JEE (Advanced) 2024 Physics Paper 2
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
Q.1 A region in the form of an equilateral triangle (in x-y plane) of height L has a uniform magnetic
⃗ pointing in the +z-direction. A conducting loop PQR, in the form of an equilateral triangle
field 𝐵
of the same height 𝐿, is placed in the x-y plane with its vertex P at x = 0 in the orientation shown in
the figure. At 𝑡 = 0, the loop starts entering the region of the magnetic field with a uniform velocity
𝑣 along the +x-direction. The plane of the loop and its orientation remain unchanged throughout its
motion.
Which of the following graph best depicts the variation of the induced emf (E) in the loop as a
function of the distance (𝑥) starting from 𝑥 = 0?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Answer: (A)
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Q.2 A particle of mass 𝑚 is under the influence of the gravitational field of a body of mass 𝑀 (≫ 𝑚).
The particle is moving in a circular orbit of radius 𝑟0 with time period 𝑇0 around the mass 𝑀. Then,
the particle is subjected to an additional central force, corresponding to the potential energy
𝑉c (𝑟) = 𝑚𝛼/𝑟 3 , where 𝛼 is a positive constant of suitable dimensions and 𝑟 is the distance from
the center of the orbit. If the particle moves in the same circular orbit of radius 𝑟0 in the combined
gravitational potential due to 𝑀 and 𝑉c (𝑟), but with a new time period 𝑇1 , then (𝑇12 − 𝑇02 )/𝑇12 is
given by
[𝐺 is the gravitational constant.]
3𝛼 𝛼 𝛼 2𝛼
(A) 𝐺𝑀𝑟2 (B) 2𝐺𝑀𝑟2 (C) (D)
0 0 𝐺𝑀𝑟02 𝐺𝑀𝑟02
Answer: (A)
Q.3 A metal target with atomic number 𝑍 = 46 is bombarded with a high energy electron beam. The
emission of X-rays from the target is analyzed. The ratio 𝑟 of the wavelengths of the 𝐾𝛼 -line and
the cut-off is found to be 𝑟 = 2. If the same electron beam bombards another metal target with
𝑍 = 41, the value of 𝑟 will be
(A) 2.53 (B) 1.27 (C) 2.24 (D) 1.58
Answer: (A)
Q.4 A thin stiff insulated metal wire is bent into a circular loop with its two ends extending tangentially
from the same point of the loop. The wire loop has mass 𝑚 and radius 𝑟 and it is in a uniform
vertical magnetic field 𝐵0 , as shown in the figure. Initially, it hangs vertically downwards, because
of acceleration due to gravity 𝑔, on two conducting supports at P and Q. When a current 𝐼 is passed
through the loop, the loop turns about the line PQ by an angle 𝜃 given by
(A) tan 𝜃 = 𝜋𝑟𝐼𝐵0 /(𝑚𝑔) (B) tan 𝜃 = 2𝜋𝑟𝐼𝐵0 /(𝑚𝑔)
(C) tan 𝜃 = 𝜋𝑟𝐼𝐵0 /(2𝑚𝑔) (D) tan 𝜃 = 𝑚𝑔/(𝜋𝑟𝐼𝐵0 )
Answer: (A)
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JEE (Advanced) 2024 Paper 2
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains THREE (03) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get −2 marks.
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JEE (Advanced) 2024 Paper 2
Q.5 A small electric dipole 𝑝0 , having a moment of inertia I about its center, is kept at a distance r from
the center of a spherical shell of radius R. The surface charge density is uniformly distributed on
the spherical shell. The dipole is initially oriented at a small angle 𝜃 as shown in the figure. While
staying at a distance r, the dipole is free to rotate about its center.
If released from rest, then which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
[𝜀0 is the permittivity of free space.]
(A) The dipole will undergo small oscillations at any finite value of r.
(B) The dipole will undergo small oscillations at any finite value of r > R.
2𝜎𝑝0
(C) The dipole will undergo small oscillations with an angular frequency of √ at r = 2𝑅.
𝜖0 𝐼
𝜎𝑝
(D) The dipole will undergo small oscillations with an angular frequency of √100𝜖0 𝐼 at r = 10R.
0
Answer: (B), (D)
Q.6 A table tennis ball has radius (3/2) × 10−2 m and mass (22/7) × 10−3 kg. It is slowly pushed
down into a swimming pool to a depth of 𝑑 = 0.7 m below the water surface and then released
from rest. It emerges from the water surface at speed 𝑣, without getting wet, and rises up to a height
𝐻. Which of the following option(s) is(are) correct?
[Given: 𝜋 = 22/7, 𝑔 = 10 m s −2, density of water = 1 × 103 kg m−3,
viscosity of water = 1 × 10−3 Pa-s.]
(A) The work done in pushing the ball to the depth 𝑑 is 0.077 J.
(B) If we neglect the viscous force in water, then the speed 𝑣 = 7 m/s.
(C) If we neglect the viscous force in water, then the height 𝐻 = 1.4 m.
(D) The ratio of the magnitudes of the net force excluding the viscous force to the maximum
viscous force in water is 500/9.
Answer: (A), (B), (D)
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Q.7 A positive, singly ionized atom of mass number 𝐴M is accelerated from rest by the voltage 192 V.
Thereafter, it enters a rectangular region of width 𝑤 with magnetic field 𝐵 ⃗ 0 = 0.1𝑘̂ Tesla, as
shown in the figure. The ion finally hits a detector at the distance 𝑥 below its starting trajectory.
[Given: Mass of neutron/proton = (5/3) × 10−27 kg, charge of the electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C.]
Which of the following option(s) is(are) correct?
(A) The value of 𝑥 for 𝐻 + ion is 4 cm.
(B) The value of 𝑥 for an ion with 𝐴M = 144 is 48 cm.
(C) For detecting ions with 1 ≤ 𝐴M ≤ 196, the minimum height (𝑥1 − 𝑥0 ) of the detector is 55 cm.
(D) The minimum width 𝑤 of the region of the magnetic field for detecting ions with 𝐴M = 196 is
56 cm.
Answer: (A), (B)
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JEE (Advanced) 2024 Paper 2
SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on-
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Q.8 The dimensions of a cone are measured using a scale with a least count of 2 mm. The diameter of
the base and the height are both measured to be 20.0 cm. The maximum percentage error in the
determination of the volume is ______.
Answer: 3
Q.9 A ball is thrown from the location (𝑥0 , 𝑦0 ) = (0,0) of a horizontal playground with an initial speed
𝑣0 at an angle 𝜃0 from the +𝑥-direction. The ball is to be hit by a stone, which is thrown at the
same time from the location (𝑥1 , 𝑦1 ) = (𝐿, 0). The stone is thrown at an angle (180 − 𝜃1 ) from
the +𝑥-direction with a suitable initial speed. For a fixed 𝑣0 , when (𝜃0 , 𝜃1 ) = (45° , 45° ), the stone
hits the ball after time 𝑇1 , and when (𝜃0 , 𝜃1 ) = (60° , 30° ), it hits the ball after time 𝑇2 . In such a
case, (𝑇1 /𝑇2 )2 is ______.
Answer: 2
Q.10 A charge is kept at the central point P of a cylindrical region. The two edges subtend a half-angle
at P, as shown in the figure. When = 30∘ , then the electric flux through the curved surface of
the cylinder is Φ. If = 60∘ , then the electric flux through the curved surface becomes Φ/√𝑛,
where the value of n is______.
Answer: 3
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Q.11 Two equilateral-triangular prisms P1 and P2 are kept with their sides parallel to each other, in
vacuum, as shown in the figure. A light ray enters prism P1 at an angle of incidence 𝜃 such that the
outgoing ray undergoes minimum deviation in prism P2. If the respective refractive indices of P1
3 3 𝜋
and P2 are √2 and √3, then 𝜃 = sin−1 [√2 sin (𝛽)], wherethe value of is ______.
Answer: 12
Q.12 An infinitely long thin wire, having a uniform charge density per unit length of 5 nC/m, is passing
through a spherical shell of radius 1 m, as shown in the figure. A 10 nC charge is distributed
uniformly over the spherical shell. If the configuration of the charges remains static, the magnitude
of the potential difference between points P and R, in Volt, is ______.
1
[Given: In SI units 4πϵ = 9 × 109 , ln 2 = 0.7. Ignore the area pierced by the wire.]
0
Answer: 171
Q.13 A spherical soap bubble inside an air chamber at pressure 𝑃0 = 105 Pa has a certain radius so that
the excess pressure inside the bubble is Δ𝑃 = 144 Pa. Now, the chamber pressure is reduced to
8𝑃0 /27 so that the bubble radius and its excess pressure change. In this process, all the
temperatures remain unchanged. Assume air to be an ideal gas and the excess pressure Δ𝑃 in both
the cases to be much smaller than the chamber pressure. The new excess pressure Δ𝑃 in Pa is
______.
Answer: 96
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JEE (Advanced) 2024 Paper 2
SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
PARAGRAPH I
In a Young’s double slit experiment, each of the two slits A and B, as shown in the figure, are oscillating
about their fixed center and with a mean separation of 0.8 mm. The distance between the slits at time t is
given by 𝑑 = (0.8 + 0.04 sin 𝜔𝑡) mm, where 𝜔 = 0.08 rad s −1. The distance of the screen from the slits is
1 m and the wavelength of the light used to illuminate the slits is 6000 Å. The interference pattern on the
screen changes with time, while the central bright fringe (zeroth fringe) remains fixed at point O.
Q.14 The 8th bright fringe above the point O oscillates with time between two extreme positions. The
separation between these two extreme positions, in micrometer (𝜇m), is ______.
Answer: [598.00 to 602.00]
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JEE (Advanced) 2024 Paper 2
PARAGRAPH I
In a Young’s double slit experiment, each of the two slits A and B, as shown in the figure, are oscillating
about their fixed center and with a mean separation of 0.8 mm. The distance between the slits at time t is
given by 𝑑 = (0.8 + 0.04 sin 𝜔𝑡) mm, where 𝜔 = 0.08 rad s −1. The distance of the screen from the slits is
1 m and the wavelength of the light used to illuminate the slits is 6000 Å. The interference pattern on the
screen changes with time, while the central bright fringe (zeroth fringe) remains fixed at point O.
Q.15 The maximum speed in 𝜇m/s at which the 8th bright fringe will move is __________.
Answer: [23.50 to 24.50]
PARAGRAPH II
Two particles, 1 and 2, each of mass 𝑚, are connected by a massless spring, and are on a horizontal
frictionless plane, as shown in the figure. Initially, the two particles, with their center of mass at 𝑥0 , are
oscillating with amplitude 𝑎 and angular frequency 𝜔. Thus, their positions at time 𝑡 are given by
𝑥1 (𝑡) = (𝑥0 + 𝑑) + 𝑎 sin 𝜔𝑡 and 𝑥2 (𝑡) = (𝑥0 − 𝑑) − 𝑎 sin 𝜔𝑡, respectively, where 𝑑 > 2𝑎. Particle 3 of
mass 𝑚 moves towards this system with speed 𝑢0 = 𝑎𝜔/2, and undergoes instantaneous elastic collision
with particle 2, at time 𝑡0 . Finally, particles 1 and 2 acquire a center of mass speed 𝑣cm and oscillate with
amplitude 𝑏 and the same angular frequency 𝜔.
Q.16 If the collision occurs at time 𝑡0 = 0, the value of 𝑣cm /(𝑎𝜔) will be __________.
Answer: [0.74 to 0.76]
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JEE (Advanced) 2024 Paper 2
PARAGRAPH II
Two particles, 1 and 2, each of mass 𝑚, are connected by a massless spring, and are on a horizontal
frictionless plane, as shown in the figure. Initially, the two particles, with their center of mass at 𝑥0 , are
oscillating with amplitude 𝑎 and angular frequency 𝜔. Thus, their positions at time 𝑡 are given by
𝑥1 (𝑡) = (𝑥0 + 𝑑) + 𝑎 sin 𝜔𝑡 and 𝑥2 (𝑡) = (𝑥0 − 𝑑) − 𝑎 sin 𝜔𝑡, respectively, where 𝑑 > 2𝑎. Particle 3 of
mass 𝑚 moves towards this system with speed 𝑢0 = 𝑎𝜔/2, and undergoes instantaneous elastic collision
with particle 2, at time 𝑡0 . Finally, particles 1 and 2 acquire a center of mass speed 𝑣cm and oscillate with
amplitude 𝑏 and the same angular frequency 𝜔.
Q.17 If the collision occurs at time 𝑡0 = 𝜋/(2𝜔), then the value of 4𝑏 2 /𝑎2 will be ________.
Answer: [4.20 to 4.30]
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
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