Second Term Examination

2016/2017 Academic Session

CLASS: S. S.I
SUBJECTS: CHEMISTRY
SECTION: A Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS
1. The following compounds contain the same type of bonds except a)
sodium chloride b) hydrogen chloride c) magnesium chloride d)
potassium chloride
2. If an element x with electronic configuration 2,8,3, combines with another
element Z with electronic configuration 2,8,6, the compound formed will
have the formula a) XZ B) XZ2 C) X2Z D) X2Z3 E) X3Z2
3. In which of the following crystals are the particles held by vander waal’s frce
only a) calcium oxide b) ice c) potassium chloride d) lodine e)
quartz
4. The relatively high boiling point of water s caused by a) hydrogen
bonding b) electrovalent bonding c) metallic bonding d) dative
covalent bonding e) covalent bonding
5. H – O – H + H+ (H – OH – H)+. The above illustration shows the
combination of hydrogen ion with water by a) co-ordinate covalent
bonding b) hydrogen bonding c) electrovalency d) covalent bonding
6. Which of the following is not a covalent compound a) ammonia b)
sulphur(iv)oxide c) sugar d) magnesium chloride
7. Which of the following molecules has the most bonds a) ethane b)
hydrogen c) chlorine d) ethyne e) HCL
8. Metals can conduct electricity because they have free a) molecules b)
electrons c) atoms d) lions
9. Electrovalency is also called a) covalent bonding b)ionic bonding c)
dative bonding d) hydrogen bonding
10. The components of universal indicator solution can best be separated by
a) chromatography b) filtration c) evaporation d) crystallization
11. The number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in one molecule of an acid
indicates its. A) basicity b) acidity c) alkalinity d) PH Value
12. Tetraoxosulphate(vi)acid is described as a strong acid because it is highly
a) corrosive b) concentrated c) reactive d) ionized in water
13. A weak acid is one which a) is not corrosive b) is slightly worized in
water c) does not produce salts with alkalis d) forms
14. Sodium chloride cannot conduct electricity in the solid state because it a) is
a normal salt b) is highly solube in water. C) is an electrovalent compound
d) does not contain mobile ions.
15. Alums are classified as a) simple salts b) acid salts c) anhydrous salt
d)double salt
16. The following salts dissolve readily in cold water except a) CaCl2 b)
PbSo4 c) (NH4)2SO4 d) Na2CO3 e) Na2SO3
17. A solution of PH 7 is a) acidic b) neutral c) concentrated d)dilute
18. If volume of a given mass of gas at 00c is 27.3cm3 what will be the volume of
the gas at 100c if the pressure remains constant a) 2.7cm3 b) 28.2cm3 c)
37.3cm3 d) 273cm3 e) 283cm3
19. At a given temperature and pressure, a gas A diffuses twice as fast as gas
B, it follows that; AA. Gas B is heavier than gas A B gas B is four times as
heavy as gas a) c gas b) is monoatomic d) gas A is diatomic E) gas B is
diatomic
20. Equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain the
same number of molecules is a statement of a) charles law b) boyles law
c) graham’s law d) avogadro’s law
21. The ideal gas equation can be written thus a) V1 = V2 b) T1/P1V1 = T2/P2V2
c) P1V1T1/P2T2 d) P1V1T2 = P2V2T1
22. The phenomenon observed when dust particles collide randomly in a beam
of sunlight is known as a) tyndal effect b) diffusion c) osmosis d)
brownian movement
23. An increase in the pressure of a gas results in a decrease in its a) mass b)
vapour density c) volume d) temperature e) concentration
24. A given mass of gas at 55oc has a pressure 3.6 x 104 Nm-2 and occupies a
volume of 1.8dm3, what will be its new volume if its pressure is increased to
4.8 x 104 Nm-2 at the same temperature a) 1.35dm3 b) 135dm3 c) 35dm3
d) 0.135dm3 e) 2dm3
25. What volume of oxygen will be required to burn 30cm3 of methane
completely according to the equation? CH2 + 202 C02 +2H20 A) 60cm3
B) 6clme C) 30cm3 D) 3dm3 E) 100CM3
26. Which gas law is expressed by the equation V & T a) Boyles law b)
Charles law c) dalton’s law d) Avogadro’s law
27. Metals ionize by a) losing electrons b) gaining electrons c) sharing
electrons d) melting
28. How many molecules are there in 14g of nitrogen gas at s.t.p. A) 1.2 x 1023
b) 3 x 1023 c) 6 x 1023 d) 3 x 1024
29. The following salts are readily soluble in water except a) Na2C03 b) Pb
(B03)2 c) Kcl d) CuCo3 e) FeS04
30. What is the likely formula of a compound formed between element M in
group two and an element x in group seven a) M7x2 b) M2X c) M2X7 d)
MX2 e) MX6
31. Metals are said to be malleable because they a) are good conductors of
heat b) can be beaten into sheets c) can make sound d) can be polished
32. Which of the following atoms contains the highest number of electrons in the
outermost shell a) 8O b) 10Ne c) 15P d) 19K
33. Chlorine atoms form Cl by a. Losing one electron b) sharing one electron
c) donating lone pair of electrons d) gaining one electron
34. Electrovalent compounds are characterized by a) solubility in ethanol b)
high molar mass c) high melting point d) strong oxidizing ability
35. The type of chemical bond that exists between potassium and oxygen in
potassium oxide is a) ionic b) metallic c) covalent d) dative
36. Electrostatic force of attraction between sodium ,ion and halide ion is
greatest in a) NaCl b) Na Br c) NaF d) NaI
37. Which of the following salts is stable to heat a) K2C03 b) (NH4)2S04 C)
NaHCO3 d) AgNO3
38. Compounds when exposed to air absorb water from the atmosphere without
forming a solution are said to be a) hygroscopic b) deliquescence c)
efflorescence d)hydrated
39. The bond formed when ammonia reacts with hydrogen ion to form
ammonium ion is a) covalent b) dative c) hydrogen bond d) ionic
40. The general gas equation was dermed from a) boyle’s and Gay Lussac’s
laws b) Boyle’s and graham’s laws c) boyle’s and charles’ law d)
Dalton’s atomic theory
41. Which of the following substance increase in mass when heated in air a)
sodium chloride b) iodine crystals c) magnesium ribbon d) copper (ii)
oxide
42. Which of the following salt solutions will have a PH greater than 7? A)
NaClaq b) NaC03(aq) c) Na2S04(aq) d) NaHSO4
43. Which of the following statement about dative bonding is not correct a)
there is sharing of electrons b) one atom must possess alone pair of
electrons b)one atom must possess a lone pair of electrons c) each
participating atom contributes one electron d) it can be formed between
molecules
44. Which of the following acids is dibasic a) hydrochlone acid b)
trioxosuphate (iv)acid c) dioxonitrate(iii)acid d) ethanoic acid
45. Bees inject an acidic substance when they sting. Which of the following
chemical could be used to treat stings a) CuSO4 b) MgSO4 c) BaSO4 d)
PbSO4
46. Which type of bonding exists between x and chlorine in each of the chlorides
a) metallic bonding b) ionic bonding c) covellent bonding d) dative
bonding
47. When of the following is not an acid anhydride a) P2O5 B) NO2 C) SO2 D)
CO
48. Which of the following compound is a basic salt a) Mg(NO3)2 B) (NH4)2SO4
C) K4Fe (CN)6 D) Zn(OH)CL
49. What is the mass of 6.02 x 1024 atoms of magnesium a) 240g b) 24g c)
2.4g d) 0.249
50. The pressure exerted by a gas is a function of the a) total volume of the gas
b) speed of the gaseous molecules c) mass of each gaseous molecule d)
frequency of collision between gaseous molecules

THEORY
1ai Name the types of bonds that are found in he molecule NH4CL
Ii Arrange the following bond types in the increasing order of their bond
strength: covalent bond, hydrogen bond and ionic bond
Bi water (H2O) and carbon(iv)oxide(CO2) are both triatomic covalent molecules.
Explain why water is less volatile than carbon (iv)oxide and why water is
polar whereas carbon(iv)oxide is non-polar
Ii give five differences between electrovalent compounds and covalent
compounds
2ai the gas in a balloon occupies a volume of 300cm3 at a pressure of 0.65
atmospheres and at 300c. Calculate the new volume of the fixed mass of gas
in the balloon if the temperature is increased to 600c at 0.80 atmospheres
Ii state Grahams law of diffusion and Gay-Lussac’s law of combining volumes
Bi the pressure of a given mass of a gas at a temperature of 300c is 0.75
atmosphere. Calculate the number of moles of gas contained in a volume of
2.5dm3. Assume 1 atm = 101KNm-2 and R = 8.314JK-1mol-1
Ii distinguish between a double salt and complex salt. Give a named example in
each case

3ai 250cm3 of a gas a diffused through a small hole in 35sec. the same volume of
oxygen under the same conditions diffused in 48sec. calculate the relative
molecular mass of A
Ii what do you understand by the term, hydroscopy deliquescence and
efflorescence? Give two examples in each case
Bi how many moles of aspirin, Ca H8O4, are contained in 2.5kg sample of this
compound
(H = 1, C = 12, O = 16)
Ii distinguish between concentrated and strong acid

4ai calculate the mass of lead, which would be formed when 58.23g of lead
(iv)oxide is heated in a stream of hydrogen. Equation for the reaction is
Pb3O4(aq) + 4H2(g) 3Pb(s) + 4H2O
Ii what is the mass of water formed at the same time (H = 1, O = 16, Pb = 207)
B name the acid that will be found in
(i) grape fruit (ii) sour milk (iii) linseed (iv) palm oil (v) ants vi)
vinegar (vii) rancid butter
 Second Term Examination
2016/2017 Academic Session
CLASS: SS2
SUBJECTS: CHEMISTRY
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
1. Which of the following provided an alternative path for a chemical reaction and
also lowers its activation energy? A) temperature b) pressure c)
concentration d) catalyst
2. The rate of a chemical reaction is not increased by a) the addition of a catalyst
b) an increase in the concentration of reactants c) an increase in the activation
energy d) an increase in the surface area of the reactants
3. Which of the following conditions does not affect the rate of a chemical reaction
in solution a) the size of the containing vessel b) the presence of a catalyst
c) the increase in the concentration of reactants d) the nature of reactants
4. The catalyst used in the conversion of sulphur (iv) oxide to sulphur (iv) oxide n
the contact process is a) nickel b) vanadium (v) oxide c) magnesium (iv)
oxide d) platinum
5. In the preparation of trioxonitrate (v) acid from ammonia, no heating is required
once the reaction begins because a) the product of the reaction will decompose
b) it is an explosive reaction c) it is an exothermic reaction d) it is a fast
reaction
6. Consider the equation, KBr(s) + H20(1) KBr(aq) DH = +20KJmol-1
the value of DH implies that a) the reaction is exothermic b) the reaction is
endothermic c) the reaction is irreversible d) the reaction is explosive
7. Which of the following substances absorbs some heat when dissolved in water a)
calcium chloride b) sodium trioxodisurphate (vi)crystals c) sodium
hydroxide pellets d) hydrogen chloride acid
8. Which of the following reactions will lead to entropy increase a) 2KClo3(s)
2KCl(s) + 302(g) b) C4H10 + F2O2 4CO2 + 5H2O C) 2FECL2 2FeCl3
d) H2 + Cl2 2HCL
9. Lechatelier’s principle applies to a) reactions only b) endothermic reactions
only c) reversible and irreversible reactions d) reversible reaction only
10. The reaction 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) a) could be made to
proceed in the reverse direction by an appropriate condition b) could not be
reversed by any means c) does not take place at all d) is possible but the
products are not as stated
11. Which of the following reversible reactions is not affected by a change in
pressure? A) NH4CL NH3(G) + HCL(g) b) 2SO2(g)
+ O2(g) 2SO3(g) c) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) Fe3O4(g) + 4H2(g) d)
N2O4 2NO2(g)
12. In dynamic equilibrium a) the rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of
backward reaction b) the reaction stops instantly c) the concentration of
reactants and products are the same d) the addition of catalyst increase the rate of
only the forward reaction
13. Consider the reaction represented by the following equation; H2(g) + Ni2(g). the
number of effective collisions of molecules of the reactants decreases as a) the
temperature is raised b) the presture is increased c) the volume of the system
is increased d) a catalyst is introduced
14. What will be the effect of increase in pressure on the following system at
equilibrium 2NH8(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) a) activation energy will decrease
b) the forward reaction will be favoured c) the concentration of ammoma will
increase d) the reaction will go to completion
15. What is the shape of a molecule of kCCl4 a) pyramidell b) tetrahedral c)
trigonal planner d) linear
16. Chemical reaction is represented by the equation below: A2(g) + B2(g)
2AB(g); DH = +XKJmol. Which of the following statements about the system is
correct a) the forward reaction is exothermic b) the reaction goes to completion
at equilibrium c) pressure has no effect on the equilibrium mixture d) at
equilibrium increase in temperature favours the reverse reaction
17. What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in Al(No3)3 a) +1 b) +3 c) +5
d)+6
18. What is oxidized in the reaction represented by the following equation 3CU +
8HNO3 3CU(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O a) oxygen b) hydrogen c) nitrogen
d) copper
19. The shape of CH4 is a) linear b) planar c) pyramidal d) tetrahedral
20. The oxidation number of sulphur in Fe(S04)3 IS a+2 b+3 c+4 d+6
21. Which of the following statement about a chemical system in equilibrium is
correct? the a) reaction is irreversible b) reaction goes to completion c)
equilibrium is re-established when a stress is applied d ) equilibrium position is
affected by catalyst
22. What is the function of managanese(iv)oxide in the reaction represented by the
following equation? MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 +2H2O + Cl2 a) catalyst b)
dehydrating agents c) oxidizing agent d) reducing agent
23. Reduction is the process of a) loss of electron b) loss of oxygen d) addition
of electronigatnic elements
24. The shape of a molecule of water is a) non-liear b) octahedral c) pyramidal
d) tetrahedral
25. When a reaction is endothermic a) enthalpy change, DH is negative b) heat
content of the product is less than the het content of reactant c) heat content of
reaction is non-spontaneous
26. The half cell equation for the redox reaction MnO4- + Fe2+ + H+ Mn2+ +
Fe3+ + H2O is given correctly as a) MnO4- + 8H+ Mn2+ + 4H2O; Fe2+ - e-
Fe3+ b) MnO4- + 8H+ + 5E- Mn2+ + 4H2O; Fe2+ Fe3+ e- c)
+ 2+ 2+ 3+
MnO4- + 8H + 5e Mn + 4H20; FeFe + e- Fe d) MnO4- + 8H+
2+
N+ 5e- MN2+ + 4H2O; Fe3+ - e- Fe
27. An iron nail placed in a solution of copper (II) tetraoxosulphate(vi) is soon
covered with a deposit copper which of the following equations represents the
reaction a) Fe2+(aq) + Cu(s) Fe2+(aq) + CU2+(AQ) D)
28. The type of energy changes that accompany the mixing of a strong acid to a strong
base is a) electrical b) heat c) light d) sound
29. Consider the following equilibrium system
The addition of more O2(g) to the system will shift
the equilibrium position to the a) right leading to the production of more 803(g)
b) right leading to the production of more 80xg c) left leading to the production
of more 803(g)
30. A change in the temperature of a saturated solution disturbs the equilibrium
between the a) undissolved solute and the solvent b) undissolved solute and
dissolved solute c) dissolved solute and solvent d) dissolved solute and the
solution
31. What will happen if more heat is applied to the following system at equilibrium?
X2(g) + 3Y2(g) 2XY3(g) DH =-XKJ a) the yield of XY3 will increase b) more
of XY3 will decompose c) more of X2 will react d) the forward reaction will go
to completion
32. What is the expression for the equilibrium constant (Kc) for the following
reaction?

33. Consider the equilibrium reaction below: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) DH = -

XKJmol-1. The amount of sulphur(vi) oxide produced will increase if a) the
pressure is decreased b) more heat is applied c) the temperature is reduced
d) catalyst is added
34. Which of the following equations represent a redox reaction? A)

35. Consider the reaction: H+(aq) + OH-(g) H20(l). the energy change taking place in
the reaction above is enthalpy of a) formation b) hydration c) neutralization
d) solution
36. In the reaction represented by 5Fe2+(aq) + MnO-4(aq) + 8H+ 5Fe3+(aq) +
2+ 2+
Mn (aq)+ 4H2(0) which species is reduced A) Fe b) MnO 4 C) H+ d)
-

Fe3+
37. What is the oxidation number of cromum in ½ CrO4 A) +1 B) +2 C) +4 D)
+6
38. In a fixed volume of gas an increase in temperature result in an increase in
pressure due to the increase in the a) collision between the gas molecules b)
repulsion between the gas molecules c) collision between the gas molecules and
the walls of the container d) kinetic energy of the gas
39. The collicion theory proposes that a) reactants collide more frequently to bring
about reduction in the reaction rate b) all collisions of reactants are effective
c) reactants must collide with a certain minimum amount of energy to form
products d) the fewer the collision the faster the reaction rate
40. Which of the following set of equation could be used to represent the standard
enthalpy of formation of glucose? A)
THEORY
1A describe very briefly the effect of the following factor on reaction rate and cite at
least two examples in each case:- a) nature of reactants(ii) temperature (iv) light
(iv) surface are
Bi) using the principle of reaction rate, why is it necessary to store food in refrigerator
C show by means of energy diagram only, the effect of catalyst on (i) endothermic
reaction (ii) exothermic reaction

2ai Derive the rate equation for a zero order reaction

Ii Give four differences between the molecularity if a reaction and order of a reaction
B defines and explains the following terms i) entropy ii) enthalpy iii) free energy
C when is a reaction said to be spontaneous

3a calculate the enthalph changes in the following reactions i)

B state the necessary conditions for a reaction to be spontaneous

ii) List 4 examples of a spontaneous reaction

4a Distinguish between static and dynamic equilibrium

Ii name three properties of a system that has attained dynamic equilibrium
B consider the reaction
4HCL(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g) + 2CL2(g) + 112.97KJ. What effect would the
following changes have on the equilibrium concentration of H2O(g) ? give reasons
for your answer (i) increase the temperature of the reaction vessel
(ii)increasing the concentration of O2 (iii) Decreasing the total pressure
5a on bubbling sulphur (iv) oxide gas into acidified potassium heptaoxodichromate
(iv) solution, the orange colour of the solution is turned to green due to the formation
of chromate (iii) ions. The sulphur (iv) oxide is oxidized to tetraoxosulphate (vi)ion.
Write equation for the reaction
 SECOND TERM EXAMINATION
2017/2018 ACADEMIC SESSION

CLASS: SSI
SUBJECTS: CHEMISTRY
SECTION: A Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
1) What typed of bonding exists between x and chlorine b) ionic
bonding c) covalent bonding d) datuce boding
2) The weakest attractive forces that can be observed between two
molecules is a) ionic b) covalent c) van der weals d) co-ordinate
covalent
3) The bond formed between H20 and H+ to form hydroxonium is a)
covalent b) co-ordinate covalency c) electrovalent d) ionic
4) The high boiling point of hydrogen fluoride can be explained in terms
of a) covalent bonds b) dative bond s c) ionic bonds d)hydrogen
bonds
5) Van der Waals forces are the dominant intermolecular force in a)
ammonium chloride b) chloride c) sodium chloride d) water
6) Water molecules are held together by a) covalent bond b) hydrogen
bond c) ionic bond d) van der Waals forces
7) The rate of evaporation is generally lower in electrovalent liquids
than in covalent liquids because the force of attraction between
positive and negative ion is a) greater in eletrovalent liquids b)
lower in electrovalent liquids c) greater in covalent liquids d) lower
in covalent liquids
8) Non- polar moleculers are held together by a) van der Waals forces
b) hydrogen bonds c) covalent bonds d) electromagnetic forces
9) The following are properties of electrovalent compounds except a)
they contain aggregates of ions b) they dissolve in water and other
polar solvent c) good conductors of electricity d) dissolve in none
polar solvent
10) According to kinetic theory, an increase in temperature causes the
kinetic energy of particles to a) decrease b) increase c) be zero d)
remain constant
11) A gas exerts pressure on its container because a) some of its
molecules are move faster than others b) of the collision of the
 molecules with each other c) of the mass of molecules of gas d) the
molecules of gas collide with walls of the container

12) The pressure of a gas which occupies 500cm3 at 270c is 900mm Hg.
What is the pressure of the gas at -480c if his volume is reduced to
250cm3? A) 500mmHg b) 750mmHg c) 1350mmHg d) 400mmHg
13) What volume will 1.51x1023 of carbon(iv)oxide occupy at stp a)
5.60dm3 b) 8.96cm3 c) 11.20dm3 d) 89.60dm3
14) A mixture of two gases P and Q occupying volums 300cm3 and 100cm3
respectively exerts a total pressure of 800mmHg. What is partial
pressure of Q? a) 100mmHg b) 200mmHg c) 300mmHg d)
600mmHg
15) 30cm3 of hydrogen was collected over water at 270c and 780mmHg.
If the vapour pressure of water at the temperature of the experiment
was 10mmHg, calculate the volume of the gas 760mmHg and 70c a)
40cm3 b) 35.7cm3 c) 28.4cm3 d) 25.2cm3
16) A given amount of gas occupies 10dm3 at 4 atm and 2730c. the
number of moles of the gas present is (molar volume of a gas at stp =
22.4dm3) a) 0.89mol b) 1.90mol c) 3.80mol d) 5.70mol
17) If sulphur(iv) oxide and methane are released simultaneously at the
opposite ends of a narrow tube the rates of diffusion Rso 2 and RcH2
will be in the ratio (S=32, O=16, C=12, H=1) a) 4:1 b) 2:1 C) 1:2 d)
1:4
18) A solid begins to melt when a) constituent particles of the solid is
less than the intermolecular forces c) constituent particles acquire
energy above the average kinetic energy d) energy of vibration of
particles of the solid equals the intermolecular forces
19) Which of the following gases will diffuse fastest when passed through
a porous pot (H = 1, C= 12, N = 14 O = 16) a) propane b) oxygen
c) methane d) ammorna
20) What is the temperature of a given mass of gas initially at 00c and 9
atm if the pressure is reduced to 3atm at constant volume a) 91k b)
182k c) 273k d) 819k
21) The melting point of a solid is the temperature at which the a)
crystalline structure collapses b) crystalline structure reorganized
c) solid becomes gas d) heat as penetrated the crystalline structure
22) When the temperature of 4dm3 of an ideal gas is increased from 200K
to halved, calculate the final volume of the gas a) 2dm3 b) 4dms3
c) 8dm3 d)16dm3
23) What happens when vapour condenses a) average velocity of the
molecules increase b) vapour pressure increases c)average velocity
of the molecules decreases d) vapour pressure remains constant
24) Graham’s law of diffusion is expressed mathematically as a) rate &
density b) rate ∝ √ density c) rate ∝ (1/√ density ) 2 d) rate ∝ density

25) 0.75 mol of cyclopropane and 0.66 mole of oxygen are mixed in a
vessel with a total pressure of 0.7atm, what is the partial pressure of
oxygen in the mixture a) 0.44atm b) 0.22atm c) 0.5atm d) 0.33atm
26) An oxide XO2 has a vapour density constant of 32. What is the atomic
mass of x? a) 20 b) 32 c) 14 d) 12
27) An acid is a substance which in the presence of water produces a)
oxygen b) salt c) hydrogen gas d) hydroxonium ions
28) Which of the following is a general method of preparing acid a)
direct combination of constituent elements b) reaction between an
anhydride and water c) reaction between a base and an amphotence
oxide d) dissolution of hydroxides followed by neutralization
29) The loss of molecules of water of crystallization to the atmosphere by
some crystalline salts is known as a) efflorescence b) effervescence
c) fluorescence d) deliquescence
30) The following oxides react with both acids and bases to form salts
except a) zinc oxide b) leadIIoxide c) aluminum oxide d)
carbon(iv)oxide
31) Which of the following is a normal salt a) KHSO 4 B) CA(HCO3)2 C)
(NH4)2 SO4 D) ZN(OH)CL
32) Which of the following would change the colour of blue utmus paper
an aqueous solution of a) ammonium b) chloride c) sodium
chloride d) potassium hydroxide
33) A substance is said to be hygroscopic if it absorbs a) carbon (iv)
oxide from the atmosphere b) from the surrounding c) moisture
from the atmosphere to form a solution d) moisture from the
atmosphere without dissolving in it
34) The number of hydroxonium acides produced by one molecule of an
acid in aqueous solution is it’s a) acidity b) basicity c)
concentration d) Ph
35) A solution of Ph7 is a) acidic b) dilute c) neutral d) saturated
 36) When an acid anhydride dissolves in water the solution formed would
have PH a) lower than 7 b) equal to 7 c) higher than 7 d) equal to
14
37) Which of the following PH values indicates strong acidity a) 1:5 b)
6.7 c) 7.5 d) 10
38) Which of the following salts when dissolved in water will from an
acidic solution A) KOH B) NA2SO4 C) Nacl d) none of the above
39) Ethenoic acid is a) tribasic b) unionizable c) dibasic d) monobasic
40) The alkaline property of an aqueous solution of sodium
trioxocarbonate (iv) is due to the process of a) hydration b)
dehydration c) decomposition d) hydrolysis
41) A solid melts between 800 and 850c. this implies that the solid is a)
deliquescent b) hygroscopic c) efflorescent d) impure
42) Concentrated tetraoxosulphate (vi) acid is used as a drying agent for
most gases because it is a) deliquescent b) hydroscopic c)
corrosive d) efflorescent
43) Which of the following of the following ions is acidic a) 1.5 b) 6.7 c)
7.5 d) 10
44) Which of the following compounds dissolves in water to give the
moles of hydrogen a) NaSO4 b) H2SO4 c) HCl d) HNO3
45) Which of the following methods is suitable for preparing insoluble
salts a) thermal decomposition b) oxidation c) double
decooposition d) neutralization
46) Which of the following is not a true bond a) covalent bond b) van
der waal forces c) ionic bond d) hydrogen bond
47) The high solubility of ethanol in water is due to its a) low boiling
point b) low freezing point c) covalent nature d) hydrogen
bonding
48) A sample of oxygen gas occupies 200cm3 at 270c. what will the
volume be at 1270c at the same pressure a) 287cm3 b) 1538cm3
c) 266.7cm3 d) 207.57cm3
49) A solution that contains both week acid and weak base and weak
base and has the ability to absorb small amounts of strong acid or
base with a very little change in PH is known as a) hydrolysis b)
oxidizer c) reducer d) buffer
50) The rate of diffusion gases is affected by a) vapour densities b)
atomic mass c) viscosity d) friction

THEORY
1A (i) why do elements combine with each other
 (ii) Name three different types of bonds that could be found I
chemical substances. Give one example of each
(iii) Draw a diagram to show the type of bong beterrn two flouring
atoms
B the electronic configuration of elements x and Y are as follows
Element electronic configuration
X 2,8,8,1
Y 2,7
i) write the formular of the compound formed when they combine

ii) name the type of bonding involved

iii) will the resulting compound be soluble in water
iv) will the compound have a high or low melting point

c name the bond types present I the following compounds i) carbon (iv)
oxide ii) calcium oxide iii) ethanol v) amimonium chloride (v) water

2a i) differentiate between electrovalent compounds and covalent

compounds
ii) an atom of element x has 19 electrons and combines chemically with
another element Y whose atomic number is 17 what type of chemical
bonding would you except between them? Explain your answer
b the following are electronic configurations of five element
A B C D E
2,8,2 2,8,6 2,8,8 2,8,7 2,8,3
1) Which element will react to form covalent compounds?
ii) which element will react to form ionic solids give the common
valency of the elements when they form ionic solid
3a i) state gay-lussac’s law of combining volums
ii) state graham’s law of diffusion
iii) state the kinetic theory of matter
iv) explain why an increase in the temperature of a gas of fixed
volume reults in an increase in its pressure
b(i) a certain amount of gas at 200c and 4 atm occupies a volume of 10dm 3.
Calculate its number of moles (R = 0.082 atmdm3 K-1mol-1)
ii) a gas x diffuses twice as fast as gas Y under the same conditions. If
relative molecular mass of x is 28, calculate the relative molecular mass
of Y
C Calculate the vapour densities of the following gases from the data given
 1) 560cm3 of oxygen at stp weighs 0.8g
ii) 1400cm3 of sulphur(iv)oxide at stp weighs 4.0g
iii) 1510cm3 of carbon(iv)oxide at stp weight 3g

4a i) mention three different methods of preparing acids and bases in

the laboratory. Write an equation to illustrate each method
ii) distinguish between a strong acid and a concentrated acid
iii) list three physical properties and two chemical properties of acids
and bases
iv) define the term basicity of an acid
b i) define a salt
ii) potash alum is a double salt. Explain this statement, using the
chemical formular of the alum
c give the names and formular of
i) an acid ii) a dibasic salt iii) an amphotericoxid(iv)ahydrated salt (v) a
basic salt(vi) an acid salt

5a explain and give an example of each i) hygroscopic substance ii)

efflorescent substance iii) deliquescent substance
Bi what substances are used in dessicator ii) define arhenius concept of
acid and base iii) name two gases that are used for cooking
 SECOND TERM EXAMINATION
2017/2018 ACADEMIC SESSION

CLASS: SS2
SUBJECTS: CHEMISTRY
SECTION: A Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
1) What type of reaction does the following equation represent H30 +(aq)
+ OH-(aq) 2H2O(I) a) hydrolysis b) neutralization c) oxidation d)
reduction
2) Consider the reaction represented by XIO-3 + Yi- + 6H+ 2H2O + 3I2
what are the values of x,y and z respectively a) 5,3,1 b) 5,5,3, c)
3,1,5 d) 1,5,3
3) Which of the compound can be used as a reducing agent in a reaction
a) KMnO4 B) K2Cr2O7 c) MnO2 D) Na2SO3
4) Which statement best describes the process of oxidation a) addition
of hydrogen b) loss of oxygen c) loss of electrons d) gain of
electrons
5) Determine the oxidation number of chromium in the cound K2Cr2O7
a) +2 b) +3 c) +5 d)+5 d)+6
6) X forms a trivalent cation while Y forms a divalent anion. The
dissociation of a compound of x and y can be written as a) 3xy 2
x3+ +y2- b)xy x3+ +y2- c) x2y3 2x3+ + 3y2- d) x3y2 x3+ + y2-
7) What is the change in the oxidation number of Mn in the following
reaction Mn0-4 + 8H- + 5-e Mn2+ 4H20 a) +8 to 2 b) +7 to +2
c) -4 to +2 d) -11 to +2
8) What quantity of elections (in mole) is lost when one mole of iron(II)
ions is oxidized to ion (III) ions a) 4moles b) 3moles c) 2moles d)
1 mole
9) H2S + Cl2 2HCl + 5. The oxidizing agent in the reaction above is
a) H2S b) HCL C) CL2 D) S
10) In which of the following reactions has the oxidation number of
nitrogen mereases a) 2NO + Br 2NOBr b) FeSO 4+No
Fe(NO)SO4 c) 2NO+CL2 2NOCL D) 2NO + O2 2NO2
11) CU2S + O2 2CU + SO 2. What is the change in the oxidation
number of copper in the reaction above a) +1 to o b) 0 to +2 c) +2
to 1 d) o to +1
12) 3CU2 + 8HN03 3CU(NO 3)2 + 4H20+2NO. in the above
equation, copper is a) abase b) an oxidizing agent c) a reducing
agent d) an electron acceptor
13) what is the value of x in the following equation Mn0-4 +4H+ Xe-
 MnO2 + 2H20 a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 7
14) Fe + CU2+ Fe2+ + CU. The reaction above, it can be
inferred that a) Fe is the oxidizing agent b) CU2+ loss electron c)
Fe is reduced d) CU2+ is the oxidizing agent

15) the oxidation number of X in XO3-4 is a) +2 b) +3 c)+4

d)+5
16) reactions are generally faster at higher temperatures
because the a) activation energy increase b) energy of the products
is lowered c) energy of the reactants decrease d) numbers of
effective collisions increases
17) which of these methods is not used to determine the rate of
a reaction a) change in amount of precipitate formed b) change in
intensity of colour c) change in PH values d) change in total gas
pressure
18) the minimum amount of energy required for a chemical
reaction to occur is known as the a) activation energy b) free
energy c) energy of reaction d) energy of formation
19) which of the following is true of a catalyst ? i. it acters the
activities energy of a reaction ii. It is effective in a reaction but
cannot initiate a reaction iii. It affect the equilibrium of a reversible
reaction iv. It affect the overall reaction a)I and II b) I , II and III
only C) II and III only d) II, III and IV only
20) which of the following statements about chemical reactions
is not correct, the a) higher the activation energy the faster the
reaction b) lower the activations energy the faster the reaction c)
higher the temperature the faster the reaction d) addition of
catalyst lowers the activation energy
21) the collision theory proposes that a) reactants collide more
frequently to bring about reduction in the reaction rate b) all
collisions of reactants are effective c) reactants must collide with a
certain amount of energy to form products d) the fewer the
collisions the faster the reaction rate
22) the reaction of a fixed mass of iron fillings with 0.5mol dm-3
HCL can be made to proceed faster by a) adding 0.5mol-3 NaoH b)
using 0.25moldm-3 acid instead c) increasing the volume of acid used
d) adding some concentrated HCL
23) which of the following best explains the increase in the rate
of a chemical reaction as the temperature rises a) lower proportion
of the molecules has the necessary minimum energy to react b) the
bonds in the reacting molecules are readily broken c) the collision
frequency of the molecules increases. D) the molecular collisions
become more violent
24) CaCO3 + 2HCL(aq) CaCL2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g). in the
reaction above, the rate of reaction may be increased by a) using
 powdered CaCO3 b) using lumps of CaCO3 c) applying high
pressure d) using dilute HCL
25) In which of the processes represented by the following
equations will the rate be affected by the surface area of the starting
materials a) Zn(s) + H2S04(aq) ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g) b)NH40H(aq) + HCL(L)
NaCL(aq) + H2O(L) C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) d) NH3(g) + HCL(L)
NH4CL(g)
26) Which of the following is true of an endothermic reaction a)
heat energy is absorbed b) a catalyst is required c) it occurs
reversibly d) activation energy is high
27) A measure of the degree of disorderliness in a chemical system is
known as the a) activation energy b) enthalpy c) entropy d) free
energy
28) If the value of ∆ H for a reaction is negative, it means that the
reaction is a) endothermic b) exothermic c) irreversible d)
spontaneous
29) The reaction represented by the equation C+H2O H2 was
carried out at 270c. if the enthalpy change and the entropy change are
4500J and 12J respectively, what is the fee energy change a) -4176J
b) -900 c) 900J d) 4176J
30) Which of the following is a condition for the spontaneity of a
reaction a) ∆ H – T ∆ S = -Ve B) ∆ H – T ∆ S = O C) ∆ H – T ∆
S = +Ve d) ∆ S =+Ve
31) How much heat will be liberated if 8g of hydrogen burns in
excess oxygen according to the following equation 2H2 + O2 2H20
∆ H = -571.7KJ (H = 1,0 = 16) a) 142.9KJ B) 285.9KJ C) 571.7KJ
D) 1143.4KJ
32) Which of the following equation shows that a reaction is in
equilibrium a) ∆ G < O B) ∆ G = ∆ H – T ∆ S C) ∆ G > 0 D)
∆G=0
33) NH3(g) + HCL (g) NH4CL(S) The entropy change in the system
above is a) zero b) indeterminate c) positive d) negative
34) C + 25 CS2 H = +89KJMOL-1 the chemical equation above
implies that a) 89KJ of energy is absorbed b) each of carbon and
sulphur has 89KJ of energy C) both carbon and sulphur contribute
89KJ of energy d) 89KJ of energy is released
35) The entropy and enthalpy of a system are a measure of a)
degree of disorderliness and heat content respectively b) heat
content and degree of disorderliness respectively c) heat content of
a system only d) degree of disorderliness only
36) Consider the reaction represented by the equation CH4 + 202
2H2O + CO2 H = -890KJmol-1 H represents enthalopy of a)
activation b) combustion c) dissolution d) formation
37) The position of equilibrium in a reversible reaction is affected by
a) particle size of the elements b) change in concentration of the
 reactants c) change in size of the reaction vessel d) presence of a
catalyst
38) Which of the following is false about an equilibrium reaction
represented as shown below? P + Q R+S ∆ H = - XKJmol-1 a)
increase in temperature will favour the reverse reaction b) addition
of a catalyst will favour only the forward reaction c) the reactant s
and products are present d) the forward and reverse reactions
proceed at the same rate
39) What is the PH of solution whose H+ concentration is 3.0 x 10-
5
moldm-3 a) 3 b) 45 c) l4.52 d) 5.00
40) PCL5(g) PCL3(G) + CL2 (g). in the reaction above a
decrease in pressure will a) decelerate the reaction b) increase the
yield of Pcl3 c) increase the yield of PCL3 d) accelerate the reaction
41) Consider the reversible reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
the proportion of NH3 in the equilibrium mixture would be increased
by a)addition of finely divided iron as catalyst b) decreasing the
pressure of the system the c) increasing the temperature of the
system d) decreasing the temperature of the system
42) In the equilibrium reaction A C+D, more of C and D are
produced when temperature is increased. which of the following
statements is a correct deduction from the reaction a) is exothermic
in the forward direction b) is endothermic in the forward direction
c) does not require catalyst d) has low activation energy
43) Consider the reaction CU2+(aq) + 4NH3(aq) (CU(NH3)4aq)2+ the deep
blue of the product will fade on adding (A) CU2+ (B) H2SO4 C)
NH3(aq) d) NaCL(aq)
44) In the reaction E+F G+K, the backward reaction is favored if
a) F is increased b) E is increased c) is reduced d) G is reduced
45) 2S02(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) H =-189KJmol-1 the equilibrium constant
for the reaction above is increased by a) increasing the pressure of
the system b) increasing the temperature of the system c)
increasing the surface area of the vessel d) the addition of a catalyst
to the system
46) P(g)+Q(G) 3R(s) H = -Ve. Which of the following will
increase the yield of R? a) removing some s (B) using a larger
closed vessels c) adding a positive catalyst d) increasing the
temperature
47) He most important use of hydrogen is in the a) manufacture of
amomonia b) manufacture of methy alcohol c) manufacture of
ethyl alcohol d) hydrogenation of oils
48) Hydrogen is ready releases when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts
with a) CU B) Na c) Au d) Ag
49) Hydrogen is used in oxy-hydrogen flames melting metals because
it a) evolves a lot of heat when burnt b) combines explosively with
oxygen ( c) is a very light gas d) is a rocket fuel
 50) Hydrogen gas is not found in the atmosphere because it readily
react with a) nitrogen b) carbon(II)oxide c) oxygen d) N02

THEORY

1a i) define oxidation in terms of electrons transfer

ii) write a balanced equations for the half reactions for the following
charged in acid soluions MnO4-+Fe2+ Mn2+ + Fe3+

iii) define oxidizing and reducing agents

b(i) write a balanced ionic equation for the redox reaction between
tetraoxomanganate(viii)ion, MnO-4 and hydrazine, N2H4 in alkaline solution

ii) Calculate the oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7

2(a)I on what principle is ,collision theory based for a reaction to

occur?
Ii use your knowledge of the effect of surface are of a reactant to explain
the rates of reaction of different forms of marble
iii) using the collision theory, explain the effect of temperature on the rate
of chemical reaction
bi) explain the term activation energy
ii using diagrams (energy profile) only, show the difference between
endothermic and exothermic reactions
iii list the factors which affect the rates of chemical reactions
c)i define the term catalyst and give five characteristic of a catalyst
ii using energy profile diagrams, show catalyzed and uncatalyzed
reactions

3a what is meant by i) enthalpy ii) entropy iii) free energy

Bi explain why enthalpy data alone cannot be used to predict whether or
not a reaction can occur spontaneously
Ii give the formular indicating the relationship between entropy, free
energy and enthalpy change of a system
c) calculate i) the standard enthalpy change, ∆ HO
ii) standard entropy change, ∆ S0 iii) the standard free energy change at
300c and 500c for the reaction
Fe2O3(s) + 3H2(g) 2Fe(s) + 3H2O(g)
Given that standard entropies of Fe2O3, H2, Fe and H20 are 90, 131,
27 and 189JK-1mol-1 respectively and the standard enthalpies
are -822, 0, 0 and -242kjmol-1 respectively.

4a) calculate i) the standard free energy charge at 250c and (ii) the
equilibrium constant for the reaction
 PCL5(L) PCL3(L) + CL2(g), given that the free energy values of
formation of PCL5, PCL3 and CL2 at 250c are -305, -268 and
0.00KJK-1mol-1)
B i) what is meant by an equilibrium system?
ii)state Le-chatelier’s principle
iii) state the effect of pressure on these reactions
N204(g) 2N02(g)
N2(g) + 3H2 2NH3(g)
H2(g) + I(g) 2Hg
Ci state the properties of hydrogen which makes it suitable for
filling meteorological ballons
Ii why is helium preferred to hydrogen for filling ballons
 Second Term Examination
2017/2018 Academic Session
CLASS: SS1
SUBJECTS: Further Maths
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
1) Fine the 4 term of an A.P whose first term is 2 and the common
th

different is 0.5 a) 0.5 b)2.5 c) 3.5 d) 4

2) Find the 9th term of the AP 18,12,6,0,-6 a) -54 b) -30 c) 30 d) 42
3) The coefficient of the fifth, sixth and seventh terms in the expansion of
(1 + x) 7, in ascending power of x, form a linear sequence (AP). Find the
common difference a) -14 b) 3 c) 6 d) 14
4) Given that 443 is the nth term of the A.P 5 + 8+ 11 +………, Find n a) 89
b) 147 c) 148 d) 441
5) If the 6th term of an AP is 11 and the first term is 1, find the common
difference a) 12/5 b) 5/3 c) -2 d) 2
6) The sixth term of an AP is half of its tweifth term the firth term is equal
to a) zero b) half of the common difference c) double the common n
difference d) the common difference
7) If the 9th term of an AP is five terms the 5th term, find the relationship
between a and d a) 3a + 5d = 0 b) a+2d = 0 c) 2a+ d =0 d) a + 3d = 0
8) The 4th term of an A.P is 8 while the common difference is -2. Find the
15th term of the progression a)32 b) 28 c) -14 d) -32
9) The 12th term of an AP is four times 4th term. What is the relationship
between the first term ( a) and the common difference (d)? a) 5a –
23d = 0 b) d-3a =0 c) d+3a = 0 d) 4d – 3a = 0 e) 23d + 5a = 0
10) The third term of a linear sequence (A.P) is 16 and its 6th term is
34. Find the second term a) 12 b) 10 c) 8 d) 6
11) The 4th and 13th terms of an AP are 3 and 39 respectively, find the
nth term of the progression a) 2n – 4 b) 2n – 1 c) 4n – 13 d) 4n + 13
12) If the sum of 8th and 9th terms of an AP is 72 and the 4th term is -6,
find the common difference a) 4 b)8 c) 6 2/3 d) 9 1/3
13) The 4th term of an AP is 13 while the 10th term is 31, find the 21st
term a) 175 b) 85 c) 64 d) 45
14) The 3rd term of an AP is 4x – 2y and the 9th term is 10x – 8y. find
the common difference a) 19x – 17y b) 8x – 4y c) x – y d) 2x
15) The 6th term of an AP is 20 and the 11th term is -5, find the sum of
the first three terms a) 45 b) 85 c) 120 d) 150
16) If -8, m,n,19 are in A., find m,n a) 1 , 10 b) 2, 10 c) 3, 13 d)
4,16
17) P+1, 2p – 10, 1-4p2 are three consecutive terms of an A.P, find the
possible values of p a) -4,2 b) -3, 4/11 c) -11/4,2 d) 5, -3
18) If 3, x, y, 24 are in AP, find x +y a) 3 b) 10 c) 17 d) 27
19) Find the nth term of the sequence 4,10,16 …… a) 2(3n – 1) b)
2(2 +3n-1) c)2n + 2 d) 2(3n + 2)
20) The numbers – ½ , 1 ½ , 3 ½ , 5 ½ , …… form a linear sequence
(AP) find its nth term a) ½ (4n-3) b) ½ (3-4n) c) ½ (4n- 5) d) ½
(5 – 4n)
21) For an AP, first term is 2 and the common difference is 3. Find the
sum of the first 11 term a) 157 b) 187 c) 197 d) 200
22) Find the sum of the first twenty terms of the AP Loga, loga2,
loga3…. a) loga20 b) loga21 c) loga200 d) loga210
23) How ,many term of the sequence 10, 12, 14-------- will add up to
190 a) 0 b) 14 c) 15 d) 19
24) Find the sum of the 20 terms in an AP whose first term is 7 and
last term is 117 a) 2480 b) 1240 c) 620 d) 124
25) How many terms are there in the series 5+10+15+ ……. + 750 a)
50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200
26) The sum of all the series 1 ½ + 1 ¼ + 1 + ……. To the 12th term is
a) 4 ½ b) 3 ½ c) 2 ½ d) 1 ½
27) If the sum of the first n terms of a linear sequence AP is 1-9n2, find
the third term ) a) -117 b) -53 c) -45 d) -8
28) The sum of the first 2 terms of an AP is 24. The sum of the 4th and
5th terms is 36. Find its common difference. A) 6 b) 4 c) 2 d) -2
29) The sum of the first three terms of an AP is -18. The third term is
half the seventh term . find the sum of the first four terms of the
progression a) 30 b) 24 c) -28 d) -30
30) Determine the third terms of a geometric progression whose first
and fourth terms are 4 and 108 respectively a) 112 b) 108 c) 36 d)
27
31) The common ratio of the exponential sequence (g.p) log x, logx2 ,
logx4 ..is (a) x (b) 2 (c) logx (d) log 2
32) The first and fifth terms of an exponential sequence are 16 and 9
respectively . find the 7th term of the sequence (a) 9/16 (b) 3/2 (c) 27/4
(d) 1024/27
33) The third term of a g .p is 360 and the sixth term is 1215 .find the
first term (a) 3/2 (B) 360 (c) 40 (d) 160
34) The 2nd term of a g .p is 9 and the 7th term is 1/27, find the
common ratio (a) 1/3 (b) -1/9 (c) 1/9 (d) – 1/3
35) The third term of a g .p is 10 and the sixth term is 80. Find the
common ratio (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 8
36) If the second and fourth terms of g. p are 8 and 32 respectively .
what is the sum of the first four terms (a) 28 (b) 40 (c) 48 (d) 60
37) If the 2nd and the 5th terms of a gp are -6 and 48 respectively , find
the sum of the first four terms (a)-45 (b) -15 (c) 15 (d) 33
38) How many terms of the series 3, -6, 12,- 24+ … are added to make
a total of 1-28 (a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 10
39) Find the sum to infinity of the following series 3+ 2+ 4/3 + 8/9 +
16/27 +……(a) 1270 (b) 190 (c) 18 (d) 9
40) Find the sum to infinity of the following sequence 1, 9/10, (9/10)2,
(9/10 )3……… (a) 1/10 (b) 9/10 (c) 10/9(d) 10
THEORY
1(a) the sum to infinity of an exponential sequence with a positive common
ratio is 9 and the sum of the first two terms is 5 find the
(i) Fifth terms
(ii) Sum of the first six terms
(b) the sum of the first n terms of a g. p is given by sn = 6 -3/2n-1
Calculate the common ratio

2a) find p if p-3, 3p +5 and 18p-5 are three consecutive terms of a

geometric progression
(b) given that √ 6 , 3 √ 2 3√ 6 9√ 2 are the first four term of an
exponential sequence ,find the its simplest form the 8th term

3) the sum of the 2nd and 5th terms of an arithmetic progression is 42 , if the
difference between the 6th and 3rd terms is 12, find the (a) common
difference (b) first term (c) 20th term

4 (a) in a family , the ages, of children arranged from the youngest to the
oldest are 2,6 y, 14 and z .y 14 and z, y the sequence of the ages is in an
arithmetic progression what is the ratio z; y
(b) find the sum of the first thirty odd integers
Second Term Examination
2017/2018 Academic Session
CLASS: SS2
SUBJECTS: Further Maths
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
1. Calculate the standard deviation of the numbers -6 , -2, 5, 7 11 (a) 2.76
(b) 3 (c) 5.8 (d) 6.16
2. Find the positive value of y if the standard deviation of `1, y+ 1 and 2y +
1 is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
3. The standard deviation of the number 1,2,3,4,5,6 ,7,8,9, is 2.58 . what is
the standard deviation of the number 101, 102, 103, 104, 105, 106, 107 ,
108 ,109 a) 0.258 (b) 2.580 (c) 25.80 (d) 102. 58
4. It is desired that 60 % of the candidates who took a test should pass.
Which of the following percentile marks should be made a pass mark (a)
20th (b) 30th (c) 40th (d) 60th
Use the table below to answer the table show the distribution of marks
obtained by a group of pupils in a test
mark 1-9 10-18 19 -27 28- 36 37- 45
Boy 3 10 9 5 5
Girl 1 5 10 2 0
5. if a pupil is randomly selected from the class , what is the probability
that the pupil scored at least 28 marks (a) 0.14 (b) 0.24 (c) 0.76 (d) 0.90
6. What is the median score for the girl (a) 19.0 (b) 21. 2 (c) 21. 4 (d) 23.0
7. If 19 boy s passed the test , what was the pass mark (a) 27. 5 (b) 23.0
(c) 18.5 (d) 18.0
8. What is the upper quartile of the distribution , if the semi – interquartile
range is 24 and the lower quartile is a) 66 (b) 48 (c) 47 (d) 24
9. A graph obtained by plotting cumulative frequencies against their
upper class boundaries is called a) a frequency polygon (b) a histogram
(c) o-give (d) cheirt
10. The table below shows the distribution of ages in year of a group
of 25men Ages 19 -21 22 -24 25 -27 28 -30
Frequency 4 10 8 3
Calculate, correct to the nearest year ,the mean age of the men (a) 22 (b) 23
(c) 24 (d) 25

The table given the distribution of marks obtained by 50 candidates in a test

Marks 30 -39 40 – 49 50 – 59 60 – 69 70 – 79
Frequency 1 8 15 19 7
Use the information to answer question 11- 13
11 what is the lower class boundary of the model class (a) 49.5 (b) 59. 5 (c)
60.5 (d) 64.5
12 if 52% of the candidate are successful , what is the minimum pass mark ?
(A) 60 (b) 61 (c) 67 (d) 68
13. what is the class mark of the median class (a) 49.5 (b) 55.0 (c) 59.5 (d)
64.5
14 if k = -1 2 and L = 4 5 find the matrix such
3 4 6 -7
That 2k + L + m =0 (a) -2 - 9 (b) -6 -1 (c) - 2 9 (d) 3 7
-12 - 1 0 15 12 1 9 -4
15. if R = 1 4 and s = 0 4 find 3R + s (a) 3 16 (b) 3 16 (c) 16
3
3 2 1 -5 10 -1 10 -1 10
1
d) 16 3
1 -10

16 given that p = Cos X - Sin X and Y = Cos Sin X

Sin X Cos X -Sin X Cos x
Find the matrix P Y (a) 1 0 (b) 0 0 (c) 0 1 (d) 1 1
01 1 1 1 0 0 1
17 if A = 2 1 2 , what is a3 ? (a) 3a (b) 6a (c) 8a (d) 9a
1 2 -2
2 -2 -1
18. evaluate 2 1 1 1 (a) 2 1 (b) 2 3 (c) -2 1 (d) 3 1
3 -1 0 1 0 -1 3 2 3 0 2 -1

19 . given that A = 3 4 and X = (3 4 ) evaluate

2 5 Xa (a) 2 1 (b) 1 5 (c) (17 32 ) (d) (14
30 ) 0 2 7 1
20. Express 2x + 5y = 3
8X + 7y =5 in matrix form
a) x 2 5 = 3 b) (x,y) 2 5 = (3,5) c) 2 5 x = 3
y 8 7 5 8 7 8 7 y 5

d) 2 8 x = 3
5 7 y 5

21. IF 3 1 2 = Y find x and y a) x = 2, y = 9 b) x = 6, y = 9 c) x=2,

y=8
2 X 3 10 d) x=2, y=6
22. given that 1 2 - 1 1 = 3 11 ,find k
K 1 2 5 5 2 (a) -5 (b) -3 (c) 6 (d) 7
23. what are the value of e in the equation ? a2 a + b = 4 7
b - d e2 –d 1 0 (a) 9 or 5
(b) 8 or 4 (c) +-2 d) +- 1
24. if p = 1 1 , find (p2 + p ) (a) 4 3 (b) 4 3 (c) 3 2 (d) 3 2
2 1 6 1 6 4 6 1 6 4
25. Given that a = -2 4 obtain (a + at ) (a) -4 8 (b) -4 2 (c) – 4
5
1 6 2 -12 8 -12 5 -
12
d) -4 5
-12 5
27. if /Q/ = X + 4 X = 2 then the matrix Q IS
X+1 X – 1 (A) -7 3 (B) 7 -3 (C) 7 3 D) 7 3
4 2 4 2 -4 2 4 2
28 IF -8 4 = 3 9 find the value of y
-4 Y 5 7 (a) -5 (b) -4 (c) 4 (d) 5
29. The inverse of 3 2 is a) 2/5 1/5 (b) 2/5 – 1/10 (c) 3/10 -1/5
1 4 1/10 3/10 -1/5 3/10 -1/10 2/5
d) 2/5 -1/5
-1/10 3/10

30. determine X+ y if 2- 3 X = -1 a) 3 b) 4 c) 7 d) 12
-1 4 Y 8

31. find the result ant force 8N and 10 N inclined at an angle 120 to each
other (a) 2/61 N (b) 2/51N (c) 2/31 (d) 2/21N

32. find the result ant of the force7N and 11N with angle 45between them
(a) 0.78 N(b)7.80N (c)7.82N (d)78.2N
33. find the magnitude of the resultant of two force 6N and 8 N acting acting
at 240 to each other (a)4/19 (b)2/19 (c)3/37 (d) 4/14N
34. the angle between two force of magnitudes 8N and 5 N IS 120 find
magnitudes of their resultant (a) 13(b)11 (c)8 (d)7
35. the resultant of two force x N and 4N is 12N. if the resultant makes an
angle of 300 with the force 4N, find the value of x a) 12.6 b) 11.3 c) 8.8 d)
6.0
36 the angle between forces of magnitudes 2p and 5N acting on a particle is
1200. If the magnitude of their resultant is 7N find P. a) 1.5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 8
37.calulate correct to one decimal place, the angle between two force 20N and
30N if their resultant is 40N a) 14.50 b) 550 c) 75.50 d) 104. 5o
38) find the vertical and horizontal components of the force F =
(200N, 030 ) a) 100N, and 173.2N b) 173.2N, 100N
0
C) 105N , 200N D)
150N, 75N
39) Given that F1 (6N, N300E) and (8N, 0900) are two forces acting at
a point, what is the modulus of their resultant? A) 11N B) 12.17N C)
16.20N D) 148N
40) Three coplanar forces 4√ 3 N , 5√ 3 N , and 7N act on a particle in the
bearings 0600, 1800 and 2700 respectively. Find the magnitude of their
resultant a) 2√ 37 N B) 3√ 3 N C) 2√ 7 N D) 2√ 19 N
THEORY
1 The table below gives the masses in Kg of 35 students in a
particular school
45 43 54 52 57 59 65
50 61 50 48 53 61 66
47 52 48 40 44 60 68
51 47 51 41 50 62 70
58 42 51 49 55 71 60
a) using the above given data, construct a group frequency table with class
interval 40-44, 45-49, 50-54 etc
b from the table using an assumed mean of 52 and correct to 2
places of decimal, calculate the
i) mean ii) medium iii) mode
c from the table calculate the i) upper quartile ii) interquartile
range
2a) solve the 10-x -6 2
-6 9-x -4 =0
2 -4 5-x
b If A 1 0 1
2 1 3
4 2 1
Find AA -1

3a) using inverse method solve the following simultaneous equations

3x-4y+8z = 26
6x + 3y – 5z = 1
-2x + y + 3z = 11
B Using crammer’s rule, solve the following simultaneous linear
equations
2x – y + 5z = 27
3x – 2y – z = -3
4x + 3y + 2z = 24
4a force of magnitude 2N, 5N and 4N lie in the direction 0450, 0900
and 1350 respectively. Find
i) the magnitude
ii) the direction of their resultant
b four coplanar force of magnitudes 5N, 5√ 3 N , 10N and 10√ 3 N act
on a body in the directions 3000, 3300, 0000 and 1200 respectively.
i) find the magnitude of the resultant force
ii) if the mass of the body is 6kg, find its acceleration
MOCK Examination
2018 Academic Session
CLASS: S SS III
SUBJECTS: CHEMISTRY
SECTION: Objective Test
DURATION: 2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question

1. The shape of CH4 is (a) Linear (b) planar (c) pyramidal (d) tetrahedral

2. The crystal layers in graphite are held together by (a) covalent bond (b) electrostatic forces (c)
ionic bond (d) vander waal’s forces

3. Hydrogen bonds are formed between molecules containing a hydrogen atom bonded to a (a)
strongly electronegative atom (b) non-polar species (c) diatomic element (d) complex ion

4. Two elements IPC and 19y are in the same group because they have the same (a) valence
electrons (b ) ionization energy (c) number of shell (d) atomic size

5. Which of the following process is used in food preservation in an industry? (a) carbon dating
(b) irradiation of gamma rays (c) nuclear fission (d) Nuclear fusion

6. Which of the following arrangement is decreasing order of atomic radius? (a) Li >Be > C>B
(b) Li >Be > C>C (c) Li >Be > C>
7. The electronic configuration of 26F63+ is (a) [Ar] 4523d6 (b) [Ar] 4523d3 (c) [Ar] 4513d4 (d) [Ar]
4503d5

8. Which of the following transition element is not attracted to external magnetic field? (a) Cu
(b) Fe (c) Ti (d) Zn

9. Reduction is the process of (a) loss of electron (b) loss of hydrogen (c) loss of oxygen (d)
addition of electronegative elements

10. The most common process in the extraction of metals from their ore is (a) catalysis (b)
electrolysis (c) oxidation (d) reduction.

11. Which of the following halogen is liquid at room temperature (a) iodine (b) chlorine (c)
Bromine (d) flourine

12. Rare gases are stable because they (a) are chemically active (b) contain equal number of
protons and neutrons (c) contain more electrons than protons (d) have octet structures

13. The percentage by mass of calcium in CaCoCl)2 is (Ca=40, Cl=35.5, 0=16) (a) 28% (b) 31.6%
(c) 43.8% (d) 44.5%

14. A substance is said to be impure if (a) its melting point range is wide (b) it dissolves in water
with difficulty (c) it has a low melting point (d) it is coloured
15. What happens at the cathode during electrolysis? The (a) anion is oxidized (b) anion loses
electrons (c) cation is oxidized (d) cation is discharged

16. The separation of petroleum products or fractions depends on the difference in their (a)
melting point (b) molar masses (c) solubilities (d) boiling points

17. The major product formed by the reaction between ethanoic acid and aqueous sodium
hydroxide is (a) soap (b) sodium ethanoate (c) sodium methoxide (d) water

18. Which of the following raw materials is used in a plasic industry? (a) Ethene (b) Methane (c)
Calcium (d) Hydrogen

19. Which of the following materials is classified as a non-biodegradable pollutant? (a) animal mele
(b) paper (c) plastic (d) wood

20. How many 180mers has C3H6Cl (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

21. Which of the following substances would not produce ethanol when fermented (a) cane sugar
(b) glucose (c) starch (d) vinegar

22. A metal that is widely used in the manufacture of pairits and overhead catiles is (a) aluminium
(b) copper (c) iron (d) lead

23. When a substance changes directly from the gasous state to the solid state without forming a
liquid, the substance is said to (a) condense (b) evaporate (c) sublime (d) precipitate

24. The number of sulphur atoms in 3.20g of 802 (g) is (O=16, S=32, Avogadro constant =6.02x1023)
(a) 3.01x1022 (b) 6.02x1022 (c) 6.02x1023 (d) 1.20x1024

25. A spot of oil paint on a shirt can best be removed using (a) brine (b) detergent (c) kerosene
(d) warm water

26. The initial volume of a gas at 300k was 220cm3. Determine its temperature if the volume
becomes 250cm3 (a) 183k (b) 264k (c) 300k (d) 341k

27. The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in alkaline solution at the end-poiny of an acid-base
titration is (a) colourles (b) orange (c) pink (d) yellow

28. When NH4Cl(s) was dissolved in water, the container was cold to touch. This implies that (a) the
process is endothermic (b) the process is exothermic (c) NH4Cl is highly solube in water (d)
NH4Cl forms a saturated solution

29. Which of the following metallic oxides is amphoteric (a) Al2O3 (b) Fe2O3 (c) MgO (d) Na2O

30. The compound that makes palm wine taste sour after exposure to the air for few days is (a)
ethanol (b) ethanoic acid (c) methanol (d) methanoic acid

31. A given volume of oxygen diffused through a porous partition in 8 seconds. How long would it
take the same volume of carbon(iv)oxide to diffuse under the same condition? (C=12, O=16).
(a) 5.8 seconds (b) 6.8 seconds (c) 9.4 seconds (d) 11 seconds

32. An important medical use of nuclear radiations is (a) activation analysis (b) carbon dating (c)
radiotherapy (d) tissue regeneration.
33. A solid substance with high melting and bolling points is likely to be a/an (a) covalent
compound (b) dative covalent compound (c) electrovalent compound (d) non-metal

34. The rate of chemical reaction of solids are not affected by (a) catalyst (b) pressure (c)
particles size (d) temperature

35. The quantity of electricity required to discharge imole of univalent ion is (a) 96500c (b) 9600c
(c) 48250c (d) 193000c

36. An advantage of detergent over soap is that detergents (a) are readily available (b) are in
powered form (c) are non-biode gradable (d) lather readily with water

37. The IUPAC name of C2H5COOC2H5 is ethylethanoate (b) ethylpropanoate (c) propylethanoate
(d) propyl propanaotae

38. The main function of limestone in the blast furnace is to (a) act as a reducing agent (b) act as a
catalyst (c) remove impurities (d) supply carbon(iv)oxide

39. Which of the following metals exist as liquid at ordinary temperature (a) copper (b) Gold (c)
mercury (d) cilver

40. An organic compound contains 40% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen. What is the
empineal formula of the compound? Formula of the compound? [O=16, C=12 H=1] (a) C2HO
(b) CHO (c) CH2O (d) CHO2

41. What is the value of -140C on the Kelvin temperature scale? (a) 259k (b) 2590k (c) 2870k
(d) 300k

42. Consider the reaction represented by the equation: 2NaHC03 -> Na2Co3 + H2O + CO2 what is the
mass of sodium trioxocarbonate(iv) produced by the complete decomposition of 33.6g of
sodium hydrogen trioxocarbonate (iv)? [NaHCo3 = 84 Na2Co3 = 106] (a) 10.6g (b) 16.8g (c)
21.2g (d) 42.4g

43. If 100 atoms of element x contains 70 atoms of 9x and 30 atoms of 11x, calculate the relative
atomic mass of x (a) 9.6 (b) 10.6 (c) 11.6 (d) 20

44. Consider the reaction represented by the equation 2892U + 1on -> 13959Ba + 9436Kr + 31on. The
reaction represents a (a) nuclear fission (b) nuclear fusion (c) radioactive decay (d)
spontaneous disintegration.

45. How many orbitals are associated with the P-sub energy level (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6

46. Consider the reaction represented by the following equation. H2(g) + ½ O2(g) -> H2Og ∆H = -
285.8Kj mol-1. ∆H represents the enthalpy of (a) formation (b) hydration (c) neutralization
(d) solution

47. Which of the following substance in the dry leclanche cell? (a) carbon rod (b) mushin bag (c)
the seal (d) Zinc container

48. When protein is heated to a high temperature it undergoes (a) condensation (b) denaturation
(c) hydrolysis (d) polymerization

49. Ethanol reacts with excess acidified K2Cr2O7 to produce (a) ethanol (b) ethane (c) ethanoic
acid (d) ethylethanoate
 50. A consequence of global warming is (a) pollution (b) flooding (c) increased humidity (d) low
rainfall

SECTION B

THEORTY

1. (a) (i) Define Ionic bond

(ii) What type of bond (s) exist(s) in:

(i) Magnesium oxide; (ii) ammonium ion?

(b) Determine the oxidation number of sulphur in Na2S2O3

(c) State Faraday’s first law;

(d) Define the term efflorescene

2. (a) (i) Calculate the amount of silver deposited in moles when 10920 coulombs of electricity is
passed through a solution of a silver salt.

[ Faraday constant = 96500 C mol-i

(ii) What are allotropes

(iii) Name the two crystalline allotropes of carbon

(iv) Give one industrial use of each allotrope named above

(b) (i) Outline the steps involved in the purification of water for town supply

(ii) Give two cations that can cause hardness in water

(iii) State two disadvantages of hardness of water

(iv) List two sources of water pollution

3. (a) (i) What is the common name given to the group (vii) elements?

(ii) Name the hydrides of the first two elements in group (vii).

(iii) State three chemical properties of group vii elements.

(b) copy and complete the following table

Particles Number of Number of Number of Mass number

Neutrons electrons Protons

W2+ 12 24

X2- 8 16

Y 13 27
 Z 12 11

(c) (i) Define each of the following processes:

(i) Nuclear fission (ii) nuclear fusion

(c) (ii) Give one use of each process in C (i)

(d) (i) List three types of radiation that are produced during radioactivity

(ii) Arrange the radiation listed in d (i) in order of increasing (i) Penetrating power (ii) Ionizing
power

4. (a) (i) List two characteristics of homologous series

(ii) Consider the compound represented by the following formula: CH3 (CH2)2 CH3

(i) Which homologous series does the compound belong:

(ii) Write the structures of three possible Isomer of the compound

(iii) Define functional group

(b) Write the structure of the major product formed in each of the following reactions

(i) ethanol with excess acidified potassium tetraoxo-maganate (vii).

(ii) excess ethane with chlorine in the presence of sunlight.

(iii) ethanol with propanoic acid in the presence of few drops of concentrated tetraoxosulphate(iv)
acid

(d) An organic compound with relative molecular mass 136 contains 70.57% carbon, 5-90%
hydrogen and 23.53% oxygen. Determine its:

(i) empirical formula (ii) molecular formula [ H =1, C = 12, H = 16].

5. (a) (i) Define standard electrode potential

(ii) State two factors that affect the value of standard electrode potential

(iii) Give two uses of the values of standard electrode potentials

(iv) Draw and label a diagram for an electrochemical made up of Cu2+ / Cu; Eθ = + 0.34V;
Zn 2+ / Zn; Eθ = - 0.76V.

(b) (i) In terms of electron transfer, define

(i) oxidation (b) oxidizing agent

(ii) Balance the following redox reaction

Mn04- = I- -> I2 + Mn2+

(c) Define each of the following terms;

(i) Activation energy

 (ii) Exothernic reaction

(iii) Free energy reaction

(iv) entropy

(v) enthalpy

Mock

Examination
2018 Academic Session
CLASS: S.S. III GOLD
SUBJECTS: FURTHER MATHS
SECTION: A Objective
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
INSTRUCTION: Answer all the questions

1. Solve: Sinθ = tanθ (a) 2000 (b) 900 (c) 600 (d) 00
2. Find the third term in the expansion of (a – b)6 in ascending powers of b
(a) –15a4b2 (b) 15a4b2 (c) –15a3b3 (d) 15a3b3

3. If √ x+ √ x +1= √2 x+ 1, find the possible values of x

(a) 1 and –1 (b) –1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 0 and –1
 β α
4. If α and β are the roots of the equation 2x2 – 6x + 5 = 0, evaluate +
α β
(a) 24/5 (b) 8/5 (c) 5/8 (d) 5/24

5. Find the equation of the line that is perpendicular to 2y + 5x – 6 = 0 and bisects the line
joining the points P(4, 3) and Q (–6, 1)
(a) Y + 5x + 3 = 0 (b) 2y – 5x – 9 = 0 (c) 5y + 2x – 8 = 0 (d) 5y – 2x – 12 = 0

dy
6. Given that =√ x , find y
dx
3 3 2
3 2 2 3 2 2
(a) 2 x 2 +C (b) x +C (c) x +C (d) x +C
3 2 3
2
−16 16
Evaluate ∫ ( 8 x −4 x ) dx
2
7. (a) – 16 (b) (c) (d) 16
0
3 3

8. If s = 3i – j and t = 2i + 3j, find (t +3s) . (t – 3s)

(a) – 77 (b) – 71 (c) – 53 (d) – 41

9. If 2sin2θ = 1 + cos θ, 00≤ θ ≤90 ° , find θ

(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 900

n c3
10. If =1 , find the value of n (a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 5
n p2
11. If (x + 1) is a factor of the polynomial x3 + px2 + x + 6 = 0, find the value of P.
(a) – 8 (b) – 4 (c) 4 (d) 8

12. If y = x3 – x2 – x + 6, find the values of x at the turning points

(a) ½, –3 (b) 1/3, – ½ (c) 1, –1/3 (d) 1, 1/3

13. A binary operation ∆, is defined on the set of real numbers by a∆b = a + b + 4, find the
identity element of the operation ∆. (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) ¼ (d) – 4
2
3
14. The distance S in meters covered by a particle in t seconds is S = t −3 t . Find its
2
acceleration (a) 1ms–2 (b) 2ms–2 (c) 3ms–2 (d) 4ms–2
15. Find the number of different arrangements in the letters of the word IKOTITINA
(a) 30240 (b) 60840 (c) 120960 (d) 362880
16. In computing the mean of 8 numbers, a boy mistakenly used 17 instead of 25 as one of
the numbers obtained 20 as the mean, find the correct mean
(a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 23 (d) 24
17. Find the constant term in the binomial expansion of ¿
(a) 90720 (b) 1296 (c) 1120 (d) 672

18. If log93 + 2x = 1, find x (a) – ½ (b) – ¼ (c) ¼ (d) ½

dy
19. If y2 + xy – x = 0, find
dx
1− y 1−2 y 1− y 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2y x x+2 y x+2 y
20. Find the standard deviation of the numbers 3, 6, 2, 1, 7 and 5
(a) 2 (b) 2.16 (c) 2.50 (d) 2.56

1
21. Evaluate leaving your answer in surd form
1−sin 60 °
(a) 1− √ 3 (b) 2−√ 3 (c) 4−2 √ 3 (d) 4 +2 √ 3

22. In a class 50 pupils, 35 like Science and 30 like History. What is the probability of selecting
a pupil who likes both Science and History?
(a) 0.10 (b) 0.30 (c) 0.60 (d) 0.70

dy 2
23. Given that =3 x −4∧ y=6 , when x=3 find y
dx
3
(a) x – 4x – 9 (b) x3 – 4x + 9 (c) x3 + 4x – 9 (d) x3 + 4x + 9
2
4
24. Evaluate ∫ 3
dx (a) –1½ (b) – 15/16 (c) 15/16 (d) 1½
1 x
25. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve y = 4x2 – 12x + 7 at point (2, -1)
(a) y + 4x – 9 = 0 (b) y – 4x – 9 = 0 (c) y – 4x + 9 = 0 (d) y + 4x + 9 = 0

26. A stone is thrown vertically upwards and its height at any time t seconds is h = 45t – 9t 2.
Find the maximum height reached (a) 45.25m (b) 45.50m (c) 56m (d)
56.25m

27. The gradient of point P on the curve y = 3x2 – x +3 is 5. Find the coordinates of P.
(a) (1, 5) (b) (1, 7) (c) (1, 13) (d) (1, 17)

28. Which of the following binary operations is not commutative?

(a) a+b = 1/a + 1/b (b) a+b = a + b – ab (c) a+b = 2a+2b+ ab (d) a+b = a – b +
ab

29. Two balls are drawn from a bag containing 3 red, 4 white and 5 black identical balls. Find
the probability that they are all of the same colour
(a) 5/33 (b) 13/66 (c) 8/33 (d) 19/66

30. Solve x2 – 2x – 8 > 0

(a) x < –2 or x > 4 (b) x < –4 or x > 2 (c) –2 < x < 4 (d) –4 < x < 2

31. The line y = mx – 3 is a tangent to the curve y = 1 – 3x = 2x 3 at the point (1, 0). Find the
value of the constant m. (a) – 4 (b) – 1 (c) 3 (d) 4

32. If f(x) = mx2 – 6x – 3 and fʹ (1) = 12, find the value of constant m.
(a) 9 (b) 3 (c) – 3 (d) – 4
33. Two functions f and g are defined on the set R of real numbers by f:x→2x–1 and g:x→ x2 +
1. Find the value of f–1 0 g(3). (a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 11/12 (d) 9/2

34. Simplify
√3 + √3 (a) ½ (b) ½ √ 3 (c)3 (d) 2√ 3
√3−1 √ 3+1
35. Two vectors m and n are defined by m = 3i + 4j and n = 2i – j. Find the angle between m
and n. (a) 97.90 (b) 79.70 (c) 63.40 (d) 36.40
36. Find the value of P which will make (x2 – x + P) a perfect square
(a) – ½ (b) ¼ (c) ½ (d) 1

37. The polynomial g(x) = 2x3 + 3x2 = qx – 1, has the same remainder when divided by (x + 2)
and (x – 1). Find the value of constant q. (a) –11 (b) –9 (c) –3 (d) – 1

38. Given that R = (4,180) and S = (3,300) find the dot product R.S
(a) – 6√ 3 (b) – 6 (c) 6 (d) 6√ 3

39. Find the area of the circle whose equation is x2 + y2 – 4x + 8y + 11 = 0

(a) 3π (b) 6π (c) 9π (d) 12π

40. The sum of the first three terms of an Arithmetic Progression (A.P) is 18. If the first term is
4, find their product. (a) 130 (b) 192 (c) 210 (d) 260

SECTION B THEORY
1. (a) If the coefficient of x2 and x3 in the expansion of (p + qx)7are equal,
express q in terms of p.
(b) A man makes weekly contribution into a fund. In the first week, he paid N180, second
week N260, third week N340 and so on. How much would he have contributed in 16
weeks?
4
x ( 3 x−2 )
2. (a) Evaluate ∫ dx
1 2√x
(b) Eight percent of screws produced by a machine are defective. From a random sample
of 10 screws produced by the machine, find the probability that;
(i) Exactly two will be defective
(ii) Not more than two will be defective
3. Simplify n+1C4 – n-1C4

4. (a) Find the maximum and minimum points of the curve y = 2x3 3x2 – 12x + 4
(c) Sketch the curve in 4(a) above

5. The table shows the ranks of the marks scored by 7 candidates in Physics and Chemistry
tests.

Physics 6 5 4 3 2 7 1
Chemistry 7 6 2 4 1 5 3
Calculate the Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient
 Mock Examination
2018 Academic Session
CLASS: S.S. III GOLD
SUBJECTS: MATHEMATICS
SECTION: A Objective
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
1.

INSTRUCTION: Answer all the questions

1. Simplify (3½ + 4⅓) ÷ (⅚ – ⅔)

(a) 1¼ (b) 8½ (c) 35 (d) 47
2. In a particular year, the exchange rate of Naira (N) varies directly with the Dollar ($). If
N122 is equivalent to $8, find the Naira equivalent of $36.
(a) N8976 (b) N5049 (c) N140.25 (d) N31.17
3. If log 2 = x, log 3 = y and log 7 = z, find in term of x, y, and z the value of log (28/3).
(a) 2x + y – z (b) 2x + z – y (c) x + y – 2z (d) x + z – y

4. Arrange the following numbers in descending order of magnitude; 22 three, 34five, 21six
(a) 21six, 22three, 34five (b)21six, 34five, 22three (c)22three, 34five, 21six (d)34five, 21six, 22three

5. Find the value to which N3000 will amount in 5 years at 6% per annum simple interest
(a) N3900 (b) N3750 (c) N3600 (d) N3300

6. Express the square root of 0.000144 in the standard form

(a) 1.2 x 10–4 (b) 1.2 x 10–3 (c) 1.2 x 10–2 (d) 1.2 x 10–1

7. Two sets are disjoint if: (a) They are both empty (b) their union is an empty
set (c) their intersection is an empty set (d) one of them is a subset of the other

8. Solve the following simultaneous equation; 2x + 3y = 7, x + 5y = 0

(a) X = 5, y = –1 (b) x = ⅕, y = –1 (c) x = – ⅕, y = 1 (d) x = –5, y = 1

9. In an examination, Koffi scored X% in physics, 50% in chemistry and 70% in Biology. If his
mean score for the three subject was 55%, find x. a) 40 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 60

10. What is the median of the following scores; 22, 41, 35, 63, 82, 74? A) 82 (b) 52 (c)49 (d) 22
⅔ −⅓
8 x 27
11. Simplify ⅓ (a) – 3 (b) 1/9 (c) 1/3 (d) 27/8 (e) 4
64
 2
K K
12. Make S the subject of the formula V = . (a) S = T − (b) S =
√T −S V
2

2 2 2 2 2
K V T (V −K ) V
2
−T (c) S = T − 2 (d) S = 2 (e) S = T + 2
V K V K

13. If h(m+n) = m(h+r), find h in terms of m, n and r.

mr mr m+ r m+ n mr
(a) h¿ (b) h¿ (c) h¿ (d) h ¿ (e) h¿
2m+n n−m n m n

x x +2
14. Express as a single fraction; −
x−2 x +3
2 2
2 x −3 x−4 2 x +3 x−4 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
( x −2 )( x +3 ) ( x−2 ) ( x +3 ) ( x−2 ) ( x +3 )
3 x +4
( x−2 ) ( x +3 )
15. A ladder 5m long rests against a wall such that its foot makes am angle of 30 0 with the
horizontal. How far is foot of the ladder from the wall?
5√2m 5√3m 10 √ 3 m
(a) (b) 2½m (c) (d) (e) 10√ 3 m
3 2 3

16. A right pyramid is on a square base of side 4cm, the slanting side of the pyramid is 2 √ 3 cm
. Calculate the volume of the pyramid.
(a) 5⅓cm3 (b) 10⅔cm3 (c) 16cm3 (d) 32cm3

17. The height of s right circular cone is 4cm. the radius of its base is 3cm. Find its curved
surface area. (a) 9πcm2 (b) 15πcm2 (c) 16πcm2 (d)
2
20πcm

18. A chord of length 30cm is 8cm away from the center of the circle. What is the radius of
the circle? (a) 16cm (b) 17cm (c) 18cm (d)
20cm

19. A sector of a circle radius 14cm subtends an angle 135 0 at the centre of the circle. What is
the perimeter of the sector? (Take π = 22/7)
(a) 47cm (b) 61cm (c) 88cm (d) 231cm

20. Points X, Y and Z are located in the same horizontal plane such that Y is 12km north of X,
and Z is a bearing of 270 0 from X. if |XZ| = 6km, calculate, correct to one decimal place |
YZ|.
(a) 18km (b) 13.4km (c) 13km (d) 10.4km

21. The volume of a cylinder of radius 14cm is 210cm 3. What is the curved surface area of the
cylinder? (a) 15cm2 (b)30cm2 (c) 616cm2 (d) 1262cm2

22. Out of 60 members of an association, 15 are Doctors and 9 are lawyers. If a member is
selected at random from the association, what is the probability that the member is
neither a doctor nor a lawyer?
3 9 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) ¼
5 10 20
23. Given that μ= {1 , 2 , 3 … … … ..10 } , P={ x : x is prime }∧Q= { y : y is odd } , find Pʹ ∩Q .
(a) { 2 } (b) { 1 , 9 } (c) { 3 , 5 ,7 } (d) { 4 , 6 , 8 ,10 }

24. Find the mean deviation of 6,7,8,9,10 (a) 1.2 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 8

25. Given that √ 128+ √ 18−¿ √ k =7 √ 2 , find k

(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 48
The table below gives the marks scored by a group of students in a test
Mark 0 1 2 3 4 5
Frequency 1 2 7 5 4 3
Use table to answer questions 26 and 27
26. What is the median mark? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

27. What is the probability of selecting a student from the group that scored 2 or 3?
(a) 1/11 (b) 5/25 (c) 7/22 (d) 6/11

28. A sector of a circle of radius 14cm containing an angle 60 0 is folded to form a cone.
Calculate the radius of the base of the cone.
(a) 5½cm (b) 4⅔cm (c) 3½cm (d) 2⅓cm

29. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 1620. How many sides has the polygon?
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 20

30. Evaluate (111two)2 and leave your answer in base 2

(a) 111001two (b) 110001two (c) 101001two (d) 10010two

31. A machine valued at N20,000 depreciates by 10% every year. What will be the value of the
machine at the end of two years?
(a) N16,200 (b) N14,200 (c) N12,000 (d) N8,000

32. A seller allows 20% discount for cash payment on the marked price of his goods. What is
the ratio of the cash payment to the marked price?
(a) 1:4 (b) 1:5 (c) 3:4 (d) 4:5

33. A fair coin is tossed three times. Find the probability of getting two heads and one tail.
(a) ½ (b) 3/8 (c) ¼ (d) 1/8

34. If the volume of a cube is 343cm3, find the length of its side.
(a) 3cm (b) 6cm (c) 7cm (d) 8cm

35. Every staff in an office owns either a Mercedes and / or a Toyota car. 20 own Mercedes,
15 own Toyota and 5 own both. How many staff are there in the office?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 45

36. A fair dice is rolled once. What is the probability of obtaining a number less than 3?
(a) 1/6 (b) 1/3 (c) 2/3 (d) ½

37. What is the probability that a total sum of seven would appear in two tosses of a fair die?
(a) 5/36 (b) 1/6 (c) 7/36 (d) 5/6

( ) () | 1
38. If P= 2 ∧q= 3 , find q− p
−2 4 2 |
 (a) 2 √ 2 (b) √ 13 (c) 5 (d) √ 2 9

39. If |45 3x|=32 , find the value of x . (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) –2 (d) –4

40. If P= (13 −24 )∧Q=(−21 30) , find PQ

(a) (−24 19) (b) (−42 19) (c) (−4
−2 13 )
3
(d) (−4
−2 9 )
3

41. If the mean of –1, 0, 9, 3, k, 5 is 2, where k is a constant, find the median of the set of
numbers. (a) 0 (b) 3/2 (c) 7/2 (d) 6

42. If P= (22 11) , find (P + P)

2

(a) ( ) (b) (
6 4) (36 21) (36 24)
4 3 4 3
(c) (d)
6 1

43. Simplify 2log38 – 3log32

(a) – log34 (b) –log32 (c) 3log32 (d) 3log34

44. The mean age of 15 pupils in a class is 14.2 years. One new pupil joined the class and the
mean changed to 14.1 years. Calculate the age of the new pupil.
(a) 12.4 years (b) 12.6 years (c) 13.2 years (d) 14.1 years

45. Solve 92x+1 = 813x+2

(a) – ¾ (b) – ⅔ (c) 4/5 (d) 3/2

x
46. Differentiate ( ) with respect to x.
x+1
1 −1 1−x 1
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) 2
( x +1) ( x +1) ( x +1) ( x +1)
47. Which of the following options is not a measure of central tendency
(a) Mode (b) Variance (c) Mean (d) Median

48. Given that P= ( y−4

y−2 y−1
y+2 )
∧|P|=−23 , find the value of y .

(a) –4 (b) –3 (c) –1 (d) 2

49. The third term of a geometric progression (G.P) is 10 and the sixth term is 80. Find the
common ratio. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 8

50. If |32 x
x−2 |
=−2, find the value of x. (a) –8 (b) –4 (c) 4 (d) 8

SECTION B
THEORY
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. (a) Copy and complete the binary multiplication table

 X 10 11 100 101
10 100 - 1000 -

11 110 - 1100 -

100 - - 10000 10100

18
9.6 x 10
(b) Simplify 5 and express your answer in the form of P x 10m where 1<P<10 and
0.24 x 10
m is an integer.
(c) Given that log102=0.3010, log107 = 0.8451 and log105 = 0.6990, evaluate without using
logarithm tables
(i) Log1035 (ii) log102.8
2. A, B and C are subsets of the universal set U such that
μ= { 0 ,1 , 2 ,3 … … …..12 }
A={ x :0 ≤ x ≤ 7 }
B= { 4 , 6 , 8 ,10 ,12 }
C={ 1< y <8 } , where is a prime number.
(a) Draw a Venn diagram to illustrate the information given above
(b) Find (i) (BUC)l (ii) AlnBnC
5
(c) If √ x +1= , find the positive value of x
2
4

3. (a) The probabilities that Ade, Kujo and Fatau will pass an examination are 2/3, 5/8 and ¾
respectively. Find the probability that:
(i) The three passed (ii) None of them passed (iii) Ade and Kujo only
will pass the examination
x y x y −1
(b) Solve the simultaneous equations: + =1, − =
2 4 3 4 6
(c) The interior angles of a pentagon are in the ratio of 2: 3: 4: 4: 5. Find the value of the
largest angle.

4. (a) The sum of the ages of a woman and her daughter is 46 years. In 4 years time, the
ratio of their ages will be 7:2. Find their present ages.
5 1
(b) Simplify + leaving your answer in surd form.
√7 +√ 3 √7 + √ 3
(c) AB is a chord of a circle centre O. is |AB| = 24.2cm and the perimeter of ∆AOB is
52.2cm. Calculate <AOB correct to the nearest degree.

5. The table below shows the mark distribution of candidates in an aptitude test for
selection into public service.
Marks (%) Frequency
44 – 46 2
47 – 49 5
50 – 52 11
53 – 55 20
 56 – 58 26
59 – 61 42
62 – 64 46
65 – 67 36
68 – 70 9
71 – 73 3
(a) Prepare a cumulative frequency distribution table
(b) Draw the cumulative frequency curve
(c) From your graph estimate (i) the median curve (ii) the interquartile range (iii) the 65 th
percentile
(d) The cut-off mark was 63%. What percentage of the candidates was selected

6. (a) Solve the simultaneous equation

(i) log10x + log10y = 4 (ii) log10x + 2log10y = 3
(b) The time t taken to buy fuel at a petrol station varies directly as the number of
vehicles V on queue and jointly as the number varies inversely as the number of
pumps P available in the station. In a station with 5 pumps it took 10 minutes to fuel
20 vehicles, find (i) The relationship between t, P and V
(ii) The time it will take to fuel 50 vehicles in the station with 2 pumps
(ii) The number of pumps requires to fuel 40 vehicles in 20 minutes
7. (a) A man travels from a village X on a bearing of 060 0 to a village Y which is 20km away
from X; he travels to a village Z on a bearing of 195 0. If Z is directly east of X, calculate
correct to three significant figures the distance of
(i) Y from Z (ii) Z from X
(b) An aircraft flies due south from an airfield on latitude 36 0N, longitude 1380E to an airfields
on latitude 360S, longitude 1380E.
(i) Calculate the distance travelled, correct to three significant figures
(ii) If the speed of the aircraft is 800km per hour, calculate the time taken, correct to the
nearest hour. (Take π = 22/7, R = 6400km)

8. (a) A linear transformation is given by N (x, y)→(2x + 3y, 3x – y)

(i) Write down the matrix N of the transformation
(ii) If N2 + aN + bI = 0, where a, b E R, I is the 2 x 2 unit matrix and 0 is the 2 x 2 null
matrix, find the values of a and b.

| |
x−2 −4 3
(b) If 5 2 2 =−24 , find the value of x
2 −4 6−x
 SSecond Term Examination
2017/2018 Academic Session

CLASS: J.S.S 2
SUBJECTS: CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ARTS
SECTION: A Objective B Theory
DURATION: 21/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all
Objective Questions 1 – 100. Part 1.
1. Painting is classified under ___________ art.
(A) Commercial (B) Fine (C) Commerce (D) Applied
2. Painting is a _____________ dimensional art.
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Two
3. The art of using lines to create images is referred to as
(A) Painting (B) Sculpture (C) Drawing (D) Graphics
4. A specialist in painting is called
(A) A Paintress (B) A Painter (C) A Pantress (D) A Painterers
5. Canvas is a material used for
(A) Sculpture (B) Painting (C) Stiletto (D) Ceramics
6. Who uses an equipment called easel in executing an art pieced
(A) Sculptor (B) Sculptress (C) Ceramist (D)Textile Designer
7. Drawing, painting, sculpture, craft photography and ceramics are
collectively referred to as ______ art.
(A) Non-Visual (B) Liberal (C) Visual (D) Performing Art
8. Pick the odd out of the following:
(A) Drama (B) Sculpture (C) Ceramics (D) Painting
9. Craft can be described as skilful making of
(A) Valuable items for human use (B) Beads only (c) Sculpture only
(D) Cutlasses and hoes.
10. A person who produces different types of craft is called
(A) A craft boy (B) A craft girl (C) Craftsmanship (D) A craftsman
11. Craft is grouped under ___________.
(A) Fine Art (B) Performing art (C) Literacy (D) Applied art.
12. Leather is made from __________.
(A) Hide and skin (B) Leather (C) Oil (D) Shoe
13. The processes of turning hide and skin into leather is called ______.
(A) Tanning (B) Batting (C) Belowing (D) Turning
14. Examples of leather products are the following except ___________.
(A) Cloth (B) Shoe (C) Bag (D) Purse
15. In Nigeria leather products are produced in large quantity in ______.
(A) Bida (B) Kano (C) Lagos (D) Jos
16. Beads are essentially used for
(A) Correction (B) Decoration (C) Faceting (D) Writing
17. Bead making is produced in large quantity in
(A) Bida (B) Oyo (C) Lagos (D) Badagry
18. Raffia is a material used in _______ making.
(A) Sculpture (B) Pottery (C) Craft (D) Textile
19. Carved figures are used for ____________.
(a) Worship (B) Ceramic (C) Learning (D) Drawing
20. Where in Nigeria is calabash decoration popular?
(A) Iseyin (B) Lagos (C) Bida (D) Oyo
21. Hoe, cutlass and axe are classified as _________ craft.
(A) Wooden (B) Cloth (C) Metal (D) Fibre
22. Example of fibre craft is _________.
(A) Metal craft (B) Basket weaving (C) Sculpture (D) Ceramics
23. Mat weaving is a popular craft in ________.
(A) Badagry (B) Lagos (C) Abeokuta (D) Yola
24. Craft is a __________ dimensional art.
(A) 10 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
25. Iseyin is a town noted for _________.
(A) Iron mongering (B) Wood carving (C) Cloth weaving (D) Sculpture
making
26. One of the following is a textile craft.
(A) Cloth weaving (B) Faceting (C) Intaglio (D) Sculpture craft
27. Loom is an equipment used by
(A) Ceramists (B) Sculptors (C) Cloth weavers (D) Painters
28. In cloth weaving thread used is also called ________.
(A) Rope (B) Fish line (C) Tane (D) Yarn
29. Fish line is a rope – like material used by _________.
(A) Sculptors (B) Painters (C) Travellers (D) Bead makers
30. The use of carton to produce slippers can be classified under
(A) Carton craft (B) Leather craft (C) Montage (D) Paper craft
31. A craft practice in which clay is used is called __________.
(A) Potery (B) Pottery (C) Potterey (D) Sculpture
32. Suleja is noted for
(A) Pottery making (B) Sculpture (C) Graphic art (D) Bead making
33. Tie – dye (Textile craft) is produced in commercial quantity in ___.
(A) Oyo (B) Abeokuta (C) Bida (D) Lagos.
34. Which town is popular in batik making in Nigeria?
(A) Uyo (B) Oyo (C) Kano (D) Maiduguri
35. Embroidery craft involves _________.
(A) Batik work (B) Tie-dye (C) Intaglio (D) Decorating upper part of fabric
with thread.
36. What is potter’s wheel used for?
(A) For graphic making (B) For pottery making (C) For painting (D) For
sculpture making.
37. The right grade of pencil for drawing is ________.
(A) 1B (B) 3C (C) 2B (D) 6B

38. Rehearsal simply means __________.

(A) Practice (B) Art (C) Science (D) Drama
39. Rehearsal is not required in one of the arts listed below
(A) Dancing (B) Drama (C) Music (D) Painting
40. The first stage of rehearsal is _________.
(A) Light (B) Dance (C) Technical and dress rehearsal (D) Reading
41. The following constitute technical and dress rehearsal except ____.
(A) Make – up (B) Costume (C) Lighting and lighting effect (D) Reading
42. Dance is a ________.
(A) Liberal art (B) Visual art (C) Literacy art (D) Theatre art
43. In terms of performance, the closest area of art to dance is _____.
(A) Music (B) Choreography (C) Theartre (D) Danceology
44. A popular choreographer in Nigeria is ___________.
(A) Chris Brown (B) Usher (C) Shakira (D) Kaffy
45. Application of colours on drawn objects/figures in order to enhance
appreciation is called _________.
(A) Colouring (B) Poster colouring (C) Painting (D) Sculpturing
46. The following are types of painting except _____ paint.
(A) Nature painting (B) Life painting (C) Still life painting
(D) Human painting
47. Water colour is a medium used for ______ painting.
(A) Thick (B) Oil (C) Light (D) Water
48. The right painting brush is called _________.
(A) Bristle brush (B) Sable brush (C) Intaglio (D) Brush knife
49. Who uses palette knife for executing art work?
(A) Sculptor (B) Ceramist (C) Painter (D) Graphic artist.
50. A painting that is expressed in a true – to – life manner is called ____.
(A) Manneristic painting (B) Realistic painting (C) Semi – realistic painting
(D) Abstract painting.
51. The opposite of realistic/naturalistic painting is called _____.
(A) Monochrome (B) Diachrome (C) Abstract painting (D) Pointilism
52. In painting _________ is used for diluting colours or mixing colours.
(A) Turpentine (B) Water (C) Kerosine (D) Lindseed oil
53. ________ is used for washing paint brush.
(A) Lindseed oil (B) Kerosine (C) Oil (D) Palette
54. A container for mixing colours is called _______.
(A) Palet (B) Palete (C) Palettee (D) Palette
55. Palette knife is used for __________.
(A) Colouring (B) Faceting (C) Montage (D) Painting
56. From the list of painting materials which material (medium) is in one
colour? (A) Pastel (B) Crayon (C) Palette (C) Charcoal
57. Preparing a surface for painting is called __________.
(A) Printing (B) Priming (C) Board preparation (D) Montage.
58. The following colours are used in wet form except ___.
(A) Poster colour (B) Water colour (C) Oil Colour (D) Charcoal
59. Choreography is a _______ art.
(A) Preparing (B) Performing (C) Visual (D) Literary
60. A cloth-like material used for painting is called
(A) Silhouette (B) Canvas (C) Board (D) Wall

Part II – Theory Part.

Answer four questions only from this part.
1A. What does rehearsal mean?
B. List four stages of rehearsal
C. List three reasons for rehearsal.
D. Explain three stages of rehearsal.

2A. Define painting.

B. List five types of painting.
C. List six materials used for painting.
D. Explain four types of painting.

3A. Define choreography and dance.

B. State three obvious similarities between dance and choreography.
C. List four employment opportunities opened to a dancer/choreographer.

4A. What is craft?

B. List ten types of craft.
C. List two products from each craft.
D. Explain what the following equipment are used for
(i) Potter’s wheel
(ii) Loom
(iii) Kiln

5A. Explain the following types of painting expressions

(i) Realistic painting expression.
(ii) Naturalistic painting expression.
(iii) Semi-abstract expression.
(iv) Abstract expression.

6. Write short notes on the following:

(i) 2 – dimensional art
(ii) 3 – dimensional art
(iii) Flat painting
(iv) Easel
 SSecond Term Examination
2017/2018 Academic Session

CLASS: J.S.S 3
SUBJECTS: CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ARTS
SECTION: A Objective B Theory
DURATION: 21/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all

Objective questions 1 – 60 part 1

1. Generally speaking any form of drawing is _________.
(A) Solid (B) Flat (C) Cuboid (D) Shaded
2. Generally speaking shading makes a drawing ______.
(A) flat (B) real (C) Spherical (D) diagonal
3. The right grade of pencil for drawing is _______.
(A) 3B (B) 5B (C) 2B (D) H
4. What is canvas used for in art?
(A) Walking (B) Sculpturing (C) Ceramics (D) Painting
5. ___________ is not allowed in any form of drawing.
(A) Eraser (B) Pencil (C) Paper (D) Ruler
6. The following are visual arts except
(A) Drama (B) Painting (C) Sculpture (D) Graphics
7. Pick the odd out of the following:
(A) Drama (B) Choreography (C) Dance (D) Painting
8. The unit of design is called ________.
(A) Motive (B) Motives (C) Motif (D) Motef
9. Continous repetition of motifs lead to creation of _________.
(A) Design (B) Balance (C) Variety (D) Pattern
10. Repetition (of motif) is a/an _____________.
(A) Element of design (B) Principle of design (C) Principle of variety
(D) Motif
11. A repetition that is done to reflect one another in pattern making is called
(A) Half drop (B) Mirror repeat (C) Diamond repeat (D) Simple repeat
12. Which of the following is not a repeat pattern.
(A) Mirror (B) Floral repeat pattern (C) Half drop (D) Diamond repeat
13. In diamond repeat the motifs are arranged ______.
(A) Rectangularly (B) in square (C) in circle (D) diagonally
14. Floral motifs means _________.
(A) Motifs formed from nature (B) Motifs formed from leaves (C) Motifs
formed from flower (D) Motifs formed from still life
15. Pattern making is an exercise in __________.
(A) Graphics (B) Ceramics (C) Sculpture (D) Textile design
16. The following are used for preparing motifs except ________.
(A) Ruler (B) Pencil (C) Paper (D) Mallet
17. A repeat pattern that looks like draft board is ______ repeat.
(A) Diamond (B) Checker board (C) Simple (D) Mirror
18. A repeat method where motifs are arranged in a brick laying pattern is
called ____. (A) Half drop (B) Mirror repeat (C) Brick repeat (D) Simple
repeat.
19. The arrangement of motifs beside each other on each row both vertically
and horizontally is called ______ repeat.
(A) Simple (B) Mirror (C) Half drop (D) Diamond
20. The art of representing three dimensional objects or figures on a two-
dimensional surface is called ______.
(A) Linear perspective (B) Angular perspective (C) Regular perspective (D)
Perspective
21. The perspective used for drawing is __________.
(A) Atmospheric perspective (B) Linear perspective (C) Aerial perspective
(D) Manual perspective
22. Linear perspective can be divided into two; parallel and ________.
(A) Angular (B) Irregular (C) Angular (D) Diagonal
23. A one-point perspective is called ___________.
(A) Angular perspective (B) Parallel perspective (C) Aerial perspective
(D) Manual perspective
24. Two-point perspective is called __________.
(A) Parallel perspective (B) Irregular perspective (C) Angular perspective
(D) Atmosphere perspective
25. Another name for colour perspective is ___________.
(A) Aerial perspective (B) Sky perspective (C) Linear perspective
(D) Angular perspective
26. The level at which artist can view what he/she is drawing is called ___.
(A) Straight level (B) Diagonal level (C) Eye level (D) Straight Level
27. A point where observer no longer see continuation of a particular scene is
called ______. (A) Vanishing line (B) Vanishing Point (C) Vanishing level
(D) Vanishing method
28. Where land tends to meet the sky is __________.
(A) Horizon (B) Horizonal (C) Horizone (D) Horizone
29. The part of the picture that is closer to the observer in landscape drawing
is called _____. (A) Background (B) Fore ground (C) Ground level
(D) Straight level
30. The part of the picture that is far from the observer is known as _______.
(A) Level (B) Straight level (C) Background (D) Local ground
31. One of the following is a knitted fabric.
(A) Cardigan (B) embroidery (C) crochet (D) cloth weaving
32. How many knitting hooks are used to produce head rest?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
33. Knitted fabrics are examples of ________.
(A) Crocheting (B) textile craft (C) ceramics (D) embroidery
34. Knitted fabrics are used as wears and for _______.
(A) Decoration (B) Pinching (C) Munching (D) Silhouette

35. The main material used for knitting is _____.

(A) hooks (B) hook (C) yarn (D) needle
36. The area of theatre art similar to choreography is _______.
(A) dance (B) music (C) drama (D) singing
37. A choreographer is a theatre _____.
(A) Artist (B) Artiste (C) Artistry (D) Artistrey
38. A choreographer practices the art of choreography in ______.
(A) School (B) at home (C) in a theatre (D) room
39. Two types of machine knitting are:
(A) Weft and Warf knitting (B) Weft and Warp knitting (c) Horizontal and
vertical knitting (D) Vertical and horizontal knitting.
40. The following are importance of choreography except ______.
(A) It is a source of employment (B) It helps to exercise the body
(C) It is capable of relieving tension i.e. it is therapeutic.
(D) it is not therapeutic
41. The art of constructing alphabets is called _______.
(A) Calligraphy (B) Lettering (C) Hieroglyphics (D) Cuineform
42. Who originated the letters called hieroglyphics?
(A) The Europeans (B) The Africans (C) The Asians (D) The Egyptians
43. Letters can be classified into two:
(A) Romans and Gothic (B) Algerians and Italians
(C) Egyptians and Romans (D) Block and Scripts
44. One major difference between block letters and the scripts is that ___.
(A) Blocks are handwritten while scripts are constructed.
(B) Blocks are constructed while scripts are written by free hand.
(C) Scripts are written in small letters while blocks are in capital letters.
(D) Blocks are Gothic while scripts are Romans.
45. Both capital and small letters, respectively are otherwise known as ___.
(A) Upper case and lower case (B) long case and short case
(C) Oriented and continental (D) Bold letters are narrow letters.
46. Qualities of good lettering include:
(A) Flexibility, availability, spacing and style
(B) Boldness, style, composition and flexibility
(C) Legibility, good spacing, proportion and colour usage
(D) Simple information, drawing of lines, colour usage
47. Lettering is classified under ______.
(A) Fine Art (B) Usage (C) Applied art. (D) Graphics
48. Another name for pen lettering is_______.
(A) Malligraphy (B) callography (C) Gothic calligraphy
49. Two important tools in calligraphy are:
(A) Brush and Paper (B) Pen and palette (C) Brush and poster colour
(D) Pen and ink
50. Which of these letters in block are easier to sight from a distance on a bill
board? (A) Old English Text (B) Gothic (C) Algerian (D) Bodnoff
51. Which colour is best for a letter that has black background on the bill board
(A) yellow (B) black (C) blue (D) purple
52. One of the classes of colours listed below is often used in bill board.
 (A) Neutral colours (B) harmonious colours (C) contrasting colour
(D) bright colours
53. Lettering is an exercise in graphics and it is ______ dimensional.
(A) 2 (B) 10 (C) 3 (D) 1
54. A person who specializes in using pen to write is called _______.
(A) a cartographer (B) caligrapher (C) calligrapher (D) calographer
55. Lines that serve as guidelines in lettering construction are called
(A) guidelines (B) gridlines (C) Gridelines (D) mature lines
56. Lettering can serve as a means of _________.
(A) Moulding (B) correction (C) information (D) embarrassment
57. For effective communication small letters can be combined with
(A) Capital letters (B) San serif (C) Serif (D) Tria serif
58. Which two letters of the alphabets are the widest?
(A) A and B (B) D and Z (C) D and U (D) M and W.
59. What is a bill board?
(A) A piece of board carrying information for student in the school
(B) A large board by the street with information for the general public
(C) A large board on which Electric and water bills are pasted
(D) A board that carries handbills.
60. The following materials are used for lettering construction except
(A) Ruler (B) Compass (C) Pencil (D) Palette

PART II – THEORY PART.

Answer four questions only from this part.
1A. Define lettering
B. List two letter classification
C. List five qualities of a good lettering
D. What is calligraphy?

2A. Using gridlines, construct letters A,S,W, and M

B. List four uses of letters
C. Explain the four uses of letters briefly.

3A. Explain the following:

(i) Motif
(ii) Pattern
B. List five types of repeat motifs
C. Explain three of the repeat motifs

4A. Define knitting

B. List four materials used
C. List four uses/importance of knitted fabrics.
D. List four products from knitting

5A. Who is a choreographer?

B. State three similarities between a choreographer and a dancer.
C. A part from choreographer and dancer, mention three other
performing/theatre arts.

6A. Define perspective (drawing)

B. List one perspective used for the drawing
C. Illustrate angular and parallel perspective
D. Explain vanishing point and artist eye level.

SSecond Term Examination

2017/2018 Academic Session

CLASS: J.S.S 1
SUBJECTS: CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ARTS
SECTION: A Objective B Theory
DURATION: 21/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all
Objective Questions – Part A
1. Art generally means ________.
(A) paper (B) skill (C) craft (D) painting
2. Arts (Visual Arts) are generally ________.
(A) Manufacture (B) painted (C) expressed (D) collated
3. _______ is used for drawing.
(A) paper (B) ruler (C) masking tape (D) Cellotape
4. _______ is used for cleaning mistakes in drawing.
(A) ruler (B) paper (C) eraser (D) pencil
5. The right pencil for drawing is _______.
(A) 5B (B) 7B (C) 10B (D) 2B
6. _______ is not allowed in drawing.
(A) eraser (B) pencil (C) ruler (D) paper
7. A person who expresses himself/herself with paints is called a ___.
(A) paintress (B) painter (C) tanter (D) lady painter
8. Craft making involves the use of _________.
(A) skill (B) labour (C) sense (D) craft
9. A professional in craft making (male) is called a ______.
(A) craftswoman (B) craftswomen (C) craftsman (D) labourer
10. An example of paper craft is _________.
(A) glass (B) success card (C) bottle (D) box
11. Clay is used for producing
(A) bottles (B) hoe (C) pottery craft (D) Sculpture
12. _______ is a material used for making beads.
(A) iron (B) metal (C) clay (D) bronze
13. An example of textile craft is ______.
(A) ruler (B) pottery (C) cloth weaving (D) cloth mongering
14. Examples of fibre craft are the following except _______.
(A) cane (basket) weaving (B) mat weaving (C) pottery (D) cloth weaving
15. Woven fabric is an example of _______ craft.
 (A) textile (B) leather (C) pottery (D) sculpture
16. An example of metal craft is _________.
(A) ruler (B) toy (C) cutlass (D) bamboo
17. Tie-dye is produced in large quantity in _________.
(A) Iseyin (B) Lagos (C) Benin (D) Abeokuta
18. ________ is noted for batik production in Nigeria.
(A) Iseyin (B) Lagos (C) Kano (D) Ikorodu
19. What is Bida known for?
(A) Bead works (B) Sculpture works (C) Cloth weaving (D) pottery
20. _________ is used for producing shoes.
(A) Sole (B) leather (C) metal (D) shoes
21. Large scale production of leather craft is practiced in ______.
(A) Lagos (B) Jos (C) Kano (D) Maiduguri
22. Embroidery is made on ________.
(A) leather (B) canvas (C) cloth (D) board
23. Pick the odd out of this group.
(A) Leather works (B) poster making (C) embroidery
(D) calabash decoration
24. One of the following is not a function of drama.
(A) It teaches (B) it informs (C) it entertains (D) it divides
25. Drama is therapeutic; this means
(A) drama is good (B) drama entertains (C) drama informs
(D) drama is capable of relieving tension.
26. A dramatist
(A) writes drama scripts (B) teaches (C) is the same as actor
(D) is also a drama director
27. Drama can serve the purpose of ___________.
(A) Settling quarrels (B) enlightenment (C) drama (D) mis-understanding
28. Drama is performed in the ____________.
(A) shop (B) house (C) arts theatre (D) gallery
29. The storyline in drama is called
(A) theme (B) plot (C) obstacles (D) diction
30. Words used in drama is called _______.
(A) dictation (B) diction (C) language (D) character
31. Theme is ____________.
(A) drama personnel (B) subject matter of the drama (C) diction
(D) storyline
32. Examples of spectacles in drama are the following except ____.
(A) dance (B) make-up (C) costume (D) Crown
33. Introduction of music in drama is to make the drama _______.
(A) flawless (B) more interesting (C) sharp (D) sub-standard
34. Characters in drama refers to __________.
(A) plot (B) theme (C) actors and actresses (D) diction
35. Background of drama is referred to as _______.
(A) chroma (B) setting (C) personnel (D) plot
36. Who is a protagonist in drama?
(A) Hero or heroine (B) flat character (C) A person who criticizes the
antagonist (D) Drama crew.
37. Cast refers to _____________.
(A) actors only (B) actresses only (C) actors and actresses (D) crew
38. In drama, director, producer, make-up artist, costumier, camera man etc.
are referred to as _______.
(A) Crew (B) Crow (C) Crewe (D) Cast
39. Farce is an example of ___________.
(A) plot (B) dance (C) music (D) drama
40. Tango is an example of ____________ dance.
(A) Traditional (B) Costumary (C) Contemporary (D) Local
41. Dance drama is also called _________.
(A) dramatic dance (B) tango (C) ballet (D) Opera
42. Which of the following is referred to as lover’s dance?
(A) Ballet (B) Tango (C) Dramatic dance (D) Foxtrot
43. Coming together of a group of people to carry out a particular task is
referred to as _________.
(A) team worker (B) team work (C) teamers (D) workers
44. Team work can lead to _____________.
(A) Sense of touch (B) sense of smell (C) sense of belonging (D) sense of
co-operation.
45. One of the importance of team work is that ______.
(A) Unity and oneness can be achieved (B) Unity cannot be achieved (C) It
can create enmity (D) It is not important
46. People of different tribes hugging one another is a sign of ____________.
(A) bad blood (B) enmity (C) sense of belonging (D) lack of co-operation
47. Presently what we need in Nigeria is __________.
(A) Unity (B) disunity (C) lack of trust (D) hatred
48. Incessant clashes experienced among tribes is as a result of __________.
(A) Friendship (B) lack of oneness (C) unity (D) co-operation
49. Hugging is a sign of _____________.
(A) sense of belonging (B) hatred (C) faithfulness (D) belief
50. Where did Tango (contemporary dance) originated from?
(A) Lagos (B) Peru (C) Brazil (D) Buenos Aires, Argentina
51. How many people can dance Tango?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
52. Dance is used for the following except _________.
(A) for entertainment (B) relieving one’s tension (C) for communication
(D) for setting quarrel
53. Drama can serve the purpose of information. This means ________.
(A) drama dramatises (B) drama can give information on various
happenings in the country (C) drama can alleviate a person’s problem.
(D) drama can misinform.
54. A female performer in drama is referred to as _______.
(A) comedy (B) comedienne (C) actress (D) female director.
55. Cane is a material used for producing _____________.
(A) cloth (B) hoe (C) basket (D) gun
56. _________ is used for producing chairs and tables
(A) wood (B) palm fronds (C) raffia (D) clay
57. Example of pottery craft is ___________.
(A) shoe (B) leather (C) pot (D) pottery chair
58. Production of greeting cards, and papier mache figures can be classified
under _________. (A) craft (B) paper craft (C) metal craft (D) pottery craft
59. The following are used for producing paper craft except ______.
(A) knife (B) cardboard paper (C) colour (D) clay
60. For cloth weaving _________________ is used.
(A) ruler (B) cloth (C) thread or yarn (D) Knitting tools.

PART B – THEORY PART

Answer four questions only from this part.

1 (A). Define drama.

(B) List five functions of drama.
(C) List two ways drama can be of help to you.
2 (A). Write on the following drama terminologies briefly:
(i) Suspension
(ii) Plot
(iii) Crew
(iv) Cast
(v) prompter
(vi) Theme

3 (A). What is local craft?

(B) List six types of craft.
(C) Mention any ten craft products

4 (A). Define dance.

(B) List four uses/functions of dance.
(C) List three types of contemporary dance.
(D) Explain two of the contemporary dance in 4 (c).

5 (A). Define teamwork and sense of belonging.

(B) List four advantages of teamwork/sense of belonging
(C) Describe sense of belonging

6 (A). What are elements of drama?

(B) List six drama elements.
(C) Explain four of the drama elements in 6B.

Second Term Examination

 2016/2017 Academic Session
CLASS: JSS1
SUBJECTS: BUSINESS STUDIES
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
1. Which of the following factor of production attracts rent as a reward a)
capital b) material c) labour d) land
2. An individual who owns his capital and runs his business alone is called a) a
chief executive b) a businessman c) an entrepreneur d) a managing
director
3. ________ is making of goods and provision of services to satisfy human wants
a) trade b) reward c) department d) production
4. The following are factors of production except a) capital b) industry c)
land d) labour
5. The agent of production that is man-made and put aside for futher production
is a) land b) capital c) entrepreneur d) labour
6. The reward for labour is a) rent b) wages c) interest d) interest
7. The reward for capital is a) wages b) rent c) profit d) interest
8. Which of the following is not a reward for factors of production a) rent b)
profit c) wages d) finance
9. All activities that make it possible for consumers to get goods and services to
satisfy their wants are called a) demand b) supply c) marketing d)
production
10. What people engage themselves in order to earn a living, is called a)
production b) occupation c) banking d) supply
11. The process of bring out natural resources from the soil and the sea is known
as a) occupation b) manufacturing c) extraction d) direct services
12. Production involves production of goods and a) product b) clothes c)
services d) marketing
13. The purposes of production is to a) produce for the rich b) satisfy c)
consumer’s wants c) give discounts d) libby for sales
14. The industry that converts raw materials into finished products is called a)
construction industry b) extraction industry c) commercial industry d)
primary industry
15. Materials produced by manufacturing industries are called a) average goods
b) work-in- progress c) finished goods d) semi finished gods
16. Commercial services can be divided into all these except __________ a)
manufacturing b) transportation c) ware housing d) trade
17. Trade can be divided into two, these are ___________ a) whole sale and retail
trade b) import and export trades c) home and foreign trades d) import
and wholesales trades
18. A trade between Nigeria and the U.S.A is called a) home trade b) foreign
trade c) import trade d) export trade
19. To be honest means to be a) truthful b) ignorant c) troublesome d) all of
the above
20. Attributes of truthfulness do not include a) consistency b) stead fastness
c) straight forwardness d) impartiality
21. Rewards of being truthful include all except a) being highly respected in an
organization b) being
22. Which of these cannot make people lie a) escape punishment b) sell their
products c) gain popularity d) worship God
23. Openness as an attribute of fair play means a) fair play b) transparency
c) stead fastness d) consistency
24. To deal in business having to do with chemicals, you must a) be prepared
for it b) educate yourself on how to mix chemicals c) learnt about the
inherent danger d) all of the above
25. Ethics can be described as a) writing down rules and reputation b) giving
order on how things must be gone c) the pursuit for following the
rules/code of conduct associated with a business d) none of the above
26. The rules and regulation guiding sourcing for chemical materials are known
as a) rules for sourcing chemical materials b) regulations of souring
chemical materials c) ethics of sourcing chemical materials d) all of the
above
27. The purpose of ethics is a) honesty in business b) faithfulness c)
commitment d) good health
28. Which of the following is not one of the ethical principles guiding the sourcing
of chemical a) buying from licensed vendors b) buying from street
vendors c) good hand long techniques d) proper disposal of chemical
wastes
29. Which of the following is not an advantage of observing ethic in the use of
chemicals a) clean environment b) diseases prevention c) prevention of
atmospheric pollution d) prevention of rain
30. The word “ Entrepreneur “ originated from the a) English language b)
French language c) latin language d) greek language
31. An entrepreneur is a) a person who reaps the profit of a business b) a
person who finance the business c) a person who takes the risk of starting
and managing a business d) a person who shares in the profit of the business
32. The risks of success or failure of a business fall on the a) businessman b)
organization c) under taker d) entrepreneur
33. One of the importance of entrepreneurship is that a) it creates rooms for
innovation b) it boosts the business c) creates room for business expansion
d) it creates room for progress I business
34. Entrepreneurship can expose the entrepreneur to a) business hazards b)
business risks c) business opportunities d) business tricks
35. When new things are introduced into a business, it is said to be a)
innovation b) change c) new d) coordinating
36. An entrepreneur can also be referred to as a) a deceiver b) a cheat c) an
organizer d) an agent
37. The ability to initiate ideas and translate them into actions and results is
regarded as a) organizing b) managing c) entrepreneurship d) co-
ordinating
38. The owner of a business enterprises is called a/an a) production manager
b) supervisor c) entrepreneur d) coordinator
39. Another name for sole-proprietorship is a) one-man business b) two man
business c) three man business d)_ four man business
40. The minimum and the maximum numbers of a partnership are between ______
members a) 1 and 5 b) 2 and 10 c) 2 and 20 d) 3 and 30
41. The written agreement of partnership is called a) partnership agreement
b) partnership formation c) partnership name d) partnership deed
42. A company that invites the general public to subscribe for share is a a) sole
trader b) partnership c) public limited liability company d) private limited
liability company
43. In a private limited liability company, share can __________ a) be advertised
for sale b) not to advertised for sale c) all of the above d) be confiscated
44. Membership of a private limited liability company ranges from __________ a)
10 to 100 b) 50 – 75 c) 2 to 40 d) 2 to 50
45. One major disadvantage of sole proprietorship is a) expansion b) death
c) investment d) electricity
46. Which of these forms of business must register with the registrar of
cooperatives a) sole proprietor b) partnership c) co-operative societies
d) public limited liability company
47. Which of the following is not a form of business a) co-operative society b)
partnership c) ministry of education d) sole – proprietorship
48. Consumer refers to ___________ a) the final or end user b) wholesaler c)
retailer d) none of these
49. Consumer education is important because of __________ a) the need for
information and advice about goods and services b) the need to engage in
relevant business c) the need to become an agent to a manufacturer d) the
need to purchase imported goods
50. Lack of consumer education could lead to a) improper use of goods and
services b) proper use of goods and services c) improved sales of goods and
services d) monopoly of goods ad services
Theory (Answer 5 questions)
1A Who is an entrepreneur?
B list and explain in detail the 4 factors of production
C list the reward for each of the factors of production

2a define occupation
B list four types of occupation and give two of examples each

3a Distinguish between direct and indirect service

B state the three rewards of being truthful
C mention the three consequences or not being truthful

4a state and explain the 2 ethics guiding sourcing of chemicals

B list 4 advantages of observing ethics in the use of chemicals

5a Define business studies

B list and explain 4 components of business studies
6) what is self – employment
B define consumer and society

7a) List the five effects of monitoring of chemicals

B state the five ways of controlling chemicals

Second Term Examination

2016/2017 Academic Session
CLASS: JSS2
SUBJECTS: BUSINESS STUDIES
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
1. A person who buys goods and services to be used is known as a a) retailer
b) producer c) manufacturer d) consumer
2. In the early 70s, the body that was responsible for consumerism under the
ministry of trade was called a) consumer agitation unit b) consumer
protection unit c) consumer practices unit d) consumer behavior unit
3. The consumer right to basic essential needs is known as a) right to be hard
b) right to be informed c) right to choose d) right to good things of life
4. All the under listed are consumer rights except a) right to be heard, b)
rights to be informed c) right to manufacture d) right to consumer
education
5. Consumers have various responsibility majority categorized into two which
are a) post purchase and after purchase b)purchase and bought
responsibilities c) hire purchase and pre-purchase responsibility d) retail
purchase and whole sale purchase responsibility
6. The combination of behavior, precautions and actions expected of a consumer
in a business transaction is a) consumer behaviours
7. A consumer should not be part of an illegal transaction such as a) checking
of product before making right decision b) purchase of quality goods c)
buying legal products d) giving bribes
8. Large scale production of goods and services of different kinds at a time are
known as a) mine production b) mixed production c) mass production d)
many production
9. A consumer should read the information such as warnings and maintenance
of products True or false
10. The following are post purchase responsibilities of consumers except a)
product safety b) being well informed c) complaints d) refer of good
11. Needs are wants that need to be a) satisfied b) provided c) desired d)
remanded
12. A need is said to be a) unlimited b) demanded c) unwanted d)limited
13. All needs are wants True / False
14. Want is a desire True/false
15. The ability to present books of accounts in clear from without ambiguity is
known as a) accountability b) impartiality c) transparency d) probity
16. Which of the under listed best define accountability a) study of accountancy
b) ability to explain and take full responsibility for ones accounting records
c) study of ability d) ability to make presentation
17. Which of the following describes probity? A) honesty b) probe c) distrust
d) problem
18. All the under listed are attributes of TAP except a) commitment b) loyalty
c) reliability d) favoritism
19. Ability to abide by the rules and regulations of an organization by a book
keeper is known as a) transparency b) accountability c) due process d)
probity
20. Which one of the following statement is not true about a ledger? A) it
contains ledger account b) it is used to separate business transaction into
different types c) it is the main book of account d) It is a book of original
entry
21. Which of the following statements is true of a ledger account a) it is a book
of original entry b) pit is a statement of profit and loss c) it is devoted only
to a particular transaction d) it is a page in a page in a ledger that is devoted
to only a particular transaction
22. Which one of the following deficts the correct format of a ledger account a)
d b) I c) L d) T
23. What is the purpose of the ledger a) to inform the trader how much he has
in his bank account b) to keep check on petty transactions c) to keep
individual customers and suppliers account d) to make discounts available
24. An account is a) a form of record originally kept in the ledger b) a ledger
entry c) a book of original entry d) a record
25. The word “contra” means a) centre b) opposite c) central point d)
contract
26. One of the following is a method of recording cash payment a) contra
entries b) discount allowed c) discount received d) cash withdrawn
27. The debit side of the ledger is at the a) back side b) centre side c) right
hand side d) left hand side
28. The word “petty” means a) important b) cash c) unimportant d)
permanent
29. The method used in controlling the amount of money given to the petty
cashier b) imprest system c) reimburse d) payment
30. One advantage of petty cash in business is, it is ________ a) time saving b)
unreliable c) very show d) very expensive
31. Which of these expenditure can be paid from petty cash a) bills b)
equipment c) rent d) stationery
32. The book where all small expenditure are recorded is called a a) ledger
account b) petty cash book c) ledger d) journal
33. ___________ is a book of original entry a) debit not b)( purchasing journal c)
cash book d) credit note
34. Cash sales is recorded on which side of the cash book a) debit side b) credit
side c) middle d) bottom
35. ___________ is recorded on the credit side of a cash book a) capital b) sales
c)credit d) purchase
36. Which of the following form of cash book does not exist a) single column
cash book b) four-colomn cash book c) three column cash book d) double
coloumn cash book
37. The inducement given to a customer to encourage prompt payment is called
a) trade encouragement b) cash encouragement c) cash discount d) trade
discount
38. To encourage the wholesaler to buy large quantities of goods the
manufacturer offers a) trade discount b) reward with gift c) auction d)
cash discount
39. The _____________ column shows the exact date the transaction took place a)
folio b) amount c) particular d) date
40. A cash book is divided into two part namely a) cash and bank sides b) credit
and debit sides c) discount and received sides d) simple- column and
double column side
41. Which of the following correction sign indicates capital letter a) NP B) TRC
C) VC D) LC
42. What is the full meaning of “trs” in manuscript a) transpose b) transcript
c) transaction d) transportation
43. The sign “&” is known as a) new paragraph b) close up c) run one d)
ampersonal
44. The sign ”NP” on the margin of a passage means a) new paragraph b) new
diagram c) and d) run on
45. Buying on credit means a) paying immediately b) paying later c) paying in
advance d) hire purchase
46. Petty cash book is used to record a) credit sales b) goods bought on credit
c) minor expenses d) bank transaction
47. The salary sheet containing all the names of employees and pay for the month
is called a) pay master b) pay advice c) salary sheet d) payroll
48. The officer in charge of the petty cash book is called a) patty cashier b)
accountant c) manager d) cashier
49. What is the name given to a passage written by hand in type writing a)
typed paper b) manuscript c) paragraph d)dictated paper
50. A periodical document sent to a customer to show his state of account is
called a) debit note b) credit note c) statement of account d) enquiry
51. An international way of selling a product through electronic media is a)
radio b) bill board c) television d) internet
52. The system of filing whereby the duties of document are used is a)
chronological b) numerical c) geographical d) alphabetical
53. Visual advertisement is to newspapers while audio-visual advertisement is to
_________ a) magazine b) television c) poster d) radio
54. Goods bought for resale are entered as a) ledger b) account c) purchases
d) sales
55. Nwachukwu has N800 in his bank account but withdraws 1200. How much
has been granted to him as an overdraft a) N700.00 b) N600.00 c)
1000.00 d) N400.00
56. A trader buys goods at N250.00 and sells the goods at N400.00 what is the
profit a) N1500.00 b) N500.00 c) N250.00 d) N850.00
57. Reimbursement is a means of paying back what has been given out or spend
a)_ True b) False
58. A certain reduction in the amount of goods paid by the buyer is called a)
commission recorded b) discount allowed c) return outward d) return
inward
59. A petty cash float is the a) money added to restore the original amount b)
money added to increase the original amount c) money kept in the office for
small cash payment d) money spent on office refreshment
60. Goods cost N5000.00 and was sold at an increase of 10% what is the selling
price a) N5500.00 b) N6000.00 c) N4500.00 d) N5000.00

SECTION B
THEORY QUESTIONS
Attempt only four questions
1a Define “consumer Right”
B List and explain four universal consumer rights
2a Explain in detail the responsibilities of a consumer
B Explain three responsibilities of the consumer

3a What is impulse buying

B list the three effects of impulse buying on both the buyer and the seller
C differentiate between needs and wants

4a list the five problems and five solutions credited by lack of TAP

5A Outline and explain the four main types of expenditure made under the petty
cash book
B state the four differences between cash book and petty cash book
C what is the difference between cash discount and trade discount

Second Term Examination

2016/2017 Academic Session
CLASS: JSS3
SUBJECTS: BUSINESS STUDIES
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
1. ____________ is the money that is within ones disposal to use at ones discretion
a) modesty b) budget c) consumption d) personal finance
2. Planning for the best way to allocate resources is called a) budget b)
business c) safety d) management
3. One of the attributes of modesty is a) corruption b) fighting c) simplicity
d) eypong
4. Extravagance is living a ______________ life a) play ful b) wasteful c) simple
d) prudent
5. Personal budgeting is important because it helps one to a) organize and
allocate his finances b) spend your resources any how c) acquire more
debts d) live within one’s means
6. __________________ is not a source of finance for an individual b) borrowing b)
loan c) sharing d) saving
7. Budget deficit is when we a) buy more than we can sell b) make a budget
that is above our salary c) receive more than we send d) are ready to spend
8. The power to select from among different choices is a) banking b) choice
c) saving d) serving
9. ________________- is when are individual lies a simple lifestyle a) quietness b)
personality c) holiness d) modesty
10. ______________ is the act of using up something (gods or services) that are made,
produced or purchased
11. _______________ is the arrangement of what an individual desires in order of
importance that is the items that are of most important are on the top list
12. _________________ is something that is essential especially a basic requirement
for living a) necessity b) negotiation c) national d) nepotism
13. Ethics means ________________ a) old ways of doing thing b) unusual way of
doing things c) code of consuct or ways of doing things d) corruption
14. ______________ is the situation where there is openness in carrying out ones duly
without doubt a) probity b) transparency c) accountability d)
corruption
15. _____________ implies the ability of an individual to be responsible for his action
a) transparency b) accountability c) transparency d) corruption
16. _______________ is the act of doing something according to laid down rues or
procedures a) over process b) probity c) transparency d) corruption
17. The following are attributes of due process except a) truthfulness b)
openness c) fairness d) corruption
18. One of the importance of TAP IS ___________ A) not being fair to all b) culture
c) to reduce corruptions d) not important
19. The principal of equity implies a) loyalty b) just c) partiality d) royalty
20. Reliability as an attribute lof TAP means a) obedient b) safety c) trust
worthness d) strength
21. _________________ means giving every person his right or due without
discrimination a) particularity b) partiality c) imprest d) impartiality
22. A goods cost N5000.00 and was sold at an increase of 10% what is the selling
price a) N5500 b) N8000.00 c) N5000.00 d) N4500.00
23. The act of putting the typing sheet into the type writer ready for typing is
called a) inclusion b) insertion c) extraction d) fixing
24. What is the size of A4 typing paper a) 310mm x 210mm b) 100mm x
120mm c) 210mm x 297mm d) 102mm x 729mm
25. If a casual worker works for eight hours and his total wage is N8000 calculate
his wage per hours and his total wages is N8000 calculate his wages per hour
a) N2000 b) N3000 c) N4000 d) N1000
26. To remove paper from the typewriter the typist puils forward the a) paper
release lever b) paper grip c) paper guide d) paper return lever
27. Calculate the net profit from the information give below
Goss Profit N5000
Salaries N2400
Advertising 300
Carriage outwards 500
A) N 1,800
B) N2,900 c)N200 d) N1,900
28. The sign x represents ___________ in shorthand a) exclamation b) full stop c)
dash d) hyphen
29. In pitman shorthand there are _______________ dipthongs a)3 b) 12 c) 6
d) 4
30. Calculate the cost of goods sold from this information
opening stock N1,800.00
Closing Stock N400.00
Purchases N3,500.00
sales N5,000.00
a) N7,000 b)
N5,100 C) N6000.00 D) N4,100.00
31. A trader buys goods at N250.00 and sells the goods at N400.00 what is the
profit a) N500.00 b) N150.00 c) N650.00 d) N250.00
32. What is the meaning of this printer’s correction sign up NP a) lower case b)
delete c0 New paragraph d) close up
33. How many consonant stokers do we have in pitman shorthand a) 24 b) 12
c) 16 d) 20
34. Which of the following is not a typing sheet a) A5 B) A4 C) Quarto d)
carbon
35. ___________- is the correction sign to denote capital letter a) L.C B) U.C C) trs
d) N
36. There are __________ vowels in short hand a) 18 b) 20 c) 12 d) 16
37. Who introduced pitman shorthand a) Sir Isaac Pitman b) Sir Fredick Okoh
C) Sir Isaac Lordship D) Sir Isaac James
38. Which is the name given to a passage written by hand in typewriting a)
paragraphing b) typed paper c) transparently d) transfer
39. A shoulder heading is a) the same as main heading b) typed on the line of
he paragraph c) typed above the paragraph d) always typed in lower case
40. In which year was pitman short hand introduced a) 1837 b) 1870 c) 1832
d) 1937
41. Which of these typed sheet is the longest a) A5 B) A4 C) Quarto d)
Foolscap
42. Ade make a budge of N5,200 and spent N4,800. What is the balance left with
Ade a) N200 b) N400 C) N600 d) N800
43. The frontiers correction sign II means a) small letter b) new paragraph c)
insert space d) delete
44. When typing words in continuous capital letter ____________ must be depresses
a) backspace key b) shift lock key c) space bar d) shift key
45. A man buys goods costing N600 and he is given a cash discount of 10 % . how
much does he pay for the goods a) N5400 b) N6000 c) N5,010 d) N6000
46. The correct sitting position when typing is to sit _____ a)and keep your eyes
on the machine b) and relax your self while typing c) and type correctly
d) upright with your fect flat in the floor
47. When an error is made in short hand drilling, you are advised to a) circle
the word b) cancel the word c) omit the word d) erase the word
48. Second place vowels in shorthand are written a) above the line b) across
the line c) on the line d) through the line
49. A good shorthand writer can be employed as a/an a) stenographer b)
Painter c) artist d) teacher
50. _______________ is a situation whereby you try to be moderate in spending and
in buying a) personal serving b) budgeting c) transparency d) modesty
51. Half of foolscap is called __________ and half of quarto is called ________________
52. A4 paper size can be used for long letters and reports True/False
53. A side heading is also known as a __________- heading a) paragraph b) main
c) shoulder d) marginal
54. A5 paper is ____________ a) 1/r of A4 b) ½ of A4 c) 1/3 of A4 d) 1/8 or A4
55. A memorandum should not contain __________ a) name and date b) name and
refrence c) name and address d) date and subject heading
56. Typewriter was invested in the year ________ by a group of investors a) 1876
b) 1867 c) 1857 d) 1877
57. The following are types of correction materials used in correcting mistakes
while typing except a) paint b) typing eraser c) red correcting fluid d)
while correcting fluid
58. The cost price of an article is N500.00 and the profit on the article is 10%
what is the selling price a) N250.00 b) N300.00 c) N550.00 D) N500.00
59. The part of typewriter that moves from right to left when typing is known as
a) keyboard b) carriage c) rollers d) shift lock

SECTION B
THEORY QUESTIONS
ANSER ALL QUESTION
Answer all questions from this section
1a Explain in detail scale of preference
B what is the link between modesty and extrangance
C distinguish between consumption and choice
2a mention and explain five reasons why we need TAP
B name at least five problems created by lack of TAP
3a List and explain the two attributes of TAP
B Name and explain the four solutions of TAP
4)a state the five importance of shorthand
B Mention the five need for type writing skills
5a outline the five importance of personal budget
B list and explain the our sources of finance for an individual
 SECOND
TERM EXAMINATION
2017/2018 ACADEMIC SESSION

CLASS: S. S.2
SUBJECTS: ACCOUNT
SECTION: A Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS
1. When shares are oversubscribed the promoter may decide to scale down the
number of shareholding when this is done, the shares are being a) forferted b)
issued at discount c) issued on pro-rata d) issued at par
2. Which of the following fixed asset is not depreciable a) building b) tools c)
land d) furniture
3. The purpose of a trading account is to a k certain a) sales b) gross profit c) net
profit d) carriage outwards
4. The balance sheet is a statement showing a) all assets and liabilities b) all
balance c)_ credit entries d) none of the above
5. When a share is sold for less than its nominal value, the difference is debited to
a) share premium account b) alloiment account c) all of the above
6. When shares are sold at less than the nominal value, it means they are issued at
a) a premium b) a loss c) a discount d) par
7. The petty cash book has a) a debit balance only b) a not balance only c) a
credit balance d) both debit and credit balance
8. A ledger is a a) principal book of accounts b) book of original entry c)
determine opening capital d) determine opening capital d) test arithmetical
accuracy
9. When shares are sold “at par” it means they are issued at a) the market value
b) the nominal value c) a discount d) premium
10. When shares are sold “at discount” it mean they are issued at a) discount b)
market value c) asking price d) premium
11. When share are sold above the nominal price it means they are issued at a)
premium b) discount c) nominal d) None of the above
12. Which of the following does not fro part of share holders fund a) ordinary
shares b) share prelmium c) profit d) debenture
use the following information to
answer question 13-17
13. What is the total net assets of the business a) 200,000 b) 180,000 c) 160,000
d) 150,000 e) 140,000
14. What is the capital attributable to the equity share holders a) 130,000 b)
140,000 c) 170,000 d) 180,000 e) 240,000
15. What is the total of the loan capital of the business a) N10,000 b) 30,000 c)
40,000 ld) 60,000

16. What is the working capital a) 60,000 b) 50,000 c) 40,000 d) 30,000 e)

20,000
17. What is the percentage of equity to the total capital employed a) 42% b) 50%
c) 56% d) 59% e) 63%
18. A share is under subscribed when a) it is offered for sale at less than nomina
value b) it is offered for sales at more than nominal value c) none of the above
d) all of the above
19. Shares are sold at less than the omial value they are issued at a a) profit b)
loss c) discount d) prelmium
20. Purchased in accounting refers to good bought for a) repairs b) owners use
c) resale d) decorating office
21. Which of the following does not belong to the group a) plants & machinery b)
stock c) god will d) preliminary expenses
22. The excess of current assets over current liabilities a) authorized capital b)
nominal capital c) issued capital d) owners capital e) working capital
23. Carriage inwards are a) credited to the trading account b) debited to he
trading account c) credited to the profit and loss account d) none of the above
24. Which of the following is an example of personal accounts a) stock b) ficture
c) equipment d) rent e() debtors
25. The portion of the authorized capital which has not been allotted to members is
a) uncalled capital b) paid up capital c) issued capital d) authorized capital
26. When a shareholder fails to pay the calls requested from him this situation leads
to a) forfeiture of shares b) bonus share c) over subscription d) rights issue
27. Which of the following is not an intangible asset a) licences b) patents c)
trade marks d) fixtures
28. The ratio which easures the solvency of a form is the a) quick ratio b) gross
profit over sales ratio c) stock turnover ratio d) debtor turnover ratio
29. Rent owing by a business is shown in the a) trading account b) trial balance
c) balance sheet d) cash
30. Which of the following is correct about of goods sold a) opening stock +
purchase – closing stock b) opening stock + sales – closing stock c) opening
stock – purchase – closing stock d) opening stock + sales + closing stock
31. A class of preference share in which divided rights are carried forward is a)
cumulative b) participating c) redeemable d) floating rate
32. Financial accounting information is for a) internal use only b) external use
only c) business used only d) internal and external use
33. The sum of money given to a petty cashier out of which small payments are
made is a/an a) bonus b) loan c) advance d) float
34. Less 2 ½% discounts of N5600 a) 5740 b) 5000 c) 5460 d) 5300
35. Increase N5000 by 10% a) N4500 b) N5,200 c) N5,380 d) N6000
36. What is a standing order ______________________
37. The document making a public offer for the sale of company’s share is a)
memorandum of association b) articles of a association c) prospectus d)
certificate of registration
38. The class of share holders who are paid last in the wonding up are a) ordinary
b) preparence c) founder d) greasury
39. Which of the following is an example of direct expense a) royalties b) carriage
inwards c) carriage outwards d) manufacturing wages

40. Resources consumed but to be paid for within the next accounting period are
classified in the balance sheet as a) current liabilities b) current assets c)
long-term liabilities d) capital
41. A statement that measures the performance of a business over a period of time is
the a) balance sheet b) bank statement c) funds flow statement d) profit
and loss account
42. Which of the following statements is correct a) profit increase capital b)
losses reduce capital c) drawing reduce capital d) drawing increase capital
43. The class of preference share in which dividend rights are carried forward is a)
cumulative b) participant c) none of the above d) all of the above
44. A debenture holder is a a) creditor b) promoter c) debtor d) shareholder
45. In a not for profit making organization the cash book is summarized in the form
of a) balance sheet b) income and expenditure account c) receipts &
payments account d) appropriation account
46. Which of the following has multiple uses a) sales journal b) purchases journal
c) general journal d) returns outward journal
47. Double entry states that for every debit entry there must be another
corresponding credit entry a) true b) false
48. ICAN was established in the year a) 1962 b) 1963 c) 1964 d) 1965
49. Goods can be returned to the seller for the following reason except one a) if
they are up to standard b) damaged c) over supplied d) wrong colour
50. Which of the following items cannot be found in the petty cash book a) petty
money b) general cash c) imprest d) cahier money

Theory
Answer all question
The following trial balance was extracted fromm the books of Johnson Nigeria limited as at
31st December 1990
Dr Cr
Issued and fully paid 20,000
Ordinary shares 20,000
Share premium 10,000
General reserve 8,000
Profit and loss account 3,000
Salaries and wages 5000
Discounts 200 400
Carriage inwards 160
Purchases & sales 45,00091,740
Stock 1st January 5000
Carriage outwards 560
Loans 24,000
Interest on loan 1000
Provision for bad and doubtful debts 2000
Preliminary expenses 12,000
Motor vehicle/expenses 1800
Directors salaries 6000
Repairs to premises 20,000
Motor vehicle at cost 23,000

Plant and machinery at cost 25,000

Provision for depreciation

Plant & machinery 2500

Debtors and creditors 12,3908000

Sundry expenses 3500
Cash in hand 300
Cash at bank 4,000
Returns 240 360
170,000 170,000
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
a) stock at close N12,500
b expenses unpaid:
Motor expenses 200
Insurance 450
Sundry expenses 400
c prepaid expenses
rates 320
Sundry exp 250
d provision for bad debts to be increased to N2800
e part of the premises is sublet at ana2400 per annum
f monthly salaries and wages bill N400
g bad debts at 31st December N600
h loan interest is 5% per annum
I provide for depreciation on a straight line method
Premises 2% plant & machinery 25%
J write off preliminary expenses
K transfer to general reserves N5000 and N5000 to revenue reserve you are required
to
a prepare profit and loss and appropriation account for the year ended 31st December
1990
b A balance sheet as at that fate

Q2 write short notes on the following

a) memorandum of association
b) article of association
c) prospectives
e) certificate of incorporations

Q3) Below is a summary of the receipts and payments of utility club for the year ended
31/12/95
N
Balance 1/1/95 48,310
Proceeds from dance 36,150
Transfer to bank deposit 120,000
Rates 10,000
Entrance fees received 5,000
Wages paid 72,300
Subscription received 300,000

Equipment bought 40,000

Repairs 16,000

General expenses 48,896

Stationery bought 9,790
Interest received on bank deposit 12,000
Donations received 4,200
Additional information
a) Wages of N4,800 were due and unpaid at 31st December 198
b rates prepaid amounted to N2000
c) General expenses include N3000 owing since the previous year
 d) of the subscriptions received N8000 was in arrears the previous year while
N20,000 was paid in advance for the coming year, in addition N12,000 was
still owing at 31/12/95
e) The club had the following properties on 1st January 1995
N
Club house 960,000
Equipment 600,000
Bank deposit 400,000
f) Depreciate club house by 5% and equipment including additions within the
year by 10%
you are required to prepare
i) Receipts and payments account for the year ended 31st December
1995
ii) Income and expenditure account for the year ended 31st December
1995
iii) Balance sheet as at that date

Q4) Define income and expenditure account

B list 5 (five) features of income and expenditure account
c) list 10 sources of income to non-for profit making organization

Q5) from the following balances of magnum ltd you are required to prepare a
departmental trading profit and loss account for the year ended 31st December 1997
Sales:
Dept A 30,000
Dept B 20,000
Stock at 1st January 1997
Dept A 500
Dept B 400
Purchases
Dep A 23,600
Dept B 6,400
Commission 700
General office salaries 1000
Rates 300
Insurance 250
Lighting 600
Internal telephone 240

Repairs 120
Cleaning 20
Sundry expenses 70
Discount allowed 60
Discount received 50

Adversing 230
Stationery 150
Electricity 820
Stock as at 31/12/997
 Department A 600
Department B300
The total floor area occupied by each department was
Department A (2/5)
Department B (3/5)

The following basis of apportion discounts allowed – proportionate to sales. Discounts

received proportionate of purchases cleaning, electricity, internal telephone, insurance on
the basic of total floor rate.
All other expenses should be apportioned equally between the departments

Second Term Examination

2016/2017 Academic Session

CLASS: S. S.I
SUBJECTS: ACCOUNT
SECTION: A Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS
1. The actual recording of transaction is known as ________ a)record b) accounting
c) book- keeping d) business
2. Without keeping records, business transaction would still be traceable a) yes b)
no
3. Double entry states that, for every debit entry there must be another
corresponding credit entry a) tryue b) false
4. Summa de arithmetic geometrical proportion proportional was published in a)
1949 b) 1894 c) 1647 d) 1494
5. One of the following is a main user of accounting information a) student b)
general public c)( toddler d) all of the above
6. A person who owes a business is also known as creditors a) true b) false
7. One of the following is not a source document a) receipt b) credit note c)
purchase journal d) all of the above
8. Some document are the second source of information for accounting records a)
true b) false
9. Subsidiary books are know as a prime book a) true b) false
10. Cash book is used for recording debit transaction a) true b) false
11. A purchase journal is known as a) purchase ledger b) bought journal c) buy day
book d) day book
12. Sales journal can also be called a) sell journal b) sales day book c) day book d)
sales journal
13. Goods can be returned to the seller for the following reason except one a) if they
are up to standard b) damage c) over supplied d) wrong colour
14. An increase in any asset account is recorded in the a) debit side b) credit side c)
liability d) none of the above
15. An increase in any liability is recorded in the a) debit side b) credit side c)
asset side d) none of the above
16. Single column cash books contains columns for cash or bank a) true b) false
17. An amount of cash kept in hand and used for making small payment is called a)
petty lcash book b) patty cash c) patty journal d) patty ledger
18. An amount of cash kept on hand and usd for making small payment is called a)
patty cash book b) patty cash c) petty cash journal d) petty
19. The cash book is a a) journal b) ledger accout c) petty book d) cash journal
20. He following except one is not lin the format of standard ledger amount a) date
b) particulars c) money d) item
21. Less 2 ½% discounts of N5600 a) No5,740 b) 5000 c) N5460 d) 5,300
22. Increase N5000 by 10% a) 4500 b) 5500 c) 2,800 d) N6,000
23. reduce N5000 by 10% a) 4500 b) 5500 c) 2,800 d) 3000
24. Loan is an example of a) capital b) asset c0 liability d) debtor
25. Debtor is an example of a) asset b) liability c) capital d) none of the above
26. Accounting is the actual recording of transaction a) true b) false
27. A three column cash book means that a third column has been added to a two
column cash book for a) purchase discount b) sales c) discount d) discount
allowed
28. Which h of the following is a primary source of entry into the debtors ledger a)
suppliers involves b) return outwards notes c) sales invoices d) payment
vouchers
29. The tree column cash book contains columns for a) cash assets and liabilities b)
bank , cash and assets c) cash, bank, return d) none of the above
30. A trial balance is prepared to a) detect fraud b) ascertain losses in a trading
period c) determine opening capital d) test arithmetical accuracy of ledger
entries
31. A ledger is a a) principal book of accounts b) book of original entry c) record of
credit transaction d) summary of entries
32. An expense is termed an “ accrual” because it (a) is yet to be paid for b) is a profit
and loss account item c) must appear in the balance sheet d) is a trading account
item
33. Returns inwards is also called a) purchases b) sales returns c) goods on sales or
return d) goods in transit
34. A suspence account is used to a) agree the trial balance b) record sales c)
record purchase d) correct errors
35. The correct an error, the purchases account was debited while suspense account
was credited. which of the following was the cause of the error a) under casting of
purchases b) over casting of purchase c) original entry d) omission of creditors
balance
36. Uche returned goods worth N1,500 to Udo. Uche should receive a) an invoice
b) a statement of account c) a debit note d) a credit note e) goods received note
37. A sales ledger contains a) creditors accounts b) normal account c) real
accounts d) debtors account
38. A sales day book is used to record a) cash and credit sales b) credit sales c) cash
sales d) sales to middleman
39. Which of the following is not an intangible asset a) licences b) patents c) trade
marks d) fixture
40. Which of the following is the book of original entry for all payment and receipts
whether by cash or cheque a) sales day book b)purchases day book c) cash
book d) cheque book e) journal book
41. Which of the following is not cause for the difference between bank statement
balance and cash book balance a) bank-charges b) presented cheques c) direct
transfer d) standing order e) uncredited lodgments
42.
43. Which of the following does not appear in a bank statement a) dividend received
on behalf of customer b) debit side of sales ledger balances c) none of the above
d) cheque received
44. Patent and trade mark are classified under a) fixed assets b) current assets c)
intangible asset d) wasting assets
45. Sales of goods for N500 to Eddy was not posted. This is an error of (a) omission b)
compensation c) ;commission d) principle
46. The excess of current assets over current liabilitie is a) fixed capital b) registered
capital c) working capital d) non-working capital
47. The amount of money kept with the petty cashier is known as ____________________
48. A trail balance is a) an attempt to balance the accounts b) the credit c) credit
entries d) non of the above
49. Which of the following fixed asset is depreciable a) building b) tools c) land d)
motor van e) furniture
50. Defereed charges are also known as a) prepayment b) accured expenses c)
accruals d) deferred income
Theory
Answer all questions
Q1 Define a cash book
B write up a two column book from the following details and balance off as at the end
of the month
1995
Month
January 1 staeted business with capital in cash N3,000
January 2 paid rent by cash N70
January 3 Received loan from public N500 by cheque
January 5 We paid olu lby cheque N165
January 6 we paid general expenses in cash N 300
January 9 withdrew N1.000 from cash till and paid it into the bank account
January 10 cash sales paid directly into the bank N3,000
January 12 Banked cash N900
January 14 Cash purchases N500
January 16 Bought goods by cheque 130
 January 19 commission received by cheque N501
January 21 bought motor van by cheque N60
January 22 cash drawings by the proprietor N21
January 24 we paid biodun for goods brough N250 N150 in cash and N100 by
cheque
January 26 wages paid in cash N35
January 27 Bought stationery paying by cash N75
January 28 withdrew N105 from bank for private use
January 30 Rent received by cheque N45
Jan 31 cash sales N1,000

Q2 Define discount allowed and discount received

B write up a three column cash book from the following details 1996
Jan 1 balance brought forward
Cash in hand N500
Cash at bank N13,000
Jan 2 Received a cash loan of N500 from Ojo
Jan 3: bought goods for cash paying by cheque N150
Jan 4 Bought motor van paying by cheque N150
Jan 5: Cash withdrawn from the bank N300
Jan 7 paid wages in cash N70
Jan 8 Cash drawings N100
Jan 10 cash sales paid directly into the bank N980
Jan 12 we paid the following accounts by cheques less 10% discount in each case
Bisi N200, Ayo N250 Esan N340
Jan 13 the following paid us their accounts by cheque in each case deducting 2 ½ %
discount: biodun N200, Theresa N360
Jan 15 Received a further loan of N50 from Ojo by cheque
Jan 16:We paid Zidanne his account of N90 By cheque
Jan 18 cash sales N200
Jan 21 Paid rent in cash N18
Jan 21 Paid rent in cash N18
Jan 23 received commission by cheque N120
Jan 25 the following persons paid us their account by cheque in each case
deducting 5% discount us on N 500, sofola N120, Jaja N440
Jan 26 We paid the following accounts by cheque in keach case deducting
2% discount taiwo N600, tuned N500, Victor N300
Jan 28 paid insurance by cash N60
Jan 29 Segun paid us a cheque for N78 having deducted N2 cash discount

Q3 What is a petty cash book

ii) List 3 advantages of a petty cash book
B enterprises uses an analysis petty cash book with columns for travilling postage
and columns for travelling postage and stationery, motor expenses, cleaning, the
petty cash system is based on an imprest of N1,000 which he replenishes on the
Monday following the period of expenditure
The following information was extracted from the books for the month of January
1997
1st petrol 40
3 postage stamps 15
4 one ream if typing paper 30
6 segun – settlement of account 150
7 office cleaning materials 20
8 Travelling 40
 10 refund of a clerks bus fares 20
14 car polish 30
16 petrol and oil 70
18 registered mail 20
20 office car pet shampoo 10
21 petrol 70
25 Petrol 70
27 brown settlement of account 250
28 smith settlement of account 60
29 carbon paper 40
Required
a) Enter the above transaction into a suitably ruled patty cash book
b) Repletion of the imprest

Q4 What is a bank reconciliation statement?

B Give and explain 5 reason for disagreement between the cash book and bank
statement
C on 31st march 1990, Ogundele’s cah book showed a debit balance of N2000. his
bank statement showed a balance of N2,270 on comparison, the following were
found
a) cheques drawn amounting to N1500 not been presented for payment
b) a standing order of N600 to a club was not taken into consideration
c) bank charge of N50 were entered in the bank statement only
d) a dicidend of N300 was paid directly into the bank ans not recorded in the cash
book
e) Cheques for N1000 were entered into the cash book and paid to the bank but
not credited
f) a customer, Bolaji paid N120 directly into the bank without notifying the form.
You are required to prepare the bank reconciliation statement

Q5 Show the journal entries to correct the following errors

a) The purchase of furniture N60 had been entered in the furniture expenses
account
b) Sales of goods N20 to Ayo had been completely omitted from the books
c) The payment of cash to ogundele ana100 had been entered on the debit of cash
book and credited on side of ogundeles account
d) The sales account is under cash by N600 as also is wages account

Second Term Examination

2016/2017 Academic Session
CLASS: JSS1
SUBJECTS: FRENCH
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
Répondez aux différentes question aprēs avoir lu le passage
TEXTE: La maison de mon pēre la maison de mon pēre est grande Il y a
beaucoup d’objets dans la maison. Dans la cuisine I l y a des fourchettes, des
assiettes, des cuillēres, un coûteau et un coupe – coupe. Le Lit est dans la
chamber. Sur la table il y a une bouteille et des verres. Les enfants jouent au
ballon dans la cour.
COMPREHENSION DU TEXTE
A-/ QUESTIONS
1- Comment est la maison de mon pēre? Elle est ______________ a) belle b)
grande c) sale
2- Wue trouve – t- on dans la cuisine? On trouve _____________ a ) un lit b)
des fourchettes c) des ballons
3- Où est le lit? le lit est _______________ a) dans la cuisine b) dans la chanbre
c) dans la cuisines
4- Qu’est – ce oju’ il y a sur la table? Il ya a) une cuillēre b) un ballon c)
bouteille
5- Que jouent les enfants: les enfants jouent a) au ballon b) la cour c) la
maison B-/ (hoisir la bonne réponse
6- Un lit = (a fork, a ball , a bed)
7- Un ballon ( a knife, a house , a ball)
8- Une fourchette (a spoon, a knife a fork
9- Une cuillere (a spoon, a kettle a cup)
10- Un coûteau (a cutlass, a knife, a plate)
C/ répondez ã ces questions avec “oui”
11- Est – ce que tu as des euilleres chez toi? Oui, ____________________-
12- Est – ce que tu as un ballon chez toi oui ___________________
13- Est -ce que pierre a un balon ehez lun oui ______________
14- Est – ce que rachelle a une television chez elle oui,
______________________ D- CONJUGAISON
conjuguez les verbs
suivants au temps present de l’ indieatif
15- Verbe jouer = to play
Je ____________ Nous ____________________-
Tu __________________ Vous _________________
ILlelle _________________ Ils/ells __________________
16- Verbe se bavarder = to make noise
Je _________________ Nous _________________
Tu _________________ Vous _________________-
Il/elle _______________ Ils/ells
E-/ GRAMMAIRE
Put the correct verbs into the following sentences
 17- Tu ____________ bien français? Camara, tu _________________ ivoirien? Non, je
_____________ guineen. Oū est – ce- que tu ______________ ? j’ ___________ Conakry
II-/ Answer the following questions using OUI/ Non. Remember to complete
the
18- Tu as vingt ans? Non _____________________
19- Tu as douze ans? Oui____________________
20- Funke a quarante ans? Non___________________ Elle ___________________
21- Jean a quinze ans/ oui, IL ________________-
22- Tu habites paris? Non ____________________ J’__________________
23- Tu t’ appelles Adjoa ? Non____________________
24- Tue s ghaneen ? Non _______________________ je ______________________
III-/ Put the verbs in the brackets into their correct forms
25- Tu (vouloir) un ananas
26- Vous (être) togolaise
27- Tu (avoir) dix ans
28- Tu (être) une fille?
29- Vous (habitel) Lagos
30- Vous (vouloir) des oranges
IV-/ Ecrivez les phrases suivantes a la forme negative
31- Je suis un home_____________
32- Tu es ma lade ________________
33- Tu parles allemande? ___________________-
34- Ton pēre est méchant _______________
35- Ils habitant ã Abuja ?
EXERCICE 2
Ecrives ces mombre en français
22 =
34 =
50=
18 =
40 =

Second Term Examination

2016/2017 Academic Session
CLASS: JSS2
SUBJECTS: FRENCH
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
Lisez correctement le passage et répondez aux differentes questions
TEXTE: La maison de monsieur jean la maison de monsieur jean a be aucoup d’
objects. Dans le salon de monsieur Jean se trouve une armoire, un telephone, une
television et une radio.
Sur le muril y a des photos: la photo de monsieur et madame Jean, celle de ces
enfants et une grande photo de famille. Il y a aussi un miroir et deux peignes.
Monsieur Jean habite la meme maison avec sa famille

COMPREHENSION DU TEXTE
A-/ Questions

1- Qu’est-ce qui se trouve dans la maison de monsieur Jan?

a) madame Jean b) Une armoire c) monsieur
Jean
2- Qu’y a – t- il sur le mûr? Il y a…
a)une television b) une table c) des photos
3- Combion d’objets a la maison de monsieur Jean?
a) beaucoup d objects b) trios objets c) pas d’
objets
4- Oū habite monsieur Jean? Il Habite
a) avec sa famille b) habite seur c) habite sur le
mur
5- Combine de peignes y –a-t-il dans la maison? Il y a ……………….
A) trios peignes b) deux peignes c) une peigne
B-/ Traduire en français
6- A comb = (assiette, peigne, maison)
7- A plate = (maison, assiette, armoire)
8- A house = (coûteau, peigne, maison)
9- Wardrope = (chemise, armoire, television
c-/ CONJUGAISON
conjuguez le verbe ‘’ se trouver” au temp present de l’ indicatef
10- Se trouver
Je ________________ Nous _____________________
Tu _______________ Vous
_______________________ Il/elle
____________ I/S/ells ________________
EXERCICE 2
A- Complete the following sentence using:
Vas, oū, viens, vais, venez, allez

11- D’ _____________ viens – tu? Je _______________ du cinema

12- D’ oū ___________ vous?
13- Oū __________ tu? Je _____________ ã l’ école
14- Oū _________ vous ? Nous allons ã la bibliotheque
b- Rewrite the following sentences inserting the
correct prepositions de - ã - du - au
15- Vous venez …… (la maison) ? oui, et nous allons ---( I’ hospital). Vous
allez ……. (le college)? Oui, ma soeur aussi vient …….. (le college)
Exercise 3
16- Sur les quatre points cardin aux, mettes les mots suivants au Nord, au
sud, ã l’ Ouest. Niger, Caméroun, Benin, Océan Atlantique

17- Réponds ã ces questions

a- Quelle est la capital du Togo? Ans
………………………………….
18- Quelle est la population du Togo? Ans: _________________________
19- Quelle est la superficies du Togo? Ans: _________________________
20- Quelle est la capital du Benin ans: _________________________
21- La langue officiele du togo et du Benin est ___________________________
22- Mention 6 means of transport action in French
conjugate these verbs in present tense in
French
23- Nous _________________ lariviere (traverse)
24- Je _________________- mon argent (prendre)
25- Vous _______________- chez vous (rentrer
26- Ils/ells _________________ dans la
classe (se bavarder)
27- Tu ________________ dans le salon (chanter)

28- Nous ___________________ ã ce travail

(Se donner)
29- Je _____________________ sur le terrain (courir)
30- Elles __________________ bien leurs parents (écouter)
EXERCIC 5
31- E crivez les nombres suivants enfrançais
22 = 100
3000 = 40= 300
1,000,000= 410 = 1003
60=
put the adjectives in the bracket into the correct form
32- Ce sont des stylos les plus (cher)
33- C’est la ville la plus (beau)
34- Ces (nouvel) chemises sont trēs (bel)
35- C’ est la voiture la plus (cher)
36- C’est la fille la plus (bel)
 Second Term Examination
2016/2017 Academic Session
CLASS: JSS3
SUBJECTS: FRENCH
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
EXERCICEI
Lisez correctement le passage et rècole est un lieu d’ etude . le maûtre et les
éleves lisent ensembles. Ilya les filles et les garcons qui travaillent en classe.
Ile pensent, refle’ chissent et éerivent.
Ici e’est la monde travaille. Il n’ y a pes de paresseux. L’ école donne l’
education, la formation et la profession. Vive l’ ecole!

E/ COMPREHENSION DUTEXTE
A-/ QUESTIONS
1- Qu’est – ce que l’ école? L école c’est ……….
A) la classe b) un lieu d’ amusement c) un lieu
d’ etude
2- Que font le maître et les élēves? Ils font …………… ensembles a) dansent
b) élēves c) lisent
3- Que se passé ici? Ici c’ est a) la lecture b) le devoir c) ensemble
4- Que s4e passé lã-bas? C’ est ………….. a) le devoir b) l’ école c) la
lecture
5- Y – a- t- il des paresseux ã l’ école?
6- L’ école donne l’ education, la formation et la profession. Vrai / faux
7- L’ école n’ est pas un lieu ld’ érude: Vrai / faux
8- Le maître et les élēves lisent. Pourquoi? Ils lisent pour avoir de ………..
a) l’ education b) mauvaise vie c) mauvais caractēre.

II-/ CONJUGAISON
B-/ Conjuguez le verbe “ penser” ã l’ impar fait (simple past)
A – lPenser = to think
Je ……………….. Nous ………………………
Tu ………………. Vous ………………………
I/elle ……………………… Ils /ellles …………………………

C-/ soulignez la bonne forme des verbs

9- Hier, je ……………….. alle’ chez mon frēre a) ai b) suis c)est
10- Papa et maman ……………………. Contents a) sont b) ont c)
sommes
11- Nous …………. Mange du riz a) avez b) a c) avons
12- Il y a trios mon frēre …………. Vendu son ordinateur portable a)
est b) as c) a
13- Ma mēre et moi ……….. dans la maison a) étions b) étaient c)
était D-/ Put the verbs in the bracket into simple past
14- Mon frēre je le (voir) peu

15- Il (partir0 chaque matin pour leboulat

16- Il (avoir) barbes et moustaches
17- Ses cheveux (être) noir
18- Quand il (rentrer) le soir,
19- Il (apporter) ã maman des cade aux
20- Ils (s’ embrasser) et (rire)
21- Ma soeur (rire) aussi avec moi
22- Il me (faire) chanter
23- Il m’ (amuser) et J’ (être) contente
24- Ils (s’ occupier) bien de moi
E/ with your knowledge with “ pronous
personnels” change these sentence with “ pronoms personnels
25- (le maître et les éleves) ( isent ensemble __________ lisent ensemble
26- ( tout le monde ) travaille _______________ travaille
27- (l’ école ) donne l’ education
F-/ mettre les artie les qui conviennent
(put le, la l’ les)
28- __________________ étudiants sont en classe
29- J’ aime _____________ oranges
30- Jean aime ____________ home d’hier
31- ______________ crayon est sur ______________ table
32- _______________ igname est douce
33- _______________ union fait la force
EXERCICES 2
 I/ COMPLĒTEZ LE TABLEAU
SUIVANT
Substantives Adjectifs au Adjectives au
masculine feminine

Sage

Le courage

Bon

Douce

Beau

fatiquant

E- Ecrivez ces phrases ã la forme negative

36) Il écrit la leçon ……………….
37 Nous avons regardé le film
38 Mon frēre court trēs vite
39 Elles étaient parties trēs tôt
40 Tu préparais le repas

J S S 2 AGRIC

the processes of preventing harmful bacteria from browsing in food is called food______
a) preparation b) semice c) hysiene d) storage e) processing
31. give one reason for transplanting seedling with the “ball of earth” a) protects the
root from damage b) makes seed things to resist pest attack c) keeps away soil
borne diseases d) improves root respiration e) drains away excess water
32. what is the name give to the replanting of ungerminated seeds a) thinning
b) supplying c) stripping d) motting e) dressing
33. the process of removing the outer covering of nuts is called a) winnowing
b) thresting c) shetting d) husking
34. which of the following is not a method of harvest crop a) thresting b)
tapping c) picking d) plucking
35 which of the following crops can be processed by winnowing except a)
sorghum b) rice c)maize d) cowpea e) Barbara nut
36. which of the following crop can be harvest by tapping a) sugar cane b)
rubber c) pineapple d) cotton e) cocoa
37. which of the planting is not a pre-planting activities a) thinning b)
stumping c) site selection d) plugging e) land clearing
38. an area of land where adequate care is given to seedlings before being
transplanted to the farm is called a) vegetable bed b) seed bed c) seedling
area d) nursery e) garden
39. one hundred seeds & maize were planted by a farmer and after five days,
tweaty-five seeds germinated calculate the percentage of germination a)
125% b) 100% c) 50% d) 25% e)5%
40. a farmer planted 2,000 seeds and 750seeds germinated calculate the
percentage of germination a) 72.0% b) 26.70% c) 26.66% d) 8.30% e)
38.0%
41. a farmer planted 120 seeds out of which 90grew into seedling. What is the
percentage of germination? A) 100% b) 75% c) 33% d) 25% e)10%
42. which of the following is a post-planting operation a) clearing b) spacing
c) stumping d) thinning e) ridging
43. The seed rate of yam is _________ set per hole a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 2 e) 1
44. When a farmer reduces maize plants from five to three per stand, the
generation carried out is called a) supplying b) thinning c) planting d)
post planting
45. the spacing for groundnut is __________- between stand a) 20cm b) 24cm c)
30cm d) 35cm e) 40cm
46. the artificial supply of water into the soil is called a) drainage b) erosion c)
irrigation d) leaching
47. which of the following is not a purpose for mudding a) controlling crop pests
b) improving soil till c) improving water d) protecting soil from direct rays
of sun e) regulating of soil temperation
48. which of the following crops is propagated by seed a) coffee b) cassava c)
cocoyam d) ginger e) yam
49. sucker is used in the propagation of a)banana b) cassava c) cocoyam d)
ginger e) rice
50. pre-planting activities include the following except a) land clearing b)
poungling c) sit e section d) stumping e) thinning
51. the use of herbicide to control weed is known as control a) biological b)
chemical c) cultural d) mechanical e) physical
52. cocoa fruit is dispersed by water because it is a) hard b) membranous c)
oily d) oval in shape e) water proof
53. which of these is not a method of controlling weed a) burning b) flooding
c)irrigation d)moving
54. the following weeds are dispersed by explosive mechanizing except a)
balsam b) emailia c) stubborngrass d) para rubber e) pride of Barbados
55. the following are characteristics of weeds except a) ;aggressiveness and
persistence b) being easy to regenerate c) producing large number of seeds
d) short period of dormarcy e) wide adaptability
56. the use of parasite to check weed is known as ____________ control a)
biological b) cactural c) chemical d) mechanical e) physical
57 which of the following does not require the use of a sprayer? A) application
of fungicides c) control of ectoparasites d) control of endoparasites e)
control of weeds
58. which of the following weed is a grass? A) Ageratum conyzoides b)
centrosema pubescens c) eleusine indica d) Emilia sonchifolia E) mucuna
utilis
59. the following are herbicides except a) dalapon b) paraquat c) stamf 34
d) direldrim e) simazine
60. which of the following weeds is dispersed by self explosion a) Ageratum
conyzoides b) eleusine indica c) mucuna utils d) sidaacuta e) pannicum
maximum

SECTION B THEORY

Answer three questions (No 1 is compulsory)

1a) Define the following terms
(i) Puberty
(ii) Adolescence
(iii) Menstruation
(iv) sexuality
(v) conflict
(vi) crisis
(vii) Value
(viiI) Hygiene
(IX) STD
(X) AIDS

2a) List three sign of puberty in

(i) Boys (ii) girls
b) Mention three signs of each of the following
(i) Gonorrhea
(ii) syphilis
(iii) AIDS/HIV

3a) List five rights of a child

b) List five types of family crisis
c) list three ways of resolving conflicts in family

4a) List five rights of a child

b) mention three source of information on sexuality
c list three ways of violating human rights

Agric sc
1a Give two uses of tractor
B state two daily maintenance of a tractor
C name two types of plough
D name two planting machine
E name two types of tractors

2a mention four tools used for partial fishing

B mention two methods of total cropping
C state four methods of preserving fish
D state four uses of fish

3a cultural practices are divided into Rve, name them

B state two factors that affect germination of seeds
C mention two pre-plaating activities
D anti-peristaltic movement in animal
Agric Sc
31. terrestrial animals include all the following except a) goat b) cattle c) crocodile
d) poultry
32. which of the following are dairy animals a) cattle and sheep b) cattle and pig c)
cattle and goat d) cattle and rabbit e) cattle and poultry birds
33. Which of the following is not a poultry bird? A) dove b) duck c) fowl d) geese
e) turkey
34. the type of farming where a farmer concentrates in the production of chicken,
ducks, turkeys and geese is termed a) breeding b) boading c) diary d) poultry
e) ranching
35. goats are reared in west African for ______- a) bone b) meat c) milk d) skin e)
wool
36. an example of work animal is a) fowl b) cattle c) pig d) rabbit e) sheep
37. which of the following is the common poultry bird a) duck b) geese c) turkey
d) fowl e) guinea fowl
38. which of the following animals is used for transportation A) hen b) pig c) sheep
d) rabbit e) camel
39. which of the following animals is regarded as pet? A) pig b) hen c) sheep d)
dog e) camel
40. The following are the aquatic animals except a) pig b) fish c) drawn d) oyster
e) crab.
41. Dairy animal are raised for the purpose of producing a) meat b) milk c) egg d)
wool e) Fur
42. which of the following is a poultry bird: a) parrot b) dove c) turkey d) owl e)
hawk
43. which of the following pairs is a dairy animal a) cattle and goats b) rabbit and
dog c) cat and geese d) cattle and dog
44. which of these animals can be used as security a) goat b) cattle c) sheep d)
pig e) dog
45. bullocks, camels and horses are forms of a) dairy animals b) guard animals c)
work animals d) pet animals

46. Above is the diagram of ruminant stomach. What is the name of the part labeled
“A” a) Abomasum b) Omasum c) Duodenue d) rumen
47. which of the following animals is a ruminant a) duck b) goose c) pig d) rabbit
e) sheep
48. how many stomach compartments does a ruminant have? A) 1 b) p4 c) 2 d) 5
e) 3
49. the following are non ruminants except a) cow b) goose c) pig d) rabbit e)
turkey
50. the crop in the digestive system of a fowl serves the same functions as a) caecum
pig b) duodenum in rabbit c) intestime in sheep d) Omasum in sheep e)
rumen in cow
51. ruminants are farm animals that a) feed on all types of crop b) feel on forage
crops c) give birth to their young ones alive d) have complex stomach e) possess
one stomach chamber.
52. the following are ruminants animals except a) cow b) goat c) horse d) sheep
e) bull
53. which of the following is amongastric animals a) bull b) cattle c) goat d)sheep
e) rabbit
54. The true stomach of ruminant is called _____ a) abomasums b) duodenum c)
omasum d) eticulum e) rumen
55. Which of the following is not a ruminant animal a) camel b) donkey c) goat d)
horse e) rabbit
56. An animal with four stomach compartment is known as a) carnivore b)
herbivore c) mammal d) non ruminant e) ruminant
57. the animals which are fed mainly on vegetable materials such as grasses and
legumes are called ______ animals a) carnivorous b) omnivorous c) ruminants
d) insectivorous e) herbivorous
58. which part of the digestive tract of a chicken is similar in function to the rumen in
ruminant? A) crop b) gizzard c) large intestine d) proventricalus
59. horses are mainly kept for _____ purpose a) defense b) domestic c) religions d)
rituals e) sport
60. which of the following is not a poultry bird? A) dove b) duck c) fowl d) geese
e) turkey

SECTION B THEORY
Home economic
Answer three questions only
1a) Define the following
(i) cosmetics
(ii) Deodorants
(iii) polygamous Family
(iv) Family
v) Food
b) List five laundering equipment and agent
c) List five steps in laundering personal clothing articles

2a) Mention five importance of cosmetics and deodorant

b) List three type of house

3a) What are clothing accessories and list five examples of clothing accessories
b) Mention five table manners that should be observed at meal times.
4a) List five reasons why we wear clothes
b) List the food groups and their examples.
Agric sc.
1 Briefly explain the following below
a) Anti- peristaltic movement
b) Cud
c) Regurgitation
 d) Abomasum
e) Mono-gastric and poly-gastric
2. Give two examples of the following types of farm animals
i. Large animals
ii Small animals
iii. Terrestrial animals
2 In a tabular form give two examples of the following farm animals
i. Work
ii. Sport
iii. Protection
iv. Clothing
v. Source of hide and skin
vi. Source of manure

JSS 3

Agric Sci
31. An organism which constitutes nuisance to agricultural production is
called a) animal b) plant c) pest d) man e) bird
32 The most [important field pest of cassava is a) army worm b)
beethe c( grasshopper d) rodent e) weevil
33 which of the following is Not a sap- sucking insect a) aplid b) cotton
stamer c) mealy bug d) scale insect e) tse-tsefly
34. Beethes are pests that attack the _______- of groundnut a) flower
b) roots c) leaves d) pods e) stem
35. the stem borer damages the following except a) groundnut b)
maize c) millet d) rice e) sorglum
36. Livestock rearing includes the following except a) snail rearing b)
poultry keeping c) keeping of dairy animab d) roasting of bush
meat
37. All the following are modern farming system accept a) grasscutter
b) snail c) maize d) bee keeping
38. which of the following is not a discipline in Agriculture a) agric
economics b) agric biology c) agric extension d) agric physic
39. one can be empowered through agriculture by practicing the
following except a) cement production b) livestad production c)
crop production d) dairy production
40. which of the following is not a food crop a) wheat b) sorglum c)
rubber d) cowpea
41. Market can take place through the following except a) email b)
telephone c) physical contact d) radio e) satellite
42. which of the following is not a marketing activity a) grading b)
spraying c) sorting d) assemblage
43. international market concentrates on the scale of crop a) food b)
cash c) ephemeral d) annual
44 which of the following is not a marketing channel a) wholesaler b)
retailer c) consumer d) business man
45. the price at which farmer sells his farm product on the farm is called
___ price a) farm gate’s b) farmers c) producer’s d) farming’s
46. which of the following is not a forest tree a) pineapple b) iroko c)
pulp d) neem
47. which of the following is not a type of bee? A) worker b) soldier c)
drone d) queen
48. all the following forest trees can be used to make furniture except
____ a) mahogamy b) afara c) neem d) obeche
49. the veination of maize is a) net b) web like c) paralled d)
vertical e) zigzag
50. the root system common with cereals is the ________ root a) aerial
b) fibrous c) buttress d) secondary e) tap
51. which of the following exhibits hypogeal germination a) soya bean
b) kola nut c) cow pea d) maize
52. the root system common with legume is the ____ root a) fibrous
b)_ tap c) buttress d) aerial
53. when seed is germinating, the first root to emerge is called a)
pheme b) radical c) seed caot d) cotylekdon
54 the primary function of flower is _______ a) reproduction b) food
manufacturing c) absorption d) transpiration
55. the part of flowering plant that absorb water and nutria from the soil is
called _____ a) stem b) leaf c) root d) flower
56. which of the following is a primary tillage implement a) driller b)
escavator c) harrow d) plough e) ridger
57. the machine used in breaking down large clode of soil and mix them
with trashes is a) chisel plough b) discharrow c) disc plough e)
mould board plough
28. the separation of grains from particle is called a) hulling b) husking
c) milling d) shelling e) threshing
29. which of the following implements cannot be coupled to a tractor a)
harrow b) grater c) ploughs d)b mower e) sprayers
60. which of the following farm machinery serves the same function as a
garden fork a) centrifugal distributor b) disc harrow c) disc plough
d) mould board rider e)n mower

SECTION B THEORY

Answer three questions only, No 1 is compulsory

1a) Explain the following terms
i) coagulation
ii) gelatinization
iii) dextrinisation
iv) budget
v) net income
vi) bulk purchasing
vii) meal planning
viii) invalid
ix) convalescent
x) pregnancy
b) Mention five characteristics of carbohydrate and protein

2a) List five factors that can influence meal planning in a family
b) List five factors that influence bulk buying
c) Mention five importance of family budget.

3a) List any five methods of cooking and explain two

B list any five reasons why foods are cooked
C list 5 kitchen equipment and tool
Agric sc
1a Give two uses of tractor
B state two daily maintenance of a tractor
c) name two types of plough
d Name two planting machine
e name two types of tractor

2a mention four tools used for partial fishing

B mention two methods of total copping
C state four methods of preserving fish
D State four uses of fish

3a Cultural practices are divided into Rve, name them

B state two factors that affect germination of seeds
C mention two planting activities
D anti peristaltic movement in an
 Second Term Examination
2016/2017 Academic Session
CLASS: SSI
SUBJECTS: ECONOMICS
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
1. human wants are unlimited because a) production is inadequate b)
resource have alternative uses c) new wants always arise d) resources
are limited
2. a basic economic is problems of any society is a) high level of illiteracy
b) irregular power supply c) population growth d) resource
allocation
3. in a centrally planned economy, what to produce is a) determined by
the force of demand and supply b) driven by profit motion c)
determined by consumers d) the responsibility of state’s bureaucrats
4. which of the following is related to resource allocation in an economy
a) how to produce b) what to produce c) for whom to produce d)
efficient use of inputs
5. which of the following is not a feature of socialism a) collective
ownership of production resources b) freedom of enterprise c)
production is not based on the profit motion d) maximization of public
welfare
6. households make economics decisions because they want to a) make more
profit b) increase their salaries and wages c) increase their purchases d)
maximize their satisfaction
7. state owned enterprises are more common in a) centrally planned
economics b)mixed economics c) capitalist economics d)developed
economics
8. a normal supply curve has positive slope which indicates that a) sellers are
willing to set more at a lower prices b) seller are indifferent to prices c)
sellers are willing to sell more at a higher price d) there is always a fixed
supply
9. to control inflation, the central bank of a country may adopt a)an
expansionary monetary policy b) a restrictive monetary policy c) an
increased wages policy d) a deficit financing policy
10. disposable income is the income earned a) by the nationals of a country
resident within the country b) from productive activities of nationals of a
country both at home and abroad c) when personal income tax is deducted
from personal income d) when the gross of an individual is added to
personal income tax
11. livestock production in West Africa is hindered mainly by a) inadequate
demand b) use of traditional implement c) land tenure system d) pests and
disease
12. the components of a three sector economy are a) banks, schools and
hospitals b) workers, producers and marketers c)households, firlms and
the government d) producers
13. a declining population is one in which the population is a) experiencing a
high rate of emigration b) made up of a large number of old people c) not
producing enough goods d) not contributing enough to the national income
14. which of the following agencies help to stabilize farmers income a) local
government authorities b)trade unions c) marketing boards d) co-
operative organization
15. other things being equal, an increase in supply will lead to a) a fall in prices
and an increase in quantity bought and sold b) an increase in price and
increase in quantity bought and sold c) a fall in prices and a fall in quantity
bought and sold d) an increase in quantity supplied and demanded only
16. examples of joint stock banks are a) commercial banks b) co-operative
credit societies c) central banks d) development banks
17. which of the following is not a characteristic of a developing country? High
a) real per capital b) level of primary production c) production growth rate
d) level of illiteracy
18. Goods consumed out of habit have a) elastic demand b) perfectly elastic
demand c) inelastic demand d) unitary elastic demand
19. Which of the following items is not a recurrent expenditure a) building of
schools and colleges b) maintenance of schools building c) payment of
teachers salaries d) purchase of stationery for examination
20. If the coefficient of price elasticity of demand is 0.1, demand is a) elastic b)
inelastic c) zero elastic d) unitary elastic
21. The profit of a producer is the different between a) total cost and marginal
cost b) total revenue and total cost c) average cost and total cost d) rice
and total cost
22. The rate of increase in utility is a) average utility b) increasing utility c)
total utility d) marginal utility
23. The supply of tea is linearly presented as P=0.2Q, where P is the price and Q is
the quantity. What is P when Q= 25? A) N0.08 b) N5.00 c) 25.02 D) N125
24. Increase in supply due to change in plant size will take place only in the a)
normal time b) long run c) market period d) short run
25. The long run average cost curve is made up of several short-run a) marginal
and average cost curve b) average cost curve c) average variable cost
curves d) average variable and total cost curve
using the
table below to answer questions 26 and 27

X 2 3 4 5
F 2 5 2 1
26. From the table, the mean of the distribution is a) 2.2 b) 2.5 c) 3.2 d) 4.5
27. What is the median of the distribution a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
28. Co-operative socities formed to market the output of their members are
called a) consumers co-operative societies b) wholesale co-operative
societies c) credit and thrift co-operative societies d) producers co-
operative societies
29. Money will serve as a standard of deferred payment if it is a) homogeneous
b) durable c) easily recognized d) stable in value
30. Due to an increase in price, a seller increase the quantity offered for sale from
400 units to 450 units. What is the percentage change in quantity supplied a)
1% b) 7.5% c) 12.5% d) 20%
31. Which of the following will increase the nominal value of national income a)
high rate of inflation b) increase in the value of money c) increase in import
d) high rate of subsistence production
32. Cyclical unemployment is one associated with a) inadequate information
b) trade fluctuations c) structural changes d) seasonal changes
33. Which of the following best defines inflation a) cyclical increase in prices b)
periodic increase in prices c) persistent increase in prices d) occasional
increase in prices
34. Perfect knowledge of events in a perfect market will be made possible by the
existence of a) many buyers and sellers b) homogenous products c) means
of communication d) large number of trades
35. An increase in the price of a commodity from N10 to N15 leads to an increase
in the quantity supplied from 10 units to 15 units. The price elasticity of
supply is a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 5
36. Economic development may be hindered if there is a) a high pool of skilled
labour b) a high rate economic growth c) political stability d) rapid
population growth
37. Which of the following types of unemployment results from changes in the
pattern of aggregate demand a) technology unemployment b) structural
unemployment c) frictional unemployment
38. Which of the following is not a reason countries import goods a)
differences in natural endowment b) the law of absolute advantage c)
difference in taste d) the love for other nations
39. Provision of short term loans to solve balance of payments problems is done
by the a) international finance corporation b) international monetary fund
c) international bank for reconstruction and development d) African
development bank
40. West African countries are experiencing worsening terms of trade because
a) they are primary producers b) their currencies are overvalued c) they
import less machines d) they are tertiary producers
41. Which of the following statements is correct? A) as total utility increase, the
marginal utility also increase b) the marginal utility is always zero whenever
marginal utility is at it maximum c) the total utility is at maximum
whenever marginal utility is at it’s maximum d) there is no relationship
between total utility and the marginal utility
42. A changes in the quantity demanded of a given commodity is determined by
the a) size of the population b) income of the consumer c) price of the
commodity d) taste and fashion
43. The likely implication of the devaluation of a country’s currency is that a)
exports of such a country become cheaper b) importation of goods into such
a country becomes cheaper c) the value of such a country’s currency rises
d) foreign goods attracted into the country
44. International trade is desirable because it a) may lead to overproduction b)
brings about over-dependence of countries on one another c) provides
foreign market for local goods d) brings about unhealthy competition and
rivalries
45. A financial institution establishe for the purpose of providing specialized
services like acceptance of bills of exchange and equipment leasing is knoiwn
as a) merchant bank b) development bank c) central bank d) insurance
company
46. Which of the following functions of money is mostly affected during inflation
a) medium of exchange b) unit of account c) store of value d) standard of
deferred payment
47. Precautionary motive for holding money is to a) meet daily and regular
transactions b)take advantage of changes in the prices of goods and services
c) cover unforeseen events d) cover expenses on house rent
48. Which of the following measures will not encourage industrialization in West
Africa a) taking over of all forms of industries by the government b)
provision of social infrastructure c) giving tax incentives, especially to infant
industries d) using tariffs to discourage the use of imported items
49. The concentration of many firms of a particular industry in a particular are is
known as a) location of industry b) amalgamation of industries c)
localization of industry d) nationalization of industry
50. Which of the following is not an effect of the discovery of mineral resources in
an area a) increase in wealth b)overcrowding c)increase in crime rate
d) under population
Theory
Attempt all
1) The table below shoes the various possible combinations of military and
civilian goods produced by a country, using the available resources and
technology
Use the table to answer the questions that follow
Military goods (in tons) Civilian goods (In tones)
0 220
20 160
40 120
60 80
80 40
100 0
A Draw the production possibility curve (ppc)
B indicate point S and K at which production is not feasible
C indicate point M and N at which resources are not efficiently utilized
D what does the down ward slope of the ppc indicate
E why is production not feasible at point S and K
2A What is production
B list and explain the four factors of production
3 Explain the advantages of large-scale production
B what is PPC
4 Describe economies of scale of production

Second Term Examination

2016/2017 Academic Session
CLASS: S S II
SUBJECTS: ECONOMICS
SECTION: An Objective Test
DURATION: 11/2 Hour
Instruction: Answer all question
1. human wants are unlimited because a) production is inadequate b)
resource have alternative uses c) new wants always arise d) resources are
limited
2. a basic economic is problems of any society is a) high level of illiteracy b)
irregular power supply c) population growth d) resource allocation
3. in a centrally planned economy, what to produce is a) determined by the
force of demand and supply b) driven by profit motion c) determined by
consumers d) the responsibility of state’s bureaucrats
4. which of the following is related to resource allocation in an economy a) how
to produce b) what to produce c) for whom to produce d) efficient use of
inputs
5. which of the following is not a feature of socialism a) collective ownership of
production resources b) freedom of enterprise c) production is not based
on the profit motion d) maximization of public welfare
6. households make economics decisions because they want to a) make more
profit b) increase their salaries and wages c) increase their purchases d)
maximize their satisfaction
7. state owned enterprises are more common in a) centrally planned
economics b)mixed economics c) capitalist economics d)developed
economics
8. a normal supply curve has positive slope which indicates that a) sellers are
willing to set more at a lower prices b) seller are indifferent to prices c)
sellers are willing to sell more at a higher price d) there is always a fixed
supply
9. to control inflation, the central bank of a country may adopt a)an
expansionary monetary policy b) a restrictive monetary policy c) an
increased wages policy d) a deficit financing policy
10.disposable income is the income earned a) by the nationals of a country
resident within the country b) from productive activities of nationals of a
country both at home and abroad c) when personal income tax is deducted
from personal income d) when the gross of an individual is added to
personal income tax
11.livestock production in West Africa is hindered mainly by a) inadequate
demand b) use of traditional implement c) land tenure system d) pests and
disease
12.the components of a three sector economy are a) banks, schools and
hospitals b) workers, producers and marketers c)households, firlms and
the government d) producers
13.a declining population is one in which the population is a) experiencing a
high rate of emigration b) made up of a large number of old people c) not
producing enough goods d) not contributing enough to the national income
14.which of the following agencies help to stabilize farmers income a) local
government authorities b)trade unions c) marketing boards d) co-
operative organization
15.other things being equal, an increase in supply will lead to a) a fall in prices
and an increase in quantity bought and sold b) an increase in price and
increase in quantity bought and sold c) a fall in prices and a fall in quantity
bought and sold d) an increase in quantity supplied and demanded only
16.examples of joint stock banks are a) commercial banks b) co-operative
credit societies c) central banks d) development banks
17.which of the following is not a characteristic of a developing country? High
a) real per capital b) level of primary production c) production growth rate
d) level of illiteracy
18.Goods consumed out of habit have a) elastic demand b) perfectly elastic
demand c) inelastic demand d) unitary elastic demand
19.Which of the following items is not a recurrent expenditure a) building of
schools and colleges b) maintenance of schools building c) payment of
teachers salaries d) purchase of stationery for examination
20.If the coefficient of price elasticity of demand is 0.1, demand is a) elastic b)
inelastic c) zero elastic d) unitary elastic
21.The profit of a producer is the different between a) total cost and marginal
cost b) total revenue and total cost c) average cost and total cost d) rice
and total cost
22.The rate of increase in utility is a) average utility b) increasing utility c)
total utility d) marginal utility
23.The supply of tea is linearly presented as P=0.2Q, where P is the price and Q is
the quantity. What is P when Q= 25? A) N0.08 b) N5.00 c) 25.02 D) N125
24.Increase in supply due to change in plant size will take place only in the a)
normal time b) long run c) market period d) short run
25.The long run average cost curve is made up of several short-run a) marginal
and average cost curve b) average cost curve c) average variable cost
curves d) average variable and total cost curve
a. using the table below to answer questions 26 and 27

26.X 27.2 28.3 29.4 30.5

31.F 32.2 33.5 34.2 35.1
36.From the table, the mean of the distribution is a) 2.2 b) 2.5 c) 3.2 d) 4.5
37.What is the median of the distribution a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
38.Co-operative socities formed to market the output of their members are
called a) consumers co-operative societies b) wholesale co-operative
societies c) credit and thrift co-operative societies d) producers co-
operative societies
39.Money will serve as a standard of deferred payment if it is a) homogeneous
b) durable c) easily recognized d) stable in value
40.Due to an increase in price, a seller increase the quantity offered for sale from
400 units to 450 units. What is the percentage change in quantity supplied a)
1% b) 7.5% c) 12.5% d) 20%
41.Which of the following will increase the nominal value of national income a)
high rate of inflation b) increase in the value of money c) increase in import
d) high rate of subsistence production
42.Cyclical unemployment is one associated with a) inadequate information
b) trade fluctuations c) structural changes d) seasonal changes
43.Which of the following best defines inflation a) cyclical increase in prices b)
periodic increase in prices c) persistent increase in prices d) occasional
increase in prices
44.Perfect knowledge of events in a perfect market will be made possible by the
existence of a) many buyers and sellers b) homogenous products c) means
of communication d) large number of trades
45.An increase in the price of a commodity from N10 to N15 leads to an increase
in the quantity supplied from 10 units to 15 units. The price elasticity of
supply is a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 5
46.Economic development may be hindered if there is a) a high pool of skilled
labour b) a high rate economic growth c) political stability d) rapid
population growth
47.Which of the following types of unemployment results from changes in the
pattern of aggregate demand a) technology unemployment b) structural
unemployment c) frictional unemployment
48.Which of the following is not a reason countries import goods a)
differences in natural endowment b) the law of absolute advantage c)
difference in taste d) the love for other nations
49.Provision of short term loans to solve balance of payments problems is done
by the a) international finance corporation b) international monetary fund
c) international bank for reconstruction and development d) African
development bank
50.West African countries are experiencing worsening terms of trade because
a) they are primary producers b) their currencies are overvalued c) they
import less machines d) they are tertiary producers
51.Which of the following statements is correct? A) as total utility increase, the
marginal utility also increase b) the marginal utility is always zero whenever
marginal utility is at it maximum c) the total utility is at maximum
whenever marginal utility is at it’s maximum d) there is no relationship
between total utility and the marginal utility
52.A changes in the quantity demanded of a given commodity is determined by
the a) size of the population b) income of the consumer c) price of the
commodity d) taste and fashion
53.The likely implication of the devaluation of a country’s currency is that a)
exports of such a country become cheaper b) importation of goods into such
a country becomes cheaper c) the value of such a country’s currency rises
d) foreign goods attracted into the country
54.International trade is desirable because it a) may lead to overproduction b)
brings about over-dependence of countries on one another c) provides
 foreign market for local goods d) brings about unhealthy competition and
rivalries
55.A financial institution established for the purpose of providing specialized
services like acceptance of bills of exchange and equipment leasing is known
as a) merchant bank b) development bank c) central bank d) insurance
company
56.Which of the following functions of money is mostly affected during inflation
a) medium of exchange b) unit of account c) store of value d) standard of
deferred payment
57.Precautionary motive for holding money is to a) meet daily and regular
transactions b)take advantage of changes in the prices of goods and services
c) cover unforeseen events d) cover expenses on house rent
58.Which of the following measures will not encourage industrialization in West
Africa a) taking over of all forms of industries by the government b)
provision of social infrastructure c) giving tax incentives, especially to infant
industries d) using tariffs to discourage the use of imported items
59.The concentration of many firms of a particular industry in a particular are is
known as a) location of industry b) amalgamation of industries c)
localization of industry d) nationalization of industry
60.Which of the following is not an effect of the discovery of mineral resources in
an area a) increase in wealth b)overcrowding c)increase in crime rate
d) under population

THEORY
ATTEMPT ALL
1 Describe briefly the exceptional cases of supply with curves and
illustration

2a with the aid of diagram explain the forms of taxation

B differentiate between budget and national debt
C mention at least 3 types of budget

3 The table below shows the tax payment of four income earners in a
year.
Use the information in the table to answer the questions that follow
Income Earners Income Buse Tax Payment

A B
Jawara 15,000 1,500 1,200
Ade 25,000 2,500 2,000
Eke 32,000 3,200 2,240
Audu 60,000 6,000 3,000

A Determine the percentage rate taxation paid by

(i) Jawara in columns A and B
(ii) Audu in columns A and B
(iii) Ade in Column B
(iv) Eke in column B
Bi Identify the system of taxation employed in columna A and B
Ii Which of the income earners have the least burden under columns
Ci if government increases its rate of taxation to 15% flat rate, how much revenue
will be generated from the payees
Ii at 15% flat rate taxation, calculate the disposable income of mister jawara, Ade,
Eke and Audu

4a what is income elasticity of demand?

The table below shows the various incomes and demand for different commodities
Income Quantity demanded
N Kg
A 20,000 120
B 36,000 96
C 40,000 160
D 44,000 200
E 45,000 240
F 47,000 252

B calculate the income elasticity between

(i) A and B (ii) C and D (iii) E and F
C What kind of good is between (i) A and B (ii) C and D