Southwestern University PHINMA
School of Medicine
Department of Microbiology and Parasitology
PARASITOLOGY COMPREHENSIVE EXAM 2024
INSTRUCTION: CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
1. Which of the following Plasmodium has the longest Pre-erythrocytic cycle?
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Plasmodium ovale
2. Treatment of choice for uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum
a. Artesunate IV
b. Chloroquine+primaquine
c. Artemether+Lumefantrine
d. Primaquine
3. True for Quartan malaria?
a. Cause by Plasmodium ovale
b. Treatment is Chloroquine+primaquine
c. Ring forms are only seen in the Blood smear
d. No relapse
4. A traveler who has never travelled in malaria endemic areas in the Philippines wants to
take Chemoprophylaxis before travelling, What will you prescribe?
a. Mefloquine 250 mg, to take 1 tab a week before travel
b. Doxycycline 100 mg daily, a week before travel
c. Clindamycin 500 mg twice a day, a week before travel
d. All of the Above
e. A and B
5 Visceral larva migrans is caused by?
A. Necatur americanus
B. A. lumbricoides
C. E. vermicularis
D. T. trichiura
6. Lecithin membrane layer is absent in what stage of Ascaris lumbricoides
ova?
A. Unfertilized
B. Embryonated
C. Fertilized corticated
D. Fertilized decorticated
7. Which of the following causes alveolar echonococcosis?
A. E. Granulosa
B. E. Vogeli
C. E. Multicularis*
D. E. Oligarthrus
8. Trichomonas hominis can be transmitted by which of the following?
A. Contaminated milk
B. Bite of an infected mosquito
C. Ingestion of an embryonated ovum
D. Ingestion of undercooked meat
9. What is the incubation period of Acanthamoeba?
a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 12 days
d. 14 days
2. 10. What is the most common site of infection of Echinococcus spp?
A. Lungs
B. Brain
C. Eyes
D. Liver*
11. A child with nausea, anorexia, and explosive, watery diarrhea was
seen by a physician who ordered a stool examination. Small and oval cysts
were noted which has a dividing line within cyst wall and a prominent 2 pairs
of nuclei grouped at one end. Which of the following laboratory test is
considered specific test in identifying the parasite for diagnosis?
a. concentration technique
b. enterotest
c. complete blood count with peripheral smear
d. urine sediments microscopy
e. blood chemistry test
12. In female, the Trichomonas vaginalis lives in the following areas,
except:
a. urethra
b. cervix
c. Bartholin’s gland
d. preputial sac
e. urinary bladder
13. Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of
Trichomoniasis among females?
a. endometritis
b. pyosalpingitis
c. cervical erosion
d. urethritis
14. In pregnant women, at what trimester does metronidazole is safe
as treatment for Trichomoniasis?
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. A and B
e. B and C
15. This parasite got its name because of a binucleate nature of
trophozoite and fragmented appearance of its nuclear chromatin.
a. Retortomonas intestinalis
b. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Trichomonas hominis
d. Giardia lamblia
e. Chilomastix mesnili
16. Which parasite cyst is characterized by presence of protuberance
or nipple at the anterior end?
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Chilomastix mesnili
c. Acanthamoeba spp.
d. Balantidium coli
e. Dientamoeba fragilis
17. Which trophozoites exhibits a stiff, and rotary directional type of
motility?
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Chilomastix mesnili
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Balantidium coli
e. Entamoeba histolytica
18. All of the following flagellates live in the large intestine, except:
a. Trichomonas hominis
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Dientamoeba fragilis
d. Chilomastix mesnili
e. Enteromonas hominis
19. Which of the following characteristic manifestations of
Echinococcus infection?
A. Fever and abdominal pain
B. Fever and vomiting
C. Fever and jaundice*
D. Abdominal pain and eaosinphilia
20. True of pathogenesis of echinococcus infection:
A. Interbiliary rupture of the cyst the most common complication
B. Involvement of the brain may cause increased intracranial pressure
and Jacksonian epilepsy*
C. Peribronchial cysts may discharge into the liver
D. Renal involvement may cause extreme pain, hematuria, kidney
dysfunction, and hydatid material in the urine
21. The maltese cross appearance of merozoites infecting the Red blood cell will differentiate it
from plasmodium.
a. Babesia
b. Trypanosoma
c. Leishmania
d. Toxoplasma
22. When acanthamoeba affects the brain, this is /are the most affected part
a. Brainstem
b. Thalamus
c. Structures of the posterior fossa
d. Only A and B
e. All
23. The most effective method of prevention and control of Flukes?
a. Control of the second intermediate hosts
b. Eradication and control of the First Intermediate hosts
c. Eradication of the Definitive host
d. Use of Insect repelling lotions
24. The causative agent for Granulomatous Amebic Encephalitis
a. Acanthamoeba
b. Naegleria fowleri
c. Entamoeba coli
d. Iodamoeba butschlii
e. Entamoeba polecki
25. A stool examination revealed a live trophozoite with pyriform shape measuring 10 um, it
has 5 flagella. Which of the following flagellates is least likely to be considered?
a. Trichomonas hominis
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Trichomonas tenax
d. Chilomastix mesnili
26. The following are free-living amoeba except
a. Acanthamoeba
b. Naegleria
c. Balamuthia mandrillaris
d. Sappinia spp.
e. None
27. The infective stage of Acanthamoeba
a. Cyst
b. Trophozoite
c. Flagellate
d. Amoeboid
e. All
28. The incubation period of Granulomatous Amoebic Encephalitis
a. 5 days
b. 8 days
c. 10 days
d. 14 days
e. 18 days
29. A patient complaining of blood stool associated with abdominal pain sought consultation at
the Emergency room. History revealed he have alternative normal or constipated episodes for
the past week. He works in a pig’s farm. If a biopsy of the sigmoid colon is done, what is the
expected appearance of the ulceration?
a. Flask-shaped ulcer characteristic appearance
b. Round base and round neck appearance
c. Broad neck and short base appearance
d. Bottle wine appearance
30. Treatment of Choice for Coccidian infections?
a. Trimetoprim-sulfamethoxazole
b. Albendazole
c. Iodoquinol
d. Metronidazole
31. Which structure found on Red blood cell is needed in Tight attachment between the
malarial parasite and the RBC surface?
a. EBA b. Rhoptry c. Microneme d. AMA-1-RON
32. True of Granulomatous Amoebic Encephalitis except
a. Can be demonstrated in brain sections using indirect fluorescence microscopy
b. Occurs in chronically ill and debilitated
c. Can also affect persons taking immunosuppressive agents
d. Signs and symptoms of disease are very specific
e. None
33.A patient who presented with symptoms of fever, headache and inflammation of the bitesite
from tsetse fly. What are the specimen of choice to diagnose African sleeping sickness?
a. Blood
b. Lymphnode fluid
c. Chancre
d. All of the above
e. B and C only
[Link] of the following is a mechanical vector?
a. Tse-tse fly
b. Anopheles mosquitos
c. Riduvid bug
d. House fly
35. Which of the following is NOT true about the pathogenesis of Entamoeba histolytica?
A. Rapid lateral spread of the multiplying amebae produces the characteristic “flask-shaped” ulcer
B. The most common extraintestinal infection is amebic hepatitis
C. The contents of a liver abscess are bacteriologically sterile
D. An ameboma may form on the wall of the intestine and block its lumen
E. NOTA
36. The following are true of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis except
a. A rare but rapidly destructive and fatal meningoencephalitis
b. Predominantly an opportunistic infection
c. May occur in previously healthy adults
d. Can occur in healthy young children who swim in contaminated water
e. No exception
37. What is the diagnostic stage of Trypanosoma cruzi?
A. Amastigote
B. Promastigote
C. Trypomastigote
D. Epimastigote
E. NOTA
38. A 35 yo male who was diagnosed with AIDS came to the clinic with a 5-day history of malaise, anorexia
and crampy abdominal pain and associated watery stools. Upon stool microscopy, Cryptosporidium oocyst
was seen. Which of the following is NOT true of the causative agent?
A. The round oocyst contains 4 motile sporozoites
B. Its life cycle occurs within the intestinal epithelial cells
C. It is self-limiting in immunocompetent individuals
D. Acid-fast stains are necessary
E. NOTA
39. A 25 yo female commercial sex worker comes to clinic complaining of vaginal pruritus with burning
sensation. Upon PE, there was noted green-yellow frothy malodorous discharge. Which of the following is
NOT true of the etiologic organism?
A. It has a trophozoite and a cyst stage
B. Most infections are asymptomatic
C. The organism is pyriform
D. Control of infections requires treatment of both sexual partners
E. NOTA
40.A 23 year old woman who recently returned from a hiking trip came to the physician because of 5-day
history of flatulence, diarrhea, foul-smelling stools and abdominal cramping. Fecalysis revealed heart-shaped
organism with flagella. Which of the following is drug of choice for this disease?
A. Albendazole
B. Mebendazole
C. Metronidazole
D. Pyrantel pamoate
E. Ciprofloxacin
41. Which of the following parasites is an OBLIGATE Parasite?
a. Amoeba
b. Acanthamoeba
c. Ciliates
d. Tapeworms
42. A parasite property that usually causes damaging effect to humans or hosts
a. Rate of production
b. Invasiveness
c. Streamlining
d. Attachment
43. Which of the following is not a physical barrier against parasitic infection?
a. Mucous membrane
b. Acidity
c. Intact skin
d. Peristalsis
44. True of Toxoplasma gondii except:
A. The complete life cycle occurs only in the members of the feline
family
B. extra-intestinal stages are the sexual stages: tachyzoites and
bradyzoites
C. The oocysts complete sporulation within three to four days
D. Trophozoites is crescent shaped with a pointed anterior and a
rounded posterior end
45. What is the gold standard test for Echinococcosis?
A. Direct Microscopy
B. Immunoblot*
C. Ultrasonography
D. PCR
[Link] definitive diagnosis of Sarcocystis:
A. Direct fecal smear
B. Biopsy of infected muscle
C. PCR Test
D. PAS staining
47. The confirmatory diagnosis of Sarcocystis:
A. Direct fecal smear
B. Biopsy of infected muscle
[Link] Test
[Link] staining
48. which of the following describes Dientamoeba fragilis?
A. Trophozoite stage is the only known stage
B. Lives in the mucosal crypts of the appendix, cecum and the upper
sigmoid colon
C. Has two (rarely three or four) rosette-shaped nuclei
D. transmission is via the oral-fecal route transmission of helminth
eggs
49. which of the following is/are commonly used diagnostics in
Cryptospiridium hominis?
A. Intestinal biopsy material may also be examined under a light
microscope
B. Sheather’s sugar flotation and the formalin ether/ethyl acetate
concentration technique
C. Microscopy of transbronchial and broncheo-alveolar lavage
D. Direct fecal smear
50. A 35 year old female who recently returned from a Palawan trip came to the physician with complaints
of recurrent fever, chills and diaphoresis which occur every 48 hours. Blood smear was done which revealed
RBC inclusions. The patient was then given Chloroquine. Giving Primaquine is necessary for which of the
following?
A. Chloroquine-resistant strains
B. Prevent disease relapse
C. Life-threatening infections
D. Prevent hemolysis
E. AOTA
51. infective stage of Cyclospora cayetanensis:
A. Sporulated oocyst
B. Microgametes
C. Sporulated merozoites
D. Schizonts
52. A 50 year old male farmer comes to the clinic with complaints of blood in the urine and difficulty
urinating. PE was unremarkable. A KUB ultrasound was done which revealed bilateral hydronephrosis and
thickening of the bladder wall. Which of the following is the most likely animal source of the patient's
infection?
A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Pig
D. Snail
E. Fish
53. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF COMMENSALISM?
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Escherichia coli
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Plasmodium malariae
54. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE EXAMPLES OF POSSIBLE PARASITE
PREVENTION AND CONTROL MEASURES?
A. AVOIDING THE USE OF INSECTICIDE
B. PRACTICING UNPROTECTED SEX
C. PRACTICING PROPER SANITATION PRACTICES
D. EATING RAW FOODS
55. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SYMPTOMS ARE ASSOCIATED WITH
PARASITIC INFECTION?
A. FEVER, ABDOMINAL CRAMPING, DIARRHEA
B. ABDOMINAL ENLARGEMENT,
C. CHILLS, SKIN LESIONS, DIARRHEA
D. HEADACHE, DYSPNEA, ITCHINESS
56. THE PARASITE THAT CANNOT SURVIVE OUTSIDE OF THE HOST?
A. FACULTATIVE PARASITE
B. ENDOPARASITE
C. OBLIGATORY PARASITE
D. ECTOPARASITE
57. THE STAGE IN WHICH ONE OR MORE FORMS THAT CAN BE DETECTED VIA
LABORATORY RETRIEVAL METHOD
A. INFECTIVE STAGE
B. LARVAL STAGE
C. DIAGNOSTIC STAGE
D. PARASITIC STAGE
58.A 52 year old male farmer comes to the clinic with complaints of blood in the urine and difficulty
urinating. PE was unremarkable. A KUB ultrasound was done which revealed bilateral hydronephrosis and
thickening of the bladder wall. What is the treatment for the above case?
A. Albendazole
B. Diethylcarbamazine
C. Praziquantel
D. Mebendazole
E. Ivermectin
59. THE PRIMARY FUNCTION OF A HOST IN A PARASITE-HOST
RELATIONSHIP IS TO?
A. CARRY ON THE PARASITE LIFE CYCLE
B. PROVIDE IMMUNOLOGIC PROTECTION FOR THE HOST
C. CARRY ON THE HOST’S LIFE CYCLE
D. PROVIDE A FOOD SOURCE FOR THE HOST
60. A 53 year old male farmer comes to the clinic with complaints of blood in the urine and difficulty
urinating. PE was unremarkable. A KUB ultrasound was done which revealed bilateral hydronephrosis and
thickening of the bladder wall.
Upon urine examination, the eggs of the causal organism will be described as which of the following?
A. Presence of lateral spine
B. Barely visible nubby spine
C. Terminal spine
D. Protoscolices with within a brood capsule
E. NOTA
61. A 35 years old male came into the Emergency room complaining of crampy abdominal pain,
bloody mucoid diarrhea and tenesmus. Abdominal examination showed liver tenderness.
Ultrasound of the liver is suggestive of abscess. Colonoscopy showed ulceration of the mucosa.
Stool examination revealed quadrinucleated cyst and trophozoite with ingested red blood cells.
All of the following are expected features of this disease, EXCEPT?
a. This is an extra-intestinal amoebiasis
b. boiling drinking water can help stop the spread of transmission
c. It should be treated with anti-amoebic drugs
d. Liver abscess should be drain to determine if is ‘’anchovy sauce” appearance
62. Which of the following intestinal parasites can be visualized using Acid-fast staining?
a. Giardia lambia c. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Cryptosporidium spp. d. Entamoeba spp.
63. The following forms of Entamoeba histolytica can be transmitted successfully through fecal-
oral route?
a. Trophozoite c. Both
b. Cyst d. Neither
64. Which of the following is a Flagellate protozoan?
a. Entamoeba histolytica c. Entamoeba coli
b. Balantidium coli d. Giardia lamblia
65. An 8 year old male was brought to the ER because of irritability, confusion, and decreased urine output.
Her mother reported that she had a watery diarrheal episode several days prior which later became bloody.
CBC revealed decreased platelet count and schistocytes on peripheral blood smear. BUN and creatinine are
both elevated. Which of the following foods is the most likely source of the causal organism involved?
A. Fresh oysters
B. Mountain crab
C. Freshwater fish
D. Undercooked beef
E. Raw eggs
66. Causative agent of Cochin-china diarrhea?
A. Seatworm
B. Hookworm
C. Threadworm
D. Whipworm
67. An infection by a microorganism that normally does not cause disease but becomes
pathogenic when the body's immune system is impaired and unable to fight off infection?
a. Active infection c. Opportunistic infection
b. Exposure d. Carrier
68. The only nematode that cannot be controlled through sanitary disposal of
contaminated feces.
A. Hookworms
B. A. lumbricoides
C. T. trichiura
D. E. vermicularis
[Link] of the following is true about hydatid cysts caused by E. granulosus?
A. Liver is the most common location of cysts
B. Hydatid fluid can cause anaphylactic shock
C. Acquired by ingesting E. granulosus eggs from dog feces
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
70. Why is Entamoeba histolytica more pathogenic than other amoebas?
a. Entamoeba histolytica is capable of infecting the blood
b. Entamoeba histolytica can cause necrosis and ulceration of the mucosa in the
intestine
c. Entamoeba histolytica can cause Asymptomatic cyst passer to hosts
d. all of the above
71. Which of the following is not an Extra intestinal amoeba?
a. Amoebic liver abscess c. Amoebic Pulmonary abscess
b. Amoebic brain abscess d. Amoebic Dysentery
72. A distinguishing sign of Amoebic dysentery cause by Entamoeba histolytica to differentiate
it from Entamoeba dispar?
a. Mucoid, blood and foul-smelling diarrhea c. Abdominal cramp
b. Semi-formed stool d. Fever
73. One of the following is a characteristic of pernicious malaria caused by Plasmodium
falciparum?
a. Due to heavy parasitization c. it is brought about by severe anemia
b. Black water fever leading to death d. Can present as hyperglycemia
74. A patient came in for abdominal pain and right upper quadrant tenderness,
ultrasonography revealed hepatic liver abscess, 1 month prior, the patient had diarrhea and
self-treated with metronidazole for 2 days until the symptoms resolved. Stool exam revealed
[Link] cyst 0-2/hpf. What is the treatment option for this patient?
a. Treat with Iodoquinol c. Treat with metronidazole only
b. Treat with metronidazole and Diloxanide d. Treat with Diloxanide only
75. Which of the following Diagnostic method of Malaria one can appreciate the presence of
different erythrocytic stages?
a. Blood film examination b. Antigen Detection Test c. Rapid Diagnostic test
d. PCR
76. What is the definitive host of Dracunculus medinensis.
A. Cyclops
B. Dog
C. Man
D. Suso
77. What is the known vector for lymphatic filariasis.
A. Aedes
B. culex
C. Culiseta
D. Mansonia
78. Which blood type is susceptible for Giardia lamblia infection?
a. Blood group A
b. Blood group B
c. Blood group AB
d. Blood group O
e. all of the above
79. In the life cycle of Giardia, which part of the human does encystation
occur?
a. jejunum
b. duodenum
c. stomach
d. colon
e. rectum
80. All are constitutional symptoms of Giardiasis, except:
a. Anorexia
b. fatigue
c. diarrhea
d. weight loss
e. malaise
81. A distinguishing feature of Entamoeba hartmanni?
a. Trophozoite size is small compared to other Entamoeba
b. Quadrinucleated mature cyst
c. No red blood cell in the cytoplasm
d. Rod-shaped chromatin rods
82. Recrudescence is seen in what plasmodium species?
A. P. falciparum and P. ovale
B. P. malariae and P. falciparum
C. P. ovale and P. malariae
D. P. vivax and P. falciparum
E. NOTA
83. A 30-year old man from Palawan came in for paroxysmal fever, bone pains and malaise. Fine dots
present in red blood cells were seen on blood smear. These dots are present in what species of plasmodium?
A. P. falciparum
B. P. malariae
C. P. ovale
D. P. vivax
E. AOTA
84. Steven just got back home from a 4-day hike. He had been experiencing abdominal pain with repeated
bouts of loose stool and excessive foul smelling flatus. One of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the
causative agent of Steven’s condition?
A. Adhesive disc and lectin facilitate attachment
B. Chronic infection may exhibit constipation and steatorrhea
C. Trophozoites are passed in the stool but do not survive in the environment
D. Trophozoites have 4 nuclei and 4 pairs flagella
E. NOTA
85. The Black Death has killed up to one-third of the European population during the 14th century. This
disease is transmitted by which of the following?
A. Tsetse fly
B. Blackfly
C. Tick bite
D. Flea bite
E. Dog bit
86. A 43 year old male comes to the clinic because of 1 month history of on and fever with malaise. He
eventually developed DOB and cough which is occasionally blood-streaked. CXR was done which revealed
pulmonary infiltrates. Sputum microscopy revealed brown, ovoid eggs with a thick shell. What is the
treatment of the above case?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Praziquantel
C. HRZE regimen
D. Pyrantel pamoate
E. Itraconazole
87. Characteristics of Trematodes or Flukes, EXCEPT?
a. They are all Hermaprhoditic (contain male and female reproductive system in one
cell body)
b. The first intermediate hosts are mollusks
c. The infective stage to the 1st intermediate host is the miracidium
d. The treatment of choice for most trematodes is Praziquantel
88. A 20-year old female medical student recently returned from Tanzania
presents with a history of haematuria. On investigation schistosomal
serology is shown to be positive. Select the treatment of choice.
A Albendazole
B Ivermectin
C Mebendazole
D Praziquantel
E Suramin
89. A 6-year-old boy seek consult at SWU Medical Center for abdominal pain & diarrhea for
the past two weeks. On the day of consultation, he noticed “something move” in his
underpants that his mother pulled out pinkish to whitish in color. Most likely this parasite is;
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. B. Necatur americanus
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Trichuris trichiura
90. Nematode egg with Chinese-lantern appearance.
A. T. trichiura
B. A. lumbricoides
C. S. stercoralis
D. E. vermicularis
91. Which of the following Trematodes listed below requires only 1 intermediate host to
complete its life cycle?
A. Opistorchis felineus
B. Schistosoma hematobium
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Paragonimus westermani
92. In the life cycle of hermaphroditic flukes, the infective stage for the snail host is;
A. Cercaria
B. Metacercaria
C. Rediae
D. Miracidium
93. Which of the following associations is correct for Diphylobothrium latum?
A. Beetle - pleurocercoid
B. Copepod – procercoid
C. Fish - cysticercus
D. Snail – coracidium
94. When an individual harbouring the parasite is reinfected with the same specie;
A. Autoinfection
B. Parasitoses
C. Superinfection
D. Retroinfection
95. Which of the following motility is mismatched?
a. Giardia intestinalis – falling leaf
b. Trichomonas vaginalis – jerky
c. Entamoeba histolytica – sluggish
d. Entamoeba hartmanni - active
96. All of the following Schistosoma specie causes intestinal and hepatic schistosomiasis
except?
A. S. mansoni
B.S. japonicum
C. S. mekoni
D. [Link]
97. Which of the following correctly defines hepatosplenic phase of schistosoma infection?
A. Begin a few months after infection and may last for years, symptomatic patients
characteristically have colicky abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, and anemia
B. a form of dermatitis manifesting 2 or 3 days after invasion as an itchy maculopapular rash on
the affected areas of the skin
C. manifest early with liver enlargement due to parasite induced granulomatous lesions:
D. none of the above
98. Which of the following is true about Taenia solium?
A. Intestinal tapeworm is caused by ingestion of eggs in undercooked pork
B. Intestinal tapeworm is caused by ingestion of larvae in freshwater fish
C. Neurocysticercosis is caused by ingestion of eggs in food contaminated with human feces
D. Neurocysticercosis is caused by ingestion of larvae in food contaminated with human feces
E. NOTA
99. Trypanosoma brucei causes African sleeping sickness which presents with recurrent fever,
enlarged lymph nodes and somnolence. Which of the following is the cause of the recurring
fever?
A. Antigenic mimicry
B. Antigenic variation
C. Hypnozoites in the liver
D. Dead adult trypanosoma
E. NOTA
100. Creeping eruption, which is described as a raised, red itchy rash that moves with the
advancing larvae, is caused by which of the following?
A. Ancylostoma braziliense
B. Guinea worm
C. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Onchocerca volvulus
E. Strongyloides sterco
101. Which of the following people maybe at risk for contracting a parasite infection?
A. A pre schooler in the daycare center
B. A 20 yo female who is a call center agent living alone
C. A 40yo man traveller
D. A & C are correct
102. The following characteristics is observe during the macroscopic examination of stool
specimen excpet?
A. Color
B. Consistency
C. Odor
D. Gross appearance
103. Which of the following parasitic stages are not usually detected after using a
concentration technique?
A. Protozoan cyts
B. Protozoan trophozoite
C. Helminth eggs
D. Helminth larvae
104. How many flagella do Trichomonas vaginalis possess?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
105. Causes your ground itch
A. A. Lumbricoides
B. E. Vermicularis
C. T. Trichiura
D. N. americanus
