BHO(CBRT)

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

Name of the post Assistant Professor, Orthopaedics,

General State Service, Class-1

Advertisement No. 83/2023-24

Preliminary Test held 28-03-2024
Question No. 001-200
Publish Date 30-03-2024

Last Date to Send Suggestion(s) 05-04-2024

THE LINK FOR ONLINE OBJECTION SYSTEM WILL START FROM 01-04-2024; 04:00 PM ONWARDS

Instructions / ૂચના
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted through ONLINE OBJECTION SUBMISSION SYSTEM only.
Physical or submission through E- Mail of suggestions will not be considered.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (proforma) published on the
website / online objection submission system.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with provisional
answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website / online objection
submission system. Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of
the Master Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the responses given
by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if responses given in the answer
sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question should be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one question
in single sheet shall not be considered.

ઉમેદવાર નીચેની ૂચનાઓ ુ ં પાલન કરવાની તકદાર રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા- ૂચન ગે કરલ ર ૂ આતો યાને લેવાશે નહ

(1) ઉમેદવાર વાંધાં- ચ

ૂ નો ફ ત ઓનલાઈન ઓ શન સબમીશન સી ટમ ારા જ સબમીટ કરવાના રહશે. બ અથવા ટપાલ
અથવા ઇ- મેઇલ ારા આયોગની કચેર એ મોકલવા આવેલ વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવામા આવશે નહ ની ખાસ ન ધ
લેવી.
(2) ઉમેદવાર વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ / ઓનલાઈન ઓ શન સબમીશન સી ટમ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત
ન ૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.

(3) ઉમેદવાર પોતાને પર ામાં મળેલ પ ુ તકામાં છપાયેલ માક ુજબ વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા- ૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર ક (મા ટર પ )ના માંક ુજબ અને તે સંદભમાં
ર ૂ કરવા.

(4) મા ટર પ માં િન દ ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહ .
(5) ઉમેદવાર ના િવક પ પર વાંધો ર ૂ કરલ છે અને િવક પ પે જવાબ ૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવાર પોતાની
ઉ રવહ માં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવાર ૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહ નો જવાબ ભ હશે તો ઉમેદવાર ર ૂ કરલ
વાંધા- ૂચનો યાનમા લેવાશે નહ .

(6) એક માટ એક જ વાંધા- ૂચન પ ક વાપર ું. એક જ વાંધા- ૂચનો પ કમાં એકથી વધાર ોની ર ૂઆત કરલ હશે તો
તે ગેના વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહ .

Website link for online objection submission system : http://gpsc.safevaults.in/login/

001. Tinel’s sign is used for
(A) to assess the severity of nerve damage
(B) to classify nerve injury
(C) to locate the site of nerve injury
(D) to assess the nerve recovery
002. Muscles paralysed in Erb’s palsy are except
(A) Biceps (B) Triceps
(C) Brachoradialis (D) Brachialis
003. Sunderland classification is used for injury of
(A) Ligaments (B) Muscles
(C) Peripheral nerves (D) Tendons
004. Inability to extend MCP joint of fingers is because of
(A) Radial nerve (B) Anterior interosseous nerve
(C) Posterior interosseous nerve (D) Ulnar nerve
005. Ulnar paradox is seen in
(A) Low ulnar lesion (B) High ulnar lesion
(C) Triple nerve disease (D) Radial nerve injury
006. Froment’s sign tests which muscle
(A) Abductor pollicis brevis (B) Abductor pollicis longus
(C) Extensor pollicis brevis (D) Adductor pollicis
007. Modified jones tendon transfer involves transfer of pronator teres to:
(A) ERCB (B) EPL
(C) Palmaris longus (D) EDC
008. Chiralgia paresthetica involves
(A) Superficial radial nerve (B) Median nerve
(C) Ulnar nerve (D) Circumflex brachial nerve
009. Which of the following MRI parameter changes would result in decreased metallic susceptibility
artifact?
(A) Increased receiver bandwidth (B) Increased field strength
(C) Increased voxel size (D) Increased slice thickness
010. Placing an MRI receiver coil farther than normal from the area of interest will result in
(A) increased signal to noise ratio. (B) decreased receiver bandwidth.
(C) decreased spatial resolution. (D) decreased signal to noise ratio.
011. You are called to evaluate a patient following inadvertent IV contrast infiltration. The technologist
informs you that ~100 mL of iodinated contrast extravasated into the antecubital fossa. Which
of the following is the primary clinical concern?
(A) Compartment syndrome (B) Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis
(C) Contrast related renal dysfunction (D) Vasospasm
012. What percentage of bone mineralization must be lost to be detected by radiographs?
(A) 10% to 20% (B) 30% to 40%
(C) 50% to 60% (D) 70% to 80%

BHO - MASTER ] 1 P.T.O.

013. Fluid appears as increased signal on a T2 weighted image because it has which of the following?
(A) Short T2 relaxation time (B) Short T1 relaxation time
(C) Long T2 relaxation time (D) Long T1 relaxation time
014. What artifact is noted on the sagittal T2 weighted MR image below?
(A) Gibbs phenomenon (B) Chemical shift
(C) Motion (D) Wraparound
015. Injecting a gadolinium contrast agent causes a sarcoma to
(A) appear bright on T1 weighted images.
(B) appear dark on T2 weighted images.
(C) appear isointense to skeletal muscle on T1 weighted images.
(D) appear bright on proton density-weighted images.
016. A patient has a large, dark colored tattoo over the area that needs to undergo an MRI
examination. Which of the following is a likely safety concern?
(A) Interference with scan (B) Susceptibility distortion
(C) Heating of the tattoo by radio waves (D) Heating of the tattoo by gradients
017. The following image of a pelvis has an artifact. What is the most likely cause?
(A) Aliasing of signal from posterior soft tissues
(B) Metal induced field distortion
(C) Poor fat suppression
(D) Patient movement
018. A 50 year old male on dialysis presents with findings concerning for osteomyelitis of the foot
and an MRI has been ordered for further characterization. What dose of gadolinium contrast
is recommended?
(A) 0.1 mmol/kg (B) 0.05 mmol/kg
(C) 0.01 mmol/kg (D) 0 mmol/kg
019. A 35 year old female undergoes a CT examination with contrast and develops severe
bronchospasm. What should you administer?
(A) 1 to 3 mL of 1/10,000 dilution of epinephrine IM
(B) 1 to 3 mL of 1/10,000 dilution of epinephrine IV
(C) 0.3 mL of 1/10,000 dilution of epinephrine IM
(D) 0.3 mL of 1/10,000 dilution of epinephrine IV
020. Which of the following is an advantage of performing a biopsy of a soft tissue mass under ultra
sound guidance?
(A) Allows for the shortest passage of the needle to the target
(B) Eliminates the need for conscious sedation
(C) Areas of vascularity and viable tissue can be assessed throughout the procedure
(D) Allows for use of a smaller gauge biopsy needle
021. A 45 year old male presents with shoulder pain after sustaining an injury playing tennis. Which
of the following studies would offer the best spatial resolution of the rotator cuff tendons?
(A) Bone scan (B) CT
(C) MRI (D) Ultrasound

BHO - MASTER ] 2 [Contd.

022. What is the difference between the T score and the Z score?
(A) The T score is the absolute bone mineral density score.
(B) The T score is calculated by comparing the patient to a young normal reference population.
(C) The Z score is the absolute bone mineral density score.
(D) The Z score is calculated by comparing the patient to a young normal reference population.
023. Which of the following is the most appropriate use of F 18 FDG PET/CT for evaluation of soft
tissue tumors?
(A) Evaluation of treatment response
(B) Biopsy needle placement planning
(C) Initial formation of a differential diagnosis
(D) Screening of at risk family members
024. A 45 year old male presents with clinical concern for vertebral osteomyelitis. The patient has an
MRI incompatible implanted device. Which of the following studies below is suggested for
evaluation of vertebral osteomyelitis?
(A) Tc 99m MDP (B) Tc 99m HMPAO
(C) Ga 67 citrate (D) In 111 WBC
025. Typically, no grid is used when acquiring extremity radiographs. Which of the following is the
best explanation?
(A) The use of the grid will block primary x rays.
(B) The use of the grid will degrade image quality.
(C) Scatter radiation is not significant in imaging the hand and foot.
(D) The use of the grid will decrease patient dose.
026. Sports injury - Keller’s operation is done for
(A) Hallax valgus (B) Hallux varus
(C) Genu varus (D) CTEV
027. A person is able to abduct his arm, internally rotate it, place the back of hand on the lumbosacral
joint, but is not able to lift it from the back. What is the etiology?
(A) Subscapularis tendon tear (B) Teres major tendon tear
(C) Long head of biceps tendon tear (D) Acromioclavicular joint dislocation
028. Cozen test is done for
(A) Frozen shoulder (B) Little leaguers elbow
(C) Tennis elbow (D) Golfers elbow
029. The ligaments connecting the menisci to the tibia are known as:
(A) Coronary (B) Arcuate
(C) Transverse (D) Oblique
030. The blood supply of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is primarily derived from
(A) Superior medial genicular artery (B) Descending genicular artery
(C) Middle genicular artery Circumflex (D) Fibular artery
031. Medial meniscus of knee joint is injured more often than the lateral meniscus because the
medial meniscus is relatively
(A) More mobile (B) Thinner
(C) Less mobile (D) Attached lightly to femur

BHO - MASTER ] 3 P.T.O.

032. Which tumor arises from the epiphysis?
(A) Ewing’s Sarcoma (B) Multiple Myeloma
(C) Giant cell tumor (D) Osteosarcoma
033. Most common benign tumor of bone in less than 20 years age group is
(A) Osteoma (B) Osteoid osteoma
(C) Osteoblastoma (D) Chondroblastoma
034. Bone to bone metastasis is commonly seen in
(A) Osteosarcoma (B) Ewing’s sarcoma
(C) Chondrosarcoma (D) Reticulum cell carcinoma
035. A 30 year old man with radiodense mass around elbow with a clear zone between the mass and
humerus. What is the probable diagnosis?
(A) Paraosteal osteosarcoma (B) Pariosteal osteosarcoma
(C) Myositis ossificans (D) Tumor calcinosis
036. A 7 years old child presents with fever and swelling of tibia. ESR and TLC both are raised.
Plain X-Ray shows periosteal reaction. The next best investigation should be
(A) Bone biopsy bone (B) MRI
(C) Blood culture (D) Pus culture
037. According to Enneking system, NOT true regarding an active benign tumor is
(A) Intracapsular (B) Margin of reactive bone
(C) Thick rim of reactive bone (D) Extended curettage is the treatment
038. Moth eaten appearance is seen in
(A) Multiple myeloma (B) Eosinophilic granuloma
(C) Osteoid osteoma (D) Chondromyxoid fibroma
039. Brown tumor is seen in
(A) Hypothyroidism (B) Hyperthyroidism
(C) Hypoparathyroidism (D) Hyperparathyroidism
040. Most common Primary bone tumor is
(A) Mulitple myeloma (B) Osteosarcoma
(C) Chondrosarcoma (D) Metastasis
041. A child is diagnosed with osteosarcoma based on sunray appearance seen on X-Ray. This is
because of
(A) Calcification along the periosteum (B) Calcification along the blood vessels
(C) Periosteal reaction (D) Soft tissue invasion
042. Management plan for osteosarcoma of lower end of femur must include
(A) Radiotherapy + amputation + chemotherapy
(B) Surgery alone
(C) Chemotherapy + limb salvage therapy
(D) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy
043. Pulsating bone tumor is
(A) Chondroma (B) Ewing’s sarcoma
(C) Osteoclastoma (D) Osteosarcoma

BHO - MASTER ] 4 [Contd.

044. The signs of malignant transformation in osteochondroma are all except
(A) Pain (B) Weight loss
(C) Increase in size (D) Increase in thickness of cartilage size
045. What is seen in Mafucci Syndrome?
(A) Enchondromas with hemangioma
(B) Hemangiomas and limb hyperplasia
(C) Hemangioma and capillary malformation
(D) Hemangiomas and precocious malformation
046. A 8 year old child present with fracture of humerus after trivial injury, X-Ray shows lytic
lesion. Diagnosis is
(A) Osteoclastoma (B) Osteomyelitis
(C) Simple Bone Cyst (D) Aneursimal Bone Cyst
047. Histological features of Unicameral Bone cyst include
(A) Blood filled cavities
(B) Endpthelial lining
(C) Fibrous tissue lining the cystic cavity
(D) Single cavity with connective tissue lining
048. Fallen leaf sign is seen in
(A) Aneurysmal bone cyst (B) Simple bone cyst
(C) Ostersarcoma (D) Osteoclastoma
049. Classical example of lytic lesion in the transverse process of vertebrae
(A) Osteosarcoma (B) ABC
(C) Osteoblastoma (D) Metastasis
050. Small round cell tumor is
(A) Rhabdomyosarcoma (B) Ewing’s sarcoma
(C) Secondaries (D) Chondrosarcoma
051. Salmonella osteomyelitis is common in :
(A) I/V drug addicts (B) HIV
(C) Pregnancy (D) Sickle cell disease
052. True about acute osteomyelitis:
(A) Secondary osteomyelitis associated with compound fracture is more common than primary
type
(B) Cannot be detected on xrays before 2 week
(C) Present with severe pain
(D) Only after >2 weeks, bone scan can detect
053. Tom smith arthritis is :
(A) Tubercular involvement of hip joint
(B) Tubercular involvement of knee joint
(C) Syphlitic involvement of hip joint
(D) Septic arthritis of hip joint in infants

BHO - MASTER ] 5 P.T.O.

054. Aspirated synovial fluids in septic arthritis will have:
(A) Clear colour (B) High viscosity
(C) Marked increase in PMN leukocytes (D) None of the above
055. What is felon:
(A) Infection of DIP joint. (B) Nail fold infection.
(C) Ulnar bursitis. (D) Pulp space infection.
056. Pulp space infection is painful due to:
(A) Rich blood supply. (B) Rich nerve supply.
(C) Small bone –phalanx. (D) Dense fibrous tissue.
057. Tuberculosis of bone is characterized by:
(A) Paucibacillary and hematogenous. (B) Multibacillary and hematogenous.
(C) Multibacillary and lymphatogenous. (D) Paucibacillay and lymphatogenous.
058. Hong Kong operation is done for :
(A) Leprosy (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Osteomyelitis (D) Septic arthritis
059. Q angle increased in ?
(A) patellar subluxation (B) genu varum
(C) femoral anteflexion (D) medial positioning tibial tuberosity
060. Blounts disease is characterized by
(A) Genuvalgum (B) Genuvarum
(C) Genu recurvatum (D) Meniscal injury
061. Siffert-kartz sign is seen in
(A) perthes disease (B) blounts disease
(C) osteogenesis imperfect (D) pulled elbow
062. Common site of osteochondritis dissecans
(A) lateral part of medial femoral condyle (B) medial part of medial femoral condyle
(C) lateral part of lateral femoral condyle (D) medial part of lateral femoral condyle
063. Microfracture technique is carried out for
(A) non union (B) osteochondral defects
(C) tumors (D) osteoporosis
064. Commonest cause of loose bodies in joints
(A) tuberculous tenosynovitis (B) rheumatoid arthritis
(C) osteoarthritis (D) osteochondritis dissecans
065. Blounts diseases in a bowleg deformity due to
(A) defect in posteromedial part of upper tibial epiphysis
(B) endocrinopathy
(C) recovery stage of rickets
(D) deformity in proximal tibia
066. Most common cause of CTEV in
(A) arthrogryposis multiplexa congenita (B) spina bifida
(C) poliomyelitis (D) idiopathic

BHO - MASTER ] 6 [Contd.

067. Pirani scoring is used for
(A) CTEV (B) DDH
(C) Perthes disease (D) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
068. One of the causes of the recurrence of club foot is due to weakness of
(A) tendon achillis (B) gastrocnemius
(C) plantar fascia (D) peroneal muscles
069. In neglected CTEV, Triple arthrodesis involves fusion of which joints
(A) Subtalar-Calcaneo cuboid-Talonavicular
(B) Subtalar-calcaneocuboid-Tibia fibular
(C) Subtalar-Tibiofibular-Ankle joint
(D) None of the above
070. Single step posteromedial release is known as
(A) ponseti (B) kite
(C) Cincinnati (D) turco
071. Pesplanus is seen in
(A) congenital vertical talus (B) CTEV
(C) Perthes disease (D) rheumatoid arthritis
072. Rigid flat foot is not seen in
(A) Athelets foot (B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) Peroneal spasm (D) Congenital tarsal coalation
073. Dilwyn Evans procedure for CTEV is
(A) 4-8 years (B) >12 years
(C) 2-4 years (D) 8-12 years
074. Pavlik harness is used to treat:
(A) Developmental dysplasia of hip (B) Perthes’ disease
(C) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (D) Congenital coxa vara
075. Irregular thigh folds are seen in:
(A) Developmental dysplasia of hip (B) Perthes’ disease
(C) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (D) Congenital coxa vara
076. Positive Galeazzi sign is seen in:
(A) Unilateral DDH (B) Bilateral DDH
(C) Distal radioulnar dislocation (D) Distal radius fracture
077. Von Rosen’s sign is positive in:
(A) Perthes’ disease (B) SCFE
(C) DDH (D) CTEV
078. Bachelors’ cast is used in:
(A) Fracture radius (B) Club foot
(C) DDH (D) Fracture calcaneum
079. Primary pathology in CDH:
(A) Large head of femur (B) Shallow acetabulum
(C) Excessive retroversion (D) Everted limbus

BHO - MASTER ] 7 P.T.O.

080. Alpha angle in DDH:
(A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) Constant (D) Variable
081. All of the following are true regarding Perthes disease except:
(A) It is avascular necrosis of the femoral head
(B) Commonly affects children in the first decade
(C) Limp and restricted rotations of the hip are common clinical features
(D) MRI is not a good confirmatory investigation
082. The commonest cause of limp in a child of seven years is:
(A) TB hip (B) CDH
(C) Perthes’ disease (D) Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
083. Perthes’ disease is treated by:
(A) High dose of calcium with steroids
(B) Total hip replacement
(C) Supervised containment of femoral head in acetabulum
(D) Relieving weight bearing
084. Steels metaphyseal sign is seen in:
(A) Perthes’ disease (B) SCFE
(C) DDH (D) Coxa vara
085. An 11-year-old 70 kg child presents with limitation of abduction and internal rotation. There is
tenderness in scarpas triangle. On flexing the hip the limb is externally rotated. The diagnosis is:
(A) Perthes’ disease (B) Slipped capital femoral epiphyses
(C) Observation hip (D) Tuberculosis hip
086. Commonest presentation of congenital dislocation of knee is:
(A) Varus (B) Valgus
(C) Flexion (D) Hyperextension
087. Charlie Chaplin gait is seen in:
(A) CDH (B) Congenital coxa vara
(C) Genu valgum (D) External tibial torsion
088. Critical age of osteotomy for genu varum is:
(A) 4 years (B) 6 years
(C) 8 years (D) 10 years
089. Winging of scapula is due to :
(A) Injury to nerve serratus anterior (B) Injury to spinal acessory nerve
(C) Injury to nerve to lattisimus dorsi (D) Injury to nerve to subscapulaus muscle.
090. Deep palmar branch of ulnar nerve supplies all except :
(A) Adductor pollicis (B) Lateral two lumbricals
(C) Palmar interossei (D) Dorsal interossei.
091. Posterior divison of obturator nerve supplies :
(A) Hip joint (B) Knee joint
(C) Adductor longus (D) Pectineus

BHO - MASTER ] 8 [Contd.

092. Which of the following bones have no muscle attachment :
(A) Navicular (B) Cuboid
(C) Talus (D) Calcaneum
093. ‘Chassaignac’s’ tubercle is :
(A) Erb’s point (B) Carotid tubercle on C, vertebra
(C) Found on first rib (D) Medial condvle of humerus
094. Os-trigonum is which type of epiphysis :
(A) Aberrant (B) Pressure
(C) Atavistic (D) Traction
095. Combination of Rickets and Scurvy is known as :
(A) Bruton disease (B) Barton’s disease
(C) Benett’s disease (D) Diaphyseal Aclasia
096. Chondrocalcinosis is seen in :
(A) Ochronosis (B) Hypoparathyroidism
(C) Rickets (D) Hypervitaminosis D
097. Renal osteodystrophy in patients on haemodialysis occurs due to :
(A) Deposition of aluminium (B) Increased phosphate levels
(C) Decreased calcium levels (D) Increased calcium levels
098. Calcium preparation of choice in calcium deficiency is :
(A) Calcium carbonate (B) Calcium sulfate
(C) Calcium metasulfate (D) Calcium gluconate
099. Osteitis fibrosa cystica is :
(A) Due to parathyroid adenoma (B) Benign tumor
(C) Locally invasive tumor (D) Defect in mineralisation of mature skelton
100. In Actinonycosis of spine, the abscess usually erodes :
(A) Inter vertebral disc (B) In the pleural cavity
(C) In retroperitoneal space (D) Towards the skin
101. Which of the following is the most common cause of amputation?
(A) Malignant bone tumours (B) Crush injury
(C) Peripheral vascular disease (D) Recurrent sepsis
102. A construction worker is brought to the casualty following a crush injury to his right lower
limb. Which of the following scores can be used to decide between amputation and limb salvage
surgery?
(A) Gustilo Anderson score (B) Revised trauma score
(C) Mangled extremity severity score (D) Trauma injury severity score
103. A patient presented to the casualty with left lower limb trauma. He underwent amputation of
the limb and tibial nerve was buried. After 2 months he presented with severe neurogenic pain
with ambulation. What is the best treatment option?
(A) Intra-articular steroid injection (B) TENS
(C) Revision surgery (D) Interferential therapy

BHO - MASTER ] 9 P.T.O.

104. Which mechanism of force causes spiral fracture?
(A) Compression (B) Twisting
(C) Tension (D) Bending
105. Amputation at the level of tarso-metatarsal joint is being performed in a patient with diabetic
foot ulcer. What is this amputation known as?
(A) Chopart (B) Pirogoff
(C) Syme (D) Lisfranc
106. In which of the following conditions, is joint replacement surgery not done?
(A) Osteoarthritis (B) Rheumatoid Arthritis
(C) Ankylosing spondylitis (D) Septic arthritis
107. De-gloving injury refers to –
(A) Skin and subcutaneous fat are stripped from the underlying fascia
(B) Skin, subcutaneous fat and fascia are stripped from tendon
(C) Skin, subcutaneous fat, fascia and tendons are stripped from bone
(D) Only skin is stripped off
108. The unhappy triad of O’Donoghue refers to:
(A) Damage to medial meniscus, LCL and PCL
(B) Damage to medial meniscus, ACL and PCL
(C) Damage to lateral meniscus, ACL & MCL
(D) Damage to lateral meniscus, LCL and PCL
109. What is the most likely mechanism of injury in a patient with a meniscal tear?
(A) Hyperextension force (B) Rotational force
(C) Valgus force (D) Varus force
110. Which is the most common fracture associated with acute compartment syndrome in adult
patient?
(A) Femur fracture (B) Forearm fracture
(C) Tibial shaft fracture (D) Humerus fracture
111. The earliest symptom of acute compartment syndrome is
(A) Excessive pain (B) Pallor
(C) Paresthesia (D) Paralysis
112. A construction worker got entrapped in a collapsed building. He sustained severe injury over
his legs. Which of the following feature is unlikely to be seen?
(A) Metabolic acidosis (B) Hypokalemia
(C) Acute tubular necrosis (D) Coagulopathy
113. A patient came to casualty after a RTA with fracture of femur, on 3rd day of admission, he
developed sudden breathlessness. Which of the following is the most common cause?
(A) Hypovolemic shock (B) Pulmonary hypertension
(C) Post trauma MI (D) Fat embolism
114. Which of the following is the earliest muscle to be involved in Volksmann’s ischemic contracture
of forearm?
(A) Flexor digitorum superficialis (B) Flexor digitorum profundus
(C) Extensor carpi radialis brevis (D) Flexor carpi Radialis

BHO - MASTER ] 10 [Contd.

115. Which of the following fractures is most prone for non-union?
(A) Proximal scaphoid fracture (B) Inter - trochanteric fracture
(C) Distal radius fracture (D) Olecranon fracture
116. Which is the most appropriate treatment for atrophic non - union?
(A) Application of cast (B) External fixation
(C) ORIF and bone grafting (D) ORIF only
117. Which of the following is not a common strategy used in the treatment of patients with infected
non unions?
(A) Ilizarov technique (B) PMMA antibiotic beads
(C) Internal fixation (D) Parenteral antibiotics
118. When does the first bony lesion of osteomyelitis appear on an x ray?
(A) Within 24 hours (B) within 48 hours
(C) During 1st week (D) During 2nd week
119. You have been asked to perform Phalen’s test. This test will be useful in identifying compression
of which nerve?
(A) Median nerve (B) Ulnar nerve
(C) Radial nerve (D) Maxillary nerve
120. A 65 year old patient complains of pain in the back of thigh and leg with mild weakness in the
leg muscles following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following nerve is likely to be
injured?
(A) Femoral nerve (B) Obturator nerve
(C) Sciatic nerve (D) Common peroneal nerve
121. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, a patient develops weakness of flex ion at elbow
and lack of sensation over the lateral aspect of forearm. Which of the following nerves is injured?
(A) Radial nerve (B) Axillary nerve
(C) Musculocutaneous nerve (D) Lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm
122. Which of the following is seen in Klumpke’s paralysis?
(A) Loss of sensation along lateral forearm (B) Loss of flexion of forearm
(C) Claw hand deformity (D) C5 nerve root is affected
123. In which of the following types of nerve damage would the sprouting axons form an end neuroma?
(A) Neurometsis (B) Axonotmesis
(C) Neuropraxia (D) Neurolysis
124. Which of the following is not a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
(A) Ankylosis spondylitis (B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) Reactive arthritis (D) Psoriatic arthritis
125. Which is the most common joint to be affected by neuropathic arthritis in patients with diabetes
mellitus?
(A) Knee joint (B) Shoulder joint
(C) Hip joint (D) Tarsal joints
126. Which is the most common joint to be involved in pseudo gout?
(A) Metatarsophalangeal joint (B) Distal interphalangeal joint
(C) Interphalangeal joint (D) Metacarpophalangeal joint

BHO - MASTER ] 11 P.T.O.

127. A 44 year old woman presents with right knee swelling. Synovial fluid examination showed
calcium pyrophospate crystals. These crystals are
(A) Needle and rod shaped (B) Rhomboid shaped
(C) Strongly negative birefringent (D) Strongly positively birefringent
128. Martel’s sign is seen in -
(A) Gout (B) Pseudo gout
(C) Osteoarthritis (D) Rheumatoid arthritis
129. A 74-year-old man presented with low back pain that was radiating to his legs. On examination
of the spine, a palpable step was felt in the lumbosacral region. What is the likely diagnosis?
(A) Spondylolysis (B) Spondylolisthesis
(C) Disc prolapse (D) Spondylosis
130. Risser’s sign evaluates skeletal maturation using the ossification of
(A) Iliac apophysis (B) Olecranon apophysis
(C) Triradiate cartilage (D) Tibial tubercule apophysis
131. Which of the following reflexes is commonly tested to detect spinal shock in a patient?
(A) Pupillary reflex (B) Gag reflex
(C) Abdominal reflex (D) Bulbocavernous reflex
132. Which of the following statements about Hangman’s fracture is false?
(A) It is fracture of pars interarticularis
(B) These fractures are classified by Levine and Edwards
(C) Most fractures can be managed conservatively
(D) It was described by Hangman
133. Which of the following statements about SCIWORA is false?
(A) It is a condition prevalent in the geriatric population
(B) These lesions are mainly found in cervical spine
(C) There is a temporary occlusion of vertebral arteries
(D) MRI is the gold standard investigation
134. Which of the following is a true statement about Girdlestone arthroplasty?
(A) It is done in early arthritis (B) It uses vastus medialis muscle
(C) It provides hip joint stability (D) It preserves hip joint mobility
135. A patient presented with difficulty with walking and a knee deformity. On examination, his
knee was found to be externally rotated, flexed and posteriorly subluxated. He was suspected to
have TB of the knee. Which of the following muscles plays a role in causing the deformity seen
here?
(A) Sartorius (B) Gracilis
(C) Biceps femoris (D) Popliteus
136. Which of the following is not a common clinical finding in cardiac tamponade?
(A) Increased pulse pressure (B) Distant heart sounds
(C) Decreased pulse pressure (D) Distended neck veins
137. Which of the following is a common sign of neurogenic shock?
(A) Hypotension with Tachycardia (B) Hypotension without Tachycardia
(C) Narrowed pulse pressure (D) None of the above

BHO - MASTER ] 12 [Contd.

138. A young man is brought to the trauma unit following a road traffic accident. He is
hemodynamically unstable. As an adjunct to the primary survey, the managing surgeon decides
to do a FAST. FAST is useful in detecting the following except
(A) Intraabdominal blood (B) Heamothorax
(C) Pneumothorax (D) Retroperitoneal blood
139. Which of the following is not expected to increase as an immediate response to surgical stress or
trauma?
(A) ACTH (B) TNF 
(C) GH (D) Insulin
140. A 25-year-old construction worker sustained an injury to his neck after falling from the tenth
floor of a construction site. The first aid team that rushed to his rescue log rolled him. According
to ATLS, what is the minimum number of people required for log-rolling this patient?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
141. A 20-year-old college student sustained an injury to his neck during a bar fight. He has triad of
hoarseness of voice, subcutaneous emphysema and abnormal mobility of larynx. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
(A) Injury to phrenic nerve (B) Rupture of esophagus
(C) Bleeding from subclavian artery (D) Fracture of larynx
142. A 35-year-old male patient was brought to the emergency department following a road traffic
accident. On examination, he had multiple injuries over his body and was found to be in class Il
hemorrhagic shock. The percentage of blood loss would be between:
(A) <15% (B) 15-30%
(C) 30-40% (D) >40%
143. A 33-year-old male patient was transfused with 4 units of fresh frozen plasma following a road
traffic accident. Within 2 hours of the transfusion, he became breathless and his oxygen
saturation dropped to 88%. Chest X-ray showed batwing appearance. This condition occurs
due to which of the following?
(A) Pericardial effusion (B) Tension pneumothroax
(C) Pulmonary edema (D) Pneumonia
144. A 22-year-old male patient was brought to the emergency room following a road traffic accident.
Upon arrival, the patient was unconscious with blood pressure of 90/64 mmHg and a pulse rate
of 139 per minute. He was immediately transfused with 4 units of packed RBCs. All of the
following complications can occur in this patient except:
(A) Hypercalcemia (B) Hyperkalemia
(C) Hypokalemia (D) Metabolic alkalosis
145. Which parameter is the best guide to monitor the adequacy of fluid resuscitation in a patient?
(A) Central venous pressure (B) Urine output
(C) Blood pressure (D) Oxygen saturation
146. A 32-year-old professional boxer was brought to the emergency department following a blow to
the abdomen. On examination, his vitals were normal, and his abdomen was tender on palpation.
Which among the following is the best immediate modality to assess the injury to the abdominal
organs for this patient?
(A) FAST (B) Explorative laparotomy
(C) CECT scan (D) X-ray Abdomen

BHO - MASTER ] 13 P.T.O.

147. Which of the following factors increases the risk of femoral neck fractures?
(A) Hypoparathyroidism (B) Proton pump inhibitors
(C) Hypertension (D) Increased levels of physical activity
148. Which of the following is considered a minor criterion for diagnosing fat embolism?
(A) Subconjunctival petechiae (B) Fat globules in urine
(C) PaO2 < 60 mm Hg (D) CNS depression
149. Insall- Salvati Index is associated with which of the following bones?
(A) Tibia (B) Patella
(C) Fibula (D) Femur
150. Which of the following structures is most likely to undergo avascular necrosis in patients with
scaphoid fracture?
(A) Waist of the scaphoid (B) Distal fragment of the scaphoid
(C) Distal pole of the scaphoid (D) Proximal fragment of the scaphoid
151. Terry-Thomas sign is most likely to be seen in patients with which of the following injuries?
(A) Scaphoid fracture at the wrist (B) Scapho-lunate instability
(C) Radio-carpal instability (D) Distal radio-ulnar joint instability
152. Optimal size of pores in bone engineering scaffolds for achieving better mineralization,
vascularization and integration into host tissue is
(A) 5 - 25 m (B) 25 - 50 m
(C) 100 - 600 m (D) 600 - 1000 m
153. Which of the following is a feature of Digital Subtraction Angiography?
(A) Can be used to evaluate neoplastic invasion of joints
(B) Non-invasive procedure
(C) Higher radiographic doses delivered compared to standard angiography
(D) Can not be done on out-patient basis
154. Gene therapy could be used to incorporate marrow stem cells that over-express the CSF-1 gene
in the management of:
(A) Osteomalacia (B) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
(C) Osteopetrosis (D) Marfan’s disease
155. Which muscles are transferred for the management of quadriceps weakness in case of post-
polio residual palsy?
(A) Sartorius and semitendinosus
(B) Semitendinosus and biceps femoris
(C) Semimembranosus and biceps femoris
(D) Semimembranosus and sartorius
156. Video assisted thoracoscopy can be used for which of the following procedures?
(A) Sympathectomy (B) Release of severe pleural adhesions
(C) Intraluminal airway mass resection (D) Treatment of pulmonary hypertension
157. Which of the following is not a part of Kambin’s triangle?
(A) superior endplate of lower vertebra (B) inferior endplate of upper vertebra
(C) exiting nerve root (D) traversing nerve root

BHO - MASTER ] 14 [Contd.

158. Following is true regarding Laminar air flow:
(A) It increases eddies and turbulence
(B) It is also known as Howarth enclosure
(C) There is movement of entire body of air
(D) HEPA filters are not used
159. As per NABH recommendations, operation theatre for joint replacement surgeries should fulfill
following requirements except?
(A) Airflow needs to be in diagonal system
(B) Minimum total air changes should be 30
(C) The minimum positive pressure is 15 Pascal
(D) Air is supplied through Terminal HEPA filters
160. Graft for mosaicplasty used in the treatment of osteochondral defect is primarily harvested
from which region of trochlea?
(A) Supero-medial (B) Infero-lateral
(C) Supero-lateral (D) Infero-medial
161. Spinal fusion may help relieve symptoms of many back problems, except:
(A) Scoliosis (B) Fractured vertebra
(C) Spondylolisthesis (D) Psoas abscess
162. Which of the following is not compulsory for a physician according to The Indian Medical
Council (Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002 and its recent
amendments?
(A) Prescribing drugs with generic names
(B) Display registration number on receipts given to patient
(C) Announce his fees before rendering service
(D) Expose incompetent conduct by other members of the profession
163. The registered medical practitioner can disclose the secrets of a patient that have been learnt in
the exercise of his/her profession except:
(A) Orders of the commissioner of police
(B) In a court of law under orders of the presiding judge
(C) Serious and identified risk to a specific person
(D) Notifiable diseases
164. Which of the following is true in relation to Disseminated intravascular coagulation?
(A) Platelet count decreased (B) Prothrombin time decreased
(C) aPPT decreased (D) Fibrin degradation products decreased
165. Following statements are true regarding Bioabsorbable screws except:
(A) They are LVM implants
(B) Polymer implants are degraded by hydrolysis
(C) Mg implants are degraded by electrochemical reaction
(D) Most commonly used for fracture fixation around ankle
166. Platelet rich plasma has recently been proven to be effective in which of the following procedures?
(A) Spinal Decompression (B) Total Hip Arthroplasty
(C) Spinal fusion (D) ACL repair

BHO - MASTER ] 15 P.T.O.

167. A 20-year-old male patient presented with a history of lower backache and early morning stiffness
for two years. He also gave a history of bilateral heel pain since 6 months. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Ankylosing spondylitis (B) Tuberculosis of spine
(C) Disc prolapse (D) Mechanical pain
168. You visit a newborn near your house and notice that the baby has CTEV. When would you
advise the baby’s parents for a consultation to put on a cast?
(A) Within 1 month (B) After 6 months
(C) After 8 months (D) After weight bearing
169. Which of the following is seen in osteoporosis?
(A) Normal calcium and increased ALP (B) Normal calcium and normal ALP
(C) Decreased calcium and normal ALP (D) Increased calcium and increased ALP
170. A 60-year-old woman with a history of Colles’ fracture 8 months ago comes to the orthopaedics
outpatient department. Her T score is -2.5 and she attained menopause at the age of 52 years.
She is currently asymptomatic. What treatment will you give this patient?
(A) Hormone replacement therapy (B) Bisphosphonates
(C) Calcium and vitamin D only (D) Repeat DEXA scan after 3 months
171. Which of the following is the most reliable method for estimation of age in adulthood
(>25 years)?
(A) Ectocranial fusion of skull sutures (B) Endocranial fusion of skull sutures x Incorrect
(C) Changes in pubic symphysis (D) Degenerative changes in teeth
172. Following is the first carpal bone to develop ossification centre:
(A) Lunate (B) Capitate
(C) Hamate (D) Scaphoid
173. You are asked to determine the sex of a person from the skeletal remains found on an empty
site. Which of the following bones is most accurate for the same?
(A) Skull (B) Pelvis
(C) Femur (D) Whole skeleton
174. Which is not a provocative test for carpal tunnel syndrome is?
(A) Durkan’s test (B) Phalen test
(C) Tinel test (D) Two point discrimination
175. Fishtail deformity is seen in the fracture of
(A) Distal end of radius (B) Distal end of humerus
(C) Distal end of tibia (D) Distal end of femur
176. Counterforce brace is used in?
(A) Tennis elbow (B) Ankle sprain
(C) Ulnar claw hand (D) Foot drop
177. All of the following are associated with Sprengel deformity except?
(A) High riding scapula (B) Short neck
(C) Dextrocardia (D) Congenital scoliosis

BHO - MASTER ] 16 [Contd.

178. A man with a POP cast for forearm fracture is prescribed analgesics. The earliest way to check
for compartment syndrome is to look for:
(A) Disappearance of pulse by removing the cast
(B) Discolouration of finger
(C) Decreased response to analgesics
(D) Odour and discharge
179. A patient presented with lower limb weakness. The examiner places one hand under the patient’s
heel and the patient is then asked to raise his other leg against downward resistance. What is
the test being performed?
(A) Hoover’s Test (B) Mc Bride Test
(C) Waddell’s Test (D) O’ Donoghue’s Test
180. Haglund deformity is seen around which of the following joints?
(A) Knee (B) Ankle
(C) Wrist (D) Elbow
181. On which aspect of the humeral head is reverse Hill-Sachs lesion seen?
(A) Posterolateral (B) Anteromedial
(C) Posteromedial (D) Anterolateral
182. Which of the following best describes the bony Bankart lesion?
(A) Avulsion fracture of the glenoid rim
(B) Rupture of inferior glenohumeral ligament complex
(C) Stripping of the antero-inferior glenoid labrum
(D) Avulsion of posterior capsular periosteum
183. Which is the most important ligament for maintaining shoulder joint stability?
(A) Superior glenohumeral ligament (B) Middle glenohumeral ligament
(C) Inferior glenohumeral ligament (D) Coracoacromial ligament
184. Rupture of which tendon is more likely to occur in patients with Colles fracture?
(A) Extensor pollicis longus (B) Extensor pollicis brevis
(C) Abductor pollicis longus (D) Extensor carpi ulnaris
185. Following in relation to capillary refill time (CRT) is true
(A) CRT is prolonged in hypovolemic shock of class II and above
(B) CRT is prolonged in class I hypovolemic shock
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
186. Hanging cast is used to treat which of the following?
(A) Olecranon fracture (B) Malgaigne’s fracture
(C) Humerus shaft fracture (D) Colle’s fracture
187. In which of the following conditions does the bone heal by increased callus formation?
(A) Necrosis of bone ends (B) Rigid fracture fixation
(C) Compression plating (D) Flexible fracture fixation
188. Which of the following is a pathognomonic sign of a long bone fracture?
(A) Pain on movement (B) Swelling
(C) Deformity (D) Abnormal mobility

BHO - MASTER ] 17 P.T.O.

189. A pedestrian was brought to the casualty after being hit by the bumper of a car. X-ray showed
a fracture of the lateral condyle of the tibia. What is the mechanism of injury causing this
fracture?
(A) Valgus force
(B) Varus force
(C) Combination of axial loading and valgus force
(D) Combination of axial loading and varus force
190. Which of the following fractures is also known as Hoffa fracture?
(A) Fracture neck of fibula (B) Fracture of tibial condyles
(C) Comminuted fracture of patella (D) Fracture of femoral condyles
191. A man presents to the emergency department with severe pain after twisting his ankle while
playing football. Ottawa ankle rules will be used in this patient to
(A) Decide on the type of reduction
(B) Decide on immediate vs delayed treatment
(C) Determine the need for an ankle MRI
(D) Determine the investigation of choice radiograph
192. March fracture is seen in the following part of second metatarsal bone.
(A) Head (B) Neck
(C) Shaft (D) Base
193. Which of the following ligaments is most commonly injured in ankle sprains?
(A) Deltoid ligament (B) Spring ligament
(C) Anterior talofibular ligament (D) Medial talofibular ligament
194. A man presented with severe pain over his foot after an RTA. Examination revealed tenderness
and swelling over the dorsum of his mid-foot. X-ray showed a displaced fracture of the neck of
the talus. Historically, displaced fracture neck of talus is known as?
(A) Cotton’s fracture (B) Pott’s fracture
(C) Aviator’s Astragalus (D) Tillaux fracture
195. A ballet dancer came to the casualty with severe pain on the lateral aspect of her foot. Radiograph
revealed an intra articular avulsion fracture of the fifth metatarsal. What is the likely diagnosis?
(A) Jones fracture (B) Pseudo-Jones fracture
(C) Stress fracture (D) Pott’s fracture
196. A 13-year-old boy is brought to the ED two hours after falling from his bicycle. He complains of
progressive pain and swelling around his left elbow. On examination, the pointing index sign is
noted. Which of the following will you suspect?
(A) Fracture of lateral condyle humerus (B) Fracture of supracondylar humerus
(C) Fracture of medial condyle humerus (D) Fracture of neck of radius
197. In which of the following patients would you suspect child abuse?
(A) An 8-year-old boy with a torus fracture of the left distal radius
(B) A 7-year-old gid with a fracture of the left lateral epicondyle of humerus
(C) A 3-year-old boy with a greenstick fracture of the right tibia
(D) A 9-month-old infant with a spiral fracture of the right femur

BHO - MASTER ] 18 [Contd.

198. An 8-year-old child was brought to the casualty with a history of a fall from the stairs.
On examination, varying degrees of ecchymosis are noted over the buttocks and upper limbs.
X-ray reveals a metaphyseal corner fracture of the right femur. What is the likely diagnosis?
(A) Albers-Schönberg diseases (B) Battered baby syndrome
(C) Vitamin D deficiency (D) Osteogenesis imperfecta
199. A construction worker got entrapped in a collapsed building. He sustained severe injury over
his legs. Which of the following feature is unlikely to be seen?
(A) Metabolic acidosis (B) Hypokalemia
(C) Acute tubular necrosis (D) Coagulopathy
200. A patient presented with non-union of tibial fracture. The orthopedician suggested treatment
by providing stability using a cast or brace. Which of the following type of nonunion does the
patient most likely has?
(A) Hypertrophic (B) Atrophic
(C) Oligotrophic (D) Pseudoarthrosis

BHO - MASTER ] 19 P.T.O.