CEE MODEL Set Question & Solutions in Help For Entrance App.

PHYSICS As wavelength of red is the longest, the fringe

1 width of the red light will be maximum.
1. The dimensions for are same as 7. A metallic wire is stretched by 0.1% of its initial
oo
length. The longitudinal strain in the stretched
a. Acceleration b. Velocity
wire will be:
c.Time d. Energy
a. 10-4 b. 10-3
1. b
c. 10-2 d. 10-1
1
is the speed of electromagnetic wave in 7. b
oo l 0.1
vacuum from Maxwell's theory Longitudinal strain = l = 100 = 10-3
2. Which set of forces acting on a body can never
8. A capillary tube of radius r can support a liquid
produce zero acceleration?
of weight 6.28×10-4N. If the surface tension of
a. 10N, 10N, 20N b. 6N, 8N, 20N
the liquid is 5×10-2 N/m. The radius of the
c. 1N, 2N, 3N d. 7N, 12N, 20N
capillary must be:
2. d
a. 2.5×10-4m b. 1.5×10-3m
To produce zero resultant, the sum of magnitudes of
c. 2×10 m
-4 d. 2×10-3m
two smaller forces should be smaller than the third
(largest) vector. 8. d
a. 10 + 10 = 20 (equal) b. 6 + 8 = 14 > Force of surface tension acting upward = weight
10N balanced
c. 1 + 2 = 3 (equal) d. 7 + 12 = 19< or, 2rTcos = mg = 6.28×10-4
20N or, 2r × 5 × 10-2 × 1 = 6.28×10-4
3. The equation of a sound wave is y = 0.0015 sin r = 2×10-3m
(62.4x+316t). The wavelength of the wave is: 9. At what depth, the value of 'g' is same to that of
a. 0.2 unit b. 0.1 unit 'g' at a height 10 km?
c. 0.3 unit d. Cannot be calculated a. 20 km b. 10 km
3. b c. 40 km d. 80 km
x t
Comparing with y = a sin 2  + T
9. (a)
  From question,
2 gh = gd
we get = 62.4
 2h d
or, g1 – R  = g1 – R
2    
or,  = 62.4 = 0.1 unit
d = 2h
4. A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe = 2 × 10 km = 20 km
have their first overtone identical in frequency.  At the centre of earth, g is zero.
Their lengths are in the ratio of: 10. Unit of coefficient of viscosity is
a. 1:1 b. 1:2 a. N/(m2s–1) b. Nm2s–1
c. 2:1 d. 3:4 c. Nm /s 2 d. Nm2/s2
4. d 10. (a)
v
First overtone of closed pipe = 34l 
 Coefficient of viscosity is evaluated by,
 1 dv
v F = -A dx
First overtone of open pipe = 23l 
 2 Where F is viscous force,  is the coefficient of
v v
 34l  = 22l 
viscosity, A is the Area of cross-section of unit m2
 1  2 dv
and dx is velocity gradient of unit s–1.
l1 3
l =4
2 So,
5. The musical interval between the two notes of For unit of 
frequencies 240 Hz and 320 Hz is N =   m2  s–1
3 4 N
a. 4 b. 3  = m2s–1 = N/(m2s–1)
c. 40 Hz d. 80 Hz 11. A balloon of weight 300N is moving upward.
5. b Volume of balloon is 30 m3 and displacing air of
320 4 density 1.2 kg/m3. Then the force that carries the
Musical interval = 240 = 3
balloon upward is:
6. In a double slit experiment, the fringe width will a. 360N b. 60N
be maximum for: c. 230N d. 400N
a. Violet b. Red 11. (b)
c. Green d. Yellow  Upthrust on ballon (U) = Vg
6. b = 30 × 1.2 × 10
 = 360N
 NIMS CEE MODEL EXAM ONLINE TEST 2077-10-24
Weight of ballon (W) = 300N 1
18. A capacitor of capacitance F is connected in
Then, 
Force carrying ballon upward is = U – W an alternating circuit of frequency 50 Hz. The
= (360–300) N capacitive reactance is
= 60N a. 100  b. 50
12. The relation of escape velocity with orbital 1
velocity is given by c. 100  d. 104 
a. ve = vo b. ve= 2vo 18. d
1 1 1 1
c. ve = vo d. ve = 2 vo XC = = =
C 2fC 10-6
2×50 ×
2
12. d   
ve = 2gr vo = gR = 10 4

19. The half life of a radioactive substance is 30
ve = 2 vo
3th
13. The X-ray tube is operated at 50kV. The days. The time taken for 4 of original mass to
minimum wavelength is approx:
a. 0.5 Å b. 0.25 Å disintegrate is:
a. 15 days b. 30 days
c. 10 Å d. None
13. b c. 45 days d. 60 days
We have, 19. d
3 1
12400 12400 Undisintegrated part = 1- =
min = v = 50000 = 0.25 Å 4 4
m 1n 1
14. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass  = =
m0 2 4
M and radius R about its diameter is
  =  n=2
1 n 1 2
2 2 2 2
a. 3 MR2 b. 5 MR2
 Time taken for 2 half life = n× T1
3 7 2
c. 5 MR2 d. 5 MR2
= 2×30
14. b = 60 days
M.I of sphere through C.G perpendicular to plane 20. The energy liberated in a nuclear fission of 1 kg
2 of uranium is:
= M.I through diameter = 5 MR2 a. 2×1023 joules b. 9×1016 joules
15. Air is expanded from 50 litres to 150 litres at 2 c. 8×1014 joules d. 9×1020 joules
atmospheric pressure. The external work done 20. b
is: (1 atm. pressure =E = m
1×10 × c22)
5 N/m

a. 2×104J b. 2000 J = 1× (3×108)2 Joule = 9×1016 Joule

c. 200 J d. 2×10-8 J 21. At what angle should the two vectors 2F and
15. a 2 F act, so that the resultant force is F 10 ?
W = P(V2 - V1) a. 120 b. 90
= 2× 10 (150 - 50) × 10 J
5 -3 c. 60 d. 45
= 2 × 104 J 21. d
16. A charged particle of charge 2C experiences a FR = F12 + F22 + 2F1F2cos
force of 0.02N, what is the magnitude of electric F1 = 2F, F2 = 2F, FR = F 10
field?
F 10 = (2F)2 + ( 2F)2 + 2(2F)( 2F)cos
a. 104 N/C b. 0.04 N/C
Squaring,
c. 0.01 N/C d. 108 N/C
16. a 10 F2 = 4F2 + 2F2 + 4 2F2cos
10F2 - 6F2 1
F 0.02 cos = =
E = q = 2×10-6 = 10 N/C
4 4 2F2 2
0
17. Bending of tap water towards the rod is due to:   = 45
a. Magnetic field b. Electrodynamic charge 22. Which of the following does not change when a
projectile is fired at an angle with the
c. Electrostatic charge d. Doesn't bend
horizontal?
17. (c)
a. Momentum
Water, which is two hydrogen atoms & one
b. Kinetic energy
oxygen atom, is made up of charged particles,
c. Vertical component of velocity
with the two hydrogen atoms having positive
d. Horizontal component of velocity
charge. Because in liquid form of water, these
22. d
atoms are free to move around any which
direction, it can easily be affected by a static
electrical charge.
 In projectile motion, the horizontal component of heated to the same high temperature. Which one
velocity remains constant throughout the entire cools at the slowest rate when put in the same
motion. surrounding?
23. A beam of sound is 106 times as intense as that a. The sphere
with minimum audible intensity. The intensity b. The cube
level of the beam is: c. The circular plate
a. 106 dB b. 6 dB d. The rate of cooling will be same for all three
c. 60 dB d. 0.6 dB 28. a
23. c Rate of loss of heat  A
I
Intensity level = 10 log I  = 10lgo 106 = 60 dB Sphere cools at slowest rate
 0 3
29. The refractive index of glass is 2 and refractive
24. In Celsius temperature scale, the absolute zero index of diamond is 2.4. The refractive index of
of temperature is at: diamond with respect to glass will be
a. 0 C b. -32C a. 1.6 b. 3.6
c. 100 C d. -273.15C 2 2
24. d c. 3.0 d. 2.4 × 3
 
25. A constant volume gas thermometer shows 29. a
pressure reading of 50 cm and 90 cm of mercury d 2.4
at 0C and 100C respectively. When the pressure gd = = = 1.6
g 3/2
reading is 60cm, the temperature becomes:
3
a. 25C b. 40C 30. If the prism of angle 6 with refractive index 2
c. 15C d. 12.5
4
25. b is immersed in water of refractive index 3 , the
Pt = P0(1 + t)
deviation produced would be
or, Pt - P0 = P0t ............... (1)
a. 3 b. 45
and P100 - P0 = P0100 ....... (2)
c. 12 d. 2
Pt - P0 t pt - P0
P - P = 100  t = P - P × 100 30. b
100 0 100 0
g
60 - 50  = (wg - 1)A = A - 1
t = 90 - 50 × 100 = 25C w 
3/2
26. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of  d = 4/3 - 1 × 6º = 45
7
 
an ideal gas is 2R. The ratio of specific heat at 31. The magnifying power of an astronomical
  telescope is 8 and the distance between the two
constant pressure to that at constant volume is:
lenses is 54 cm, the focal length of eye lens and
9 7
a. 7 b. 5 the objective lens will be respectively:
a. 6 cm and 48 cm b.48 cm and 6 cm
8 5 c. 8 cm and 64 cm d.64 cm and 8 cm
c. 7 d. 7
31. b
26. b L = fo + fe = 54 cm
5 And,
Cp = 2 R Cp - Cv = R
fo
5 5 M = f = 8  fo = 8fe
e
2 R - Cv = R  Cv = 2 R 54
Cp (7/2)R 7  8fe + fe = 54  fe = 9 = 6cm
  = C = (5/2)R = 5
v fo = 8fe = 8 × 6 = 48 cm
27. The pressure exerted by a gas on the wall of 32. A lamp of 100 Cd power is suspended at a
enclosure is proportional to: distance of 6m above centre of circular table of
1 radius 8m. The illuminance at the corner of the
a. vrms b. v
rms table is
c. vrms d. vrms2 a. 0.6 lux b. 6 lux
27. d c. 1 lux d. 0.8 lux
1 32. a
P = 3 vrms2 Icos 100×(6/10)
L = r2 = 102 = 0.6 lux

28. A cube, a sphere and a circular plate made of

same material and having the same mass are
 NIMS CEE MODEL EXAM ONLINE TEST 2077-10-24
108×0.8
m2 = 8 = 10.8 gm
38. Energy stored in magnetic field of 2.5×10 -3 T is:
a. 2.48 J b. 0.48 J
c. 3.48 J d. 4.48 J
38. a
33. A thin mica sheet of thickness 2 × 10 -6 m and B2 (2.5 ×10-3)2
refractive index ( = 1.5) is introduced in the E= = = 2. 48J
2o 2 × 4 × 10-7
path of one of the waves. The wavelength of the
39. Ballistic galvanometer is used to measure:
wave used is 5000Å. The central bright
a. Current b. Charge
maximum will shift:
c. Potential difference d. Capacitance
a. 2 fringes upward b. 2 fringes downward
39. b
c. 10 fringes upward d. None of these
40. The permanent magnet is made from:
33. b
a. Diamagnetic b. Paramagnetic
( - 1)t c. Ferromagnetic d. Soft iron
S=
 40. c
(1.5 - 1) 2 × 10-6 41. The armature of a DC motor has 20 resistance.
= 5000 × 10-10 = 2 (Upward)
If it draws a current of 1.5 A when run by 220V
34. The power produced by a prism of small angle DC supply. The value of back emf induced in it
A: will be:
a. Depends of material of prism only a. 150 V b. 170 V
b. Depends on A only c. 180 V d. 190 V
c. Depends both on material and A 41. d
d. Depends neither on material nor on A E-e
34. a i=
R
Dispersive power of prism Given, R = 20, E = 220 V, i = 15 A
Angular dispersion v-R (v-R) 220 - e
 = Mean deviation = = 1.5 =
y (y-1) 20
 e = 190 V
35. Torque acting on electric dipole of dipole 42. Boron has two isotopes 5B10 and 5B11. If the
moment p placed in uniform electric field E is atomic weight of boron is 10.81, the ratio of 5B10
a. p × E b. p. E to 5B11 in nature is:
E.p 19 20
c. p × (E × p) d. p2 a. 81 b. 53
35. a 15 10
c. 10 d. 11
Torque acting on electric dipole is given by  = pE
sin 42. a
36. The terminals of a cell are short circuited, then At. t A =
n1A1 + n2 A2
terminal potential difference will be n1 + n2
E 10n1 + 11n2
a. E b. 2 or, 10.81 =
n1 + n2
c.  d. Zero n1 19
 =
n2 81
36. d
Terminal p.d. 43. The frequencies of X-rays, -rays and ultraviolet
V = I Rext rays are represented by a, b and c. Then
= I×0=0 a. a > b, b > c b. a < b, b > c
37. A certain charge liberates 0.8 g of oxygen. The c. a < b, b < c d. a > b, b < c
mass of silver liberated by the equal charge is: 43. b
a. 10.8 g b. 108 g 44. The relation between half life T1/2 of a
108 radioactive sample and its mean life  is:
c. 0.8 g d. 0.8 g a. T1/2= 0.693  b.  = 0.693 T1/2
37. a c.  = T1/2 d.  = 2.718 T1/2
16 44. a
N0
m1 E1 2 8 N = N0e-T  = N0e- T1/2
m2 E2 108 = 108
= = 2
ln2
1  T1/2= = 0.693 

0.8 8
or, m = 108
2
45. The mass of a proton is 1.007825 u and of M.W= 2 × VD= 2 × 46 = 92
neutron is 1.008664 u, then the binding energy At. wt. of X =14
per nucleon of 17Cl35 if its mass is 34.980 u is or, 14 × n + 16 × 4 = 92
a. 4.1 MeV b. 8.2 MeV or, 14n + 64 = 92
c. 16 MeV d. 8.2 KeV or, 14n = 92 - 64
45. b or, 14n = 28
Binding energy = [{Zmp + (A - Z) mn} - M] × 931 n=2
MeV 52. The initial volume is 400 ml at 100ºC, then find the
= [{17×1.007825 + (35-17) volume at 0ºC.
1.008665} - 34.980] × 931 a. 263ml b. 293 ml
= 288 MeV
c. 307 ml d. 363 ml
288
 BE per nucleon = = 8.2 MeV 52. (b)
35
V1 = 400 ml T1 = 373 k
46. Forbidden energy gap shows the order
V2 = ? T2 = 273 k
a. conductor < semi-conductor < insulator
V2 T 2
b. semi-conductor < conductor < insulator
V1 = T1 (At constant pressure)
c. conductor = insulator < semi-conductor
d. All the same T2 273
V2 = T × V1 = 373 × 400 = 293 ml
1
46. a
47. The value of : 53. "The relative lowering of vapour pressure is
a. is always less than 1 equal to the mole fraction of solute in the
b. lies always 20 and 200 solution", is known as
c. is always greater than 200 a. Henery's law
d. is always infinity b. Vant Hoff's law
47. b c. Rault's law
48. In order to rectify an alternating current, one d. Ostwald's dilution law
uses a: 53. (c)
a. thermo-couple b. junction diode Rault's law states that, "the relative lowering of
c. transistor d. oscilloscope the vapour pressure of a solution containing non
48. b volatile solute is equal to the mole fraction of
49. The space charge limited current in a diode is solute".
5mA at 20V. At what voltage, its value will be  If Po = Vapour pressure of pure solvent
40mA? Ps = Vapour pressure of solution
a. 160 V b. 20 V n = no. of moles of solute, N = no. of moles of
c. 40 V d. 80 V solvent.
49. d Po – Ps n
Then, P = N+n
3 o
i  V2 54. In schottky defect
2 a. Equal no of cations and anions occupy
 V  i3 interstitial space
V2 i2
2 b. Equal no of cations and anions are missing
=
V1 i1
3 from interstitial space
2 c. Density decreases
V2 =   3 × 20
40 d. Unequal no of cations and anions are missing
5 from interstitial space
= 80V
54. (b)
50. Hubble's law is expressed as v = speed of
Equal no of cations and anions are missing from
recession, r = distance of galaxy, H = Hubble's
interstitial space.
constant:
Schottky defect - equal no of anions & cations are
a. v = Hr2 b. v = Hr
missing from interstitial site.
c. v = H/r d. v = H/r2
 Occurs in ionic compound with high co-
50. b
ordination number.
CHEMISTRY
 Density of crystal decreases due to this defect.
51. A volatile oxide 'X' (non metal having At. wt. 14) 55. The number of subshells in the fifth energy
is XnO4. If Vapor density of oxide is 46, the value level is:
of n is:
a. 4 b. 11
a. 1 b. 2
c. 9 d. 5
c. 3 d. 4 55. (d)
51. (b)
 In nth energy level, there are n sub-shells.
V.D = 46,
 NIMS CEE MODEL EXAM ONLINE TEST 2077-10-24
56. Which of the following exerts weakest V1 = V
intermolecular force? N
a. NH3 b. He N2 = 10
c. H2O d. HCl V2 = 1 litre = 1000ml
56. (b) For complete neutralisation,
Ionic > covalent > co-ordinate > N1V1 = N2V2
H-bond > dipole interaction > Vander waal 50 1
 'He' molecules interact through Vander 53.19 × V = 10 × 1000
waal's bond so it is the weakest 53.19×1000
intermolecular force.  V = 50×10
57. The no. of gm equivalents of a solute dissolved = 106.38 ml
per litre of solution is called its: 62. Iodoform test is not answered by:
a. Molarity b. Normality a. CH3OH b. C2H5OH
c. Molality d. Mole fraction OH
57. (b) |
58. When concentration of reactant decrease, the rate c. CH3COCH3 d. CH3 – CH – CH3
constant: 62. (a)
a. Increases 63. Which of the following illustrates the law of
b. Decreases reciprocal proportion?
c. Remains same a. CH4, CO2, H2O b. H2S, CO, CO2
d. May increase or decrease c. P2O5, PCl3, PCl5 d. NH3, NO2, SO2
58. (c) 63. (a)
Rate constant of a reaction is independent of the (i) H2S, H2O and SO2
concentration of the reactants and its value is (ii) CH4, CO2 and H2O show law of reciprocal
constant at a particular temperature. proportions.
59. The solubility of the sparingly soluble salt CaF 2 N
64. pH of 10 NaOH will be
is 2.03 × 10–4 mole L–1. The solubility product is:
a. 4.12 × 108 b. 3.45 ×10–11 a. 10 b. 1
c. 4.04 × 10 –4 d. 8.20 × 10–8 c. 7 d. 13
59. (b) 64. (d)
3.45 × 10–11 4 1
No. of moles of NaOH = 40 = 10 = 10–1
CaF2  Ca++ + 2F–
S S 2S pOH = –log[OH–] = – log[10–1] = 1
Ksp = [Ca++] [F–]2 pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 1 = 13
= (S) (2S)2 65. The kinetic energy of a gram molecule of an
= 4S3 ideal gas depends upon
 3.45 × 10–11 a. Volume b. Pressure
60. Heat exchanged in a chemical reaction, at c. Temperature d. No of moles
constant temperature and pressure is called: 65.( c)
a. Entropy b. Enthalpy According to kinetic theory of gas," The average
c. Free energy d. Internal energy kinetic energy of a gas molecule is directly
60. (b) proportional to its temperature."
61. Volume of 5% (w/v) Na2CO3 required to 66. Which of the following set of quantum numbers
N is correct for 4f?
neutralize 1 ltr 10 H2SO4 is: 1
a. n = 4, l = 3, m = 1, s = +2
a. 102.68 b. 112.38
c. 104 d. 106.38 1
b. n = 4, l = 4, m = 1, s = –2
61. (d)
 Molecular mass of Na2CO3 = 106.38 gm 1
c. n = 4, l = 2, m = –2, s = –2
106.38
 Equivalent weight = 2 = 53.19 gm
1
d. n = 3, l = 3, m = –4, s = +2
Now,
5×1000 66. (a)
Normality of 5% (w/v) Na2CO3 = 53.19×100
 For quantum number of 4f, n = 4
50 i.e. principal quantum number is 4
= 53.19 N  Azimuthal quantum number (l) for
For resulting solution, s sub-shell (l) = 0
50 p sub-shell (l) = 1
N1 = 53.19 N d sub-shell (l) =2
 f sub-shell (l) = 3  Boiling points of acids are higher than
 Magnetic quantum number (m) - Ranges from corresponding alcohols, carbonyl compound,
–l to +l i.e. = –3 to +3 (for 4f). amines or acid derivatives due to greater
1 1 extent of hydrogen bonding.
 Spin quantum number(s) = + 2 or –2 73. Alkanes are represented by general formula
67. For the reaction H2 + I2  2HI a. Cn H2n b. Cn H2n+2
a. KP = KC b. KC > KP b. Cn H2n-1 d. Cn H2n+1
c. KC = 2KP d. KC < KP 73. (b)
67. (a) Alkanes = CnH2n+2
n Alkenes =CnH2n
KP = KC (RT)
Alkynes = CnH2n-2
n = nP– nR = 2–2 =0 74. Amino acids are produced by the hydrolysis of
0
KP = KC (RT) a. Fats b. Proteins
KP = KC c. Nucleic acids d. Carbohydrate
68. The radius of first orbit of hydrogen is 0.53Å. 74. (b)
The radius of second orbit would be: 75. The effect which occurs in double bond in
a. 1.06 Å b. 2.12 Å presence of attacking reagent is called as:
c. 0.53 Å d. 0.26 Å a. Hyperconjugation b. Electromeric effect
68. (b) c. Resonance d. Inductive effect
rn (H) = r0 (H). n2 75. (b)
= 0.53 × 22  Electromeric effect is temporary displacement
= 2.12 Å of shared pair of -electrons in the presence of
69. The no of '' and '' bond in 'C' atoms of CaC2 is: attacking reagent.
a. 1, 2 b. 2, 2   Electromeric effect comes to play
c. 3, 2  d. 4, 2  instantaneous at the demand of attacking
69. (a) reagent.
CaC2  [Ca+2] [C  C]2¯  Resonance is permanent and strongest of all
70. Reimer Tiemann reaction is used in the other effect in which delocalization of lone pair
manufacture of: of electrons and -pair of electrons takes place.
a. Benzaldehyde b. Salicyladehyde 76. A compound 'Y' is treated with acidified K 2Cr2O7
c. Phenol d. Alcohol and doesn't give 2,4 - DNP test is:
70. (b) a. Ethanol b. 2-methyl propan -2-ol
Reimer Tiemann reaction: c. Propan -2- ol d. Propanol
OH OH 76. (b)
70ºC CHO  Alcohols upon controlled oxidation with
+ CHCl3 + 3NaOH ––– +3 oxidizing agent like acidified
salicyaldehyde KMnO4/K2Cr2O7/CrO3 etc give carbonyl
NaCl + 2H2O compound.
71. The double strands (or double helix) structure of [O]
DNA is due to 1 alcohol  Aldehyde
a. Hydrogen bonding [O]
2 alcohol  Ketone
b. Electrostatic attraction [O]
c. Vander wall's force 3 alcohol  alkenes
d. Dipole – dipole interaction  Alkene doesn't give 2,4-DNP reaction.
71. (a) 77. The Cannizzaro's reaction is not given by:
The two strands of DNA are held together by H- a. Trimethyl aldehyde
bonding b. Acetaldehyde
72. Teflon is a polymer of c. Benzaldehyde
a. Tetrafluoroethylene d. Formaldehyde
b. Tetraiodoethylene 77. (b)
c. Tetrabromoethylene Cannizzaro's reaction is given by the aldehydes
d. Tetrachloroethylene which donot contain -hydrogen.
72. (a) 78. Nitration in Benzene is ...... reaction.
Teflon is obtained by the polymerization of a. An electrophilic substitution
tetrafluoroethylene. b. A nucleophilic substitution
OH....O c. An electrophilic addition
RC CR d. A nucleophilic addition
O.... HO 78. (d)
 NIMS CEE MODEL EXAM ONLINE TEST 2077-10-24
 Nitration, Halogenation and sulphonation of 84. b
Benzene are Electrophilic substitution. 85. In presence of sodium ethoxide two molecules of
79. When formaldehyde is polymerized in presence ethyl acetate interact to form acetoacetic ester
of dilute H2SO4, the compound obtained is: this process is known as:
a. Paraldehyde a. Aldol condensation
b. Metaldehyde b. Claisen condensation
c. Paraformaldehyde c. Polymerization
d. Trioxy formaldehyde d. Claisen Schmidt reaction
79. (d) 85. (b)
Trioxy formaldehyde Claisen condensation reaction
dil. H2SO4 Ester containing -hydrogen when treated with
3HCHO (HCHO)3 strong bases such as sodium ethoxide undergo
Formaldehyde Trioxy formaldehyde/ condensation form Ketoesters.
paradehyde 86. Azo dyes are prepared from
80. Aspirin is: a. Aniline b. Benzaldehyde
a. Analgesic b. Antipyretic c. Benzoic acid d. Phenol
c. Antiseptic d. Both (a) and (b) 86. (d)
80. (d) Azo dyes are prepared by coupling between a
Aspirin gives immediate relief from pain and diazonium salt, phenol or an amine.
fever so it is both analgesic and anti pyretic. 87. Commercial hydrogen is obtained from:
81. The conversion shows below may be described a. Coal gas b. Oil gas
as which of the following types of reaction? c. Marsh gas d. Producer gas
O OH 87. (c)
Producer gas: CO + N2
Marsh gas: CH4
a. addition
Ni or Cr
b. reduction CH4 + H2O (steam) o CO + 3H2
900 C
c. substitution Laness process
d. addition and reduction 3Fe+4H2O
81. (d) Fe3O4+ 4H2
 Here carbonyl compound is reduced to alcohol by 88. Which of the following gas is formed by the
addition of proton. action of water on sodium peroxide?
 Carbonyl compound shows nucleophilic addition a. H2 b. O2
reaction. c. Na d. H2O
88. (b)
2Na2O2 + 2H2O  4NaOH + O2
89. The oxide which on strong heating evolves
oxygen is
82. Which of the following will show geometrical a. Na2O b. Al2O3
isomerism? c. CaO d. BaO2
a. CH3CH = CHCH3 89. (d)
b. (CH3)2 C = C(CH3)2 2BaO2   2BaO + O2
c. (CH3)2 C = C(CH3)2 90. Zeolites are substances used to remove hardness
d. CH3 – CH = C(CH3)2 of water, their chemical formula is:
82. (a) a. Al silicate b. Ca(OH)2
If one of the two doubly bonded carbon atom c. MgCl d. SiO2
carries two identical atoms or groups, then the 90. (a)
molecule doesn't exhibit geometric isomerism. Permutit process of removal of permanent hardness
83. Which of the following will have least hindered of water uses zeolites i.e. Sodium Aluminium
rotation about carbon bond? orthosilicate (Na2Al2 Si2O8.xH2O).
a. Acetylene b. Hexachloroethane 91. Kf H2O2 is the order of
c. Ethane d. Ethylene a. 10–12 b. 10–14
83. (c) c. 10–16 d. 10–10
In ethane, there is Carbon -Carbon Single bond 91. (a)
which has lower hindrance to rotation than C-C 92. Elements of group 14:
double & triple bound. a. Exhibit oxidation state of +4
84. Methyl alcohol reacts with phosphorus b. Exhibit oxidation state of +2 and +4
trichloride to form c. Form M2– and M4+ ion
a. Methane b. Methyl chloride d. Form M2+ and M4+
c. Acetyl chloride d. Dimethyl ether 92. b
93. Which oxidation state is not shown by carbon in 101. c
its compound? Potato is modification of stem
a. –4 b. +4 Sweet potato is modification of root
c. +1 d. 0 102. The fruit that develops from inflorescence is
93. (c) called:
+ 1 oxidation state is not shown by carbon in its a. Simple fruit b. Aggregate fruit
compound c. Composite Fruit d. None
94. When lead nitrate is heated it produces 102. c
a. NO2 b. NO Multiple or composite fruit develops from
c. N2O5 d. N2O inflorescence.
94. (a) 103. Axile Placentation is characteristics of:

a. Malvaceae b. Solanaceae
2Pb(NO3)2 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
c. Liliaceae d. All
95. Phosphine may be produced by adding water to
103. d
some
So →Solanaceae
a. P4 O6 b. P4O10
Ma→ Malvaceae
c. HPO3 d. Ca3P2
95. (d) Li→ Liliaceae
Ca3P2+ 6H2O⇀PH3 A→ Axile placentation
96. Size of ionic species follows the order: 104. Hybridization followed by polyploidy is called
a. I¯ < I+ < I b. I¯ < I < I+ as:
a. Autopolyploidy b.Allopolyploidy
c. I < I < I¯
+ d. I+ < I¯ < I
96. (c) c. Aneuploidy d. Euploidy
Anions are larger in size whereas cations are 104. (b)
105. Tallest Pteridophytes is:
smaller than their parent atom.
a. Alsophila b. Cyathea
97. The valency of inert gas is
c. Pteris d. Dryopteris
a. zero b. 1
105. (a)
c. 2 d. 3
97. (a)  Largest Pteridophyte: Cyathea
The valency of inert gas is zero  Tallest Pteridophyte: Alsophila
98. In the froth floatation process used for the  Smallest Pteridophyte: Azolla
purification of ores, the ore particles float 106. Chloroplast is found in spores of
because a. Riccia and Marchantia
a. They are light b. Funaria and Equisetum
b. Their surface is hydrophobic c. Funaria and Sphagnum
c. They bear electrostatic charge d. Funaria and Anthoceros
d. They are insoluble 106. (b)
98. (b)  Chloroplast is found in Funaria and Equisetum.
In froth floatation process different particles have 107. The P/O ratio (No. of ATP produced to the no. of
different attraction for liquid and are O2 converted into H2O) in the first step of
preferentially wetted by these liquids. glycolysis is:
99. A metal never found in free state is: a. 1/1 b. 1/2
a. Au b. Cu c. 0/0 d. 1/0
c. Ag d. Fe 107. c
99. d P/O is 0/0 as neither ATP formed and nor O2 is
100. In order to prevent photo-oxidation, silver released.
nitrate is kept in 108. By weight, each gram of glucose yields .........
a. Bottle biological energy.
b. Light colored bottle a. 9.45 kcal b. 686 kcal
c. Steel container c. 4.3 kcal d. 4.1 kcal
d. Dark colored bottle 108. d
100. (d) One mole of glucose represent C6H12O6 (=180g).
AgNO3 is photosensitive compound and is 180g glucose yields 686 kcal and therefore 1g will
decomposed in light. yield 686/180=3.8 kcal or 15.94 KJ.
Dark colored glass doesn't allow the light to pass 109. Loading of phloem is related to:
through it. a. Increase of sugar in phloem
b. Elongation of phloem cell
BOTANY
c. Separation of phloem parenchyma
101. Sweet Potato is modification of:
d. Strengthening of phloem fibres
a. Stem b. Flowering axis
109. a
c. Root d. Bud
 NIMS CEE MODEL EXAM ONLINE TEST 2077-10-24
According to mass flow -hypothesis, sugar is  The monosporic embryo sac divides to form 7
translocated on mass through phloem along the celled and 8 nucleated embryo sac & also known
TP. This increase of sugar in phloem during as Polygonum type of embryo sac.
translocation is called loading of phloem. 117. Rejection of transplanted organ is due to
110. Guard cell of the stoma is a. T-cells b. B-cells
a. Kidney shaped c. Eosinophils d. Neutrophils
b. Convex shaped 117. (a)
c. Longitudinal and cylindrical shaped  It is due to cellular immunity. T-lymphocytes
d. Dumb bell shaped play role in tissue rejection.
110. (a) 118. Tea is a good stimulant due to presence of
 Guard cell of stoma of normal dicot plant is a. Morphine b. Ephedrine
kidney shaped. c. Nicotine d. Caffeine
 Guard cell of stoma of normal monocot plant is 118. (d)
dumb-bell shaped. 119. Tendrils exhibit/twinning of tendrils is due to:
111. Sugarcane shows high efficiency of CO2 fixation a. Seismonasty b. Thigmotropsim
because it performs c. Heliotropism d. Diageotropism
a. Calvin cycle b.EMP pathway 119. (b)
c. Hatch & Slack pathway d. TCA cycle 120. Gaseous exchange in submerged plant occurs by:
111. (c) a. Hydathodes b. Lenticels
 C4 or Hatch & Slack Pathway was 1st observed in c. Stomata d. General surface
sugarcane by Kortschak. 120. (d)
 Common in a number of tropical plants both Guttation: Loss of water in the form of water
monocots & dicots. E.g. Maize, Sugarcane, drops along with minerals from hydathode.
Sorghum, Millet, Amaranthus etc. 121. Monoecious plant is
112. Which of the following component of plants a. Haploid
have no nucleus? b. Diploid
a. Companion cells b. Sieve tube c. Both male and female
c. Pith d. Cambium d. Male or female
112. (b) 121. (c)
 Primary function of sieve tube is to transport 122. Sexual reproduction does not occur in
sugars & other important molecules necessary for a. Nostoc b. Riccia
plants. c. Ulothrix d. Rhizopus
 Sieve tube cells are analogous to RBCs of 122. (a)
mammals, both living but enucleated at maturity. Nostoc is blue green algae also called as
113. Jewels of plant kingdom are: cyanobacteria.
a. bacteria b. diatoms 123. True alternation of generation is found in:
c. dinoflagellates d. none a. Spirogyra b. Mucor
113. (b) c. Selaginella d. All of these
 Jewels of plant kingdom: Diatoms 123. (c)
 Jewels of pond: Volvox Selaginella is a Pteridophyte.
114. Which one is a true moss? 124. Which group contains fibre yielding plant of
a. Cord moss b. Bog or peat moss economic importance?
c. Hair cap moss d. All of the above a. Gossypium, Crotalaria and Hibiscus
114. d b. Gossypium, Agave and Cassia
True mosses: c. Gossypium, Cassia and Lycopersicum
 Funaria–Cord moss d. Gossypium, Brassica and Nicotiana
 Polytrichum–Hair cap moss 124. (a)
Gossypium hirsutum–cotton
 Sphagnum – Peat or Bog moss
Seed surface (testa) of different species of
115. Xylem in root is
Gossypium is source of cotton fibres.
a. endarch b. exarch
Crotalaria juncea - Sun hemp
c. mesarch d. none
115. (b) Fibres from phloem and pericycle of stem (bast
fibres) are obtained, used for making ropes, mats,
 Xylem is endarch in stem and exarch in roots.
etc.
Hibiscus cannabinus – Deccan
116. Total number of haploid nuclei in an embryo sac
is Hemp (Secondary phloem) of its stem is source of
a. 4 b. 8 bast fibre.
c. 6 d. 3 125. Shrubs have strong wood trunks and they are
116. (b) free supporters. These types of shrubs are found
mainly in:
 a. Tropical rain forest c. 80s d. 70s
b. Temperate forest 132. (d)
c. Alpine habitat  70s type of ribosomes is found in prokaryotic cell
d. None and in mitochondria and chloroplast of eukaryotic
125. (a) cell.
 Lianas are woody climbers and twinners; 133. Transfer of genetic information from a molecule
commonly found in tropical rain forest. of DNA into mRNA is known as:
126. The total number of base pairs in one turn in B- a. Transcription b. Translation
DNA is: c. Replication d. Transduction
a. 11 b. 12 133. (a)
c. 10 d. 9  Central dogma indicates unidirectional flow of
126. (c) information from DNA to mRNA by the process
 B-DNA is the most common DNA. of transcription, and then to protein by the
 One complete turn of B-DNA helix contains 10 process of translation.
base pairs and the length between successive base 134. The most striking example of point mutation is:
pairs is 3.4 Å. a. Thalassemia b. Sickle-cell anaemia
127. In mitochondria which is present c. Colour blindness d. Haemophila
a. Oxysomes b. Quantasomes 134. (b)
c. Thylakoids d. Cisternae 135. When the unwanted introns are removed and
127. (a) functional regions (exons) are responsible for
 Oxysome is found in mitochondria, contains coding in transcription. This process is known as
ATPase acting as centre of ATP synthesis during a. Transduction b. Splicing
oxidative phosphorylation. c. Inducing d. Constitutive genes
128. The marker enzyme of mitochondria is 135. (b)
a. Pyruvate dehydrogenase  m- RNA formed after transcription is called
b. Aldolase primary transcript
c. Amylase Primary transcript
d. Succinic dehydrogenase
128. (d)
Coding part Non-coding part
 The enzymes that are found only in mitochondria - exon - Intron
are called marker enzymes of mitochondria.
 Removal of introns from exon is called splicing
 All enzymes of Krebs cycle are found in matrix 136. Height, skin colour etc are controlled by
except succinic dehydrogenase that is found in a. Polygenic inheritance
inner membrane. b. Mutation
129. Enzyme required for removing RNA primer c. Pleiotropism
during DNA replication is:
d. Multiple allelism
a. Ligase b. DNA polymerase III
136. (a)
c. DNA polymerase I d. Primase
 When regulation of a trait is carried out by genes
129. (c)
of more than one locus, it is called polygenic
 RNA primers are removed by DNA polymerase I.
inheritance. E.g. Skin colour, Height: IQ in
130. What will be the codons in m-RNA if the DNA
animals and Number, size of flowers, fruits and
codes are ATG-CAG?
seed, Kernel colour of wheat in plant.
a. UCA–TUA b. TCA–GTC
137. In Terai region, the most common disease that
c. TAC–GTC d. UAC–GUC
appears among the Tharu community is:
130. (d)
a. Phenylketonuria
 Codons on m-RNA
b. Sickle cell anemia
DNA m-RNA
c. Hemophilia
A U d. Colour blindness
T A 137. (b)
G C  Sickle cell anemia is due to point mutation and is
C G very common among the Tharu community in
131. The enzymes of glycolysis are located in the: Terai of Nepal.
a. Cytoplasm b. Lysosomes 138. The most stable ecosystem is
c. Mitochondrion d. Nucleus a. Forest b. Mountain
131. (a) c. Desert d. Ocean
 Enzymes of glycolysis is present in the cytoplasm. 138. d
132. The type of ribosomes found in prokaryotic cells 139. Insectivorous plants grow in the soil which is
are: deficient in :
a. 100s b. 60s
 NIMS CEE MODEL EXAM ONLINE TEST 2077-10-24
a. Calcium b. Nitrogen c. Starch d. Sugars
c. Water d. Magnesium 146. (c)
139. b Coelenterates are carnivorous. They can digest all
140. The pyramid of energy is always food except starch.
a. Erect b. Inverted Amoeba cannot digest fat.
c. Linear d. Pyramidal 147. Gonophore in Fasciola hepatica is located at:
140. a a. The posterior most tip of the body
ZOOLOGY b. One-third part from the anterior region
141. Number of spermatozoa formed by single c. Anterior to the acetabulum
primary spermatocyte is: d. Posterior to the acetabulum
a. 1 b. 2 147. (c)
c. 4 d. 3 148. Which of the following is the first unisexual
141. (c) phylum?
■ So, 1 primary spermatocyte forms 4 spermatozoa. a. Platyhelminthes b. Nemathelminthes
■ 1 secondary spermatocyte forms 2 spermatozoa c. Protozoa d. Arthropoda
142. Which of the following characterizes chordates? 148. (b)
a. A ventral heart with dorsal blood vessel Nemathelminthes is the first unisexual phylum.
b. A dorsal heart with ventral blood vessel 149. Avian influenza is:
c. A ventral heart with dorsal & ventral blood a. Type A b. Type B
vessel c. Type C d. Type D
d. A dorsal heart with dorsal & ventral blood 149. (a)
vessel 150. Ascaris lumbricoides belongs to the phylum:
142. (c) a. Nematoda b. Platyhelminthes
Diagnostic characters of chordates: c. Mollusca d. Echinodermata
a. Notochord (endodermal): 150. (a)
■ Present between nerve chord &  Ascaris belongs to the phylum Nematoda.
alimentary canal.  Nematoda is the first unisexual phylum.
■ It is replaced by vertebral column in 151. Chief excretory matter in Echinodermata is
adult. a. Ammonia b. Urea
b. Dorsal tubular Nerve cord c. Uric acid d. Amino acid
c. Pharyngeal Gill slits 151. (a)
d. Post anal tail The chief excretory product of animals living in
143. Cornea transplantation is most successful water is ammonia.
because: 152. Respiratory organ in scorpion is:
a. It is avascular i.e. devoid of blood supply a. Book gills b. Book lungs
b. It is dead cell c. Gills d. Skin
c. It respires from atmosphere 152. (b)
d. It does not need nutrition Respiratory organ of Crustacea is body surface or
143. (a) gills
 Due to avascular nature i.e. due to devoid of Respiratory organ of Chilopoda is Trachea
blood supply, cornea transplantation is most Respiratory organ of Diplopoda is Trachea.
successful. Respiratory organ of Insecta is Trachea
 Embryonic origin of the cornea, lens and retina is Respiratory organ of Arachnida is Book lungs.
ectodermal. 153. Tendon connects:
 Cornea transplantation is known as keratoplasty. a. Bone to bone b. Bone to muscles
144. Trichomonas is: c. Muscle to muscles d. Bone of cranium
a. Intercellular b. Endoparasite 153. b
c. Pathogenic d. All Tendon connects bone to muscles and muscles to
144.(d) muscles.
Trichomonas vaginalis inhabits vagina of women Ligament connects bone to bone.
and causes the disease known as leucorrhoea. 154. Which of the following is formed during
145. Collar cells are found in: gastrulation?
a. Earthworm b. Mollusca a. Archenteron b. Notochord
c. Coelenterata d. Sponges c. Myotome d. Nerve cord
145. (d) 154. a
Germ – layers are seen in gastrula.
 The collar cells are characteristics of phylum
155. Long sightedness is caused by:
Porifera.
a. Shortening of Eyeball b.Decrease in focal
146. Hydra can digest all types of food except:
length
a. Proteins b. Fats
 c. Enlargement of Eyeball d. Increase in siliceous spicules or fine spongin fibres or of
focal length both, located in the mesohyal layer. Spicules
155. a are made up of calcium carbonate.
Short–sightedness is caused by elongation of 163. Renal portal system is most developed in
eyeball. a. Fishes b. Amphibians
156. Glucose is stored in the form of glycogen in: c. Reptiles d. Birds
a. Kidney b. Liver 163.a
c. Pancreas d. Spleen 164. Which of these is a tree frog?
156. (b) a. Rana b. Hyla
Glycogen is the reserve food material for c. Alytes d. Necturus
animals where it is stored in liver in human beings. 164. b
157. The organ of hearing is the: Hyla: tree frog
a. Semicircular canal b.Organ of corti Rhacophorus: flying frog
c. Tympanic d. Oval window Alytes: Midwife toad
157. (b) 165. "Anal style" is found in
158. Typhoid is the diseases in which there is a. Male cockroach b. Female cockroach
infection of c. Both d. None
a. Large intestine b. Small intestine 165. (a)
c. Stomach d. Duodenum This can be remembered as "men (male) are
158. b stylish".
Widal test is the diagnostic test for typhoid. 166. Ascaris lumbricoides belongs to the phylum:
159. The muscular diaphragm is the characteristics of: a. Nematoda b. Platyhelminthes
a. Pisces b. Reptiles c. Mollusca d. Echinodermata
c. Aves d. Mammals 166. (a)
159. (d)  Ascaris belongs to the phylum Nematoda.
The presence of diaphragm is the typical  Nematoda is the first unisexual phylum.
characteristic of mammals. 167. Water balance in Paramecium is maintained by
160. Which of the following system is called the the action of contractile vacuoles. This is an
pacemaker system of our human body? example of:
a. SA Node b. AV Node a. Phagocytosis b. Homeostasis
c. Parasympathetic system c. Locomotion d. Perspiration
d. Sympathetic system 167. b
160. (c) 168. Which of the following cannot be prevented by
Parasympathetic nervous system is active during vaccination?
rest or relaxed state. Due to this reason, the a. Cervical cancer b. Asthma
parasympathetic nervous system is also known as c. Hepatitis B d. Measles
the "pacemaker of body". Parasympathetic 168. (b)
system is essential to life  It is an allergic attack of breathlessness
SA Node is called the pacemaker of the heart. associated with bronchial obstruction or spasm of
AV Node is called the pacesetter of the heart. smooth muscle (contraction), characterized by
161. Longest cranial nerve is coughing, difficult breathing and wheezing.
a. Abducens b. Vagus  It cannot be cured by vaccination
c. Hypoglossal d. Auditory 169. Typhoid is the diseases in which there is
161. (b) infection of:
 Musician's nerve: Ulnar a. Large intestine b. Small intestine
 Labourer's nerve: Median c. Stomach d. Duodenum
 Jacobson's nerve: Branch of IX cranial nerve 169. b
 Dentist's nerve: Trigeminal Typhoid is also called as the enteric fever.
 Longest nerve: Sciatic Widal test is the diagnostic test for typhoid.
 Pathetic nerve: Trochlear Infection localizes in Payer's patches of ileum
162. Endoskeleton of sponge is made up of: (lymphoid tissues of ileum).
a. Cartilage 170. Leydig cells are present in:
b. Bones a. Ventricles of heart
c. Calcareous spicules, silicious spicules & b. Ventricle of brain
spongin fibres c. Connective tissue of testes
d. All d. Bartholin's gland
162. c 170. (c)
 Almost all sponges possess an internal
skeleton. It may consist of calcareous or
 NIMS CEE MODEL EXAM ONLINE TEST 2077-10-24
 Leydig cells, also known as interstitial cells of - It's deficiency leads to bleeding disorder.
Leydig, are found adjacent to the seminiferous 178. The thoracic cavity & abdominal cavity are
tubules in the testicles. formed by partition termed as
 They produce testosterone in the presence of a. Diaphragm b. Rib
luteinizing hormone. c. Abdominal wall d. All
171. Malaria is caused by: 178. (a)
a. Female Anopheles Diaphragm is an exclusive character of mammals
b. Female Culex and is a skeletal muscle required for respiration.
c. Plasmodium 179. The pH of human urine is:
d. Male Anopheles a. 2.00 b. 6.00
171. c c. 7.5 d. 8.00
172. On smoking, oral cancer is due to: 179. (b)
a. Nicotine  Urine is slightly acidic (pH 6.0) and has
b. Tar higher specific gravity than water (1.020 –
c. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon 1.030).
d. Carbon monoxide 180. Sudden appearance of an ancestral character is
172. (c) called:
 Cigarette smoke is an extremely complex a. Evolution b. Mutation
chemical composition, contains numerous c. Atavism d. Heredity
toxic & carcinogenic substances, including 180. c
many polycyclic aromatic compounds. Sudden heritable change is called mutation.
 Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons are Sudden appearance of an ancestral character is
carcinogenic. atavism.
173. Embryologists can presume the future organs of MAT
the embryo in: 181.
a. Blastula b. Pre-gastrula 16 12 ?
c. Morula d. Post-gastrula 15 11 8
173. (a) 14 10 7
 Presumptive areas are evident in blastula. In a. 8 b. 9
gastrula, germ layers are formed. In post gastrula, c. 12 d. 14
organogenesis starts. 181. b
 A fate map may be defined as a topographical 182. The four children in the Speer family are Owen,
surface of the blastula with respect to the ultimate Chadd, Steph and Daria. Chadd is neither the
fate of that area in the adult frog. youngest nor the oldest. Daria is one of the two
174. Feeding stage of Plasmodium is: older children. Steph is the youngest child.
a. Merozoite b. Trophozoite Owen is often taken care of by his older brother
c. Sporozoite d. Gametocyte and sister. Who is the oldest child?
174. b a. Chadd b. Daria
175. Paired spermatheca occurs in pheretima in c. Owen d. Steph
segments 182. b
a. 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9
b. 6/7, 7/8, 8/9, 9/10
c. 14/15, 15/16, 16/17, 17/18
d. 1/2, 2/3, 3/4, 4/5, 17/18
175. a
176. In Pheretima, which of the following is not a
part of male reproductive system?
a. Seminal vesicle
b. Spermathecae 183. Which figure below, when placed together with
the figure given, will make a complete circular
c. Spermiducal funnel
disc with no overlap and no spaces?
d. Vas efferentia
176. b
177. Bleeding disorder is due to deficiency of:
a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin K
177. (d)
- It is required for the synthesis of clotting
factors II, VII, IX and X; hence also called
anti-hemorrhagic factor.
 +7 +8 +9 +10
3rd letter : D  K  S  B  L
+11

188. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys,
Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there
are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are
after him in rank?
a. 3 b. 7
c. 12 d. 23
188. c
Let the number f boys be x. Then, number of girls
= 2x
 x + 2x = 60 or 3x = 60 or x = 20
183. b So, number of boys = 20 and number of girls = 40
184. A four-digit integer, WXYZ, in which W, X, Y Number of girls ahead of Kamal in rank = 9
and Z each represent a different digit, is formed Number of girls behind Kamal in rank = (40 – 9) =
according to the following rules. 31
1. X = W + Y + Z  Number of boys behind Kamal in rank = (43 –
2. W = Y + 1 18) = 31
3. Z = W – 5 189. In the questions you are given a combination of
What is the four-digit integer? alphabets and/or numbers followed by four
a. 5940 b. 4950 alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose the
c. 9540 d. 4059 alternative which most closely resembles the
184. a mirror image of the given combination.
185. All widgets are red. Everything red is square. NATIONAL
Some things that are red have holes in the
middle. Therefore:
a. All widgets are square
b. Everything with a hole in the middle is a
widget 189. b
c. Neither of the above is true 190.
d. Both a and b are true 31 17 87
185. a 68 19 56
All widgets are square 91 22 50
186. 2, 7, 27, 107, 427, ? 10 142 ?
a. 1262 b. 1707 a. 3 b. 6
c. 4027 d. 4207 c. 7 d. 9
186. b 190. c
The pattern is +5, +20, +80, +320, …….i.e. + (5 × The sum of the numbers in each column is 200.
12), + (5 × 22), + (5 × 42), + (5 × 82), ……  Missing number = 200 – (87 + 56 + 50) = 7
So, missing term = 427 + (5 × 16 2) = 427 + 1280 = 191. A person has 4 coins each of different
1707 denomination. What is the number of different
187. Which term will replace the question mark in sums of money the person can form (using one
the series? or more coins at a time)?
ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL,? a. 26 b. 15
a. ZKU b. ZKW c. 12 d. 11
c. ZAB d. XKW 191. b
187. b 192. A group of friends went to a hotel for dinner.
Clearly, the individual letters of the terms of t he After having their dinner, the bill amount was of
given series follow the pattern shown below: Rs. 2400. So, they decided to distribute it into
equal amount for each. In the group two friends
+3 +4 +5 +6 forget to bring their purses along with them. So,
1st letter : A  D  H  M  later
Z on it has been decided that Rs. 100 has to be
+7 paid more by the other friends on calculated
S
amount. So, total how many friends were there
in the group?
+5 +6 +7 +8
2nd letter : B  G  M  T  a. K 16 b. 8
+9 c. 12 d. 21
B
192. b
W
 NIMS CEE MODEL EXAM ONLINE TEST 2077-10-24
193. A cube is to coloured in such a way as to avoid a. 6 b. 5
the same colour on adjacent surfaces. What is the c. 3 d. 4
minimum numbers of colour you will require? 197. d
a. Four b. Three The missing number is 4-simply add the first and
c. Two d. Five second rows to get the third raw
193. b 6 5 9 2 7
194. The figure on the left has been distorted. What + 1 4 3 5 4
did it look like before it was distorted? 8 0 2 8 1
198. Replace the letter WHAT with numbers, so that
sum is corrected.
WHAT
×A
8H5W
a. 4027 b. 2740
c. 1236 d. 8054
198. a
4027
×2
8054
199. Find the number of triangles from the given
adjoining figure?

a. 22 b. 20
c. 16 d. 14
199. c
194. c 200. Puspa is shorter than Sakshi but much taller
than puja. Preety is tallest and Anjali is litter
shorter then puspa. Which one is shortest?
a. Puspa b. Puja
195. Which of the following statements must be true
c. Preety d. Anjali
when a2 < b2 and a & b are not 0?
200. b
a 2 b2
i. Puja < Anjali < Puspa < Sakshi < Preety
a < a
1 1
ii. a2 > b2
iii. (a + b) (a – b) > 0
a. I only b. II only
c. II and III d. I and II
195. b
196. Fill in the blank.
A E I
D I N
I O ?
a. U b. V
c. W d. X
196. a
+4 +4
A E  I
+5 +5
D  I N
+6 +6
I  O U
197. Fill in the blank.
6 5 9 2 7
1 4 3 5 ?
8 0 2 8 1