1. Which major organ lies deep to the right hypochondriac region?

A. The stomach

B. The spleen

C. The liver

D. The duodenum

2. Which plane of the body divides it into dorsal and ventral regions?

A. Transverse

B. Axial

C. Coronal

D. Sagittal

3. Why is the blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries less than in the aorta?

A. the expansion and contraction of the lungs pumps blood through its blood

vessels.

B. blood flowing to the lungs does not need to overcome gravity.

C. pulmonary resistance is greater than the peripheral resistance.

D. pulmonary resistance is less than peripheral resistance

4. Blood may flow in the aorta with a speed of 30 cm/s and in the capillaries with a speed of only 0.1
m/s. Why is there such a large difference in speed?

A. the capillaries are much further from the heart than the aorta.

B. the very narrow capillaries present a large resistance to blood flow compared to the large diameter
aorta.

C. the total cross-sectional area of the lumens of the capillaries is much greater than the cross-
sectional area of the aorta.

D. the length of the aorta is short compared to the length of a capillary.

5. Which of the following statements about the cardiovascular centre of the brain is FALSE?

A. it consists of the cardiac centre and the vasomotor centre.

B. output along fibers of the sympathetic nervous system Decrease heart rate.

C. output along fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system Decrease heart rate.

6. Which anatomical structures does the “conducting zone” of the lower respiratory tract contain?

A. Eustachian tube, larynx and trachea.

B. Primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi and bronchioles.

C. Nares, conchae, olfactory mucosa and sinuses.

D. Nasopharynx and larynx.

7. What is the function of the cilia on the cells that line the bronchial tree?

A. They help mix the inhaled fresh air with the residual air contained in the

bronchial tree.

B. They slow the movement of air to allow for effi cient exchange of gases.

C. They move the mucus on the cell surface up out of the bronchial tree.

D. They fi lter particles from inhaled air.

8. One of the following statements is correct. Which one?

A. The visceral pleura is attached to the chest wall and the parietal pleura is attached to the lung.

B. The two lungs and their associated structures are known as the pneumothorax.

C. The hilum is a serous membrane that surrounds each lung separately.

D. A negative pressure is maintained between the two lung pleura.

9. What term is applied to the volume of air that moves into the lungs while

breathing at rest?

A. anatomical dead space

B. inspiratory reserve capacity

C. tidal volume

D. residual volume

Severing the nerves that innervate the breathing muscles may lead rapidly to death. Will a spinal cord
break between the level of cervical vertebrae 6 and 7 leave the victim able to breathe? Choose the
answer with the correct reason.

A. No. The breathing muscles are innervated by spinal nerves that leave the spinal cord at the level of
each thoracic vertebra.
B. Yes. The diaphragm will work as it is innervated by nerves arising from C3 to C5.

C. No. The breathing muscles are innervated by autonomic impulses from the respiratory centre which
is located in the brain stem.

D. Yes. The muscles of breathing are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system which is unaffected
by damage to the somatic nervous system.

10. What term is applied to the exchange of dissolved gases between capillary blood and body tissues?

A. Internal respiration

B. External respiration

C. Ventilation

D. Cellular respiration

11. Between which two anatomical structures does the Larynx lie?

A. The nares and the choanae

B. The epiglottis and the trachea

C. The choanae and the glottis

D. The glottis and the epiglottis

12. Why is it that bronchioles can constrict and so reduce their diameter while secondary bronchi and
respiratory bronchioles cannot constrict?

A. Bronchioles have smooth muscle but no cartilage in their walls while secondary bronchi are
supported by cartilage.

B. Bronchioles have smooth muscle but no cartilage in their walls while respiratory bronchioles are
supported by cartilage.

C. Bronchioles have cartilage but no smooth muscle in their walls while secondary bronchi are
supported by cartilage.

D. Bronchioles have cartilage but no smooth muscle in their walls while respiratory bronchioles only
have smooth muscle in their wall

13. The walls of the following structures are all supported by cartilage except for

one of them. Which one?

A. bronchioles

B. trachea
C. bronchi

D. larynx

14. What constitutes the respiratory membrane?

A. the parietal and visceral pleurae and enclosed pleural fl uid

B. capillary and alveolar epithelial cells, their basement membranes and adjacent fl uid

C. the alveolar surface fl uid and epithelial cells

D. alveolar epithelial and septal cells, ciliated cells, macrophages and surfactant.

15. What is the “cribriform plate”?

A. That part of the nose with three folds of tissue called conchae.

B. The structure that separates the nose from the nasopharynx.

C. Part of the ethmoid bone through which olfactory nerves pass.

D. The nose structure through which air is warmed and humidified as it passes.

16. Which statement may be used to define a bronchiole?

A. They are the airways that branch from the left and right primary bronchi.

B. They are kept open by “C” shaped rings of cartilage.

C. Their walls have supporting cartilage between smooth muscle.

D. Their walls contain smooth muscle but no cartilage.

17. One statement below about the larynx is correct. Which one?

A. It has walls lined with ciliated cells

B. It has walls made of cartilage

C. It has walls made of bone

D. It has walls made of muscle

18. How is the diaphragm innervated?

A. By the parasympathetic division arising from the sacral region

B. By the spinal nerves arising from T5 to T10

C. By the phrenic nerves arising from C5 to C7

D. By the phrenic nerves arising from C3 to C5

19. The respiratory centre of the brain controls the respiratory muscles. Which of

the following does NOT happen?

A. An increase in carbon dioxide blood concentration stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors to signal

the respiratory centre.

B. A decrease in blood pH stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors to signal the respiratory centre.

C. Hydronium ions cross the blood-brain barrier to directly stimulate the central chemoreceptors of
the respiratory centre.

D. A decrease in oxygen blood concentration stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors to signal the

respiratory centre.

20. To what does the term “external respiration” refer?

A. ventilation of the lungs (breathing)

B. exchange of gases between alveolar air and lung capillaries

C. the production by cells of ATP from small molecules and oxygen

D. exchange of dissolved gases between capillary blood and body tissues

21. What distinguishes bronchioles from the larger bronchi?

A. bronchioles have no cartilage in their walls

B. bronchioles have smooth muscle in their walls

C. bronchioles collapse between exhalation and inhalation

D. the alveoli open onto these air passages

22. Which structures are included in the respiratory membrane?

A. alveolar fluid and surfactant

B. alveolar fluid, surfactant and epithelial cells of alveoli

C. alveolar fluid, surfactant, epithelial cells of alveoli and basement membrane of epithelial cell

D. alveolar fluid, surfactant, epithelial cells of alveoli, basement membrane of epithelial cell and
endothelial cell of capillary

23. How is the diaphragm innervated?

A. from the respiratory centre in concert with chemoreceptors that detect blood oxygen level

B. by the spinal nerves arising from thoracic vertebrae at the same level

C. by the phrenic nerve arising from vertebrae C3 to C5

D. by the vagus nerve arising from the medulla oblongata

24. What mechanism transports the largest portion of oxygen around the body?

A. oxygen is carried bound to plasma proteins

B. oxygen is transported in solution dissolved in blood plasma

C. oxygen is bound to haemoglobin within red blood cells

D. oxygen is transported as bicarbonate after reacting with water to form carbonic acid

25. Which structures constitute the “upper respiratory tract”?

A. nose, pharynx and larynx

B. larynx, epiglottis and bronchi

C. trachea, bronchi and bronchioles

D. terminal bronchioles, alveoli and pleurae

26. The lists below include of four respiratory tract structures. Which list has them in the order that
inhaled air would pass through them on the way to the lungs?

A. glottis, pharynx, conchae, trachea

B. nares, pharynx, larynx, conchae

C. conchae, pharynx, larynx, trachea

D. pharynx, conchae, trachea, glottis

27. What passes through the foramina of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone?

A. inhaled air on its way through the nose.

B. tubes that drain the sinuses of the facial bones.

C. nerve fibres associated with the sense of smell.

D. blood vessels that supply the nasal mucosa.

28. What function is served by the goblet/mucus cells of the bronchial “tree”?

A. they trap small inhaled particles.

B. they secrete mucus onto the surface of the airways

C. they increase the surface area available for gas exchange.

D. they move mucus up the bronchial tree.

29. The term “cellular respiration” is applied to:

A. exchange of gases in the lungs

B. ventilation of the lungs (breathing)

C. exchange of gases in the body tissues

D. the production of ATP in the cells

30. Trauma that severs the spinal cord between C6 and C7 will

A. mean that the phrenic nerve has been severed

B. mean that artifi cial ventilation will be required to sustain life

C. cause the diaphragm to lose innervation but allow the intercostal muscles to

operate

D. cause the intercostal muscles to lose innervation but allow the diaphragm to

operate

31. What is the function of ciliated cells in the lungs?

A. they form part of the respiratory membrane

B. to move mucus out of the bronchial tree

C. to secrete surfactant onto the lining of the alveoli

D. to phagocytose inhaled bacteria

32. What ensures that the lungs expand as the chest wall expands?

A. secreted surfactant

B. negative pressure between the pleura

C. serous liquid secreted by the pleura

D. the elastic recoil of the alveolar tissue

33. Which of the following statements is WRONG? The end products of:

A. protein digestion are transported to the liver via the hepatic portal vein

B. triglyceride digestion are transported to the liver via the lymphatic system

C. carbohydrate digestion are transported to the liver in the blood

D. triglyceride digestion are transported via the lymphatic system

34. One of the following processes is NOT part of mechanical digestion. Which

One?

A. hydrolysis

B. peristalsis

C. segmentation

D. mastication

35. Which type of cell produces hydrochloric acid?

A. Zymogenic cells

B. Parietal cells

C. Chief cells

D. Enteroendocrine cells

36. Which of the following glands are accessory organs of the digestive system?

A. adrenal glands

B. pancreatic islets

C. gastric glands

D. salivary glands

37. What is the role of gastrin in the digestive system?

A. to stimulate release of bile and pancreatic juice

B. to stimulate gastric secretion

C. to activate pepsinogen

D. to hydrolyse proteins to polypeptides

38. Which liver cells produce bile?

A. Kupffer cells

B. sinusoids

C. hepatocytes

D. the acini

39. What are the end products of carbohydrate digestion?

A. chylomicrons

B. amino acids
C. free fatty acids

D. monosaccharides

40. What feature of the small intestine enhances its ability to absorb digested food?

A. its large surface area

B. the gaps between adjacent epithelial cells

C. secretion of the hormone absorption

D. its longer length compared to the large intestine

41. Which of the following pairs of substances are NOT secreted by the stomach as part of “gastric
juice”?

A. hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen

B. hormones and intrinsic factor

C. nuclease and amylase

D. mucus and gastrin

42. What are some products of lipid digestion?

A. free bases and pentose sugars

B. fructose and glucose

C. amino acids and small peptides

D. free fatty acids and monoglycerols

43. From which of the gut structures below is most digested food absorbed?

A. duodenum

B. stomach

C. ileum

D. ascending colon

44. Which of the following is an active enzyme?

A. procarboxypeptidase

B. pepsin

C. telophase

D. trypsinogen
45. Why are the blood capillaries in the liver lobules so permeable?

A. to allow the products of digestion to leave the blood for processing in the

liver.

B. to allow fatty acids to leave the liver cells to enter the blood.

C. to allow plasma proteins that are synthesised in the liver to enter the blood.

D. to allow red blood cells at the end of their life to leave the blood to be

recycled in the liver.

46. Which layer of the gastro-intestinal tract is in contact with the contents of the

gut?

A. Muscularis externa

B. Mucosa

C. Serosa

D. Sub-mucosa

47. What is the name given to the process of moving the gut contents along the

tract in the right direction?

A. Peristalsis

B. Emesis

C. Segmentation

D. Deglutition

48. Which of the following substances is NOT produced by the cells of the gastric

glands?

A. mucus

B. hydrochloric acid

C. gastrin

D. pepsin

49. Which hormone stimulates the release of bile and pancreatic juice?

A. cholecystokinin

B. secretin

C. intestinal gastrin
D. pepsin

50. What molecules are the products of protein hydrolysis?

A. Monoglycerols and free fatty acids

B. Monosaccharides and disaccharides

C. Amino acids

D. Amino acids and small peptides

51. What happens to the products of lipid digestion in the gut?

A. They are actively transported into the epithelial cells lining the gut.

B. They diffuse into epithelial cells and are reconstituted into triglycerides.

C. They are transported to the liver by the hepatic portal vein.

D. They diffuse through the plasma membrane of epithelial cells, then diffuse into blood capillaries

52. Which blood cell fits the following description: multi-lobed nucleus, inconspicuous cytoplasmic
granules, most common type of blood cell except for red blood cells?

A. neutrophil

B. eosinophil

C. basophil

D. lymphocyte

53. Blood flow through the heart follows which of the sequences listed below?

A. from left atrium, then mitral valve, right ventricle, aorta, left ventricle

B. from right atrium, then mitral valve, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left ventricle.

C. from pulmonary trunk, then tricuspid valve, left atrium, aortic valve, aorta

D. from vena cava, then right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left ventricle, aorta.

54. What feature does cardiac muscle possess that is missing in skeletal muscle?

A. striations

B. multiple nuclei

C. voluntary control

D. intercalated discs

55. What is the name of the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle?

A. mitral valve
B. tricuspid valve

C. semi-lunar valve

D. aortic valve

56. What is meant by a diastolic blood pressure of 100 mm Hg?

A. the maximum pressure at the start of the aorta during ventricular contraction.

B. the minimum pressure at the start of the aorta before the start of a ventricular contraction.

C. the maximum pressure at the start of the aorta and pulmonary trunk during ventricular contraction.
D. The minimum blood pressure measured when resting.

57. What is the main function of mitral valve?

A. to increase the pressure inside the left atrium during systole

B. to prevent a drop in pressure in the aorta during diastole

C. to prevent backflow from left ventricle to left atrium during systole

D. to add additional blood from left atrium to left ventricle during atrial systole

58. How are cardiac cells mechanically attached to each other? By their:

A. mitochondria

B. intercalated discs

C. gap junctions

D. sarcolemma Answer is B: Intercalated discs attach adjacent cardiac cells to each other.

59. Starting at the APEX of the heart and moving superiorly, what is the correct order in which you
would encounter the four anatomical structures below?

A. valves, chordae tendonae, papillary muscle, ventricle

B. ventricle, papillary muscle, chordae tendonae, valves

C. papillary muscle, chordae tendonae, ventricle, valves

D. chordae tendonae, valves, ventricle, papillary muscle

60. Which period of the heart cycle is completely occupied by the ventricles relaxing?

A. atrial systole

B. atrial diastole

C. ventricular systole

D. ventricular diastole
61. Through which valve does blood flow when it moves from the right atrium into the right ventricle?

A. the tricuspid valve

B. the mitral valve

C. the pulmonary valve

D. the bicuspid valve

62. How is the fibrous pericardium attached to the surrounding structures?

A. laterally to the pleural surfaces of the lungs.

B. posteriorly to the sternum.

C. anteriorly to trachea, main-stem bronchi and oesophagus.

D. inferiorly to the clavicles.

63. A drug, such as cocaine, which stimulates the heart but does directly inhibit the heart’s ability to
relax, would be considered a:

A. Sympatholytic

B. Sympathomimetic

C. Parasympatholytic

D. Parasympathomimetic

64. Why is the myocardium of the right ventricle (RV) thinner than that of the left ventricle (LV)?

A. the RV pumps into the pulmonary circuit which has less resistance than the systemic circuit.

B. the RV pumps a smaller volume of blood than the LV.

C. the RV pumps blood out with a slower exit speed than the RV.

D. the RV chamber has a smaller volume than the LV. Answer is A: The RV pumps against a lesser
resistance, it does not need to be as muscular as the LV.

65. Through which valve does blood flow when it moves from the left atrium into the left ventricle?

A. the semilunar valve

B. the mitral valve

C. the tricuspid valve

D. the bicuspid valve

66. Which period of the heart cycle is completely occupied by the ventricles contracting?

A. atrial systole
B. atrial diastole

C. ventricular systole

D. ventricular diastole

67. Which statement below describes blood flow through the mitral valve?

A. blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle

B. blood flows from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery

C. blood flows from the left ventricle into the aorta

D. blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle

68. Which structure has the thickest wall?

A. the aorta

B. the inter-atrial septum

C. the left ventricle

D. the right ventricle

69. Which tissue is supplied with blood via the coronary arteries?

A. the lungs

B. the myocardium

C. the corona

D. the aorta

70. What is the innermost layer of the heart wall known as?

A. epicardium

B. pericardium

C. visceral pericardium

D. endocardium

71. Where is the mitral valve of the heart located? Between the

A. left atrium and left ventricle

B. left ventricle and the aorta

C. right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

D. right atrium and right ventricle

72. Choose the structure known as the pacemaker of the heart from the following.
A. atrio-ventricular node
B. sino-atrial node
C. atrio-ventricular bundle
D. the bundle of His

73. Choose one answer below that completes the sentence so that it makes a true statement: Positive
feedback:
A. is the way the body maintains homeostasis
B. is a response that opposes a stimulus
C. is a response that maintains a dynamic state of equilibrium
D. is a response that enhances a stimulus

74. The human body’s ability to maintain a relatively constant internal temperature is an example of
what?
A. Respiratory heat loss
B. Homeostasis
C. Vasodilation and evaporative heat loss
D. Positive feedback

75. Some of the body’s homeostatic responses rely on “negative feedback”. Which of the following
happens in negative feedback?
A. The body ignores changes in a physiological variable that are directed towards the set point for that
variable.
B. The body ignores changes in a physiological variable that are directed away from the set point for that
variable
C. The body’s response acts to oppose the change in the physiological variable.
D. The body’s response acts to enhance the change in the physiological variable Answer is C: “Negative”
refers
76. Homeostasis usually returns the body to a healthy state after stressful stimuli by
A. negative feedback
B. positive feedback
C. means of the immune system
D. means of the nervous system
77. What does the word “homeostasis” refer to?
A. the steps leading to repair of a blood vessel and the coagulation of blood
B. the maintenance of internal body conditions within narrow limits
C. the controlled response that opposes the infl uence that caused it.
D. the production of blood cells in active bone marrow
78. How does homeostasis return the body to a healthy state after stressful stimuli? By producing a
A. responses that oppose the stress
B. learned behaviour
C. refl ex action
D. buffering mechanism
79. What causes the body to maintain a relatively constant internal environment?
A. positive feedback
B. homeostasis
C. reflexes
D. pH buffers
80. Which of the following is NOT a bone of the axial skeleton?
A. deltoid
B. ethmoid
C. sphenoid
D. hyoid
81. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
A. haemopoiesis
B. haemostasis
C. peristalsis
D. glycogenolysis
82. In which of the following bone structures do osteocytes live?
A. osteons
B. canaliculi
C. lacunae
D. lamellae
83. Which bone is most superior?
A. manubrium
B. occipital bone
C. cervical vertebra #3
D. patella.
84. What is a “trochanter”?
A. part of a femur
B. a feature of the pelvis
C. a projection that forms part of an articulation
D. a groove in which lies a tendon
85. One of the functions of bones is to make red blood cells. What is this process known as?
A. Haemolysis
B. Haemopoiesis
C. Haematuria
D. Haemostasis
86. Where do osteocytes reside?
A. In lamellae
B. In endosteum
C. In trabeculae
D. In lacunae
87. Which of the following describes the movements known as pronation and supination?
A. The fl exing of the arm with respect to the forearm around the elbow.
B. The swivelling of the foot to the medial and lateral directions.
C. The twisting of the wrist while the elbow is held motionless.
D. The rotation at the shoulder that causes the arm to describe a cone shape.
88. Which of the following is NOT a “long” bone?
A. the humerus
B. the tibia
C. a carpal
D. a metacarpal
90. Which one of the following is a bone that is embedded within a tendon?
A. sphenoid
B. hyoid
C. ethmoid
D. sesamoid
91. Which bone of the head has a synovial joint?
A. The sphenoid
B. The maxilla
C. The mandible
D. The hyoid.
92. What are the bones of the fingers known as?
A. short bones
B. metacarpals
C. carpals
D. phalanges Answer is D: Phalanges (singular phalanx) are the bones of the fi ngers or toes. Metacarpals
are the bones of the hand.
93. Which of the following comprise seven bones?
A. Cervical vertebrae
B. Carpals
C. Cranial bones
D. Lumbar vertebrae
94. Which term below refers to a depression in a bone?
A. tuberosity
B. fossa
C. tubercle
D. condyle.
95. What body part is able to perform pronation and supination?
A. the forearm
B. the foot
C. the thigh
D. the wrist

96. Where are blood vessels in compact bone found?

A. in the canaliculi
B. in the periosteum
C. in the lacunae
D. in the central canal
97. Which of the following is NOT a depression or cavity on a bone?
A. tuberosity
B. facet
C. meatus
D. sinus
98. One of the following lists contains only bones in the appendicular skeleton. Which one?
A. patella, ethmoid, femur, coccyx, tibia
B. clavicle, fi bula, metatarsal, phalange, radius
C. humerus, scapula, occipital, metacarpal, sternum
D. ulna, radius, phalange, mandible, coxal
99. A synovial joint is also known as one of the following, which one? A. synarthrosis B. immovable joint
C. slightly moveable joint D. freely moveable joint Answer is D: Synovial fl uid is the lubricant that allows
friction free joint movement. A synarthrosis is an immovable joint.
100. What is contained within the medullary canal of a long bone?
A. trabeculae
B. lamellae
C. marrow
D. osteoblasts and osteoclasts