CRI 189: Fire Protection and Arson Investigation

1. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard is called:

a. Abatement
b. Mitigation
c. Fire Suppression
d. Fire Prevention

2. A normally open device installed inside an air duct system which automatically
closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire is known as:
a. Smoke Detector
b. Fire Damper
c. Fire Sprinkler
d. Heat Detector

3. The fire triangle is composed of the following except:

A. heat
B. fuel
C. oxidation
D. oxygen

4. When solids are heated, it causes the material to decay and produce fire gases.
This process of thermal decomposition is known as:
E. vaporization
F. flame
G. fire
H. pyrolysis

5. In general, fire occurs only in the phase.

A. gas
B. solid
C. liquid
D. none of the above

6. The type of combustion where fuels are converted to a vapor phase before
burning.
A. Non-flaming combustion
B. Flaming combustion
C. Smoldering combustion
D. Chemical combustion

7. Non-flaming combustion primarily involves the oxidation of this type of fuels.

A. Liquid fuels
B. Gas fuels
C. Solid fuels
D. Plasma fuels

8. Mang Kanor is business owner applying for a new business permit. What
essential document must be secured from the Chief, BFP or his/her
representative before the permit is issued?
A. Zoning clearance
B. Fire Safety Clearance
C. Fire Safety Inspection Certificate
D. Fire Safety Evaluation Clearance
9. An arson case involves a public building where the damage caused exceeds
6,000 pesos and the purpose of the fire was to destroy evidence used in legal
proceedings. Which penalty is appropriate for the offender?
A. Reclusion perpetua
B. Reclusion temporal
C. Prision mayor
D. Prision correccional

10. A person sets fire to a warehouse containing explosive materials in an inhabited

area, resulting in significant damage. What should be the focus of the Fire Arson
Investigator’s report regarding the case’s legal classification?
I. The damage amount alone
J. The intent behind the fire and the specific property burned
K. The number of witnesses interviewed
L. The exact date and time of the fire

11. In a case where an individual is accused of deliberately setting fire to their own
property to defraud an insurance company, the prosecution needs to establish
several key points to prove guilt. Which aspect should be the primary focus to
effectively demonstrate the defendant's intent and the criminal nature of the act?
M. The defendant’s history of previous insurance fraud cases, which might
show a pattern of behavior.
N. Evidence demonstrating both the act of arson and the specific intent to
defraud the insurance company, including any direct connections between
the fire and the insurance claim.
O. The total amount of insurance coverage involved in the claim, which might
indicate potential financial gain from the fraud.
P. The defendant’s financial statements, which could show a financial motive
but do not directly prove the fraudulent act itself.

12. In a case where a building was intentionally set on fire by a group of three
individuals with the goal of causing harm to the property owner, how should the
court classify the special aggravating circumstance?
Q. Committed with intent to gain
R. Committed for the benefit of another
S. Motivated by spite or hatred
T. Committed by a syndicate

13. A concentration of oxygen needed for the continuation of flaming combustion.

A. 10%
B. 8%
C. 20%
D. 16%

14. Fire Officer I Pogi Gonzaga has recently been promoted to Fire Officer II. To
officially effect this promotion, who is responsible for the appointment, and what
additional step is required?
A. The Regional Director will make the appointment, and it must be attested
by the Civil Service Commission (CSC).
 B. The Chief of the Fire Bureau will make the appointment, and it must be
approved by the President.
C. The Secretary of the DILG will appoint the individual, with endorsement
from the Chairman of the CSC.
D. The immediate superior of the Fire Officer III will make the appointment,
and no further attestation is needed.

15. A building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks
adequate exits or fire escapes.
a. Firetrap
b. Fire hazard
c. Enclosed structure
d. Hazard zone

16. A uniformed or non-uniformed personnel of the BFP responsible for fire safety
inspection and assessment of fire hazards.
a. Fire safety officer
b. Fire marshal
c. Fire investigator
d. Fire safety inspector

17. The portion of a roadway or public way that should be kept open and
unobstructed at all times for the expedient operation of firefighting units.
a. Traffic lane
b. Firefighters road access
c. Fire lane
d. Escape route

18. It is issued upon determining that the required fire safety construction is in place,
and fire protective and/or warning systems are properly installed in accordance
with the approved plans and specifications and in compliance with RA 9514 and
its RIRR.
a. Occupancy Permit
b. Fire Safety Evaluation Clearance
c. Fire Safety Inspection Certificate
d. Building Permit

19. A Fire Inspector is being considered for promotion to Fire Senior Inspector.
According to the appointment process, who makes the appointment and what is
the necessary step before it is finalized?
A. The Secretary of the DILG makes the appointment, with endorsement from
the Chairman of the CSC.
B. The Chief of the Fire Bureau makes the appointment, with recommendation
from their immediate superiors and attestation by the CSC.
C. The President makes the appointment, with proper recommendation from the
Secretary of the DILG and endorsement by the Chairman of the CSC.
D. The Civil Service Commission makes the appointment, based on
recommendations from the Chief of the Fire Bureau.

20. When evaluating a case where the fire started simultaneously in multiple parts of
a building and the building was insured for a value much higher than its actual
worth, what does this suggest for the prosecution’s case?
U. The fire is considered accidental
 V. The case may involve prima facie evidence of arson
W. The insurance policy is irrelevant
X. The building’s condition affects the legal outcome

21. An investigator finds multiple fire patterns, including a clean burn and an alligator
pattern, at the scene of a fire. What does this combination of patterns most likely
indicate about the origin of the fire?
A. The fire started due to a flammable liquid spread evenly across the area
B. The fire was ignited by a solid incendiary device
C. The fire was likely set intentionally with a controlled spread
D. The fire was accidental and spread uncontrollably

22. Marcus Albitus had recently withdrawn a significant portion of his valuables from
his apartment before it was set on fire. If you are the fire investigator on case,
what could be the primary motive behind this action?
Y. The individual was seeking economic gain through insurance fraud
Z. The individual was attempting to conceal evidence of another crime
AA. The individual wanted to intimidate the property owner
BB. The individual was acting out of spite or hatred towards someone

23. In an investigative approach, this should be the focus of investigation if multiple

fires have occurred in various locations owned by the same person, and the
properties were heavily insured.
CC. Investigating the person's financial stability and business
transactions
DD. Examining the fire patterns and evidence of accelerants used
EE. Interviewing the property owner about their fire safety measures
FF. Analyzing the insurance policy details and claim history

24. Imagine you are designing a fire investigation report. What factors should be
prioritized to effectively determine the origin and cause of a fire?
A. Witness testimonies and visual inspection of the fire site
B. Analysis of fire patterns, presence of incendiary materials, and motive
C. Financial records and background checks on property owners
D. Interviews with the fire department and reviews of previous fire reports

25. FO3 Ledor Ramos was the Investigator-on-case on a fire incident that happened
in their area of responsibility. He prepares a Spot Investigation Report (SIR)
immediately after responding to a fire that should primarily focus on collecting
information to ensure the report meets all required criteria that includes:
A. Gathering detailed witness statements and compile a summary of the fire's
impact
B. Collecting basic information about the fire incident, including location,
date, and initial observations
C. Analyzing the fire patterns and chemical residues found at the scene
D. Obtaining high-resolution photos of the fire damage for later analysis

26. If an investigator is completing a Final Investigation Report (FIR) after resolving a

case, how should the FIR be structured to ensure it adheres to the required
submission standards?
 A. Include a detailed timeline of events and a list of potential suspects
B. Present the case resolution, evidence, and a formal recommendation,
signed by both the FAI and the Chief of the Investigation Office
C. Summarize the findings and submit it along with a request for further
investigation
D. Provide only the final conclusions and evidence collected during the
investigation

27. In the case of a Minimal Damage Fire Incident (MDFI), what specific details
should you include in the FIR-MDFI to accurately reflect the nature of the fire?
A. The full extent of the damage and a list of potential suspects
B. Details of the incident where the fire caused minimal damage and did not
affect structural integrity or result in casualties
C. A detailed analysis of the fire patterns and causes
D. The financial implications of the fire and insurance claims

28. A fire breaks out in a residential building. The fire investigator arrives at the
scene and needs to prioritize their initial tasks. What should they do FIRST?
A. Interview witnesses in the immediate vicinity.
B. Develop a hypothesis about the cause of the fire.
C. Secure the fire scene to prevent unauthorized entry.
D. Take photographs of the fire damage from outside the building.

29. The following are natural causes of fire, one is not.

A. Short circuit
B. Radiation of sunlight
C. Spontaneous heating
D. Lightning

30. Fires resulting from human error, such as negligence, do not fall under which
classification?
A. Intentional
B. Natural
C. Accidental
D. Incendiary

31. Class B fires, involving flammable liquids, cannot be extinguished by which

method?
A. By applying water
B. By shutting off the gas supply
C. By using foam or dry chemicals
D. By removing oxygen

32. The incipient stage of fire development is not characterized by which of the
following?
A. Fire is confined to the material first ignited
B. Fire may self-extinguish
C. Fire is fully developed and rapidly spreads
D. Radiant heat warms adjacent fuel
33. Which of the following methods is not used to extinguish Class K fires in
commercial kitchens?
A. Cooling the fire with water
B. Using agents that cause saponification
C. Turning off the heat source
D. Applying foam or dry chemicals

34. The fully developed stage of fire development is characterized by following,

except?
A. Maximum energy release
B. Limited only by fuel and oxygen availability
C. Rapid growth of fire
D. Decrease in fuel consumption

35. This method is not the primary method of extinguishing a Class A fire.
A. Cooling the fire to reduce the temperature of the fuel
B. Shutting off the gas supply
C. Removing oxygen from the fire
D. Using water or foam

36. Evaluate the following responsibilities related to the role of a fire scene
photographer. Which of these tasks does NOT align with the core duties of a fire
scene photographer?
A. Photographing the fire scene before investigators enter to ensure
comprehensive documentation of initial conditions.
B. Capturing images of the surrounding neighborhood to provide context for
the fire scene.
C. Conducting interviews with witnesses to gather personal observations and
testimonies.
D. Creating detailed photographic records of the fire scene to support the
investigation and documentation process.
37. Which of the following situations would require the immediate issuance of a stop-
work order?
A. A building owner failed to pay inspection fees
B. Construction continued in violation of approved plans and permits
C. The building is under renovation for aesthetic purposes
D. Minor repairs are being conducted without authorization

38. A fire investigator relies on circumstantial evidence to build a case against a

suspect. In order for a conviction to be based on circumstantial evidence, it must:
A. Be based solely on witness testimonies
B. Exclude all other possible explanations for the fire
C. Lead directly to the suspect without any doubt
D. Prove the suspect had financial difficulty

39. During an investigation, if a Fire Arson Investigator (FAI) finds that a fire was
caused intentionally, what is the appropriate action?
A. Immediately issue a Property Recovery and Clearing Permit (PRCP)
B. File a criminal complaint and withhold the PRCP until cleared by the
prosecutor
C. Clear the fire scene for immediate use
 D. Submit the Evidence Collection and Recovery Record (ECRR)

40. After extinguishing the main body of fire, the overhaul operation aims to:
A. Clear debris from the structure
B. Completely eliminate reflash potential by removing smoldering materials
C. Perform a damage assessment
D. Ventilate toxic gases

41. Fire spread analysis during an investigation is crucial because it helps the
investigator to do which of the following except?
A. Document the fire response
B. Identify the point of fire origin
C. Identify the probable cause of fire
D. Analyzing the fire behavior

42. When determining the best location for vertical ventilation, it is important to plan
an escape route in case of:
A. Equipment failure
B. Lack of oxygen
C. Roof collapse or other emergencies
D. Entry issues

43. Tampering with fire alarms and falsely activating them could result in which of the
following consequences?
A. The fire department will ignore future alarms.
B. Fire protection systems will be compromised.
C. Immediate evacuation will be triggered, causing panic.
D. Increased fire safety compliance.

44. Which of the following accurately describes spontaneous combustion?

A. Ignition of a material without an external heat source
B. Ignition of a material by direct flame contact
C. Ignition of a material due to friction
D. Ignition of a material by an electric spark

45. Determining the nature of flashover, this phenomenon is best characterized by:
A. The point when a fire is just starting
B. A sudden spread of flames across a confined space
C. The final stage of fire decay
D. A small, contained fire

46. Recognizing the signs of imminent flashover. What sign typically indicates that a
flashover is about to occur?
A. Decrease in room temperature
B. Rapid increase in room temperature
C. Absence of smoke
D. Decrease in oxygen levels

47. In identifying the nature of a backdraft, this best describes a backdraft.

A. A sudden explosion of hot gases
 B. A slow burn of materials
C. A cooling down of fire
D. A gradual decrease in fire intensity

48. Comprehending the factors leading to a backdraft. Which condition can increase
the likelihood of a backdraft occurring?
A. Adequate ventilation
B. Poor ventilation with an influx of fresh air
C. Continuous water application
D. Use of fire-retardant materials

49. Jonh Paul has been discharged his previous employment due to misconduct but
has otherwise met all qualifications for the fire service. Is he eligible for
appointment as Fire Officer 1?
A. Yes, he is eligible to apply as long as they have passed the required tests.
B. No, he is not eligible due to the dishonorable discharge.
C. Yes, he can be appointed but must provide a letter of recommendation to
counter the discharge.
D. No, unless he has a backer.

50. If a candidate has a weight that is 6 kilograms less than the standard weight for
their height and age, the best thing should they do to meet the qualifications.
A. They are disqualified and cannot apply.
B. They should adjust their weight to be within 5 kilograms of the standard
requirement.
C. They are eligible to apply but may be required to improve their weight
condition.
D. They can apply without meeting the weight requirement due to the cultural
community waiver.

51. Jushua Acoba, a native and member of a cultural minority in the North is an
applicant in the BFP. However, his height falls short on what is required. What is
would be the status of his application in line with height requirement?
A. He is ineligible due to not meeting the height requirement.
B. He is eligible provided he can secure the documentary requirements for
height waiver.
C. He needs to provide documentation proving their cultural community status.
D. He can apply but must meet the height requirement within one year.

52. If a current fire service member is 52 years old and has served for 22 years but
has not yet met the educational qualification, the best option for the BFP
Personnel is?
A. They should be separated from service due to not meeting the educational
requirement.
B. They are eligible for retirement with benefits as they meet the age and
service time criteria.
C. They are given an additional year to meet the educational requirement.
D. They can apply for an extension based on their years of service.
53. The temperature that is critical for initiating combustion.
A. Flash point
B. Fire point
C. Kindling temperature
D. Ignition temperature

54. Recognizing the manifestation of fire, the term describes the evolution of heat
and light from burning substances.
A. Flame
B. Pyrolysis
C. Fire
D. Rapid oxidation

55. Identify the class symbol for fire extinguishers used for Class A fires.
A. Red square
B. Green triangle
C. Blue circle
D. Yellow star

56. Comprehending the class symbol that represents fire extinguishers, blue circle is
what type of fire extinguisher?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

57. It is a method of fire extinguishment wherein you will cool the temperature of the
fire environment, usually done by using water.
A. Extinguishment by Oxygen Dilution
B. Extinguishment by Fuel Removal
C. Extinguishment by Temperature Reduction
D. Extinguishment by Chemical Inhibition

58. It is a classification of fuels wherein it includes ordinary combustible materials

that are usually made of organic substances such as wood and wood-based
products; includes some of those synthetic and/or inorganic materials.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

59. It is the temperature at which the fuel continues to burn after it has been ignited
that even if the source of ignition has been removed, the fuel continues to burn.
A. Flash Point
B. Fire Point
C. Ignition Point
D. Free Radicals

60. It is a transfer of heat which requires physical contact between the bodies or
portions of bodies exchanging heat.
A. Conduction
 B. Radiation
C. Convection
D. Heat Transfer

61. It is the willful and intentional setting of fire to destroy property and/or the
preparation of building for burning.
A. Arson
B. Premeditated fire
C. Intentional fire
D. Incendiary fire

62. It is better known as dust explosion. This may happen when a metal post that is
completely covered with dust is going to be hit by a lightning.
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Biteback
D. Flashfire

63. It is a mechanical device made of metal containing chemicals, fluids, or gases for
stopping fires, the means for application of its contents for the purpose of putting
out fire before it propagates, and is capable of being readily moved from place to
place.
A. Fire Extinguisher
B. Fire Detection Alarm System
C. Fire Extinguishment
D. Fire Sprinkler

64. This phase of fire operations is equivalent to the “reconnaissance” phase of

military operations.
A. salvage
B. overhaul
C. cover exposures
D. size-up

65. The following are prohibited acts under the Revised Fire Code of the Philippines
of 2008,except:
A. Giving false or malicious fire alarms
B. Removing, destroying, tampering or obliterating any authorized mark, seal,
sign or tag posted or required by the fire service
C. Locking fire exits during period when people are inside the building
D. Abandoning or leaving a building or structure by the occupant or owner with
appropriate safety measures.

66. If a building is declared a fire hazard by the Chief, BFP his duly authorized
representative, what must be done by the responsible party within the initial 10 to
15 days after receiving the notice/order?
A. File an appeal to extend the compliance period
B. Comply with the required fire safety measures within the specified period
C. Wait for the Chief, BFP to conduct another inspection
D. Request a temporary permit for continued use of the building
67. After receiving notice of non-compliance and failing to abate the fire hazard
within the required time frame, what action will the Chief, BFP or his duly
authorized representative take?
A. Close down the building without further warning
B. Issue a fine and extend the compliance period
C. Put up a sign declaring the building a fire hazard
D. Allow limited use of the building until the next inspection

68. If the fire hazard is not abated even after the extended 15-day period, what final
measure can the Chief, BFP or his duly authorized representative take?
A. Issue another warning to the responsible party
B. Order the closure of the building or structure
C. Allow temporary occupancy with safety restrictions
D. Issue a temporary compliance certificate

69. A building has been declared a public nuisance due to a serious fire hazard. If
the assessed value of abatement is more than ₱100,000, how much time is given
for the responsible party to address the violation?
A. 10 days
B. 30 days
C. 15 days
D. 5 days

70. What action is taken by the Chief, BFP if the responsible party does not abate a
fire hazard within 5 days after a public nuisance declaration?
A. The building is declared a "FIRETRAP," and a sign is posted
B. The building is partially closed but can still operate
C. The Chief, BFP issues a second warning with another 5-day extension
D. The case is forwarded to local authorities for further action

71. Under what condition can a single-family dwelling be inspected for dangerous or
hazardous conditions?
A. After the occupants vacate the property
B. With consent of the occupant or lawful court order
C. Only during annual inspections
D. Without any permission from the occupant

72. A Fire Safety Evaluation Clearance (FSEC) will only be released if the building
plans and specifications conform with RA 9514. If a building design fails to meet
the Fire Code’s structural fire safety requirements, how would this impact the
issuance of the FSEC?
A. The building would automatically pass inspection as long as it has a
functioning fire alarm system.
B. The Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP) would require additional fees but would
still issue the FSEC.
C. The BFP would withhold the FSEC and issue Notice of Disapproval until the
design complies with the fire safety requirements
D. The BFP would immediately close down the building, even if construction has
not started.
73. Analyzing the primary responsibilities of the Fire Bureau under Section 54, which
of the following statements best represents the Fire Bureau's role?
A. The Fire Bureau is mainly involved in public education and safety campaigns.
B. The Fire Bureau's primary role is to suppress destructive fires and enforce
the Fire Code and related laws.
C. The Fire Bureau focuses on training the public in first aid techniques.
D. The Fire Bureau develops new technologies for firefighting.

74. If a fire occurs at a petroleum industry installation, which entity should be

actively involved in managing the incident?
A. The local government unit's emergency rescue team.
B. The Fire Bureau, since it is responsible for such incidents.
C. The Environmental Protection Agency.
D. The Department of Transportation.

75. Examining the Fire Bureau's organizational structure, how does it ensure
effective coordination across various regions?
A. By centralizing decision-making at the national level.
B. By establishing provincial, district, and municipal offices with specific roles
and responsibilities.
C. By outsourcing firefighting operations to private companies.
D. By relying on volunteer fire brigades exclusively.

76. In a large municipality, the Provincial Placement Board of the BFP is evaluating
candidates for the designation of a Municipal Fire Marshal. Based on the Fire
Bureau's rank classification, who would be the most appropriate candidate for
this role?
A. A Senior Fire Officer IV, who has extensive experience and seniority within
the Fire Bureau.
B. A District Fire Marshall, who oversees multiple fire stations within the
district.
C. A Senior Inspector, who has experience in inspecting fire safety measures
and compliance.
D. A Chief Inspector, who manages the operations and administrative functions
at a higher level.

77. Large cities or municipalities may have a district fire marshal who oversees
several fire stations. What is the name of this organizational unit?
A. Fire District
B. Fire Station
C. Fire Sub-station
D. Fire Division

78. Any person actually occupying and using a building or portions thereof by virtue
of a lease contract with the owner or administrator or by permission or sufferance
of the latter is known as:
A. Tenant
B. Lessee
C. Occupant
D. Resident
79. If a piece of wood is burning, what process ensures continuous combustion?
A. The wood needs to remain dry.
B. The wood must be heated to vaporize reactants, and oxygen must be
supplied.
C. Oxygen must be removed from the reaction.
D. The temperature must be kept below the ignition point.

80. Which statement correctly differentiates between flaming and smoldering

combustion?
A. Flaming combustion releases less heat and has no flame, while smoldering
produces more heat.
B. Smoldering combustion produces more heat and a visible flame, while
flaming combustion is invisible.
C. Flaming combustion occurs with visible flames and releases more heat, while
smoldering occurs on the surface with no visible flame.
D. Smoldering combustion happens in the gas phase with visible flames, while
flaming combustion happens on the surface.
81. Which of the following conditions will lead to attrition by demotion in position or
rank?
A. Relieving from a position and not being assigned to a commensurate
position within two years
B. Not being promoted for a continuous period of ten years
C. Failure to complete career courses within one year
D. Accumulated poor performance ratings for three years

82. What is the minimum period of service required for a uniformed personnel to be
eligible for retirement if dismissed based on attrition principles?
A. 10 years
B. 15 years
C. 20 years
D. 25 years

83. Under the attrition system by other means, which factor can lead to separation if
performance is poor?
A. Failure to pass the initial recruitment test
B. Inefficiency based on poor performance for two successive semestral
ratings
C. Insufficient number of years served in the Bureau
D. Not meeting height and weight requirements

84. What is required of business establishments employing at least fifty persons

according to RA 9514?
A. They must establish a fire brigade and obtain a Fire Safety Inspection
Certificate
B. They must conduct regular fire drills for their employees
C. They must purchase fire insurance for their property
D. They must provide advanced fire safety training to all employees

85. Plan Evaluators must conduct site inspections on buildings under construction to:
A. Supervise construction crews
 B. Verify compliance with approved plans and specifications
C. Inspect hot works operations
D. Approve architectural designs

86. If no licensed engineer or architect is available in a certain fire station, the BFP
personnel eligible to be designated as a Plan Evaluator must have:
A. At least five years of construction experience
B. A baccalaureate degree with FAIIC training
C. A certificate in project management
D. Fire suppression training

87. Markings should be placed on doorways that do not lead to exits in order to:
A. prevent confusion during emergencies
B. ensure all doors are visible
C. allow public access
D. meet aesthetic standards

88. A building's occupancy classification is determined by**

A. the number of floors
B. the activities and purpose of the occupants
C. the type of furniture inside
D. the size of the windows

89. A building undergoing construction is partially occupied by workers. According to

fire safety standards set by RA 9514, which of the following must be ensured to
comply with safety regulations?
A. Workers should only use fire escapes and not temporary structures.
B. All required means of egress in the occupied areas must be completed,
inspected, and approved for use.
C. Workers must be provided with personal fire safety equipment for
emergencies.
D. Only the external areas of the building need to comply with fire safety
standards.

90. If a building has only one main exit and is designed for a large number of
occupants, what must be ensured according to fire safety standards?
A. At least two remote exits must be provided to prevent blockages in case of
fire or emergency.

B. The single exit should be designed to handle double the capacity of the
occupants.
C. Evacuation drills should be more frequent to compensate for the single
exit.
D. An alarm system should be installed to warn occupants of potential
hazards.

91. A new fire alarm system is being installed in a large public building. According to
fire safety regulations, what factor determines whether such a system is
required?
A. The building’s height and type of construction.
 B. The number of employees working in the building.
C. The building’s size, arrangement, and occupancy to provide adequate
warning to all occupants.
D. The distance from the nearest fire station.

92. A fire investigator finds traces of gasoline at the scene of a fire. This is an
example of which type of evidence for arson?
A. Direct evidence of the cause of the fire
B. Corpus Delicti of the crime
C. Motive for the crime
D. Circumstantial evidence of arson

93. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between flashover and
backdraft?
A. Flashover is air-driven, while backdraft is temperature-driven.
B. Flashover occurs due to thermal radiation feedback, while backdraft
occurs when air is reintroduced into an oxygen-deficient fire.
C. Flashover can be prevented with proper ventilation, while backdraft
cannot.
D. Backdraft causes simultaneous ignition of contents, while flashover causes
smoke to puff out.

94. You are responding to a fire where thick black smoke is "puffing" out of the
windows intermittently. What type of fire event might you suspect?
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Rollover
D. Flash fire

95. Which factor is LEAST likely to affect the flashover potential in a room?
A. The size of the room
B. The air supply to the room
C. The amount of combustible materials
D. The humidity level in the air
96. What storage recommendation can prevent spontaneous combustion in oily
rags?
A. Store rags in a dry, airtight container
B. Spread them out in a well-ventilated area
C. Soak them in water before storage
D. Keep rags near heat sources

97. Why is water not always the best choice for extinguishing a Class B fire?
A. It can spread the burning liquid.
B. It reacts with the burning liquid, causing an explosion.
C. It doesn't cool the burning material sufficiently.
D. It conducts electricity and poses a shock hazard.
98. What should you NEVER do when using a fire extinguisher?
A. Aim the nozzle at the base of the flames.
B. Stand too close to the fire.
C. Follow the PASS (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep) method.
D. Fight a large or out-of-control fire.
99. A restaurant has seating for 40 people. Under what classification should this
restaurant fall according to occupancy rules?
A. Mercantile Occupancy
B. Assembly Occupancy
C. Business Occupancy
D. Residential Occupancy

100. A courthouse, where legal cases are heard and deliberated, falls under
which occupancy classification?
A. Assembly Occupancy
B. Business Occupancy
C. Mercantile Occupancy
D. Educational Occupancy