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Samp t e ex cee ding

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With a 20 24 b oa rd s
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G eog r a p h y
Class 12
 Set - 1
GEOGRAPHY
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70

General Instructions:

(i) This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections-A, B, C, D and E.

(iii) Section A Question number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.

(iv) Section B Question number 18 and 19 are Source based questions carrying 3 marks each.

(v) Section C Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.

(vi) Section D Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.

(vii) Section E Question number 29 and 30 are Map Based Questions.

SECTION-A
Q 1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Level of economic development is both a cause and consequence of literacy.

Reason (R): Proportion of literate population of a country in an indicator of its socio-economic

development.

a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (𝐴)

b. Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true, but (𝑅) is not the correct explanation of (𝐴).

c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q 2. Match the following:

Codes:

A B C D A B C D

a. 1 2 3 4 b. 2 1 4 3

c. 4 3 2 1 d. 3 4 1 2

Q 3. Which of the following South American countries is a member of the Organisation of Petroleum
Exporting Countries (OPEC)?
a. Brazil
b. Chile
c. Venezuela
d. Peru

Q 4. In rural settlements people mainly depend on which of the following sectors for their livelihood?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quaternary

Q 5. Which of the following best describes 'development'?

a. An increase in size

b. A constant in size

c. A positive change in quality

d. A simple change in quality

Q 6. What is the density of population in India?
a. 382
b. 396
c. 372
d. 390

Q 7. The majority of the world's major ports are:

a. Naval Ports
b. Oil Ports
c. Comprehensive Ports
d. Industrial Ports

Q 8. Which of the following is not an example of Knowledge Processing Outsourcing (KPO)?

a. Business research

b. Intellectual property research

c. Legal profession

d. Outsourcing

Q 9. In India, which state produces the most jowar?

a. Punjab
b. Maharashtra
c. Karnataka
d. Rajasthan

Q 10. carry materials like petroleum, natural gas and ores in liquefied form.
a. Trucks
b. Pipelines
c. Railways
d. Roadways

Q 11. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given
options:

Statement I: Water is a renewable resource.

Statement II: Freshwater is mainly obtained from surface run off and groundwater that is continually
being renewed.
a. Both the statements are true, statements II does not explain statement I.

b. Both the statements are true and statements II correctly explains the statement I.

c. Both statements I and II are false.

d. Statement I is true and statements II is false.

Q 12. Which of the following rivers has the country's largest replenishable groundwater resource?
a. The Indus
b. The Brahmaputra
c. The Ganga
d. The Godavari

Q 13. Which of the following plan was introduced to improve the conditions of roads in India after
independence?

a. Five Year Road Plan

b. Nagpur Plan

c. Ten Year Road Plan

d. Twenty Year Road Plan

Q 14. Which of the following statement is not true regarding Indira Gandhi Canal?

a. It was previously known as Rajasthan canal.

b. It originates at Harika barrage in Punjab.

c. The canal runs almost parallel to Pakistan border.

d. Rajasthan is least benefitted by this canal.

Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17): Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Table 1.1: Decadal Growth Rates in India, 1901-2011

Growth Rate*
Census Total
Years Population % of
Absolute Number Growth

1901 238396327 - -

1911 252093390 (+)13697063 (+)5.75

1921 251321213 (−)772117 (−)0.31

1931 278977238 (+)27656025 (+)11.60

 1941 318660580 (+)39683342 (+)14.22

1951 361088090 (+)42420485 (+)13.31

1961 439234771 (+)77682873 (+)21.51

1971 548159652 (+)108924881 (+)24.80

1981 683829097 (+)135169445 (+)24.66

1991 846302688 (+)162973591 (+)23.85

2001 1028610328 (+)182307640 (+)21.54

2011
1210193422 (+)181583094 (+)17.64
∗∗

∗ Decadal growth rate 𝑔 = 𝑝2 − 𝑝1 /𝑝1 × 100

where, 𝑝1 = population of the base year 𝑝2 = population of the present year

**Source: Census of India. 2011 (Provisional)

Q 15. Which year has seen a negative population growth rate in India?
a. 1931
b. 1921
c. 1911
d. 1941

Q 16. What was the highest recorded growth rate of population in India?
a. 24.66
b. 24.80
c. 23.85
d. 21.54

Q 17. Which year has recorded the highest growth of population in India in terms of absolute
numbers?
a. 2001
b. 2011
c. 1991
d. 1981

SECTION-B
Q 18. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area
of dispersed settlement. More often such a pattern may also result from segregation or fragmentation
of a large compact village. In this case, one or more sections of the village society choose or is forced
to live a little away from the main cluster or village. In such cases, generally, the land owning and
dominant community occupies the central part of the main village, whereas people of lower strata of
society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village. Such settlements are widespread
in the Gujarat plain and some parts of Rajasthan.

(i) What are semi-clustered settlements according to the passage?

(ii) Which community occupies the central part of the main village?

(iii) Where are semi-clustered settlements found?

Q 19. Study the given map carefully and answer the following questions:

(i) Identify the railway line shown on the map.

(ii) Which two oceans are connected by this railway line?

(iii) Given any one point of significance of this transport line. explain the role of climate on the
distribution of population.

SECTION-C
Q 20. (A) Which factors are responsible for the variation in Human development among the states of
India?

OR
(B) Mention the major issues which UNDP considers important in achieving human development.

Q 21. Very hot and dry and very cold and wet regions of India have low density of population. In this
light, (iii) Where are semi-clustered settlements found?

Q 22. "The physical and human phenomena are described in metaphors using symbols from human
anatomy."

Support the statement with examples.

OR

How is the knowledge of nature important to develop technology? Explain with suitable examples.

Q 23. How do quaternary services differ from tertiary services? Give three reasons why the service
sector in developing and developed countries is growing faster than the manufacturing sector.

SECTION-D
Q 24. Examine the geographical circumstances that make wheat growing possible. Describe the
production and farming areas of India.

Q 25. Discuss the effects of Indira Gandhi Canal on environment and agriculture.

OR

What measures can be used to minimise air pollution?

Q 26. How can we control noise pollution? Suggest some measures.

Q 27. Define manufacturing. Classify manufacturing industries on the basis of size into three
categories and explain the important characteristics of each type.

OR

Write a short note on distribution of iron and steel industry of the world.

Q 28. Examine the role of Inland Waterways Authority of India. Explain why inland water transport
is an important mode of transport?

OR

Describe how the composition of India's imports has change over time.

SECTION-E
Q 29. Study the map given below carefully and answer the following questions:
(i) Name the railway line shown on this map.

(ii) Name the terminal station of this railway along the Atlantic coast.

(iii) Why is this railway line known as economic artery of the country through which it passes?

Q 30. On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate
symbols:

A. Northern most Seaport on Western coast of India

B. A copper mine of Rajasthan

C. A market based oil refinery located in Bihar.

D. State with lowest population density.

E. Largest coffee producing state.

F. An international airport of Kerala.

G. A state with highest level of urbanisation.

 l e P a p e r s
Samp
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Geogr a p h y
Class 12
 SAMPLE PAPER 1

ANSWER

SECTION-A
1. (b)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (a)
5. (c)
6. (a)
7. (c)
8. (d)
9. (b)
10. (b)
11. (b)
12. (c)
13. (d)
14. (d)
15. (b)
16. (b)
17. (a)

SECTION-B
18. (i) Semi-clustered settlements are fragmented settlements formed due to clustering in restricted area
of dispersed settlement. That is, the dwellings in such settlements are not very closely knitted and are
huddled together at one common site. For example, near the periphery of village boundary.
(ii) The land owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village, whereas
people of lower strata of society and menial workers settle on outer flanks of the village.

(iii) Semi-clustered settlements are found in the Gujarat plains and some part of Rajasthan.

19. (a) The railway line shown on the map is Trans-Siberian Railways.
 (b) The Arctic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean are the two oceans that are connected by the Trans-
Siberian Railway line.
(c) The Trans-Siberian railway line is of great significance for the development of trade and
commerce. Transport of agricultural products like food grains, sugar is made easy. Asian countries
like Mongolia are connected to European countries through this route.

SECTION-C
20. (A) There are several socio-political, economic and historical reasons for variation in the
development in the different states of India:
(i) Kerala is able to record the highest value in the HDI largely due to its impressive performance in
achieving near hundred per cent literacy.

(ii) States like Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Assam and Uttar Pradesh have very low literacy.

(iii) States showing higher total literacy rates have less gaps between the male and female literacy
rates.

(iv) Apart from the educational attainment, the levels of economic development too play significant
impacts on HDI.

(v) Economically developed states like Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Punjab and Haryana have higher
value of HDI as compared to states like Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, etc. Thus, there is
variation on various parameters among states in India leading to variation in Human Development
Index among states.

OR
 (B) The major issues which UNDP considered important in achieving human development are:

(i) People's participation and their security.

(ii) Democratisation.

(iii) Increasing empowerment of people.

(iv) Bringing about peace and human development.

(v) Reduction in the military expenditure, demobilisation of armed forces, transition from defence to
production of basic goods and services and particularly disarmament and reduction in countries.

(vi) Peace and well-being are also major global concerns.

21. Very hot and dry and very cold and wet regions of India have low density of population because
these are two extreme forms of climate. The two most important factors which play a role in
determining the population of an area are:
(i) Temperature
(ii) Rainfall
Very hot and dry region have high temperature and low rainfall, whereas very cold and wet regions
have very less temperature and extreme rainfall. These conditions are not optimal for living thus the
density of population is low in these areas.

22. The following points explain the above statement:

(i) Nature and human beings cannot be separated as they are inseparable because man became
socially, economically and technologically advanced.

(ii) He broadened his nature by creating his own environment through his design and skill to have
provision for better food, shelter, access and comfort.

(iii) Both nature and humans are described as metaphors using symbols from the human anatomy like
we often talk of the face of the Earth, an eye of a storm, mouth of the river, snout (nose) of the
glacier, neck of the isthmus and profile of the soil. All the above nicknames are given by humans to
the natural phenomena. By doing so, a human can interact easily with nature. All these physical
features are described as an organism and man-made structure like road, railways and waterways
have been described as arteries of circulation.

OR
Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not so
important to know what human beings produce and create, but it is extremely important to know with
the help of what tools and techniques do they produce and create.

(i) Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society.

 (ii) Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed a better understanding of
natural laws.

(iii) For example, the understanding of concepts of friction and heat helped us to discover fire.
Similarly, understanding the secrets of DNA and genetics helped us to conquer many diseases. We
use the laws of aerodynamics to develop faster planes. Thus, knowledge about nature is extremely
important to develop a technology.

23. Quaternary services and tertiary services both belong to the service sector, but they differ in terms of
the nature of the activities.

The key differences between quaternary services and tertiary services are:

Basis of Quaternary Ser- Tertiary

S.No.
Difference vices Services

These services
These services encompass a
are highly broader range
knowledge of services
Knowledge-
intensive and that cater to
intensive
(i) often involve the needs of
nature
specialised individuals and
expertise, businesses,
research and including
development. transportation,
hospitality etc.

These services
while essential
These services
Economic for meeting day-
typically
(ii) value to-day needs,
generate higher
generally have
economic value.
lower economic
value.

The reasons why the service sector is growing faster than the manufacturing sector in both
developing and developed countries are:
 (i) Technological Advancement: The service sector has benefited from technological advancements
by enabling the development of new services and increasing efficiency in service delivery.

(ii) Shift towards Knowledge-based Economies: The service sector, particularly the quaternary
services, aligns well with the demands of a knowledge-based economy, leading to its faster growth.

(iii) Changing Consumer Preferences: As societies develop and incomes rise, consumer preferences
tend to shift towards services such as healthcare, education, entertainment and information
technology.

SECTION-D
24. Wheat is one of the world's master grains. It is the 'basic food' for 1/3 of the world's population.
Because of its high gluten content, it is a valuable cereal. It's been cultivated since prehistoric times.
It was first cultivated in the Mediterranean region. Wheat is a plant that grows best in temperate
climates. It may be grown in a wide range of climates. Wheat is a widely grown crop all over the
world. Wheat is seeded or harvested in various parts of the world every month.
(i) Temperature: During the growing season, wheat requires a minimum temperature of 10∘ C and a
maximum temperature of 20∘ C. Wheat requires a frost-free time of 100 days.
(ii) Rainfall: Wheat fields require a moderate amount of rainfall each year, ranging from 50 to
100cm. Wheat requires a cool, wet growth season as well as a warm, dry harvesting season.

(iii) Irrigation: In places with limited rainfall, such as the Indus and Punjab, irrigation is used. Dry
farming techniques are also employed.

(iv) Soil: The ideal soil for wheat is light clay or thick loamy soil.

(v) Land: Wheat requires flat, well-drained land. It is well suited to the usage of mechanisation and
irrigation systems.

(vi) Economic Factors: Wheat is a soil-depleting crop. To enhance production per hectare, better
seeds, chemical fertilisers and novel kinds are utilised. It's a mechanised farming system. Tractors,
combines and harvesters are frequently used. Wheat storage necessitates massive warehouses.

Production in India: In terms of production, India is the worlds second-largest wheat producer ( 12%
production). Wheat is a winter crop that India produces in the amount of 67 million metric tonnes.
Due to the Green Revolution, India has become self-sufficient in wheat production, with a yield per
hectare of 2618kg.

Area of Cultivation: Wheat is farmed in the Sutlej-Ganga plain for the most part (North West India).
Spring wheat is grown up to a height of 2700 metres in mountainous districts of Lahaul-Spiti
(Himachal Pradesh), Ladakh and Sikkim in the sub-Himalayan region. Wheat is planted on 14% of
the net sown land. The primary wheatproducing states are Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Madhya
Pradesh and Rajasthan. Fertile soils, winter rain and irrigation infrastructure are all available in these
areas.
25. The effects of Indira Gandhi Canal on environment can be understood as the environment of the
region has been influenced by this project, both positively and negatively.

Positive Effects
(i) Due to canal irrigation, there is sufficient soil moisture available for a longer duration.

(ii) Various afforestation and pasture development programmes have led to greening of land.

(iii) It has resulted in a considerable reduction in wind erosion and siltation of canal system.

Negative Effects
Problems of water logging and soil salinity have been witnessed due to intensive irrigation and
excessive use of water.
The effects of Indira Gandhi Canal on agriculture can be understood as the agriculture of the region
has been influenced by this project, both positively and negatively.

Positive Effects
(i) Introduction of canal irrigation has led to an increase in cultivated land and intensity of cropping.

(ii) Main commercial crops i.e., wheat, rice cotton and groundnut have replaced drought resistant
crops like gram, baira and jowar.

Negative Effects
(i) Intensive irrigation has become a cause of water logging and soil salinity.

(ii) This may hamper sustainability of agriculture in future.

OR

Some of the measures that can be used to minimise air pollution are:

(i) Replacement of conventional energy sources with the renewable or non-conventional energy
sources.

(ii) Electric engines must be used in place of steam or diesel engines.

(iii) Checking of forest fires must be there. Preventive measures must be undertaken to protect the
forests.

(iv) Filters must be used for chimneys so that dangerous gases emitted from fireplaces in homes and
factories get filtered and do not affect the air quality severely.

(v) The use of crackers during festivals and weddings must be avoided.
 (vi) Afforestation must be implemented.

(vii) Public transport must be preferred over private transport.

(viii) Old automobiles must be replaced by new ones which should be redesigned in such a way that
their emission causes minimum pollution.

26. The measures to control noise pollution are:

(i) Acoustic Zoning: Increased distance between source and receiver by zoning of noise industrial
areas, bus terminals and railway stations, etc. away from the residential areas go a long way in
minimising noise pollution.

There should be silence zones near residential areas, hospitals, etc.

(ii) Suppression of Noise at Source: This is possible if working methods are improved by:

(a) Designing and fabricating quieter machines to replace the noise ones.

(b) Proper lubrication and better maintenance of machines.

(c) Installing noise machines in sound proof chambers.

(d) Covering noise producing machine parts with sound absorbing materials to check noise pollution.

(e) Using silencers to control noise from automobiles, ducts, exhausts, etc.

(iii) Planting of Trees: Planting green trees and shrubs along roads, hospitals, educational institutions,
etc. help in noise reduction to a considerable extent.

(iv) Legislative Measures: Strict legislative measures need to be enforced to control the noise
pollution such as:

(a) Minimum use of loudspeakers and amplifiers especially near silent zones.

(b) Banning pressure horns in automobiles.

(c) Framing a separate Noise Pollution Act.

(v) Strict Enforcement of Laws: The government agencies should strictly enforce the law to curb
noise pollution and impose penalties for violation. Apart from these measures, ear plugs, ear muffs,
etc., can be provided to reduce exposure to noise pollution.

27. Manufacturing: It refers to the conversion of raw materials into finished products through the
application of power. Common characteristics of manufacturing are:
(i) Application of power

(ii) Mass production of identical products

(iii) Specialisedlabour in factory settings for production of standardised commodities. On the basis of
size the manufacturing industries are classified into three categories:

(i) Household/ Cottage Manufacturing Industries:

(a) Size: It is the smallest manufacturing unit.

(b) Other Name: It is also known as cottage manufacturing.

(c) Type of Input: The artisans use local raw materials and simple tools to produce everyday goods in
their homes with the help of their family members or part time labour.

(d) Use of Finished Product: Finished product may be used for consumption in the same household,
or for sale in local (village) markets, or for barter.

(e) Influence of Capital and Transportation: Capital and transportation do not wield much influence
as this type of manufacturing has low commercial significance and most of the tools are devised
locally.

(f) Examples: Some common everyday products produced in this sector of manufacturing include
foodstuffs, fabrics, mats, tools, etc.

(ii) Small Scale Manufacturing Industries:

(a) They are an extended form of cottage industry. But it differs from household industries by its
production techniques and place of manufacture.

(b) They use local raw material, simple power driven machines and semi-skilled labour.

(c) It provides employment and raises local purchasing power.

(d) Countries like India, China, Indonesia and Brazil have developed labour intensive small scale
manufacturing in order to provide employment to their population.

(iii) Large Scale Manufacturing Industries:

(a) It needs enormous energy and various raw materials.

(b) It also requires specialised workers, advanced technology, assembly line mass production and
huge capital.

(c) It requires a large market.

OR

The iron and steel industry is one of the most complex and capital intensive industries and is
concentrated in the advanced countries of North America, Asia and Europe.

(i) North America: Here, most of the production comes from:

 (a) North Appalachian region (Pittsburgh).

(b) Great Lake region (Chicago-Gary, Erie, Cleveland, Lorain, Buffalo and Duluth).

(c) The Atlantic Coast (Sparrows Point and Morrisville)

• Although, Pittsburgh is now losing ground. It has snow become the "rust bowl" of USA.
• The industry has moved towards the Southern state of Alabama.
(ii) Europe: Here, UK, Germany, France, Belgium, Luxembourg, the Netherlands and Russia are the
leading producers.

(a) UK: Important steel centres are Scunthorpe, Port Talbot, Birmingham, Sheffield.

(b) Germany: Duisburg, Dortmund, Dusseldorf and Essen.

(c) France: Le Creusot and St. E tienne.

(d) Russia: Moscow, St. Petersburgh, Lipetsk, Tula.

(e) Ukraine: Krivoi Rog and Donetsk.

(iii) Asia: Here, most of the production comes from:

(a) Japan: Nagasaki and Tokya-Yokohama.

(b) China: Shanghai, Tientsin and Wuhan.

(c) India: Jamshedpur, Kulti-Burnpur, Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai, Bokaro, Salem, Vishakhapatnam
and Bhadravati.

28. The role of Inland Waterways Authority of India are:

(i) The Inland Waterways Authority of India was set up in 1986.

(ii) It was set-up for the development, maintenance and regulation of National Waterways in the
country.

(iii) The Authority has declared three inland waterways as National Waterways.

(iv) It has also identified ten other Inland waterways which can be upgraded.

Importance of inland water transport can be understood from the following points:

(i) It is suitable for carrying bulky goods: It can carry much larger quantities of heavy and bulky
goods such as coal and timber at little cost.

(ii) It carries both cargo and passengers: Water transport is capable of carrying both cargo as well as
passenger load at any given point of time.
 (iii) It is the cheapest mode of transport: Rivers are a natural highway which does not require cost of
construction and maintenance. Even the cost of construction and maintenance of canals is much less
or they are used not only for transport purposes but also for irrigation etc. Moreover, the cost
operation of the Inland water transport is very low.

(iv) It is eco-friendly: It is eco-friendly as the amount of pollution created waterways is very less than
that created by other means of transportation.

OR

India's imports are made up of the following items:

(i) Foodgrains were the most important imports in the 1950 s and 1960 s because India was
experiencing a food crisis at the time.

(ii) Because of the Green Revolution, foodgrain imports ceased in the 1970 s.

(iii) Fertilisers and gasoline have taken the place of foodgrains.

(iv) Because it is utilised as both a fuel and an industrial raw material, petroleum is the most imported
commodity.

(v) Imports of capital goods such as non-electrical machinery, transportation equipment, machines
and tools have increased.

(vi) Edible oils and special steel alloys are also imported.

(vii) Pulse, precious gold and silver, metal ores, scraps and electronic equipment are among the other
main imports.

SECTION-E
29. (i) Trans-Canadian Railway line has been shown on this map.
(ii) Halifax is the terminal station of this railway along the Atlantic coast.

(iii) It connects Quebec-Montreal industrial region with the wheat belt of the Prairie region and the
coniferous forest region in the North. A loop line from Winnipeg to Thunder Bay connects this line
with one of the important waterways. That's why it is called economic artery of Canada.

30. (A) Kandla

(B) Khetri

(C) Barauni

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) Karnataka
(F) Thiruvananthapuram

(G) Goa
 le Papers
Samp t e ex cee ding
su cce ss r a
With a 20 24 b oa rd s
95 % in th e

G eog r a p h y
Class 12
 set - 2
GEOGRAPHY
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70

General Instructions:

(i) This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections-A, B, C, D and E.

(iii) Section A Question number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.

(iv) Section B Question number 18 and 19 are Source based questions carrying 3 marks each.

(v) Section C Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.

(vi) Section D Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.

(vii) Section E Question number 29 and 30 are Map Based Questions.

SECTION-A
Q 1. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.

Statement I: Per capita GNI cannot be used to measure human development instead of the HDI.

Statement II: It tells nothing about the distribution of income, education, and health status of a
country.

a. Both the statements are correct, statement II does not explain statement I correctly.

b. Both the statements are correct and statement II correctly explains the statement I.

c. Both the statements I and II are incorrect.

d. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

Q 2. Match the following:

Column I Column II

A. CBR 1. Population/Area.

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SOLUTIONS
 B. Density of 2. Births-Deaths

C. CDR 3. Bi/p × 100

D. Natural Growth 4. D/P × 100

Codes:

A B C D A B C D

a.1 2 3 4 b. 4 3 2 1

c. 3 1 4 2 d. 2 4 1 3

Q 3. The headquarters of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is located in:

a. Belgium
b. Indonesia
c. Switzerland
d. Austria

Q 4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:

Statement I: Number of pastoral nomads has been decreasing and the areas operated by them are
shrinking.
Statement II: Decrease in pastoral nomad is due to imposition of political boundaries and new
settlement plans by different countries.

a. Both the statements are correct.

b. Only statement I is correct.

c. Only statement II is correct.

d. Both the statements are incorrect.

Q 5. Which of the following is not a key area in the human development?

a. Access to Resources

b. Long and Healthy Life

c. Education

d. Economic Disadvantage

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SOLUTIONS
Q 6. During 1991-2001, which state registered lowest population growth rate in India?

a. Arunachal Pradesh

b. Kerala

c. West Bengal

d. Mizoram

Q 7. Which of the following is a Oil Port?

a. Tripoli
b. Mumbai
c. London
d. New York

Q 8. Which of the following has increased the demand for tourism?

a. Transport
b. Standard of living
c. Package holidays
d. All of these

Q 9. In Baba Budan Hills, which crop was introduced?

a. Tea
b. Coffee
c. Rice
d. Cotton

Q 10. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given
options.

Statement I: India has different kinds of roads like National Highways. State Highways, major district
roads and rural roads.

Statement II: Roads are classified for the purpose of construction and maintenance.
a. Both the statements are true, statement II does not explain statement I correctly.

b. Both the statements are true and statement II correctly explains the statement I.

c. Both statements I and II are false.

d. Statement I is true and statement II is false.

Q 11. Which of the following programmes sponsored by Central Government aims at enabling the
rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation?
a. Arwari Pani Sansad
b. Haryali

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SOLUTIONS
c. Neeru-Meeru
d. Narmada Bachao

Q 12. In Punjab, what percentage of the net sown land is irrigated?

a. 65%
b. 75%
c. 80%
d. 82.20%

Q 13. In which state is Bharmaur Tribal Region situated?

a. Uttarakhand
b. Jammu & Kashmir
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Uttar Pradesh

Q 14. In which one of the following states, Kund or Tanka is mainly used for rainwater harvesting?
a. Rajasthan
b. Maharashtra
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Gujarat

Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17): Study the graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

(Inter-state Migration by place of Last Residence Indicating Migration Streams Period 0-9 years
India, 2011)

Q 15. Which one of the following streams has the highest 'male migration'?
a. Rural to Rural
b. Rural to Urban
c. Urban to Rural
d. Urban to Urban

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SOLUTIONS
Q 16. In which of the following streams has the highest migration of females?
a. Rural to Urban
b. Urban to Rural
c. Rural to Rural
d. Urban to Urban

Q 17. Which stream shows the least migration?

a. Rural to Rural
b. Rural to Urban
c. Urban to Rural
d. Urban to Urban

SECTION-B
Q18. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area
of dispersed settlement. More often such a pattern may also result from segregation or fragmentation
of a large compact village. In this case, one or more sections of the village society choose or is forced
to live a little away from the main cluster or village. In such cases, generally, the land owning and
dominant community occupies the central part of the main village, whereas people of lower strata of
society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village. Such settlements are widespread
in the Gujarat plain and some parts of Rajasthan.

(i) What are semi-clustered settlements according to the passage?

(ii) Which community occupies the central part of the main village?

(iii) Where are semi-clustered settlements found?

Q 19. Study the given map carefully and answer the following questions:

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SOLUTIONS
(i) Name the transport line shown in the map.

(ii) Name two ocean/sea coasts which are being connected by this transport line.

(iii) Give any point of significance of this transport line.

SECTION-C
Q 20. Explain thoughts of Mahatma Gandhi in context of development.

OR

How do people's choices get affected in different aspects of life due to lack of human development?

Q 21. Which states have large rural population in India? Give one reason for such large rural
population.

Q 22. "Nature and humans are inseparable elements." Justify the statement with suitable examples.

OR

What is the subject matter of the study of human geography? Explain any three facts.

Q 23. What are quaternary activities? Explain any three characteristics of quaternary activities.

SECTION-D
Q 24. Describe the growth, production and cultivation conditions of cotton in India.

Q 25. Attaining sustainable development in the command area requires major thrust upon the
measures to achieve ecological sustainability. Highlight the measures proposed to promote
sustainable development in the command area of Indira Gandhi Rajasthan Canal.

Q 26. Suggest measures for reduction of land degradation.

OR

"Land degradation in India is caused by human made processes that are more harmful than natural
processes." Explain the statement with suitable examples.

Q 27. Differentiate between 'small scale' manufacturing and 'large scale' manufacturing industry in
the world.

OR
Discuss the major trends of modern industrial activities especially in the developed countries of the
world.

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SOLUTIONS
Q 28. What do you know about the ports on the eastern coast?

OR

"Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases over long
distances in India." Examine the statement.

SECTION-E
Q 29. Study the map given below carefully and answer the following questions:

(i) Name the railway line shown in the given map.

(ii) Which are the two terminal stations of this railway line?

(iii) Name the ports located on the coast of Spencer Gulf through which this railway line passes.
Q 30. Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the Political Outline map of
India with appropriate symbols:

A. An important seaport in Andhra Pradesh.

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SOLUTIONS
B. An important coal mine in Tamil Nadu.

C. Ratnagiri-iron ore mines.

D. An oil refinery in Gujarat.

E. The state with highest population density.

F. The state leading in the production of jute.

G. An international airport in Kerala.

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SOLUTIONS
 le Papers
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 SET - 3
GEOGRAPHY
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70

General Instructions:

(i) This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections-A, B, C, D and E.

(iii) Section A Question number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.

(iv) Section B Question number 18 and 19 are Source based questions carrying 3 marks each.

(v) Section C Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.

(vi) Section D Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.

(vii) Section E Question number 29 and 30 are Map Based Questions.

SECTION-A
Q 1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Sri Lanka, Trinidad and Tobago have a higher rank than India in the Human
Development Index despite having smaller economies.

Reason (R): Size of the territory and per capita income are not directly related to human
development.

a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (𝐴).
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (𝐴).
c. (A) is true, but (𝑅) is false.
d. (𝐴) is false, but (𝑅) is true.

Q 2. Match the following:

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SOLUTIONS
Codes:

Q 3. What does 'Salarium' imply in Latin?

a. Non-payment of salary

b. Payment by salt

c. Trade in salt by sea

d. Barter of salt for silver

Q 4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:

Statement I: The resource intensive approach of modern expensive agriculture has become
unmanageable for marginal and small farmers due to very meager or no saving to invest in
agriculture.

Statement II: Most of such farmers have resorted to availing credit from various institutions and
money lenders but crop failures and low returns from agriculture have forced them to fall in the trap
of indebtedness.

a. Both the statements are correct.

b. Only statement I is correct.

c. Only statement II is correct.

d. Both the statements are incorrect.

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SOLUTIONS
Q 5. Given below is a list of pillars of human development and its indicators. Which of the following
pair is not correctly matched?

Making equal access

a. Equity - opportunities available
everybody

Continuity in the availability of

b. Sustainability -
opportunities

Resources must be used

c. Productivity -
keeping in mind the future

To have the power to make

d. Empowerment -
choices

Q 6. Which one of the following states has the highest density of population in India?
a. West Bengal
b. Bihar
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Punjab

Q 7. The headquarters of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is located in:

a. Belgium
b. Indonesia
c. Switzerland
d. Austria

Q 8. In a developed economy, the majority of the workers get employment in which of the following
sectors of economy?

a. Primary sector

b. Secondary sector

c. Tertiary sector

d. Quaternary sector

Q 9. In irrigated areas, which of the following is the most common kind of degradation?

a. Gully erosion

b. Wind erosion

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SOLUTIONS
c. Salinisation of soils

d. Siltation of land

Q 10. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Railways are most suited for moving large volume bulky materials over longer
distances. Reason (R): As compared to railways, road transport is economical for short distances.

a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (𝐴).

b. Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true, but (𝑅) is not the correct explanation of (𝐴).

c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q 11. 'Haryali Watershed Development Project' is run by which of the following?

a. Non-Governmental Organisation

b. Local Self-Government

c. State Government

d. Central Government

Q 12. Which of the following South Indian states uses the most groundwater (in percentage) of its
overall groundwater potential?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Karnataka
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Kerala

Q 13. Which one of the following is the most crucial factor for sustainable development in Indira
Gandhi Canal Command Area?

a. Agricultural development

b. Eco-development

c. Transport development

d. Colonisation of land.

Q 14. Which of the following states is the most likely to use groundwater?
a. Punjab
b. Chhattisgarh

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SOLUTIONS
c. Bihar
d. Kerala

Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17): Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Doubling Time of Word Population

Period Population Time in Which

Population Doubles

10,000 B.C. 5 million

1650 A.D. 500 million 1500 years

1804 A.D. 1,000 million 154 years

1927 A.D. 2,000 million 123 years

1974 A.D. 4,000 million 47 years

8,000 million
2025 A.D. 51 years
projected fig.

(Source: Demographic year Book: 2009-10)

Q 15. It took 1500 years for population to reach 𝟓 million to 𝟓𝟎𝟎 million. If it is considered as the
'first stage of demographic transition', which of the following is the main reason for the slow pace of
population growth?

a. High birth rate, Low death rate

b. High birth rate, High death rate

c. Low birth rate, High death rate

d. Low birth rate, Low death rate

Q 16. In which period did the population increase rapidly?

a. 1927-1974
b. 10,000BC − 1650 AD
c. 1804 − 1927
d. 1650 − 1804

Q 17. How long did it take for the population to reach 1,000 million to 4,000 million?
a. 123 years

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SOLUTIONS
b. 170 years
c. 277 years
d. 221 years

SECTION-B
Q18. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

Settlements vary in size and type. They range from a hamlet to metropolitan cities. With size, the
economic character and social structure of settlements changes and so do its ecology and technology.
Settlements could be small and sparsely spaced; they may also be large and closely spaced. The
sparsely located small settlements are called villages, specialising in agriculture or other primary
activities. On the other hand, there are fewer but larger settlements which are termed as urban
settlements specialising in secondary and tertiary activities. The basic differences between rural and
urban settlements are as follows:

The rural settlements derive their life support or basic economic needs from land based primary
economic activities, whereas, urban settlements,
depend on processing of raw materials and manufacturing of finished goods on the one hand and a
variety of services on the other.

Cities act as nodes of economic growth, provide goods and services not only to urban dwellers but
also to the people of the rural settlements in their hinterlands in return for food and raw materials.
This functional relationship between the urban and rural settlements takes place through transport and
communication network.
Rural and urban settlements differ in terms of social relationship, attitude and outlook. Rural people
are less mobile and therefore, social relations among them are intimate. In urban areas, on the other
hand, way of life is complex and fast, and social relations are formal.

(i) On what basis rural and urban settlements can differ from each other.

(ii) 'Towns act as nodes of economic growth.' How?

(iii) Social relationships are more intimate in rural areas in comparison to urban areas. Justify.

Q 19. Study the given map carefully and answer the following questions:

(i) Identify and name the railway line shown on the map.

(ii) Name the continents linked by this rail route.

(iii) Explain how this railway line is helpful for the promotion of trade in the region.

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SOLUTIONS
SECTION-C
Q 20. What are the different approaches/ways of looking at the problem of human development? OR

Explain the three major areas that decide the rank of the Human Development Index in the world.

Q 21. Highlight the significance of socio-economic factors affecting the distribution of population.

Q 22. Explain the concept of 'possibilism', with three suitable examples.

OR
"There is mutual interaction between the elements of physical geography and human geography."
Support the statement with suitable examples.

Q 23. "Outsourcing has resulted in opening up a large number of job opportunities in several
countries." Analyse the statement with three suitable examples.

SECTION-D
Q 24. The key issues in Indian agriculture are 'erratic monsoon' and 'indebtedness.' Suggest and
explain the measures to overcome these problems.

Q 25. Describe five main points of Integrated Tribal Development Project implemented in Bharmaur
region.

Q 26. How is the use of plastic bags harmful for environmental degradation? Evaluate it by citing
suitable reasons.

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SOLUTIONS
OR

What are slums? Describe any three major problems of slums in India.

Q 27. "High technology, or simply high-tech, is the latest generation of manufacturing activities."
Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

OR

"Africa has immense natural resources and yet it is industrially the most backward continent."
Comment.

Q 28. Describe how the composition of India's imports has changed over time.

OR

What do you know about the ports in western coast?

SECTION-E
Q 29. Study the map and answer the following questions:

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SOLUTIONS
(i) Name the canal shown in the map.

(ii) Name the two oceans which are joined by this canal.

(iii) Name the two ports on either side of the canal.

(iv) State the economic importance of this canal.

(v) State the advantages of ocean transport over land and air transport.

Q 30. Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the Political Outline map of
India with appropriate symbols:
A. An important seaport in Andhra Pradesh.

B. An important coal mine in Tamil Nadu.

C. Ratnagiri-iron ore mines.

D. State with lowest population density.

E. Largest coffee producing state.

F. An international airport of Kerala.

G. A state with highest level of urbanisation.

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SOLUTIONS
 le Papers
Samp t e ex cee ding
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With a 20 24 b oa rd s
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G eog r a p h y
Class 12
 SET - 4

GEOGRAPHY
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70

General Instructions:

(i) This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections-A, B, C, D and E.

(iii) Section A Question number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.

(iv) Section B Question number 18 and 19 are Source based questions carrying 3 marks each.

(v) Section C Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.

(vi) Section D Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.

(vii) Section E Question number 29 and 30 are Map Based Questions.

SECTION-A
Q 1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India.

Reason ( R ): During this period, a rapid fall in the mortality rate and high fertility rate in the country.

a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (𝐴).

b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (𝐴)

c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q 2. Which one of the following is not an area of the sparse population?

a. The Atacama
b. Equatorial Region
c. South-East Asia
d. Polar Regions

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SOLUTIONS
Q 3. Which of the following continents has the most global commerce flow?
a. Asia
b. North America
c. Europe
d. Africa

Q 4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given options:

Statement I: Plantation type of agriculture was introduced by the Europeans.

Statement II: Plantations were subsistence oriented large scale production system.

a. Both the statements are correct.

b. Only statement I is correct.

c. Only statement II is correct.

d. Both the statements are incorrect.

Q 5. Which of the following best describes 'development'?

a. An increase in size

b. A constant in size

c. A positive change in quality

d. A simple change in quality

Q 6. Which one of the following is the largest linguistic group of India?

a. Sino-Tibetan
b. Austric
c. Indo-Aryan
d. Dravidian

Q 7. Which organisation has the world's largest single market?

a. EU
b. OPEC
c. SAFTA
d. ASEAN

Q 8. The 'gold collar' professions are:

a. hardly paid workers

b. daily wages labourers

c. highly paid executives

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SOLUTIONS
d. None of the above

Q 9. In agriculture, how much groundwater is used?

a. 72%
b. 82%
c. 85%
d. 92%

Q 10. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Water transport is much cheaper than other modes of transport.

Reason (𝑅) : Friction of water is far less than that of land.

a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (𝐴).

b. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (𝐴).

c. (A) is true, but (𝑅) is false.

d. (A) is false, but (𝑅) is true.

Q 11. Which of the following sectors has used the highest percentage of total water in India?
a. Domestic
b. Commerce
c. Agriculture
d. Industry

Q 12. Which of the following has nothing to do with the watershed development project?
a. Haryali
b. Neeru-Meeru
c. Arwari Pani Sansad
d. Van Mahotsava

Q 13. From which Barrage, Indira Canal has been taken out?
a. Bhakra
b. Nangal
c. Harike
d. Thein

Q 14. If you are asked to formulate the National Water Policy, what will be the utmost important
priority for you.

a. To provide water for generation of hydroelectricity.

b. Availability of water for industries.

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SOLUTIONS
c. To provide drinking water.

d. Availability of water for navigation.

Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17): Study the graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Q 15. How does the natural increase in population occur, as per the graph?

a. Birth Rate - Death Rate

b. Death Rate + Birth Rate

c. Growth Rate - Birth Rate

d. Birth Rate + Migration

Q 16. What does the transition from high fluctuating stage to low fluctuating stage indicate?

a. Shift from Urban Industrial economy to Rural Agrarian economy

b. Shift from Rural Agrarian economy to Urban Industrial economy

c. Low Birth and Death Rate to High Birth and Death Rate

d. Migration from Urban to Rural areas

Q 17. From the given graph, what condition can you infer about the developing countries?

a. High Birth Rate and High Death Rate

b. Low Birth Rate and Low Death Rate

c. High Birth Rate and Low Death Rate

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SOLUTIONS
d. Low Birth Rate and High Death Rate

SECTION-B
Q 18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The population on the earth is more than seven billion. It has grown to this size over the centuries. In
the early period's population of the world grew very slowly. It is only during the last few hundred
years that the population has increased at an alarming rate. After the evolution and introduction of
agriculture about 12,000 to 8,000 years ago, the size of population was small-roughly 8 million. In
the first century A.D., it was below 300 million. The expanding world trade during the sixteenth and
seventeenth-century set the stage for rapid population growth. Around 1750, at the dawn of the
Industrial Revolution, the world population war 550 million. The world population exploded in the
eighteenth century after the industrial revolution Technological advancement achieved so far helped
in the reduction of the death rate and provided a stage for accelerated population growth. (i) What
happened after the Industrial Revolution?

(ii) Which factor helped in the reduction of death rate?

(iii) In which year population was 550 million?

Q 19. Observe the given map and answer the following questions:

(i) Name the Railway line and the country where it lies.

(ii) Name the stations marked as ' 𝐴 ' and ' 𝐵 '.

(iii) State two reasons why it is the most important route in Asia?

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SOLUTIONS
SECTION-C
Q 20. How population, development and environment are inter-related?

OR
“Development is a mix bag of opportunities as well as neglect and deprivation." Explain.

Q 21. "India is a land of linguistic diversity." Support the statement.

Q 22. Define 'Human Geography' in your own words. Mention any four fields of human geography.

OR

What is the meaning of environmental determinism? How did the naturalisation of humans lead to the
development of this concept?

Q 23. "The modern economic development in the world is mainly the result of development of
quaternary service." Explain with suitable examples.

SECTION-D
Q 24. “Indian agriculture's key difficulties are low productivity and fragmentation of land holdings."
Suggest and explain measures to overcome these problems.

Q 25. Give a brief account of the two stages of development of Indira Gandhi Canal Project.

Q 26. Explain any three problems faced by slum dwellers in India.

OR

How does migration affect the environment?

Q 27. How are large scale industries different from cottage industries?

OR

Give the meaning of high tech industry. State any two characteristics of this industry.

Q 28. In recent years, India's international trade has changed dramatically. Discuss.

OR

Describe the changes in India's export composition.

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SOLUTIONS
SECTION-E
Q 29. On the given political map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A,
B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their
correct names on the lines drawn near each feature.

A. A major seaport.

B. An international airport.

C. An important Seaway

D. An area of subsistence gathering is South America.

E. An important seaport of Asia.

F. An area of Nomadic Herding

Q 30. On the given political map of India, locate and label any five of the following with appropriate
symbols:

A. Northern most Seaport on Western Coast of India.

B. A copper mine of Rajasthan.

C. A market based oil refinery located in Bihar.

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SOLUTIONS
D. Largest coffee producing state.

E. The state with highest population density.

F. The state leading in the production of jute.

G. An international airport in Kerala.

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SOLUTIONS
 le Papers
Samp t e ex cee ding
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With a 20 24 b oa rd s
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G eog r a p h y
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 SET - 5
GEOGRAPHY
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70

General Instructions:
(1) This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(2) This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections −𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷 and 𝐸.

(3) Section 𝐴 - Question number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.

(4) Section B - Question number 18 and 19 are Source based questions carrying 3 marks each.

(5) Section C-Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.

(6) Section D - Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.

(7) Section E-Question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions.

Section-A
1. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reason(R).
Mark your answer as per the codes provided below

Assertion (A): Gathering and hunting are the oldest known economic activity.

Reason (R): Primitive societies depended on wild animals.

Options:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (𝐴)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(D) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

2. Consider the following and choose the correct answer with the help of the given codes.

Type of Industries Example

I. Heavy manufacturing 1. Automobile industry

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SOLUTIONS
 II. Light manufacturing 2. Watch-making

III. Footloose industries 3. Electronics industry

IV. Small-scale industries 4. Silk weaving

Options:

I II III IV
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 1 2 3

3. The quaternary sector along with the _______sector has replaced all primary and secondary
employment as the basis for economic growth.
(A) Tertiary
(B) Quinary
(C) Medical
(D) Primary

4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of the given options:

I. Transport is a service or facility for the carriage of persons and goods from one place to the other
using humans, animals and different kinds of vehicles. Roads and railways form part of land
transport; while shipping and waterways and airways are the other two modes.

II. Transportation is an organised service industry created to satisfy the basic needs of society. It
includes transport arteries, vehicles to carry people and goods, and the organisation to maintain
arteries, and to handle loading, unloading and delivery.

Options
(A) Both statements are true.
(B) Only statement I is true.
(C) Only statement II is true
(D) Both statements are false.

5. Which one of the following is often described as a transport network?

(A) Respiratory system
(B) Arteries of circulation
(C) Blood circulation
(D) Heart circulation

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SOLUTIONS
6. Arrange the countries from the highest to the lowest on total railway network.
(i) India
(ii) Russia
(iii) China
(iv) United States of America

Options
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) iv, iii, ii, i
(C) iii, ii, iv, i
(D) iv, iii, i, ii

7. Faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development may lead to the:

(A) Depletion of soil fertility
(B) Increase of soil fertility
(C) Concentration of toxic amount
(D) (A) and (C)

8. The percentage of land in India devoted to crop cultivation is:

(A) 55%
(B) 60%
(C) 65%
(D) 70%

9. The share of domestic sector in surface water utilisation is:

(A) 2 per cent
(B) 5 per cent
(C) 9 per cent
(D) None of these

10. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given options.

Statement I: Coal occurs in rock sequences of two geological ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary
deposits.

Statement II: Coal is one of the important minerals and is mainly used in the generation of thermal
power and smelting of iron ore.

Options

(A) Only statement I is correct.

(B) Only statement II is correct.

(C) Both statements are correct, and statement II correctly explains statement I.

(D) Both statements are correct but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

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SOLUTIONS
11. Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the:
(A) Peninsular plateau region
(B) Northern Plains
(C) Himalayan Ranges
(D) Deccan range

12. The formulation and implementation of the sets of schemes or programmes aimed at development of
various sectors of the economy such as agriculture, irrigation, manufacturing, power, construction,
transport, communication, social infrastructure and services are termed as:
(A) Sectoral planning
(B) Regional planning
(C) Linear planning
(D) Implementation planning

13. The negative impact of the canal irrigation taken up in the areas surrounding the Indira Gandhi Canal
is:
(A) Increase in fertility level
(B) Water harvesting
(C) Soil salinity
(D) Both (B) and (C)

14. National Remote Sensing Agency is located at:

(A) Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Chennai
Read the following diagram and answer questions 15 to 17

15. Why does the agricultural sector use 89% of surface water and 92% of underground water?
(A) Due to poor technological growth
(B) Due to irregular monsoons
(C) Due to lack of knowledge
(D) None of these

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SOLUTIONS
16. The usage of which two sectors is likely to increase more in future?
(A) Domestic
(B) Industrial
(C) Agriculture
(D) Both (A) and (B)

17. What are the disadvantages of surface water withdrawal?

(A) Seasonal in nature
(C) Requires regular rainfall
(B) Needs treatment
(D) All of these

Section-B
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The human development index (HDI) ranks the countries based on their performance in the key areas
of health, education and access to resources. These rankings are based on a score between 0 and 1
that a country earns from its record in the key areas of human development. The indicator chosen to
assess health is the life expectancy at birth. A higher life expectancy means that people have a greater
chance of living longer and healthier lives. The adult literacy rate and the gross enrollment ratio
represent access to knowledge. The number of adults who are able to read and write and the number
of children enrolled in schools show how easy or difficult it is to access knowledge in a particular
country. Access to resources is measured in terms of purchasing power (in U.S. dollars). Each of
these dimensions is given a weightage of 1/3. The human development index is a sum total of the
weights assigned to all these dimensions. The closer a score is to one, the greater is the level of
human development. Therefore, a score of 0.983 would be considered very high while 0.268 would
mean a very low level of human development. The human development index measures attainments
in human development. It reflects what has been achieved in the key areas of human development.
Yet, it is not the most reliable measure. This is because it does not say anything about the
distribution. The human poverty index is related to the human development index. This index
measures the shortfall in human development.

18.1 What is the main focus of the human development approach?

18.2 Define life expectancy.

18.3 How is access to resources measured?

19. Study the map of India given below and answer the questions that follow:

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SOLUTIONS
19.1 How many metropolitan cities are there in Maharashtra?

19.2 Which one of them is the largest metropolitan city?

19.3 Name the eastern most metropolitan city of India as shown in the map.

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SOLUTIONS
 Section-C
20. 'Possibilities can be created within the limit, which do not damage the environment and there is no
free run without accidents". Analyse the statement.

21. Discuss any three characteristics of agro-based industries in the world.

OR

Explain any three characteristics of 'Foot Loose Industries'.

22. Explain any three characteristics of clustered rural settlements of India.

OR

"Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India." Examine.

23. Urban waste disposal in major metropolitan cities of India has become a major cause of concern in
recent years. How can we overcome this problem?

Section-D
24. How is the population density closely related to the physical and socio-economic factors?

25. Explain any five characteristics of 'high tech industry' in the world.

26. "In modern times international trade is the basis of the world economy." Support the statement with
examples. [5]

OR

Examine the five bases of international trade which are responsible for promoting international trade.

27. Explain with examples any five factors that affect the population distribution in India.
OR

What is population doubling time? Explain the characteristics of the growth of population in India in
Phase I and II.

28. Suggest the measures of promotion of sustainability in Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area.
OR

What was the main plan of the 'Tribal Sub-Plan'? What was its contribution on the development of
Bharmaur area?

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SOLUTIONS
 Section-E
29. On the given political map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D,
E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names
on the lines drawn near each feature.
(A) A major sea port
(B) Which is the largest country of Asia in area?
(C) A mega city
(D) A terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway
(E) An inland waterway
(F) A major airport of Japan
(G) Shipping canal joining the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea

30. Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the Political Outline map of India
with appropriate symbols.
(A) State having the highest urban population as per 20 census

(B) Software technology park of Telangana

(C) International airport located in Assam

(D) Eastern terminal point of Golden Quadrilateral

(E) Copper mine located in Rajasthan

(F) Bauxite mines in Odisha

(G) Southern terminal station of the North-South corridor

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SOLUTIONS
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SOLUTIONS
 le Papers
Samp t e ex cee ding
su cce ss r a
With a 20 24 b oa rd s
95 % in th e

G eog r a p h y
Class 12
 SET -6
GEOGRAPHY
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70

General Instructions:
(1) This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(2) This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections −𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷 and 𝐸.

(3) Section 𝐴-Question number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.

(4) Section B - Question number 18 and 19 are Source based questions carrying 3 marks each.

(5) Section C-Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.

(6) Section D-Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.

(7) Section E-Question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions.

Section-A
1. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reason(R).
Mark your answer as per the codes provided below.

Assertion (A): Joint sector industries are managed by joint stock companies.

Reason (R): Sometimes, only the public sectors establish and manage the industries.

Options:
(A) Both (𝐴) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (𝐴) and (𝑅) are true and (𝑅) is the correct explanation of (𝐴)

(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(D) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

2. Choose the incorrect statement regarding commercial livestock rearing.

(A) Commercial livestock rearing is associated with western culture.

(B) Pearls are formed to regulate the grazing.

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SOLUTIONS
 (C) The move from one place to another depends on the number of pastures.

(D) When the grass of one parcel is grazed, animals are moved to another parcel.

3. Insurance and finance are examples of:

(A) Low order services.
(B) High order services.
(C) Medium order services.
(D) Urgent order services.

4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of the given option:

I. Wholesale trading constitutes bulk business through numerous intermediary merchants and supply
houses and not through retail stores. Some large stores, including chain stores, are able to buy directly
from the manufacturers. However, most retail stores procure supplies from an intermediary source.

II. Wholesalers often extend credit to retail stores to such an extent that the retailer operates very
largely on the wholesaler's capital.

Options
(A) Both statements are true.
(B) Only statement I is true.
(C) Only statement II is true.
(D) Both statements are false.

5. Consider the following and choose the correct answer with the help of given codes:

Types of Roads Explanation

I. Metaled roads 1. Laid along international boundaries

II. Border roads 2. Connects major cities and towns

III. Highways 3. Made of cement and concrete

IV. Unmetalled roads 4. Rough and have dried up tracks

Options:

I II III IV

(A) 3 2 1 4

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SOLUTIONS
 (B) 3 1 2 4

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 2 3 4 1

6. Choose the sea port in Europe:

(A) Vancouver
(B) Durban
(C) North Cape
(D) Belem

7. Land under settlements (rural and urban), infrastructure (roads, canals, etc.), industries, shops, etc. are
included in:
(A) Non-agricultural land
(B) Irrigable land
(C) Agricultural land
(D) Settlement land

8. South-West monsoon in India coincides with which cropping season?

(A) Kharif
(B) Rabi
(C) Zaid
(D) None of these

9. Which of the following states has the highest percentage of irrigated area through wells and tube
wells? A [1]
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh

10. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of the given options.
Statement I: Minerals have certain characteristics.

Statement II: These are evenly distributed over space.

Options
(A) Only statement I is true.
(B) Only statement II is true
(C) Both statements are true.
(D) Both statements are false.

11. Given below are the steps to extract petroleum. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Exploration for crude petroleum

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SOLUTIONS
 (ii) Operating separators, emulsion breakers, desilting equipment and field gathering lines for crude
petroleum

(iii) Drilling, completing and equipping wells

(iv) Other activities involved in the preparation of oil and gas up to the point of shipment from the
producing property.

Options:
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i iv ii iii
(C) iv i iii ii
(D) i iii ii iv

12. Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated during the:

(A) Third Five Year Plan
(B) Fourth Five Year Plan
(C) Fifth Five Year Plan
(D) Sixth Five Year Plan

13. 'The Population Bomb' was written by:

(B) Ehrlich
(A) Meadows and others
(D) None of these
(C) Darwin

14. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was operationalised in:
(A) 1996
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 1998

Study the data of percentage of net irrigated area to total by wells and tube wells given below and
answer questions 15 to 17:

State Percentage
Gujarat 86.6
Rajasthan 77.2
Madhya Pradesh 66.5
Maharashtra 65
Uttar Pradesh 58.21
West Bengal 57.6
Tamil Nadu 54.7

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SOLUTIONS
15. Which state has the maximum percentage of net irrigated area to total by well and tube wells?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Uttar Pradesh
16 What are the implications of excessive use of groundwater?

(A) Decline in groundwater table

(B) Increased fluoride concentration in groundwater

(C) Increase in arsenic concentration in some parts of the country

(D) All of the above

17. Which state has the minimum percentage of net irrigated area to total by well and tube wells?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra

Section-B
18. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
The concept of human development was introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq. Dr Haq has described
human development as development that enlarges people's choices and improves their lives. People
are central to all development under this concept. These choices are not fixed but keep on changing.
The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives. A
meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose. This means that people
must be healthy, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their
goals.

18.1 According to Dr. Haq's concept of human development, who is central to all development?

18.2 How does HDI help the United Nations?

18.3 Why is Human Development information important?

19. Observe the given map and answer the following questions:

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SOLUTIONS
 19.1 What is India's rank in terms of rice production?

19.2 How much of the total cropped area in the country is under rice cultivation?

19.3 Name any four states in which the yield level of rice is high.

Section-C
20. How are nature and human inseparable?

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SOLUTIONS
21. Explain retail trading services.

OR

Outsourcing is providing lots of jobs in developing countries. Discuss.

22. Explain any three features of semi-clustered rural settlements of India.

OR

Explain any three characteristics each of hamleted and dispersed rural settlement in India.

23. "The urban waste should be properly treated as a resource for various needs of humankind." Explain
the values that can help in changing the urban waste into resources.

Section-D
24. Explain the economic and cultural factors that influence the distribution of population in the world.

25. Describe any five characteristics of 'Pastoral Nomadism' in the world.

26. Describe the journey of development of land transport from the days of humans as carriers and the
cableways of today.

OR

'The Rhine Waterways is the world's most heavily used inland waterway". In the light of this
statement, examine the significance of this waterway.

27. Explain how population density is closely related to physical and socio-economic factors.
OR

When does positive population growth take place? Explain the geographical factors that influence the
distribution of population in India.

28. Describe the composition of export and import trade of India.

OR

Write a note on the changing nature of the international trade of India.

Section-E
29. On the given political map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D,
E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names
on the lines drawn near each feature.
(A) A terminal station of Trans-Canadian railway line.

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SOLUTIONS
(B) A mega city

(C) An important sea port

(D) A major airport

(E) An inland waterway

(F) A major airport of India

(G) The waterway that connects the interior of the USA with the Gulf of Mexico

30 Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the political outline map of
India with appropriate symbols.

(A) The southernmost major seaport of India

(B) A major seaport that has been developed after independence to cater to the needs of western and
northwestern parts of the country

(C) A major port located in Odisha

(D) An iron and steel plant.

(E) The international airport in Kerala

(F) The leading tea producing state

(G) The integrated iron and steel plant located in Chhattisgarh

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SOLUTIONS
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SOLUTIONS
 le Papers
Samp t e ex cee ding
su cce ss r a
With a 20 24 b oa rd s
95 % in th e

G eog r a p h y
Class 12
 SET -7

GEOGRAPHY
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70

General Instructions:
(1) This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(2) This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections −𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷 and 𝐸.

(3) Section 𝐴-Question number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.

(4) Section B - Question number 18 and 19 are Source based questions carrying 3 marks each.

(5) Section C-Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.

(6) Section D - Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 𝟏𝟐𝟎 to 𝟏𝟓𝟎 words.

(7) Section 𝐸 - Question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions.

Section-A
1. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reason(R).
Mark your answer as per the codes provided below.

Assertion (A): Public Sector Industries are owned and managed by individuals.

Reason (R): Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Indian Oil Corporation (IOC), etc. are private
sector industries.

Options:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(D) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

2. Consider the following and choose the correct answer with the help of the given codes.

Activity Explanation

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SOLUTIONS
 I. Gathering and hunting 1. Wild animals

II. Primitive societies depended on 2. Oldest economic activity

III. Nomadic herding 3. Organized and capital intensive

IV. Commercial livestock rearing 4. Primitive subsistence activity

Options:

I II III IV

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 4 3

(C) 3 1 4 2

(D) 4 2 3 1

3. The highest level of decision makers or policy makers perform:

(A) Quaternary activities.
(B) Outsourcing.
(C) Quinary activities.
(D) Secondary activities.

4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of the given option:

Statement I: In developed countries, good quality roads are universal and provide long-distance links
in the form of motorways, autobahns (Germany), and inter-state highways for speedy movement.
Lorries, of increasing size and power to carry heavy loads, are common. But unfortunately, the
world's road system is not well developed.

Statement II: The quality of roads varies greatly between developed and developing countries
because road construction and maintenance require heavy expenditure.

Options
(A) Both statements are true.
(B) Only statement I is true.
(C) Only statement II is true.
(D) Both statements are false.

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SOLUTIONS
5. Given below is a list of pillars of human development and its indicators. Which of the following pair
is not correctly matched?
(A) Roads: Plays an important role in integrating people in remote areas with major cities in only a
few countries.

(B) Europe: Has one of the densest rail networks in the world.

(C) Channel Tunnel: Connects London with Paris.

(D) Golden Quadrilateral: Connects the four metropolitan cities.

6. Choose one feature of a rural marketing centre.

(A) Organised
(B) High prices
(C) Vast and scattered
(D) None of these

7. Watermelons, cucumbers, vegetables and fodder crops are:

(A) Zaid crops
(B) Rabi crops
(C) Kharif crops
(D) None of these

8. Sugarcane is a crop of the:

(A) Topical area
(B) Arid area
(C) Semi-arid area
(D) Dry area

9. Which one of the following rivers comes under East Flowing Rivers of Group-2?
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Godavari
(C) Kaveri
(D) Swarnarekha

10. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of the given options.

Statement I: The promotion of the use of non-conventional sources of energy in India is the need of
the hour.

Statement II: Unlike conventional sources of energy, most of the non-conventional energy sources
are cheaper and renewable.

Options
(A) Only statement I is true.
(B) Only statement II is true.

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SOLUTIONS
 (C) Both statements are true.
(D) Both statements are false.

11. Given below are the steps involved in coal formation. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Peat forms when plant material does not fully decay in acidic and anaerobic conditions.

(ii) A soft, brown, combustible, sedimentary rock formed from naturally compressed peat.

(iii) Bituminous coal; coloration can be black or sometimes dark brown; often there are well-defined
bands of bright and dull material within the seams. It is typically hard but friable.

(iv) Anthracite is formed when bituminous coal undergoes very low-grade metamorphism and
structural deformation.

Options
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) iv, i, ii, iii
(C) ii, iv, i, iii
(D) i, iv, ii, iii

12. The uneven pattern of development over space necessitates that planners have a spatial perspective
and draw plans to reduce regional imbalance in development. This type of planning is known as:
(A) Sectoral planning.
(B) Linear planning.
(C) Regional planning.
(D) None of these

13. The irrigation in the Command Area I was started in:

(A) Early 1940s
(B) Early 1950s
(C) Early 1960s
(D) Early 1970s

14. State highways are constructed and maintained by the:

(A) Village Government
(B) State Government
(C) ITBP
(D) Central Government

Read the following pie chart and answer questions 15 to 17

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SOLUTIONS
15. Which sector's share is the maximum in the usage of surface and ground water?
(A) Agricultural sector
(B) Industrial sector
(C) Domestic sector
(D) Both (B) and (C)

16. Identify the surface water resources used by the agricultural sector.
(A) Groundwater from wells
(B) Drainage ponds
(C) Municipal-supplied water
(D) All of these

17. Agriculture in India is mostly dependent on:

(A) Rain water
(B) Tubewells
(C) River water
(D) None of these

Section-B
18. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
The people of a country are its real wealth. It is they who make use of the country's resources and
decide its policies. Ultimately, a country is known by its people. It is important to know how many
women and men a country has, how many children are born each year, how many people die and
how? Whether they live in cities or villages, can they read or write and what work do they do? The
world at the beginning of 21st century recorded the presence of over 6 billion population.

The population of the world is unevenly distributed. The remarks of George B. Cressey about the
population of Asia that "Asia has many places where people are few and few places where people are
very many" is true about the pattern of population distribution of the world also.

18.1 What is the real wealth of a country?

18.2 Why is it important to know how many women and men a country has, how many children are
born each year and how many people die?

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SOLUTIONS
 18.3 Define population.

19. Observe the given map and answer the following questions:

19.1 What is the difference between the two areas shown as 'Under Flow' and 'Under Lift' systems of
irrigation.

19.2 Name any two districts that are benefitted by the command area of the canal in stage I and II.

19.3 Mention any two disadvantages of the Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area.

Section-C
20. "Nature and human beings are so intricately intertwined that they can't be separated". Substantiate the
statement.

21. Give the meaning of high-tech industry. State any two characteristics of this industry.

OR

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SOLUTIONS
 Differentiate between primary and secondary activities.

22. Explain the factors that determine the rural settlements.

OR

Write three differences between clustered and dispersed settlement in India.

23. Explain with examples how the industries are responsible for polluting water resources in India.

Section-D
24. "Development is qualitative change, which always has positive value". Support this statement with
suitable arguments.
25. Describe any five characteristics of 'Subsistence Agriculture' practised in the world.

26. 'Trans-Canadian Railway line is considered as the economic artery of Canada'. Support the statement
with suitable examples.

OR

What are the advantages and disadvantages of pipelines?

27. What do you know about Target Area Planning?

OR

What features are covered under the Hill Area Development Programme?

28. Classify means of communication on the basis of scale and quality into two categories. Explain any
two characteristics of each category.
Explain the importance of 'communication services' in India.

Section-E
29. On the given political map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D,
E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names
on the lines drawn near each feature.
(A) A major area of subsistence gathering

(B) Name any one area of nomadic herding

(C) Name any one area of commercial livestock rearing

(D) A port on the coast of the Red Sea

(E) The most important port of Pakistan

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SOLUTIONS
 (F) Grasslands of Australia associated with commercial grain farming

(G) A major African sea port

30. Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the political outline map of India
with appropriate symbols:
(A) A jute producing state

(B) A cotton producing state

(C) A sugarcane producing state

(D) A wheat producing state

(E) A rice producing state

(F) The state having the highest density of population

(G) An international airport situated in Punjab

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SOLUTIONS
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SOLUTIONS
 le Papers
Samp t e ex cee ding
su cce ss r a
With a 20 24 b oa rd s
95 % in th e

G eog r a p h y
Class 12
 SET - 8
GEOGRAPHY
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70

General Instructions:
(1) This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(2) This question paper is divided into five sections. Sections −𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷 and 𝐸.

(3) Section 𝐴-Question number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark each.

(4) Section B - Question number 18 and 19 are Source based questions carrying 3 marks each.

(5) Section C-Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 𝟖𝟎 to 𝟏𝟎𝟎 words.

(6) Section D - Question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.

(7) Section 𝐸 - Question number 29 and 30 are Map based questions.

Section-A
1. There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reason(R).
Mark your answer as per the codes provided below.

Assertion (A): One of the great advantages of water transportation is that it does not require route
construction. It is comparatively less expensive than the rail and road transport.

Reason (R): The oceans are linked with each other and can accommodate ships of various sizes. All
that is needed is to provide port facilities at the two ends.

Options:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(D) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

2. Consider the following and choose the correct answer with the help of the given codes: ( 5%
repetition is allowed)

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SOLUTIONS
 Highways Connectivity

I. Trans-Canadian Highway 1. links Tsingtao, Shanghai and Beijing

2. links Vancouver in British Columbia to St. John's City in

II. Pan-American Highway
Newfoundland

III. Highways in China 3. Will link South America, Central America and USA-Canada

IV. Golden Quadrilateral 4. Connects New Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata

Options:

I II III IV

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 2 1 3 4

(C) 3 2 1 4

(D) 1 4 3 2

3. Which one of the following activities comes under 'Primary Activities'?

(A) Pastoralism
(B) Weaving basket
(C) Milk vending
(D) Tailoring

4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of the given option:

Statement I: Most people from colder regions expect to have warm, sunny weather for beach
holidays.

Statement II: Weather and climate have a specific and significant impact on tourism.

Options
(A) Both statements are true.
(B) Only statement I is true.
(C) Only statement II is true
(D) Both statements are false.

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SOLUTIONS
5. Which one of the following is related to 'Kolkhoz'?
(A) Co-operative farming
(B) Collective farming
(C) Truck farming
(D) Garden farming

6. Which is the correct example of a small-scale industry?

(A) Leather industry

(B) Pickle making

(C) Beverages

(D) Computer making

7. The industries that transform products originating from agriculture, forestry and fisheries are called
as:
(A) Agro-processing industries
(B) Agro-yielding industries
(C) Agro-investing industries
(D) Agro-based processors

8. Which irrigation is used for protecting crops from adverse effects of soil moisture?
(A) Rainfed irrigation
(B) Controlled irrigation
(C) Protective irrigation
(D) Productive irrigation

9. The river basin that makes the minimum utilisation of groundwater:

(A) Gomti
(B) Luni
(C) Subarnrekha
(D) Brahmaputra

10. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of the given options.

Statement 1: Nuclear energy has emerged as a viable source in recent times.

Statement 2: Important minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium.

Options
(A) Both statements are true.
(B) Only statement I is true.
(C) Only statement II is true.
(D) Both statements are false.

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SOLUTIONS
11. Given below are the steps involved in overcast mining. Arrange the following in the correct
sequence:
(i) Drilling ore and waste rock

(ii) Loading drill holes with explosives

(iii) Blasting, ore loading and hauling to stockpiles for processing

(iv) Waste rock loading and hauling to the waste rock storage pile Options
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) ii, i, iv, iii
(C) iv, i, iii, ii
(D) ii, i, iii, iv

12. The irrigation in the Command Area II was started in:

(A) Mid-1960s
(B) Mid-1970s
(C) Mid-1980s
(D) Mid-1990s

13. What is the Warabandi system?

(A) Equal distribution of canal water in the command area of outlet

(B) Equal distribution of land in the command area affected by the construction of land

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

14. The concept of development is:

(A) Dynamic
(B) Stagnant
(C) Consistent
(D) Static
Read the following graph and answer question no. 15 to 17:

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SOLUTIONS
15. Why is Japan's population decreasing?
(A) Due to pull factor
(C) Due to government policies
(B) Due to terrorism
(D) Due to low fertility rate

16. Why is Brazil sparsely populated?

(A) Due to climate
(B) Due to drug mafia
(C) Due to less land availability
(D) Due to infrastructure issues

17. Why is Asia the most populous continent?

(A) No contact with the western world

(C) No emigration allowed

(B) Dictatorship

(D) Rich in natural resources

Section-B
18. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
Drought Prone Area Programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of
providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets. Initially,
this programme laid emphasis on the construction of labour-intensive civil works. But later on, it
emphasised on irrigation projects, land development programmes, afforestation, grassland
development and creation of basic rural infrastructure, such as electricity, roads, market, credit and
services.

The National Committee on Development of Backward Areas reviewed the performance of this
programme. It has been observed that this programme is largely confined to the development of
agriculture and allied sectors with major focus on restoration of ecological balance. Since growing

CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
 population pressure is forcing the society to utilise the marginal lands for agriculture, and, thereby
causing ecological degradation, there is a need to create alternative employment opportunities in the
drought-prone areas. The other strategies of development of these areas include adoption of
integrated watershed development approach at the micro-level. The restoration of ecological balance
between water, soil, plants and human and animal population should be a basic consideration in the
strategy of development of drought-prone areas.

18.1 Who launched the Drought Prone Area Programme?

18.2 What was the objective of this programme?

18.3 Which is the other strategy of development that has been inculcated in these areas?

19. Observe the given map and answer the following questions:

19.1 Name the country through which this canal passes.

19.2 Name the seas connected by this canal.

19.3 Why is this canal considered a gateway of Europe to the Indian Ocean?

Section-C
20. "Nature provides opportunities and humans make use of these and slowly nature gets humanised and
starts bearing the imprints of human endeavour". Justify the statement.

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SOLUTIONS
21. Describe the way of life of nomadic herders.

OR

Future of shifting cultivation is bleak. Discuss

22. Explain any three major problems of the rural settlements faced in India.
OR

Describe the development of medieval towns in India during the Mughal period.

23. Give the meaning of "Net Sown Area.' Explain any two points of difference between 'Current Fallow'
and 'Cultivable wasteland'.

Section-D
24. The disposal of urban waste has become a serious concern for the local authorities. Analyse the
statement with suitable examples.

25. Define the term 'growth of population.' Describe the third (III) phase of growth of population in India.

26. Analyse the three factors that affect the development of inland waterways. Explain the significance of
Rhine inland waterways.

OR

'The Suez Canal and the Panama Canal are two vital human-made navigation canals that serve as
gateways of commerce for both the eastern and western worlds'. In the light of this statement, explain
the economic significance of these two canals.

27. 'Services are very important aspects for the economic development of a country'. Analyse the
statement by explaining the five components of the service sector.
OR

Explain any five characteristics of quaternary activities.

28. Describe any five characteristics of commercial livestock rearing practiced in the world.
OR

Differentiate between co-operative and collective farming, stating any five points of distinction.

Section-E
29. On the given political map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D,
E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names
on the lines drawn near each feature.

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SOLUTIONS
 (A) A major sea port

(B) A major airport

(C) The country with the largest area in Africa

(D) A major railway terminal station

(E) Inland waterway

(F) One area of nomadic herding in Asia

(G) A major area of subsistence gathering

30. Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the Political Outline map of India
with appropriate symbols:
(A) The southernmost major seaport of India

(B) A major seaport that has been developed after independence to cater to the needs of western and
northwestern parts of the country

(C) A major port located in Odisha

(D) An iron and steel plant

(E) The international airport in Kerala

(F) The leading tea producing state

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SOLUTIONS
(G) The integrated iron and steel plant located in Chhattisgarh

CLICK HERE FOR

SOLUTIONS
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