DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Prelims Test Series - 2024
GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology
and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
(Time Allowed: 2 hours) (Maximum Marks: 200)
INSTRUCTIONS
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write anything else on the Test Booklet.
3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.
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provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks.
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in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
6. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate. For each wrong
answer, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
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even if one of the given answers happens to be correct.
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no penalty for that question.
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the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the
Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
VAJIRAM & RAVI
1. Which one of the following is not an Ozone 5. Consider the following:
Depleting Substance (ODS)? 1. Mushroom
(a) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) 2. Rhizopus
(b) Methyl bromide 3. Yeast
(c) Carbon tetrachloride
4. Earthworms
(d) Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
How many of the above are saprophytes?
(a) Only one
2. With reference to the ecotone, consider the
following statements: (b) Only two
1. It is a zone of tension as it has conditions (c) Only three
intermediate to adjacent ecosystems. (d) All four
2. It can have organisms entirely different from
that of the adjoining communities. 6. The Great Indian bustard, wild ass and chinkara
Which of the statements given above is/are are more likely to be found in which one of the
correct?
following ecosystems?
(a) 1 only
(a) Desert ecosystem
(b) 2 only
(b) Forest ecosystem
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Alpine ecosystem
(d) Mangrove ecosystem
3. Consider the following statements with reference
to the food chain: 7. Consider the following statements:
1. The grazing food chain is primarily found in 1. Seagrasses are plants whereas seaweeds
terrestrial ecosystems whereas the detritus are a species of marine algae.
food chain is found in aquatic ecosystems.
2. Both seagrasses and seaweeds mainly thrive
2. The primary source of energy for both the
in deep waters.
grazing and detritus food chain is plant
3. Antarctica is the only continent where
biomass.
3. The detritus food chain helps to fix inorganic seagrasses are not found.
nutrients, while the grazing food chain adds How many of the above statements are correct?
energy to other trophic levels. (a) Only one
How many of the above statements are correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None
8. In the context of environment, the “Keeling Curve”
is used to measure:
4. The term “Atlantification”, sometimes seen in the
news, refers to: (a) variations in sea levels of Pacific Ocean
(a) impact of the North Atlantic water on the Arctic during El-Nino
Ocean climate (b) changes in global precipitation patterns due
(b) increasing microplastic pollution in the Atlantic to climate change
Ocean (c) fluctuations in solar radiation reaching the
(c) irreversible damage of the coral reefs due to earth’s surface
coral bleaching in the Atlantic Ocean (d) increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide
(d) overheating of the Atlantic Ocean due to the
concentration over time
global warming
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 1
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
9. With reference to ocean acidification, consider 12. Consider the following:
the following statements: 1. Puma
1. It refers to an increase in the pH of the 2. Jaguar
oceans due to an increasing concentration of
3. Snow Leopard
carbonate ions.
4. Cheetah
2. It slows down the calcium carbonate shell
How many of the above are protected under the
building by marine organisms.
3. It leads to the shallowing of the depth at which International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)?
all carbonate is dissolved. (a) Only one
Which of the statements given above are correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Only three
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) All four
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13. With reference to the ‘LifeStyle for Environment
(LiFE)’, consider the following statements:
10. Gasification turns coal into a very hot synthesis
gas or syngas. Syngas is composed of which of 1. It was launched by the Government of India
the following gases? at the 26th UN Climate Change Conference
1. Carbon monoxide of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow.
2. Hydrogen 2. It seeks to achieve its goal by changing the
3. Carbon dioxide demand and supply of consumer products in
4. Nitrogen dioxide the market.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are
below:
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Consider the following statements with reference
to Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023: 14. Consider the following pairs:
1. It seeks to create a carbon sink of an additional
2.5 to 3.0 billion tons of CO2 equivalent by Sl. Type of Example
No. Invertebrate
2030.
1. Mollusks : Snails
2. Only lands stipulated as forests in the
2. Poriferans : Sponges
government records will be acknowledged as
3. Annelids : Jellyfish
forests under the Act.
4. Cnidarians Leeches
3. It grants exemption from forest clearance
permissions for highway projects located How many of the above pairs are correctly
within 100km of the national border. matched?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one pair
(a) Only one
(b) Only two pairs
(b) Only two
(c) Only three pairs
(c) All three
(d) None (d) All four pairs
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 2
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
15. Consider the following: 18. What is ‘Biomining’?
1. Wildfires (a) Method of treatment of wastewater using
2. Volcanic eruptions gravel-filled shallow beds with plants
3. Automobile exhaust (b) Biotechnological process to extract metal
4. Phytoplankton from waste with the use of microorganisms
How many of the above contribute to the sulphur (c) Mining operation using renewable energy to
dioxide emissions into the atmosphere? reduce environmental impact
(a) Only one (d) Biotechnological approach to produce
(b) Only two genetically modified crops
(c) Only three
(d) All four 19. Consider the following pairs:
Sl. Wildlife Associated
No. Corridor Protected Area
16. Consider the following statements:
1. Kaniyapuram : Bandipur National
1. Conifer trees have small needle-like leaves Corridor Park
while deciduous trees have broad and flat 2. Northern Aravalli : Sariska National Park
Leopard Wildlife
leaves. Corridor
2. Both the coniferous and deciduous trees shed 3. Satpura-Melghat : Panna National Park
Corridor
their leaves seasonally.
4. Kallar Corridor Bannerghatta National
3. Unlike conifers, the deciduous trees produce Park
flowers and fruits. How many of the above pairs are correctly
Which of the statements given above are correct? matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one pair
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two pairs
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three pairs
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four pairs
17. With reference to the Sustainable Aquaculture 20. With reference to the Key Biodiversity Area (KBA),
in Mangrove Ecosystems (SAIME) initiative, consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. These are vital habitats for threatened plant
1. It promotes mangrove restoration through and animal species in the environment.
sustainable shrimp cultivation. 2. They are protected under the Wild Life
2. It is currently implemented in the mangrove (Protection) Act of 1972.
forests of India and Bangladesh. 3. They are designated by the International
3. It is launched by the Global Environment Union of Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Facility (GEF). Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 3
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
21. Which of the following contributes to the nitrogen 25. Consider the following:
fixation on earth? 1. Global Biological Framework Fund (GBFF)
1. Haber-Bosch process
2. Regenerative Fund for Nature
2. Cyanobacteria association with plant roots
3. Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF)
3. Thunder and lightning
4. Petrochemical manufacturing 4. Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF)
Select the correct answer using the code given How many of the above are managed by the
below: Global Environment Facility (GEF)?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(c) 1 and 4 only
(c) Only three
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four
22. Consider the following statements:
1. Unlike estuaries, deltas are formed when the 26. Consider the following statements with reference
river has a high sediment load. to carbon fertilization:
2. Unlike estuaries which experience salt water
1. It occurs when the amount of carbon dioxide
intrusion, delta regions are fertile and suitable
for agriculture. increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Plants that grow quicker sequester more
correct? carbon dioxide and increase food yields.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
23. Which one of the following best describes the (c) Both 1 and 2
term ‘Net Primary Production (NPP)’? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Total amount of oxygen released in the
process of photosynthesis by plants
27. Which of the following factors contribute to the
(b) Amount of biomass or carbon produced by
decline of Kelp forests?
primary producers per unit area and time
(c) Net accumulation of organic matter or carbon 1. Eutrophication
by an ecosystem 2. Bryozoan outbreak
(d) Total monetary value of all the resources of 3. El Nino Southern Oscillation
an ecosystem 4. High population of fish
Select the correct answer using the code given
24. The Kampala Declaration, recently seen in the
news, deals with: below:
(a) mitigation of the adverse effects of climate- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
induced mobility (b) 2 and 4 only
(b) promotion of innovation in renewable energy (c) 1 and 3 only
efficiency
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) controlling ozone pollution during periods of
inclement weather
(d) disposal of waste by incineration without
causing greenhouse gas emissions
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 4
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
28. With reference to the Biological Diversity Act, 31. With reference to ‘Biostimulants’, consider the
2002, consider the following statements: following statements:
1. They are substances supplied to plants to
1. It provides a list of threatened plants and
enhance nutrition efficiency.
animal species protected from hunting in the
2. They form symbiotic relationships with plants.
wild. 3. They reduce the need for fertilizers and
2. Agricultural practices that sustain biological increase plant growth.
diversity can be declared as Biodiversity Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Heritage Sites (BHS).
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. It exempts AYUSH medical practitioners
(b) 2 and 3 only
from obtaining prior permission from the (c) 3 only
State biodiversity boards to access biological (d) 1, 2 and 3
resources.
How many of the above statements are correct? 32. Consider the following:
1. Bog
(a) Only one
2. Salt pan
(b) Only two 3. Swamp
(c) All three 4. Canal
(d) None 5. Peatland
How many of the above are classified as wetlands
under the Ramsar Convention?
29. The term ‘Cryptobiosis’, recently seen in the
(a) Only two
news, refers to: (b) Only three
(a) a state where an organism enters extreme (c) Only four
dormancy to survive harsh environmental (d) All five
conditions
33. ‘Global Invasive Species Database’, a record
(b) a process of plant reproduction through spore
of species that negatively impact biodiversity,
formation belongs to which one of the following?
(c) a method to repair genes to cure damaged cells (a) International Institute for Environment and
(d) the formation of crystals in the cells of living Development (IIED)
organisms (b) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN)
(c) Global Invasive Species Programme (GISP)
30. Epiphytic plants are commonly found in which of (d) United Nations Environment Programme
the following ecosystems? (UNEP)
1. Tropical rainforest
2. Taiga biome 34. Consider the following statements with reference
to Algae:
3. Savanna biome
1. They are not found in polar regions.
4. Desert biome 2. All algae are photosynthetic in nature.
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. Some algae species indicate pollution levels
below: in aquatic ecosystems.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 5
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
35. With reference to ecology, ‘Mudskippers’ are: 39. Consider the following:
(a) plants that grow in the mud at the bottom of a 1. Corbett Tiger Reserve
lake 2. Rajaji National Park
(b) an amphibious fish capable of walking in mud 3. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve
(c) mud dauber wasps that build their nests from
4. Valmiki Tiger Reserve
soil
How many of the above are part of the Terai Arc
(d) animals that carve tunnels in soil to escape
from predators Landscape?
(a) Only one
36. Consider the following pairs: (b) Only two
Sl. Animal Habitat (c) Only three
No. (d) All four
1. Hangul : Desert
2. Nilgiri Tahr : Swamp 40. The Blue Growth Initiative (BGI) is launched for:
3. Chiru : Grassland (a) sustainable fisheries management
4. Golden Langur : Sholas (b) protection of the marine cavern in islands
How many of the above pairs are correctly composed of carbonate bedrock
matched? (c) capturing and storing atmospheric carbon
(a) Only one pair dioxide in the oceans
(b) Only two pairs (d) production of hydrogen from the natural gas
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs 41. Consider the following statements with reference
to wetlands:
37. Which of the following are subsidiary bodies of
1. Thermal stratification is largely absent in
the United Nations Framework Convention on
wetlands.
Climate Change (UNFCCC)?
1. Subsidiary Body for Implementation (SBI) 2. Macrophytes are the main producers in
2. Committee on Specific Commitments wetlands.
3. Subsidiary Body for Scientific and 3. It possess higher biodiversity than that of
Technological Advice (SBSTA) lakes.
Select the correct answer using the code given 4. Chilika lake is the largest wetland in India.
below: How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All four
38. With reference to fluorinated gases, consider the
following statements: 42. Consider the following:
1. Sulphur hexafluoride is emitted during the 1. Kori Creek
manufacturing of aluminum. 2. Pichavaram
2. Perfluorocarbons are emitted as a byproduct 3. Vedaranyam
of magnesium production. 4. Lakshadweep Islands
3. Hydrofluorocarbons are released from the
How many of the above places in India have
refrigerant canisters in air conditioners.
Mangrove forests?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) Only three
(d) None (d) All four
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 6
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
43. Consider the following statements: 47. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Wildlife Warden is a statutory 1. All the cells in the human body contain pairs
authority under the Wild Life (Protection) Act of chromosomes.
of 1972. 2. The Y chromosome is biologically present in
2. A wild animal listed under the Wild Life both males and females.
(Protection) Act of 1972 can be killed only 3. The X chromosome is larger in size and
after getting permission from the Chief Wildlife contains more genes than the Y chromosome.
Warden of the State.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one
correct?
(b) Only two
(a) 1 only
(c) All three
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. With reference to Aditya L1 mission, consider the
44. Which of the following biogeochemical cycles are following statements:
primarily responsible for acid rains? 1. It aims to study the impact of magnetic fields
1. Sulphur cycle on the sun’s ultraviolet radiation.
2. Nitrogen cycle 2. It would be placed in a halo orbit around
3. Carbon cycle the Lagrange Point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth
4. Phosphorous cycle system.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below: correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. Which one of the following elephant corridors
49. Which one of the following best describes the
connects the Eastern Ghats to the Western
term ‘Ion channel’?
Ghats?
(a) Mattupatti Corridor (a) A molecular bio scissor used in cleaving the
(b) Moyyar Avarhalla Corridor genetic material
(c) Punjur - Kolipalya Corridor (b) Specialized lab grown cells that accurately
(d) Sigur Plateau Corridor detect the pathogens in the body
(c) A protein that regulates the flow of ions across
46. Consider the following statements: cell membranes
1. Mutations in the beta-globin gene cause (d) An artificially induced nanotube that develops
sickle cell disease and beta-thalassemia. antimicrobial resistance
2. BCL11A is a master regulator of γ-globin gene
silencing, and suppresses foetal haemoglobin 50. Consider the following statements:
expression. 1. Unlike diploid cells, haploid cells contain only
3. Targeted deletion of the BCL11A gene by one set of complete chromosomes.
CRISPR-Cas9 system for fetal haemoglobin 2. The gametes (germ cells) in higher organisms
reactivation is promising approach for gene are diploid cells.
therapy of beta-thalassemia disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above statements are correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 7
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
51. With reference to mRNA vaccine, consider the 54. Consider the following pairs:
following statements: Sl. Acid Found in
1. Messenger RNA-based vaccine technology No.
rely on a modified version of a virus to produce 1. Tartaric acid : Tamarind
an immune response. 2. Formic acid : Ant venom
2. In vitro-produced mRNA gives rise to 3. Ascorbic acid : Sparkling water
inflammatory reactions. 4. Malic acid : Apple
3. mRNA vaccines delivered nucleic acid cannot
How many of the above pairs are correctly
integrate into the host genome.
How many of the above statements are correct? matched?
(a) Only one (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two (b) Only two pairs
(c) All three (c) Only three pairs
(d) None (d) All four pairs
52. Electrolysis is a promising option for carbon- 55. Consider the following statements:
neutral hydrogen generation from sources
1. Application Programming Interface (API)
like renewable and nuclear power. Consider
is a set of rules and protocols that enables
the following statements with reference to the
integration and communication between AI
electrolysis of water:
systems and other software applications.
1. It is the process of decomposition of water into
oxygen and hydrogen gas by the passage of 2. Prompt is an input to an AI system, often a
an electric current. text-based question or query, that the system
2. It is carried out in the presence of an acid to processes before it produces a response.
improve electrical conductivity. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Molybdenum dioxide can act as a catalyst to correct?
speed up the electrolysis process. (a) 1 only
How many of the above statements are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None
56. With reference to the Chandrayaan-3 Mission,
53. Consider the following statements with reference consider the following statements:
to the isotopes: 1. The life of the mission was one lunar day.
1. They share the same atomic number but have 2. Unlike the Chandrayaan-2, Chandrayaan-3
different atomic weights. does not include any orbiter.
2. All the elements in the universe have isotopes. 3. Its Propulsion Module, which carried the
3. Artificial methods alone are capable of Vikram lander and Pragyan rover to the
producing radioisotopes. Moon, is powered by nuclear technology.
How many of the above statements are correct?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None (c) All three
(d) None
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 8
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
57. Consider the following statements: 60. Arrange the following in decreasing order based
1. Both Uranium and Plutonium have the same on speed of the sound through them:
1. Gases
atomic number.
2. Liquids
2. Both Plutonium and Uranium can be used in 3. Solids
nuclear weapons. 4. Vacuum
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Plutonium is used to artificially prepare
below:
uranium. (a) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4
How many of the above statements are correct? (b) 2 - 3 - 1 - 4
(c) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1
(a) Only one
(d) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3
(b) Only two
(c) All three 61. Consider the following statements:
(d) None Genome sequencing can be used to:
1. track down ancient diseases
2. make personalized medicines
58. Consider the following cell organelles: 3. produce biofuels
1. Nucleus Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. Mitochondria
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Golgi complex (c) 1 and 3 only
4. Vacuoles (d) 1, 2 and 3
How many of the above store genetic material in
62. Which of the following could be the possible blood
human bodies? groups of the child born to parents with blood
(a) Only one groups A and AB?
(b) Only two (a) Either O or AB
(b) Either A or AB
(c) Only three (c) Either O or A or B
(d) All four (d) Either A or B or AB
63. Consider the following statements with reference
59. Consider the following pairs:
to MQ-9B:
Sl. Cell organelle Function 1. The MQ-9B drone is a variant of the MQ-9
No. “Reaper”.
1. Peroxisomes : Fat metabolism 2. India’s Ministry of Defence has granted
approval for the procurement of 31 MQ-9B
2. Centriole : Cellular respiration
armed drones from the United States.
3. Dictyosomes : Protein storage 3. The MQ-9B has two variants SkyGuardian
4. Endoplasmic : Synthesis of and its sibling SeaGuardian.
reticulum hormones 4. The drone can operate at over 40,000 feet,
giving the Indian military surveillance capacity
How many of the above pairs are correctly in the high-altitude Himalayan border areas.
matched? 5. The Predator also has the maximum
endurance of 40 hours, making it useful for
(a) Only one pair
long-hour surveillance.
(b) Only two pairs How many of the above statements are correct?
(c) Only three pairs (a) Only two
(b) Only three
(d) All four pairs
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 9
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
64. Consider the following statements with reference 67. With reference to the latest developments in stem
to Omega-3 and Omega-6 fatty acids: cell research, consider the following statements:
1. Human bodies cannot synthesize these fatty 1. iPSC (induced pluripotent stem cells) are
acids on their own. derived from embryonic stem cells.
2. Both are found only in plant sources. 2. The significance of preserving umbilical
3. Both are monounsaturated in nature. coral blood is for autologous blood stem cell
How many of the above statements are correct? transplantation.
(a) Only one 3. Stem cells can be derived from mammals
(b) Only two only.
(c) All three Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) None correct?
(a) 1 only
65. With reference to Bletchley Declaration, consider
(b) 2 only
the following statements:
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. It aims to establish a shared understanding
(d) 1, 2, and 3
of the risks and opportunities posed by
“Quantum AI.”
68. Consider the following pairs:
2. The summit led to a groundbreaking
Sl. Mars Mission Country
agreement signed by major countries, No.
including India, the US, China, and the 1. Tianwen-1 : China
European Union. 2. Hope : United Arab Emirates
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Perseverance : European Space
correct? Agency
4. MAVEN : Japan
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
How many of the above pairs are correctly
(c) Both 1 and 2
matched?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one pair
66. Consider the following statements with reference (b) Only two pairs
to the stem cells: (c) Only three pairs
1. They can self-renew and recreate functional (d) All four pairs
tissues.
2. Pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into all 69. With reference to the human body, the Krebs
of the cells of the body. cycle is associated with:
3. Adult stem cells can differentiate to yield only (a) removal of excess water from the blood
the specialised cell types of their organs. (b) cellular respiration
How many of the above statements are correct? (c) regulation of the amount of light that enters
(a) Only one the eye
(b) Only two (d) production of the supporting cells around the
(c) All three neuron
(d) None
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 10
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
70. Consider the following statements: 73. The term ‘Hawking radiation’, recently seen in the
1. Quantum entanglement is used to send news, refers to:
communications faster than the speed of (a) charged particles emitted in the form of solar
light. flares
2. Quantum Key Distribution allows secure (b) hypothetical particles formed at the boundary
communication through the exchange of of the black holes
encryption keys. (c) terrestrial thermal radiation emitted from the
3. The National Quantum Mission aims to hot surface of the earth
build satellite-based secure quantum (d) radiation emitted due to the burning of nuclear
communications with other countries. fuel
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one 74. With reference to the Light Detection and Ranging
(b) Only two (LiDAR), consider the following statements:
(c) All three 1. It is a remote sensing technique for mapping
(d) None landform shapes.
2. It can be used to map the polymetallic nodules
71. Consider the following: on the deep ocean floor.
1. Sodium hypochlorite 3. It is useful to capture the activities of nocturnal
2. Calcium hypochlorite animals.
3. Ferric sulfate Which of the statements given above are correct?
4. Chlorine dioxide (a) 1 and 2 only
5. Calcium carbide (b) 2 and 3 only
How many of the above chemicals can be used (c) 1 and 3 only
for water purification at home? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only two
(b) Only three 75. ‘Picoflare jets,’ recently seen in the news, refer to:
(c) Only four (a) band of strong wind that generally blows from
(d) All five west to east all across the globe
(b) small jets of charged particles ejected into
72. In the context of nuclear technology, which one of space from the sun’s coronal holes
the following best describes the ‘critical mass’? (c) rocket-powered jet engines that enable precise
(a) The mass of the radioactive waste generated landing on interstellar planets
from the nuclear power plants (d) water jet propulsion system used in submarine-
(b) The amount of fossil fuels required to extract launched torpedoes
uranium and process it
(c) The minimum mass of fissile material
necessary to sustain the chain reaction
(d) The total energy mass generated after a
nuclear reaction
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 11
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
76. Consider the following statements: 79. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Nano priming is used to enhance 1. Disinformation is the deliberate spread of
resistance against abiotic stress in seed false information with the intent to mislead the
germination. public.
Statement-II: Nano priming enables the addition 2. Misinformation is the spread of incorrect or
misleading information without harmful intent.
of a specific stretch of DNA into the plant’s
Which of the statements given above is/are
genome.
correct?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
(a) 1 only
the above statements?
(b) 2 only
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct and Statement–II is the correct (d) Neither 1 nor 2
explanation for Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are 80. Which of the following processes involve
correct and Statement–II is not the correct biomanufacturing?
explanation for Statement–I 1. 3D printing
(c) Statement–I is correct but Statement–II is 2. Cement production
incorrect 3. Hydrogen fuel production
(d) Statement–I is incorrect but Statement–II is 4. Meat production
correct Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
77. Which one of the following statements
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
best describes the Chandrasekhar limit in
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
astrophysics? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) The maximum temperature that a star can
achieve 81. The Site-Directed Nuclease (SDN) technology is
(b) The maximum mass a white dwarf can have used for:
before collapsing into a supernova (a) amplification of the DNA sequences
(c) The maximum luminosity that can be achieved (b) editing of specific DNA sequences at precise
by a main-sequence star locations
(d) The minimum distance between two stars for (c) identification of genetic mutations
(d) cloning of genes
the formation of a binary system
82. In the context of Zika Virus Disease, consider the
78. Which of the following are commonly used
following statements:
materials in the semiconductor chips? 1. The funeral procession or burial ceremonies
1. Silicon (Si) involving direct contact with the body of the
2. Boron (B) deceased may lead to transmission of the
3. Plutonium (Pu) disease.
4. Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) 2. It can be transmitted from mothers to foetus
5. Gold (Au) during pregnancy.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below: correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 12
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
83. Which of the following can adversely affect 87. Consider the following statements:
Skywave communications? 1. Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) refers to
1. Solar flares AI systems that are designed and trained for
a specific task or a narrow range of tasks.
2. Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs)
2. Generative AI is a type of artificial intelligence
3. Geomagnetic storms
that can produce content such as audio, text,
4. Ionospheric storms code, video, and images.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below: correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
88. Consider the following pairs:
84. Which one of the following plants has wind Sl. Phenomena Conversion of
dispersed seeds? No. energy
(a) Urena 1. Photosynthesis : Solar energy to
Chemical energy
(b) Pea 2. Burning of wood : Chemical energy to
(c) Acer Heat energy
(d) Xanthemum 3. Fuel cell : Chemical energy to
Electric energy
4. Windmill : Wind energy to
85. Mosaic disease in plants is primarily caused by: Mechanical energy
5. Rubbing both : Kinetic energy to
(a) fungi hands together Thermal energy
(b) bacteria for warmth
(c) virus How many of the above pairs are correctly
(d) parasite matched?
(a) Only two pairs
(b) Only three pairs
86. With reference to the wireless network
(c) Only four pairs
technologies, consider the following statements: (d) All five pairs
1. 4G offers a lower latency rate than the 5G
networks. 89. Consider the following statements with reference
2. Unlike 5G, 4G cannot distinguish between to Infrared waves:
fixed and mobile devices. 1. They have the highest frequency and shortest
wavelength in the visible spectrum.
3. Both the 4G and 5G support Voice over New
2. They can be used in earth observation
Radio (VoNR) and Voice over LTE (VoLTE)
satellites to observe the growth of crops.
technologies. 3. They are used in remote controls of household
How many of the above statements are correct? electronic systems.
(a) Only one How many of the statements given above are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
(d) None
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 13
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
90. Consider the following statements: 93. Which of the following steps has the Government
1. Deep Learning utilizes a hierarchical level of India taken to promote the development of
of artificial neural networks to carry out the India as a semiconductor hub?
1. SPECS initiative is launched to strengthen the
process of machine learning.
value chain for manufacturing of electronic
2. Supervised learning algorithm is based on products
the concept of exploration and exploitation. 2. Semiconductor Wafer FAB Acquisition
Which of the statements given above is/are Program has been introduced to provide
correct? financial incentive to boost domestic
(a) 1 only manufacturing
3. Semicon India Programme is launched to
(b) 2 only
foster the growth of the semiconductor and
(c) Both 1 and 2 display manufacturing ecosystem in India
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
91. Consider the following statements with reference (a) 1 and 2 only
to the Digital Health Incentive Scheme (DHIS): (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. It provides financial incentives based on the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
number of digital health records linked to
Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA). 94. Consider the following statements:
2. All health facilities like clinics, nursing homes 1. Mission Poshan 2.0 aims to address
& hospitals are eligible under the scheme. challenges of malnutrition in pregnant women.
2. Mission Vatsalya provides institutional
Which of the statements given above is/are
support for rehabilitation of women.
correct?
3. Swadhar Greh programme provides
(a) 1 only protection for children in need of home.
(b) 2 only 4. Sambal initiative promotes institutional
(c) Both 1 and 2 deliveries of pregnant women.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
92. Consider the following pairs:
(b) Only two
Sl. Initiative Objective (c) Only three
No.
(d) All four
1. SAMRIDH : Promote self sufficient
organic farming
95. Consider the following statements with reference
2. GENESIS : Support startups in
Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities to India Stack:
3. TIDE 2.0 : Promote business 1. Its universal biometric digital identity allows
incubation at higher people to participate in any service from
learning institutions
anywhere in the country.
4. NAMASTE : Boost tourism at 2. The e-Office and API Setu are part of its
historical heritage
sites Application Programming Interface (APIs).
How many of the above pairs are correctly 3. The implementation of APIs under India Stack
is limited to India only.
matched?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one pair
(a) Only one
(b) Only two pairs (b) Only two
(c) Only three pairs (c) All three
(d) All four pairs (d) None
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 14
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
96. Which of the following statements is/are correct 99. Which one of the following is not a primary
with reference to the Urban Infrastructure objective of the Jal Jeevan Mission?
Development Fund (UIDF)?
(a) Provision of tap water supply to every rural
1. It was launched by using the priority sector
household of the country by 2024
lending shortfall in the Union Budget 2023-
24. (b) Intensive focus on water conservation and
2. It will be used by public agencies to create rainwater harvesting
urban infrastructure in tier-2 and tier-3 cities. (c) Ensuring sustainability of water supply system
3. It will be managed by the National Housing
(d) Empower human resources in the water
Bank.
management sector
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only 100. Consider the following statements with reference
(b) 2 and 3 only to the PM Vishwakarma scheme:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme to strengthen
(d) 1, 2 and 3
and nurture the family-based practice of
97. Consider the following statements with reference traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople.
to the Agnipath Scheme: 2. It aims to integrate the artisans with the
1. It involves recruiting soldiers under Army domestic and global value chains.
Act, 1950 for a service duration of four years
3. The beneficiaries will be provided skill training
including the training period.
as well as a stipend per day.
2. Agniveer enrolled under the scheme will not
be eligible for any kind of pension or gratuity. How many of the above statements are correct?
3. Commissioned officers are eligible under (a) Only one
the scheme for recruitment, training and (b) Only two
operations.
(c) All three
How many of the statements given above are
(d) None
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
98. Consider the following statements with reference
to the PM PRANAM scheme:
1. It aims to promote sustainable and balanced
use of fertilizers.
2. A separate fund is created for its
implementation by the Union Budget 2023-
24.
3. The Integrated Fertilizers Management
System (iFMS) is employed to monitor the
utilization of fertilizers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series (2024) 15
GS Test No. – 04 - Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN5504)