. August 2023

b. June 2023

C. July 2023

d. September 2023

83. Which of the following statements about infertility is TRUE?

a. Both sexes are likely to have equal fertility problems

b. In vitro fertilization is simple and costly for most couples

c. Only females are likely to have fertility problems

d. Only males are likely to have fertility problems

84. You are teaching a group of female students about breast self-examination.

Which statement made by one of the young ladies indicates a need for

more teaching?
a. "Breast cancer is common in females aged 40 years with family history."

b. "I should do a breast self-examination every month."

c. "If I feel any lumps, I should report it to the physician."

d. "Showering time is a good time to do the breast self-examination."

85. One of the basic concepts in epidemiology is the concept of incidence rate.

Incidence refers to the:

a. Prevalence of an event occurring

b. Rate of development of new cases

c. The population most likely to develop a disease

d. The probability that an event will occur within a specified period

86. You are the Nurse Manager for your Public health Unit. How many infants will you report as

vaccinated with BCG during your monthly report to the district if two vials of BGC are empty?

a. 10

b. 30

c. 20

d. 40

87. All of the following are the benefits of exclusive breastfeeding for the first

months EXCEPT:
a. Financial savings to the family and nation

b. Increased immunity with Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

c. Protection from diarrhoeal diseases

d. Protection from respiratory diseases

88. Illegal mining leads to environmental pollution of all the following EXCEPT:

a. Air

b. Land

c. Roads

d. Water

89. Personal and environmental health is critical to increased life expectancy. Which of the

following activities will promote health?

a. Faeces management

b. Food management

c. Food vendors

d. Safety belts

90.A team of Public Health Nurses hope to visit pupils in Basic 4. Which of the

following topics should be prioritized for health education?

a. Food management
b. Menstrual hygiene

c. Personal hygiene

d. Prevention of falls

91. The World Health Organization's classic definition of health includes the following subsets

of well-being EXCEPT:

a. Mental

b. Economic

c. Physical

d. Social

92. The focus of environmental sanitation includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Clean water supply

b. Daily exercises

c. Disposal of waste

d. Housing

93. Maternal mortality is a public health concern. Globally, the death of most women is

associated with:

a. Labour

b. Malaria
c. Malnutrition

d. Pandemics

94. Occupational health helps in limiting exposure to risks at:

a. Job site

b. Market

c. Recreation

d. Roadside

95. Regular deworming helps to limit worm infestation. Deworming should be done every...........

months.

a. three

b. six

c. nine

d. twelve

96. You are the Nurse Manager for the Public Health Unit. A new mother who is practising

exclusive breastfeeding asked you about the ideal time to introduce her infant to supplementary

feeding. Identify the BEST response:

a. After 6 weeks

b. After 12 weeks
c. After 24 weeks

d. After weaning

97. Medical monitoring protocol in occupational health is important. Which of the activities is

included in the protocol?

a. Completion of medical history form

b. Daily excises and excuse duty form

c. Routine home visits by employers

d. Special tour and inventory taking

98. During the conduct of a risk assessment, what is the first step to be

completed?

a. Risk evaluation

b. Risk identification

c. Risk modifications

d. Risk reviews

99. Food vendors must complete periodic health screenings. This health

promotion activity must occur:

a. Annually

b. Bi-annually
c. Monthly

d. Twice a year

100. The following laws were enacted to promote the health and safety of Ghanaian workers.

Which of the following laws was first to be enacted?

a. Environmental Protection Agency Act

b. Factories, Offices and Shops Act

c Labour and Pension Act

d. Workman Compensation Act

101. A key feature of public health nursing is:

a. Annual home visits and report writing

b. Curative not preventive health services

c. Provision of free health care services

d. Provision of public health nursing services

102. Maame Serwaa and Maame Boakyewaa are twin sisters aged 11 years. Their parents

constantly fight in their presence. The exposure of these children to violence may affect their

well-being because of limited:

I. Social support

II. Psychological support

III. Financial support

IV. Physical support

a. I, II and III

b. I, II and IV

c. II, III and IV

d. I, II, II and IV

103. Contact tracing may be undertaken by the public health nurse to identify the

possible sources of all of the following diseases EXCEPT?

a. COVID-19

b. Ebola

c. Malaria

d. Smallpox

104. The COVID-19 disease may be described as alan:

a. Endemic

b. Epidemic

c. Pandemic
d. Sporadic

105. Vasectomy is a family planning method for males. Which anatomical structure

is ligated?

a. Epididymis

b. Seminal duct

c. Urethra

d. Vas deferens

106. The potency of vaccines is maintained through the cold chain. All of the

following vaccines are sensitive to heat EXCEPT:

a. Pentavalent

b. Polio

c. Tetanus

d. BCG

107. Community-Based Health Planning and Services is important in health promotion because

it:

a. Allows sharing of experience among people with similar health problems

b. Disallows the creation of early warning systems for epidemics

c. Improves the health of the people in communities

d. Limits health workers' morale and potential in the area

108. During Community-based Health Planning and Services there is full

community participation in the delivery of care through all of the following

personnel EXCEPT:

a. Community Health Committees

b. Community Health Officers

c. Health Volunteers

d. Unit Community Heads

109. All of the following are contra-indications for taking oral contraceptive pills

EXCEPT:

a. Breastfeeding

b. Diabetes

c. Depression

d. Pregnancy

110. During your recent home visit to a client, you made some clinical features suggestive of

hypertension. What was the cardinal feature?

a. Dyspnea

b. Elevated blood pressure

c. Severe headache

d. Weakness of the body

111. Nurse Afi will visit an 18-month-old child at home. The child is malnourished. What

requirement will be essential to include in the home visit bag?

a. Blood pressure apparatus

b. High caloric food

c. Protein dense food

d. Weighing scale

112. A guiding principle of home visits is:

a. All privileged information from the family should be freely shared

b. Create a tense atmosphere that will make the client/family anxious

c. Nurses do not decide on the specific type of home visit to carry out

d. Use simple clear language or, if possible, use the local dialect of the family

113. Growth monitoring is important for health promotion in children. What is the MOST

common indication used at the Child Welfare Clinic for this important activity?

a. BMI-for-age

b. Length/height-for-age

c. Weight-for-age
d. Weight-for-length/height

114. Moderate dehydration of a child may be managed successfully with the

administration of:

a. Any fluids and zinc oxide tablets

b. Coconut juice and Mannitol infusion

c. Oral Rehydration Salt and Zinc tablet

d. Urgent admission at the hospital for hydration

115. Maternal advice on the prevention of moderate diarrhoea in children under 5

years may include:

a. Hygienic preparation of child's food

b. Limit spices in all cooked food

c. Regular growth and development

d. Send the child to the hospital regularly for check-ups

116. Sexual health includes all the following EXCEPT:

a. Body image

b. Gender identity

c. Transgender
d. Sexuality

117. The channel of communication is important for creating awareness of a health issue. Which

communication channels will be MOST effective at a community level?

a. Durbar

b. Film

c. Lecture

d. Talk

118. The conduct of a needs assessment in a community involves:

a. Facilitation of activities that will bring behaviour change

b. Helping traditional rulers to raise awareness of community needs

c. Identification and prioritization of problems in the community

d. Identification of traditional values ingrained in the community

119. All of the following are indicators of population change EXCEPT?

a. Birth

b. Death

c. Growth
d. Migration

120. Which of the following family planning methods has fewer side effects?

a. Abstinence from sexual intercourse

b. Implants insertion for two years

c. Lactation amenorrhea method

d. Spermicides usage during casual sex

121. A study was carried out to examine the effects of alcohol on driving abilities, "Alcohol" is

an example of:

a. Confounding variable

b. Dependent variable

c. Extraneous variable

d. Independent variable

122. A set of data selected from a population for a research study is:

a. Population

b. Research data

c. Sample

d. Setting
123. Which sampling method gives everybody in the population under study an equal chance of

being selected?

a. Convenience sampling

b. Purpose sampling

c. Random sampling

d. Snowball sampling

124. A research study that can be depended upon to produce the same, or similar, results every

time it is carried out is:

a. Acceptability

b. Dependability

c. Reliability

d. Validity

125. An image, perception or concept that is capable of measurement is called:

a. Hypothesis.

b. Scale.

c. Type.

d. Variable
126. You are embarking on a study to assess the occurrence of faecal incontinence among

homosexual males, what sampling method will you use?

a. Convenient sampling

b. Purposive sampling

c. Simple random sampling

d. Snowball sampling

127. The ability of a data collection instrument to appropriately collect data it purports to collect

may be referred to as:

a. Acceptability

b. Dependability

c. Reliability

d. Validity

128. A nurse researcher planned to undertake a study on exclusive breastfeeding among teenage

mothers, she decided to study a few teenage mothers to put right any deficiencies in the data

collection instrument before the main study. This small study undertaken by the nurse researcher

is an example of:

a. Experimental study

b. Exploratory study

c. Pilot study
d. Survey

129. A research design which involves selecting several different age groups of participants / and

studying them at the same time is:

a. Correlational

b. Cross-sectional

c. Experimental

d. Longitudinal

130. A researcher carried out a study by selecting one group of participants all within the same

age range / and following them up at intervals over time. This type of design is:

a. Correlational

b. Cross-sectional

c. Experimental

d. Longitudinal

131. A study carried out by a researcher in a particular population to gain an in- depth

understanding / of one unique instance of something / rather than trying to find general

a. Case study

b. Correlation study

c. Descriptive study
d. Survey

132. Adopting ethical principles in research mean

A. Avoiding harm to participants

B. deception is only used when necessary

C. Selected informants give their consent

D. The researcher is anonymous

133. In the process of conducting research the formulation of the hypothesis is followed by:

A. Analysis of data

B. Collection of data

C. Selection of research tools

D. Statement of objectives

134. Which of the following are types of concept

A. Abstract and coherent

B. Abstract and concrete

C. Concrete and coherent

D. Independent and dependent

135. A statement of a quantitative research question should

I. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question the researcher will address

II. Help the research select an appropriate participants research methods and materials

III. Specify the variables of interest

A. I only

B. I and II

C. II and III

D. I, II and III

136. A formal document that presents the research objectives, the design of achieving these

objectives, and the expected outcomes and deliverables of the study are called research:

A. Design

B. Hypothesis

C. Proposal

D. Report

137. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible are called:

A. Dichotomous questions

B. Multiple choice question

C. Open ended questions

D. Structured questions

138. What are the core elements of a research process?

a. Executive summary, literature review data gathered, conclusions; bibliography.

b. Introduction; data collection: data analysis, conclusions and recommendations

c. Introduction, literature review, research methodology, results; discussions

d. Research plan; research data; analysis references

conclusions

139. The second step in problem formulation is:

a. Discussions

b. Statement of the problem

C. Survey

d. Understanding the nature of the problem

140. What does the term "longitudinal design' mean?

a. A study completed far away from where the researcher lives.

b. A study completed over a distinct period to map changes in social phenomena.

c. A study which is very long to read.

d. A study with two contrasting cases.