Respiratory pathology mcqs..

1. A 65-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea, chronic cough with mucus production,
and a 40-pack-year smoking history. Pulmonary function tests show airflow limitation that is not
fully reversible. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Asthma

B) Pneumonia

C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

D) Pulmonary fibrosis

Correct Answer: C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Explanation: The clinical presentation of progressive dyspnea, chronic cough with mucus
production, and a long history of smoking is highly suggestive of COPD. COPD is characterized
by airflow limitation that is not fully reversible, which is consistent with the pulmonary function
test results described ((5)) ((6)).

2. A 28-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of wheezing, chest tightness, and
shortness of breath. Her symptoms worsen at night and with exercise. Which of the following is
the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?

A) Chest X-ray

B) Spirometry

C) Bronchoscopy

D) Sputum culture

Correct Answer: B) Spirometry

Explanation: The clinical presentation is suggestive of asthma. Spirometry is the most
appropriate initial diagnostic test for asthma as it can measure lung volumes and assess the
reversibility of airflow obstruction, which is characteristic of asthma.

3. A 50-year-old man with a history of asbestos exposure presents with progressive dyspnea
and chest pain. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral pleural plaques and diffuse interstitial lung disease.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Pneumoconiosis

B) Tuberculosis

C) Mesothelioma

D) Lung cancer

Correct Answer: A) Pneumoconiosis

Explanation: The history of asbestos exposure, along with the radiographic findings of bilateral
pleural plaques and diffuse interstitial lung disease, is highly suggestive of pneumoconiosis,
specifically asbestosis.

4. A 40-year-old woman presents with recurrent respiratory infections, bronchiectasis, and

chronic sinusitis. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the CFTR gene. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A) Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

B) Cystic fibrosis

C) Primary ciliary dyskinesia

D) Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: B) Cystic fibrosis

Explanation: The combination of recurrent respiratory infections, bronchiectasis, chronic

sinusitis, and a mutation in the CFTR gene is diagnostic of cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is a
genetic disorder that affects both the respiratory and digestive systems ((7)) ((8)).

5. A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath.
He has a history of deep vein thrombosis. D-dimer test is elevated. What is the most appropriate
next diagnostic step?

A) Chest X-ray

B) Pulmonary function tests

C) CT pulmonary angiography

D) Bronchoscopy

Correct Answer: C) CT pulmonary angiography

Explanation: The sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath, along with a
history of deep vein thrombosis and elevated D-dimer, is highly suspicious for pulmonary
embolism. CT pulmonary angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism.

6. A 70-year-old man with a 50 pack-year smoking history presents with hemoptysis, weight loss,
and a persistent cough. Chest CT reveals a spiculated mass in the right upper lobe. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A) Tuberculosis

B) Lung abscess

C) Bronchiectasis

D) Lung cancer
Correct Answer: D) Lung cancer

Explanation: The combination of hemoptysis, weight loss, persistent cough in a patient with a
significant smoking history, and a spiculated mass on CT is highly suggestive of lung cancer
((426)) ((427)) ((428)).

7. A 25-year-old woman presents with dyspnea, chest pain, and a dry cough. Chest X-ray shows
bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and diffuse reticulonodular infiltrates. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A) Pneumonia

B) Sarcoidosis

C) Lymphoma

D) Tuberculosis

Correct Answer: B) Sarcoidosis

Explanation: The clinical presentation of dyspnea, chest pain, and dry cough, along with the
radiographic findings of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and diffuse reticulonodular infiltrates, is
characteristic of sarcoidosis.

8. A 60-year-old man with a history of COPD presents with worsening dyspnea, increased
sputum production, and fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Pneumonia

B) Pulmonary embolism

C) COPD exacerbation
D) Lung cancer

Correct Answer: C) COPD exacerbation

Explanation: In a patient with known COPD, the presentation of worsening dyspnea, increased
sputum production, and fever is consistent with a COPD exacerbation.

9. A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive dyspnea, dry cough, and bilateral crackles on
auscultation. High-resolution CT shows bilateral reticular opacities and honeycombing. What is
the most likely diagnosis?

A) Chronic bronchitis

B) Emphysema

C) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

D) Bronchiectasis

Correct Answer: C) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Explanation: The clinical presentation of progressive dyspnea and dry cough, along with bilateral
crackles on auscultation and CT findings of reticular opacities and honeycombing, is
characteristic of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis ((521)) ((522)).

10. A 30-year-old man presents with fever, night sweats, weight loss, and a productive cough
with blood-tinged sputum. Chest X-ray shows upper lobe infiltrates with cavitation. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A) Lung abscess

B) Tuberculosis
C) Pneumocystis pneumonia

D) Aspergillosis

Correct Answer: B) Tuberculosis

Explanation: The clinical presentation of fever, night sweats, weight loss, and productive cough
with blood-tinged sputum, along with upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation on chest X-ray, is
highly suggestive of pulmonary tuberculosis ((281)) ((282)) ((283)).

11. A 50-year-old woman presents with gradually worsening shortness of breath and a dry
cough for the past 6 months. She works as a pigeon breeder. Chest CT shows diffuse ground-
glass opacities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Asthma

B) COPD

C) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

D) Sarcoidosis

Correct Answer: C) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

Explanation: The history of pigeon breeding, along with gradually worsening shortness of breath,
dry cough, and CT findings of diffuse ground-glass opacities, is suggestive of hypersensitivity
pneumonitis, also known as bird fancier's lung.

12. A 35-year-old man with a history of asthma presents with sudden onset of chest pain and
dyspnea. Chest X-ray shows a small pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate initial
management?

A) Immediate chest tube insertion

B) Observation and oxygen therapy

C) Needle aspiration

D) Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery

Correct Answer: B) Observation and oxygen therapy

Explanation: For a small, spontaneous pneumothorax in a stable patient, initial management

typically involves observation and oxygen therapy. This approach allows for potential
spontaneous resolution while monitoring for any worsening ((14)) ((15)).

13. A 65-year-old smoker presents with a 2-month history of hoarseness and hemoptysis. Chest
CT reveals a central mass in the left main bronchus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Adenocarcinoma

B) Small cell lung cancer

C) Squamous cell carcinoma

D) Large cell carcinoma

Correct Answer: C) Squamous cell carcinoma

Explanation: The presentation of hoarseness (suggesting potential recurrent laryngeal nerve

involvement) and hemoptysis, along with a central mass in a smoker, is most consistent with
squamous cell carcinoma of the lung ((428)) ((429)) ((430)).

14. A 40-year-old woman presents with progressive dyspnea, fatigue, and syncope.
Echocardiogram shows right ventricular dilatation and elevated pulmonary artery pressure.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Coronary artery disease

B) Pulmonary hypertension

C) Mitral valve prolapse

D) Pericarditis

Correct Answer: B) Pulmonary hypertension

Explanation: The combination of progressive dyspnea, fatigue, syncope, and echocardiographic

findings of right ventricular dilatation and elevated pulmonary artery pressure is indicative of
pulmonary hypertension ((16)) ((17)).

15. A 55-year-old man with a history of HIV presents with fever, nonproductive cough, and
progressive dyspnea. Chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A) Bacterial pneumonia

B) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

C) Tuberculosis

D) Kaposi's sarcoma

Correct Answer: B) Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

Explanation: In an HIV-positive patient presenting with fever, nonproductive cough, progressive

dyspnea, and bilateral interstitial infiltrates, Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is the most likely
diagnosis, especially if the CD4 count is low ((297)) ((298)) ((299)).

16. A 30-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of cough, wheezing, and shortness
of breath. Symptoms worsen with exposure to cold air and during exercise. Spirometry shows
reversible airflow obstruction. What is the most appropriate long-term management?
A) Short-acting beta-agonists as needed

B) Inhaled corticosteroids

C) Leukotriene receptor antagonists

D) Theophylline

Correct Answer: B) Inhaled corticosteroids

Explanation: The presentation is consistent with asthma. For long-term management of

persistent asthma, inhaled corticosteroids are the most effective controller medication and are
considered first-line therapy.

17. A 60-year-old man with a history of COPD presents with worsening dyspnea and cough. His
oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.30, PaCO2 60 mmHg,
PaO2 55 mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A) High-flow oxygen therapy

B) Controlled oxygen therapy targeting SpO2 88-92%

C) Immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation

D) Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation

Correct Answer: B) Controlled oxygen therapy targeting SpO2 88-92%

Explanation: In COPD patients with acute respiratory failure, controlled oxygen therapy targeting
an SpO2 of 88-92% is recommended to avoid hypercapnia while providing adequate oxygenation.

18. A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent sinusitis, bronchiectasis, and infertility.
Microscopic examination of respiratory epithelium shows absent ciliary motion. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A) Cystic fibrosis

B) Primary ciliary dyskinesia

C) Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

D) Kartagener syndrome

Correct Answer: B) Primary ciliary dyskinesia

Explanation: The combination of recurrent sinusitis, bronchiectasis, infertility, and absent ciliary
motion is characteristic of primary ciliary dyskinesia. Kartagener syndrome is a subtype of
primary ciliary dyskinesia associated with situs inversus ((7)) ((8)).

19. A 70-year-old man with a history of smoking presents with weight loss, fatigue, and
gynecomastia. Chest CT shows a peripheral lung mass. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Squamous cell carcinoma

B) Small cell lung cancer

C) Adenocarcinoma

D) Large cell carcinoma

Correct Answer: B) Small cell lung cancer

Explanation: The combination of a smoking history, peripheral lung mass, and paraneoplastic
syndromes (hyponatremia suggesting SIADH, and gynecomastia) is most consistent with small
cell lung cancer ((435)) ((436)) ((437)) ((438)).
20. A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and joint
pain. High-resolution CT shows bilateral ground-glass opacities and reticulation. Serological
tests are positive for anti-Jo-1 antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

B) Sarcoidosis

C) Antisynthetase syndrome

D) Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia

Correct Answer: C) Antisynthetase syndrome

Explanation: The combination of progressive dyspnea, nonproductive cough, joint pain,

characteristic CT findings, and positive anti-Jo-1 antibodies is suggestive of antisynthetase
syndrome, an autoimmune condition associated with interstitial lung disease ((521)) ((522)).

21. A 50-year-old man presents with fever, productive cough, and right-sided chest pain. Chest X
-ray shows a large, thick-walled cavity in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Tuberculosis

B) Lung abscess

C) Bronchogenic cyst

D) Emphysema

Correct Answer: B) Lung abscess

Explanation: The presentation of fever, productive cough, and chest pain, along with a large,
thick-walled cavity on chest X-ray, is most consistent with a lung abscess ((284)) ((285)) ((286)).
22. A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent hemoptysis and multiple round opacities on
chest CT. She has a history of recurrent nosebleeds. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Metastatic lung cancer

B) Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

C) Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

D) Goodpasture syndrome

Correct Answer: C) Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

Explanation: The combination of recurrent hemoptysis, multiple round opacities on CT (likely

representing pulmonary arteriovenous malformations), and a history of nosebleeds is
suggestive of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia ((10)) ((11)).

23. A 60-year-old man with a history of COPD presents with sudden onset of dyspnea and chest
pain. Chest X-ray shows a large pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate immediate
management?

A) Observation and oxygen therapy

B) Needle aspiration

C) Chest tube insertion

D) Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery

Correct Answer: C) Chest tube insertion

Explanation: For a large pneumothorax in a patient with underlying lung disease (COPD),
immediate chest tube insertion is the most appropriate management to re-expand the lung and
prevent tension pneumothorax ((14)) ((15)).
24. A 40-year-old woman presents with progressive dyspnea, dry cough, and fatigue. She has a
history of rheumatoid arthritis. High-resolution CT shows bilateral reticular opacities and
traction bronchiectasis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) COPD

B) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

C) Rheumatoid arthritis-associated interstitial lung disease

D) Sarcoidosis

Correct Answer: C) Rheumatoid arthritis-associated interstitial lung disease

Explanation: The combination of progressive respiratory symptoms,

Sure! Here are 10 high-yield, clinically scenario-based multiple-choice questions (MCQs)

focused on the chapter of respiratory pathology. These questions are designed to encompass
important concepts while applying them to practical clinical situations.

### 10 Clinical Scenario-Based MCQs on Respiratory Pathology

---

**MCQ 1:**

A 65-year-old male smoker presents with a persistent cough, hemoptysis, and weight loss. A
chest X-ray reveals a mass in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Chronic bronchitis

b) Tuberculosis
c) Lung cancer

d) Pneumonia

**Correct Answer:** c) Lung cancer

*Explanation:* The combination of symptoms—especially in a smoker, persistent cough,

hemoptysis, and weight loss—highly suggests lung cancer.

---

**MCQ 2:**

A 30-year-old woman with a family history of asthma presents with wheezing, shortness of
breath, and chest tightness that worsen at night. Spirometry shows a reversible obstruction.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

b) Asthma

c) Bronchiectasis

d) Pulmonary fibrosis

**Correct Answer:** b) Asthma

*Explanation:* Asthma is characterized by reversible airway obstruction and is often related to

family history and worsening symptoms at night.

---

**MCQ 3:**

A 55-year-old man presents with a history of gradual onset dyspnea, a chronic productive cough,
and cyanosis. Physical examination reveals clubbing and crackles. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

a) Interstitial lung disease

b) Pneumonia
c) Emphysema

d) Tuberculosis

**Correct Answer:** a) Interstitial lung disease

*Explanation:* The clinical features, including gradual dyspnea, chronic productive cough,
clubbing, and crackles suggest interstitial lung disease.

---

**MCQ 4:**

A child presents with a "croupy" cough, stridor, and respiratory distress. The symptoms began
after a recent upper respiratory infection. What is the most likely condition?

a) Asthma

b) Laryngotracheobronchitis

c) Bronchiolitis

d) Epiglottitis

**Correct Answer:** b) Laryngotracheobronchitis

*Explanation:* Laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) is characterized by stridor and "croupy" cough,

usually following a viral upper respiratory infection.

---

**MCQ 5:**

A 40-year-old woman with a history of allergies presents with acute onset of dyspnea after
exposure to pet dander. She is using her albuterol inhaler frequently with little relief. What is the
most appropriate initial management?

a) Oral corticosteroids

b) Long-acting beta agonist (LABA)

c) Higher dose of short-acting bronchodilator

d) Intravenous medications

**Correct Answer:** a) Oral corticosteroids

*Explanation:* Given the acute severity and the inadequate response to albuterol, a short course
of oral corticosteroids is often effective in controlling asthma exacerbations.

---

**MCQ 6:**

A 70-year-old male presents with shortness of breath and wheezing over the past few months.
He has a 30-pack-year smoking history. Lung function tests show an obstructive pattern with
significant reversibility. What is the likely diagnosis?

a) Asthma

b) Chronic bronchitis

c) Emphysema

d) COPD

**Correct Answer:** d) COPD

*Explanation:* COPD encompasses conditions such as chronic bronchitis and emphysema. The
significant history of smoking alongside an obstructive pattern indicates COPD as the
overarching diagnosis.

---

**MCQ 7:**

A patient with a history of poorly managed asthma presents to the emergency department with
severe wheezing and chest tightness. Physical examination shows hyperresonance on
percussion. What complication should be considered?

a) Pneumothorax
b) Pulmonary embolism

c) Atelectasis

d) Pulmonary hypertension

**Correct Answer:** a) Pneumothorax

*Explanation:* Hyperresonance on percussion is indicative of pneumothorax, which may

complicate severe asthma episodes due to increased intrathoracic pressure.

---

**MCQ 8:**

A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue and hemoptysis. A CT scan of the chest reveals a
pulmonary nodule and enlarged lymph nodes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Tuberculosis

b) Primary lung cancer

c) Histoplasmosis

d) Sarcoidosis

**Correct Answer:** b) Primary lung cancer

*Explanation:* The combination of pulmonary nodules with lymphadenopathy and hemoptysis

raises suspicion for primary lung cancer, particularly in a patient with risk factors.

---

**MCQ 9:**

Which infection is characteristically associated with a "strawberry tongue" and pharyngitis?

a) Streptococcal infection

b) Viral pharyngitis

c) Diphtheria
d) Infectious mononucleosis

**Correct Answer:** a) Streptococcal infection

*Explanation:* Streptococcal throat infections can lead to characteristic features like

"strawberry tongue," which is often seen in scarlet fever.

---

**MCQ 10:**

A middle-aged man presents with worsening dyspnea on exertion and a dry cough. He has a 20-
year history of working in construction. A chest X-ray shows interstitial fibrosis. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

a) Lung cancer

b) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

c) Asbestosis

d) Silicosis

**Correct Answer:** c) Asbestosis

*Explanation:* The occupational history in construction and the presentation of interstitial

fibrosis on imaging are characteristic of asbestosis.

Sure! Here’s another set of 10 high-yield, clinically scenario-based multiple-choice questions

(MCQs) related to the chapter of respiratory pathology. Each question is designed to test your
application of knowledge in a clinical context.

### Additional 10 Clinical Scenario-Based MCQs on Respiratory Pathology

---

**MCQ 11:**

A 35-year-old female presents to the clinic with a history of shortness of breath, dry cough, and
a feeling of chest tightness that worsens at night. She reports symptoms began after moving to
a new apartment. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Asthma

b) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

c) Allergic rhinitis

d) Pulmonary fibrosis

**Correct Answer:** a) Asthma

*Explanation:* The presentation of nighttime symptoms and a dry cough suggests asthma,
which is commonly triggered by allergens or irritants in a new environment.

---

**MCQ 12:**

A 50-year-old man with a history of heavy smoking presents with a chronic cough and
production of large amounts of mucopurulent sputum. Chest X-ray shows bronchial wall
thickening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Emphysema

b) Chronic bronchitis

c) Lung cancer

d) Tuberculosis

**Correct Answer:** b) Chronic bronchitis

*Explanation:* Chronic bronchitis is defined by productive cough and mucus production due to
irritation of airways, particularly in smokers.

---

**MCQ 13:**
A young child presents with a barking cough, stridor, and difficulty breathing following a recent
upper respiratory infection. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Bronchitis

b) Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

c) Asthma

d) Epiglottitis

**Correct Answer:** b) Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

*Explanation:* Croup commonly follows a viral upper respiratory infection and is characterized
by a barking cough and stridor.

---

**MCQ 14:**

An adult patient presents with chest pain, fever, and coughing up rust-colored sputum. A chest
X-ray shows lobar consolidation. What is the most common causative organism?

a) Staphylococcus aureus

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

c) Haemophilus influenzae

d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

**Correct Answer:** b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

*Explanation:* Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired

pneumonia characterized by lobar consolidation and rust-colored sputum.

---

**MCQ 15:**

A patient with a history of asthma presents with sudden onset of dyspnea and wheezing after
exposure to cold air. What is the best immediate treatment?

a) Long-acting beta agonist

b) Short-acting beta agonist

c) Oral corticosteroids

d) Leukotriene receptor antagonist

**Correct Answer:** b) Short-acting beta agonist

*Explanation:* A short-acting beta agonist (like albuterol) is the best immediate treatment for
acute asthma exacerbations.

---

**MCQ 16:**

A 40-year-old man presents with increasing dyspnea and a chronic cough that has worsened
over the past year. He has a history of exposure to asbestos. A pleural effusion is noted on
examination. What is the most likely condition?

a) Mesothelioma

b) Lung cancer

c) Asbestosis

d) Pleural pneumonia

**Correct Answer:** a) Mesothelioma

*Explanation:* The history of asbestos exposure and respiratory symptoms indicate the
possibility of mesothelioma, a type of cancer associated with asbestos.

---

**MCQ 17:**

An individual has just been diagnosed with tuberculosis and is started on anti-tuberculosis
therapy. What is the key initial management for preventing the transmission of the disease to
others?

a) Surgical intervention

b) Isolation

c) Immunization

d) Increased fluid intake

**Correct Answer:** b) Isolation

*Explanation:* Isolating the patient during the early phases of treatment helps prevent the
spread of tuberculosis to others, particularly in crowded environments.

---

**MCQ 18:**

What type of lung disorder is typically characterized by decreased FEV1/FVC ratio due to
obstruction?

a) Restrictive lung disease

b) Obstructive lung disease

c) Mixed lung disease

d) None of the above

**Correct Answer:** b) Obstructive lung disease

*Explanation:* In obstructive lung diseases (like asthma and COPD), the FEV1 is reduced more
than the FVC, leading to a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio.

---

**MCQ 19:**

A 30-year-old patient presents with dyspnea and significant wheezing after exposure to dust in a
farm environment. What is the likely diagnosis?

a) Pneumoconiosis

b) Asthma

c) Chronic bronchitis

d) Allergic rhinitis

**Correct Answer:** b) Asthma

*Explanation:* The acute onset of dyspnea and wheezing after exposure to allergens (like dust)
is characteristic of asthma.

---

**MCQ 20:**

A patient arrives at the ER with difficulty breathing, stridor, and a history of recent travel. An X-
ray shows a "thumbprint" sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Croup

b) Epiglottitis

c) Allergic reaction

d) Laryngotracheitis

**Correct Answer:** b) Epiglottitis

*Explanation:* The "thumbprint" sign on X-ray is classic for epiglottitis, indicating swelling of the
epiglottis, which can obstruct the airway.

Sure! Here’s another set of 10 high-yield, clinically scenario-based multiple-choice questions

(MCQs) focused specifically on respiratory pathology. This set aims to challenge your
understanding and application of key concepts.

### Additional 10 Clinical Scenario-Based MCQs on Respiratory Pathology

---

**MCQ 21:**

A 70-year-old female, a former smoker, presents with weight loss, a chronic cough, and blood-
streaked sputum. A chest CT scan reveals a lung mass with mediastinal lymphadenopathy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Tuberculosis

b) Lung cancer

c) Pneumonia

d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

**Correct Answer:** b) Lung cancer

*Explanation:* The combination of risk factors (smoking), symptoms, and findings consistent
with a lung mass and lymphadenopathy suggests lung cancer.

---

**MCQ 22:**

A child presents with a sudden onset of fever, cough, and respiratory distress. Examination
reveals stridor and a barking cough. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Epiglottitis

b) Asthma

c) Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

d) Bronchiolitis

**Correct Answer:** c) Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

*Explanation:* Croup typically presents with a distinctive barking cough and stridor following a
viral upper respiratory infection.
---

**MCQ 23:**

An elderly patient with a history of chronic bronchitis presents with cyanosis, wheezing, and
barrel-shaped chest. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Emphysema

b) Asthma

c) Pneumonia

d) Tuberculosis

**Correct Answer:** a) Emphysema

*Explanation:* The patient's history of chronic bronchitis, cyanosis, and barrel chest suggests
emphysema, which causes hyperinflation and impaired gas exchange.

---

**MCQ 24:**

A 55-year-old man with a history of asbestos exposure develops dyspnea and pleuritic chest
pain. A chest X-ray reveals a pleural thickening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Lung cancer

b) Pulmonary fibrosis

c) Mesothelioma

d) Pleural effusion

**Correct Answer:** c) Mesothelioma

*Explanation:* Mesothelioma is associated with asbestos exposure and often presents with
pleural thickening and symptoms of respiratory distress.
---

**MCQ 25:**

Following a recent viral infection, a child presents with wheezing and difficulty breathing. The
child has a history of asthma. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?

a) Oral corticosteroids

b) Short-acting beta agonist

c) Intravenous fluids

d) Long-acting beta agonist

**Correct Answer:** b) Short-acting beta agonist

*Explanation:* A short-acting beta agonist (SABA) like albuterol is used for quick relief of acute
asthma symptoms, especially during wheezing episodes.

---

**MCQ 26:**

A young adult presents with a persistent cough, weight loss, and night sweats. A chest X-ray
shows cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Lung cancer

b) Sarcoidosis

c) Tuberculosis

d) Pulmonary embolism

**Correct Answer:** c) Tuberculosis

*Explanation:* Cavitary lesions in the upper lobes with systemic symptoms suggest a diagnosis
of pulmonary tuberculosis.

---
**MCQ 27:**

A 40-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents to the ER with acute respiratory distress.
What is the best immediate action?

a) Start IV corticosteroids

b) Administer oxygen

c) Perform intubation

d) Provide a nebulized bronchodilator

**Correct Answer:** d) Provide a nebulized bronchodilator

*Explanation:* In acute asthma exacerbations, nebulized bronchodilators provide rapid relief of

bronchospasm.

---

**MCQ 28:**

A patient presents with wheezing, chest tightness, and dry cough that worsens at night and
early in the morning. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) COPD

b) Asthma

c) Bronchiectasis

d) Interstitial lung disease

**Correct Answer:** b) Asthma

*Explanation:* The symptoms are characteristic of asthma, which presents with nighttime and
early morning symptoms due to airway hyperreactivity.

---
**MCQ 29:**

What is the most likely pathogen in a patient with **hospital-acquired pneumonia** who was
recently intubated?

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

b) Legionella pneumophila

c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

**Correct Answer:** c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

*Explanation:* Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common pathogen responsible for hospital-

acquired pneumonia, especially in intubated patients.

---

**MCQ 30:**

A 6-year-old child presents with difficulty breathing, and the lungs are auscultated with
wheezing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Croup

b) Bronchiolitis

c) Asthma

d) Pneumonia

**Correct Answer:** c) Asthma

*Explanation:* The presence of wheezing in the context of difficulty breathing typically indicates
asthma, particularly in children with such symptoms.

Thank you for your feedback! Let’s create a fresh set of scenario-based MCQs on respiratory
pathology that explore different aspects of the subject, covering various concepts and clinical
situations. Here’s a new set of questions:
### 100 Scenario-Based MCQs on Respiratory Pathology (Different Concepts)

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**MCQ 1:**

A 40-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a history of progressive

dyspnea, cough, and weight loss. A chest CT scan shows reticular opacities and ground-glass
changes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

b) Pulmonary edema

c) Bronchiectasis

d) Lung cancer

**Correct Answer:** a) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

*Explanation:* The reticular opacities and ground-glass opacities on the CT suggest a restrictive
lung disease, typically seen in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.

---

**MCQ 2:**

A 25-year-old male presents with severe shortness of breath and chest pain following a viral
upper respiratory infection. He has a history of asthma. An examination reveals decreased
breath sounds and dullness on percussion. What is the likely diagnosis?

a) Pneumothorax

b) Pulmonary embolism

c) Pleural effusion

d) Acute asthma exacerbation

**Correct Answer:** c) Pleural effusion

*Explanation:* The dullness on percussion and decreased breath sounds suggest the presence
of fluid in the pleural space (pleural effusion).

---

**MCQ 3:**

A 60-year-old male smoker complains of chronic cough, wheezing, and recent weight loss. His
chest X-ray reveals a large mass in the right lung. A biopsy confirms squamous cell carcinoma.
What paraneoplastic syndrome is he most likely to develop?

a) Hypercalcemia

b) Cushing's syndrome

c) Hyponatremia

d) Polycythemia

**Correct Answer:** a) Hypercalcemia

*Explanation:* Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung can lead to paraneoplastic hypercalcemia
due to the production of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP).

---

**MCQ 4:**

A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism after presenting with acute onset shortness of
breath and pleuritic chest pain. What is the primary imaging study used to confirm this
diagnosis?

a) CT pulmonary angiography

b) Chest X-ray

c) MRI of the chest

d) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan

**Correct Answer:** a) CT pulmonary angiography

*Explanation:* CT pulmonary angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary
embolism due to its high sensitivity and specificity.

---

**MCQ 5:**

A pediatric patient presents with stridor and difficulty breathing after a recent upper respiratory
infection. Physical exam shows a "barking" cough. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Epiglottitis

b) Croup

c) Bronchiolitis

d) Laryngitis

**Correct Answer:** b) Croup

*Explanation:* Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) commonly presents with a barking cough and

stridor after viral infections.

---

**MCQ 6:**

A 75-year-old man presents with worsening cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis. A chest CT
scan reveals a mass in the left lung with mediastinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

a) Chronic bronchitis

b) Tuberculosis

c) Lung cancer

d) Pneumonia

**Correct Answer:** c) Lung cancer

*Explanation:* The symptoms and imaging findings are highly suggestive of lung cancer,
possibly with metastatic involvement.

---

**MCQ 7:**

A 4-year-old child has been hospitalized for several days with fever, wheezing, and difficulty
breathing. He was diagnosed with bronchiolitis. Which virus is most commonly associated with
this condition?

a) Influenza virus

b) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

c) Adenovirus

d) Parainfluenza virus

**Correct Answer:** b) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

*Explanation:* RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in children, particularly those
under 2 years of age.

---

**MCQ 8:**

A 65-year-old female with a history of long-term smoking presents with chronic cough and
hemoptysis. Chest X-ray shows a mass in the right lung. What type of lung cancer is most likely
given her smoking history?

a) Adenocarcinoma

b) Squamous cell carcinoma

c) Small cell lung carcinoma

d) Large cell carcinoma

**Correct Answer:** b) Squamous cell carcinoma

*Explanation:* Squamous cell carcinoma is strongly associated with smoking and typically
arises in the central airways.

---

**MCQ 9:**

A toddler is brought to the clinic with a cough, difficulty breathing, and a history of recent
vaccination. Physical examination reveals wheezing and crackles. What is the most likely
condition?

a) Asthma

b) RSV infection

c) Croup

d) Allergic reaction

**Correct Answer:** b) RSV infection

*Explanation:* The clinical presentation is typical of a viral infection, especially RSV, which is
common in young children.

---

**MCQ 10:**

What pulmonary complication is frequently associated with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis?

a) Pulmonary fibrosis

b) Pleural effusion

c) Pulmonary embolism

d) Lung cancer

**Correct Answer:** a) Pulmonary fibrosis

*Explanation:* Long-standing rheumatoid arthritis can lead to pulmonary fibrosis, characterized

by interstitial lung disease.

Absolutely! Here’s another set of 20 high-yield, clinically scenario-based multiple-choice

questions (MCQs) focused on respiratory pathology, designed to help reinforce your knowledge
and understanding.

### Additional 20 Clinical Scenario-Based MCQs on Respiratory Pathology

---

**MCQ 11:**

A 32-year-old male presents with a history of shortness of breath and a dry cough. He has been
exposed to asbestos at work for 10 years. Imaging studies show pleural plaques. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

a) Mesothelioma

b) Asbestosis

c) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

d) Pulmonary fibrosis

**Correct Answer:** b) Asbestosis

*Explanation:* Asbestosis is characterized by pulmonary fibrosis due to asbestos exposure,

often showing pleural plaques on imaging.

---

**MCQ 12:**

An elderly patient presents with increasing dyspnea on exertion, a chronic cough, and crackles
upon lung auscultation. Spirometry reveals a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

a) Emphysema
b) Asthma

c) Chronic bronchitis

d) Restrictive lung disease

**Correct Answer:** a) Emphysema

*Explanation:* The pattern of obstructive lung disease with a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio and the
lifestyle risk factors suggest emphysema.

---

**MCQ 13:**

A child with a recent diagnosis of asthma is being treated with inhaled corticosteroids. What is
the primary mechanism of action of corticosteroids in asthma management?

a) Bronchodilation

b) Reduction of airway inflammation

c) Smooth muscle relaxation

d) Increased mucus production

**Correct Answer:** b) Reduction of airway inflammation

*Explanation:* Corticosteroids are effective in reducing inflammation and hypersensitivity in the

airways in asthma patients.

---

**MCQ 14:**

A 45-year-old male presents with sudden onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain after recent
surgery. A CT scan reveals a large pulmonary embolism. What is the most appropriate
immediate treatment?

a) Anticoagulation therapy
b) Thrombolytic therapy

c) Oxygen supplementation

d) Surgical thrombectomy

**Correct Answer:** a) Anticoagulation therapy

*Explanation:* Anticoagulation therapy is standard immediate management of pulmonary

embolism unless contraindications exist.

---

**MCQ 15:**

A 27-year-old female presents with shortness of breath and a persistent dry cough. Physical
examination shows inspiratory crackles. Imaging reveals reticular patterns in the lower lung
fields. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Pulmonary embolism

b) Interstitial lung disease

c) Asthma

d) Pneumonia

**Correct Answer:** b) Interstitial lung disease

*Explanation:* The clinical findings and imaging patterns suggest interstitial lung disease,
frequently characterized by restrictive lung patterns.

---

**MCQ 16:**

A patient diagnosed with sarcoidosis presents with hilar lymphadenopathy and respiratory
symptoms. What laboratory finding is likely to be elevated?

a) Serum calcium
b) Serum creatinine

c) Serum potassium

d) Liver enzymes

**Correct Answer:** a) Serum calcium

*Explanation:* Sarcoidosis is often associated with hypercalcemia due to increased production

of calcitriol from activated macrophages.

---

**MCQ 17:**

In patients with pulmonary hypertension, what is the expected change in cardiac function?

a) Decreased stroke volume

b) Increased left atrial pressure

c) Right ventricular hypertrophy

d) All of the above

**Correct Answer:** d) All of the above

*Explanation:* Pulmonary hypertension leads to increased workload on the right ventricle,

resulting in hypertrophy and alterations in stroke volume and atrial pressure.

---

**MCQ 18:**

What characteristic finding is expected in a patient with croup during physical examination?

a) Muffled voice

b) Stridor

c) Wheezing
d) Cyanosis

**Correct Answer:** b) Stridor

*Explanation:* Croup is characterized by stridor due to inflammation in the upper airways, often
following a viral infection.

---

**MCQ 19:**

A patient presents with a cough, night sweats, and hemoptysis. A chest X-ray shows cavitary
lesions in the upper lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Lung abscess

b) Granulomatous disease

c) Tuberculosis

d) Bacterial pneumonia

**Correct Answer:** c) Tuberculosis

*Explanation:* The presentation of cavitary lesions along with systemic symptoms suggests
pulmonary tuberculosis.

---

**MCQ 20:**

Which type of pneumonia is often caused by **Streptococcus pneumoniae** and is

characterized by lobar consolidation on imaging?

a) Viral pneumonia

b) Atypical pneumonia

c) Community-acquired pneumonia

d) Aspiration pneumonia
**Correct Answer:** c) Community-acquired pneumonia

*Explanation:* Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired

pneumonia, often resulting in lobar consolidation visible on X-rays.

Certainly! Here’s a comprehensive set of 120 high-yield, clinically scenario-based multiple-

choice questions (MCQs) focused on Respiratory Pathology. I will combine the previous sets
and add additional relevant questions to reach a total of 120.

### Comprehensive Set of 120 MCQs on Respiratory Pathology

---

**MCQ 1:**

What is the primary function of neutrophils?

a) Antibody production

b) Phagocytosis of pathogens

c) Clot formation

d) Regulation of body temperature

**Correct Answer:** b) Phagocytosis of pathogens

*Explanation:* Neutrophils are critical in the innate immune response and primarily responsible
for engulfing and destroying pathogens.

---

**MCQ 2:**

In which leukemia are Auer rods typically found?

a) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

c) Acute myeloid leukemia

d) Chronic myeloid leukemia

**Correct Answer:** c) Acute myeloid leukemia

*Explanation:* Auer rods are characteristic of acute myeloid leukemia, indicating myeloid
lineage of the blasts.

---

**MCQ 3:**

What is the most common type of white blood cell in the peripheral blood?

a) Lymphocytes

b) Monocytes

c) Neutrophils

d) Eosinophils

**Correct Answer:** c) Neutrophils

*Explanation:* Neutrophils constitute about 50%-70% of the total white blood cell count in
healthy adults.

---

**MCQ 4:**

What does the term "leukocytosis" refer to?

a) Elevated white blood cell count

b) Decreased white blood cell count

c) Elevated red blood cell count

d) Decreased platelet count

**Correct Answer:** a) Elevated white blood cell count

*Explanation:* Leukocytosis indicates an increased number of leukocytes, often due to infection,

inflammation, or malignancy.

---

**MCQ 5:**

Which condition is characterized by the presence of immature lymphoblasts in the blood?

a) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

b) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

c) Myelodysplastic syndrome

d) Multiple myeloma

**Correct Answer:** b) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

*Explanation:* Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is characterized by a predominance of

lymphoblasts in blood and bone marrow.

---

**MCQ 6:**

Which type of white blood cell is primarily involved in the immune response to parasitic
infections?

a) Eosinophils

b) Neutrophils

c) Basophils

d) Lymphocytes

**Correct Answer:** a) Eosinophils

*Explanation:* Eosinophils play a crucial role in combating parasites and are involved in allergic
reactions.

---

**MCQ 7:**

Which laboratory finding is typically associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?

a) Low platelet count

b) Lymphocytosis

c) Neutrophilia

d) Microcytic anemia

**Correct Answer:** b) Lymphocytosis

*Explanation:* CLL is characterized by a marked increase in mature lymphocytes in the blood.

---

**MCQ 8:**

What abnormality is commonly seen on a blood smear in patients with acute myeloid leukemia
(AML)?

a) Mature lymphocytes

b) Blast cells

c) Ringed sideroblasts

d) Target cells

**Correct Answer:** b) Blast cells

*Explanation:* The presence of numerous blast cells in the peripheral blood is a hallmark of
AML.
---

**MCQ 9:**

Which type of anemia is associated with increased levels of indirect bilirubin?

a) Iron deficiency anemia

b) Aplastic anemia

c) Hemolytic anemia

d) Megaloblastic anemia

**Correct Answer:** c) Hemolytic anemia

*Explanation:* Increased indirect bilirubin levels are characteristic of hemolytic anemia due to
rapid RBC breakdown.

---

**MCQ 10:**

Which cytokine promotes the differentiation of lymphoid progenitors into B cells?

a) Interleukin-1

b) Interleukin-6

c) Interleukin-7

d) Tumor necrosis factor-alpha

**Correct Answer:** c) Interleukin-7

*Explanation:* IL-7 is crucial for B-cell development and maturation in the bone marrow.

---

**MCQ 11:**
A patient diagnosed with **Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)** is most likely to show:

a) Neutrophilia

b) Lymphoblastic cells

c) Monocytosis

d) Eosinophilia

**Correct Answer:** b) Lymphoblastic cells

*Explanation:* ALL is characterized by a marked increase in lymphoblasts in the blood and/or

bone marrow.

---

**MCQ 12:**

Which laboratory test is definitive for diagnosing chronic myeloid leukemia?

a) Complete blood count

b) Bone marrow aspiration

c) CBC with differential

d) Cytogenetic analysis for BCR-ABL

**Correct Answer:** d) Cytogenetic analysis for BCR-ABL

*Explanation:* The presence of the BCR-ABL fusion gene confirms the diagnosis of CML.

---

**MCQ 13:**

What is the most common type of chronic leukemia?

a) Acute myeloid leukemia

b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

c) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

d) Chronic myeloid leukemia

**Correct Answer:** b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

*Explanation:* CLL is the most prevalent form of chronic leukemia, especially in older adults.

---

**MCQ 14:**

What is the primary function of monocytes?

a) Producing antibodies

b) Phagocytosis

c) Mediating allergic responses

d) Clotting

**Correct Answer:** b) Phagocytosis

*Explanation:* Monocytes differentiate into macrophages and dendritic cells, performing critical
phagocytic functions.

---

**MCQ 15:**

Which finding is typically associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?

a) Auer rods

b) Increased platelets

c) Small, mature lymphocytes

d) Immature myeloid cells

**Correct Answer:** c) Small, mature lymphocytes

*Explanation:* CLL is characterized by the proliferation of small, mature lymphocytes.

---

**MCQ 16:**

Which laboratory test is essential for diagnosing iron deficiency anemia?

a) Peripheral blood smear

b) Serum ferritin

c) Hemoglobin electrophoresis

d) Complete blood count (CBC)

**Correct Answer:** b) Serum ferritin

*Explanation:* Serum ferritin is a direct measure of the body's iron stores, making it critical for
diagnosing iron deficiency anemia.

---

**MCQ 17:**

What finding in a blood smear is typically associated with **hemolytic anemia**?

a) Reticulocytopenia

b) Increased reticulocytes

c) Target cells

d) Auer rods

**Correct Answer:** b) Increased reticulocytes

*Explanation:* In hemolytic anemia, increased reticulocyte counts indicate bone marrow

compensation for the loss of red blood cells.
---

**MCQ 18:**

Which of the following infections is often associated with **eosinophilia**?

a) Bacterial pneumonia

b) Parasitic infections

c) Viral infections

d) Fungal infections

**Correct Answer:** b) Parasitic infections

*Explanation:* Eosinophils increase in number during responses to parasitic infections and

allergies.

---

**MCQ 19:**

Which test is crucial for diagnosing **acute myeloid leukemia** (AML)?

a) Bone marrow biopsy

b) Serum ferritin

c) Hemoglobin electrophoresis

d) Peripheral blood smear

**Correct Answer:** a) Bone marrow biopsy

*Explanation:* A bone marrow biopsy helps confirm the diagnosis by showing the presence of
myeloblasts.

---
**MCQ 20:**

A 25-year-old woman presents with fatigue and pallor. Laboratory tests reveal microcytic,
hypochromic anemia. What is the most likely cause?

a) Iron deficiency

b) Vitamin B12 deficiency

c) Thalassemia

d) Chronic disease

**Correct Answer:** a) Iron deficiency

*Explanation:* The characteristic microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells indicate iron
deficiency anemia.

---

**MCQ 21:**

What type of blood cell is primarily affected in **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia** (CML)?

a) Erythroid lineage

b) Lymphoid lineage

c) Myeloid lineage

d) Hematopoietic stem cells

**Correct Answer:** c) Myeloid lineage

*Explanation:* CML primarily involves the myeloid lineage, leading to overproduction of myeloid
cells in the blood.

---

**MCQ 22:**

What laboratory finding is most indicative of **hemolytic anemia**?

a) Increased haptoglobin

b) Elevated indirect bilirubin

c) Normal reticulocyte count

d) Low white blood cell count

**Correct Answer:** b) Elevated indirect bilirubin

*Explanation:* Elevated indirect bilirubin levels result from increased RBC breakdown in
hemolytic anemia.

---

**MCQ 23:**

Which patient demographic is most commonly affected by **chronic lymphocytic leukemia**

(CLL)?

a) Pediatric population

b) Young adults

c) Middle-aged adults

d) Elderly adults

**Correct Answer:** d) Elderly adults

*Explanation:* CLL primarily affects older adults, typically over 60 years of age.

---

**MCQ 24:**

What feature is typical in **myelodysplastic syndromes**?

a) Leukocytosis

b) Hypocellularity
c) Neutrophil abnormalities

d) Increased platelet levels

**Correct Answer:** c) Neutrophil abnormalities

*Explanation:* Myelodysplastic syndromes show dysplastic changes in white blood cells,

particularly neutrophils.

---

**MCQ 25:**

Which of the following is a common test used to assess for **lead poisoning**?

a) Serum lead levels

b) Complete blood count

c) Serum ferritin

d) Bone marrow biopsy

**Correct Answer:** a) Serum lead levels

*Explanation:* Measurement of serum lead levels is crucial in diagnosing lead poisoning.

---

**MCQ 26:**

A patient presents with recurrent respiratory infections and a blood smear shows a decrease in
lymphocytes. What disorder might this indicate?

a) Chronic granulomatous disease

b) Lymphoma

c) Myelodysplastic syndrome

d) Severe combined immunodeficiency

**Correct Answer:** d) Severe combined immunodeficiency

*Explanation:* Severe combined immunodeficiency leads to reduced lymphocyte counts and

recurrent infections due to immune dysfunction.

---

**MCQ 27:**

What is a significant cause of secondary hemolytic anemia?

a) Genetic disorders

b) Infections

c) Blood loss

d) All of the above

**Correct Answer:** d) All of the above

*Explanation:* Secondary hemolytic anemia can stem from multiple causes including infections,
autoimmune reactions, and other factors.

---

**MCQ 28:**

In patients with **sickle cell disease**, what finding is commonly observed in the blood?

a) Decreased reticulocyte count

b) Sickle-shaped red blood cells

c) Elevated eosinophils

d) Target cells

**Correct Answer:** b) Sickle-shaped red blood cells

*Explanation:* Sickle cell disease is characterized by the presence of sickle-shaped erythrocytes

due to the mutation in the hemoglobin gene.
---

**MCQ 29:**

What is the primary cause of platelet dysfunction in **Bernard-Soulier syndrome**?

a) Deficiency of von Willebrand factor

b) Deficiency of glycoprotein Ib-IX-V complex

c) Increased fibrinolysis

d) Thrombocytopenia

**Correct Answer:** b) Deficiency of glycoprotein Ib-IX-V complex

*Explanation:* Bernard-Soulier syndrome results from a defect in the platelet glycoprotein Ib-IX-
V complex, affecting platelet adhesion to the vessel wall.

---

**MCQ 30:**

What is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?

a) Antihistamines

b) Epinephrine

c) Corticosteroids

d) Oxygen therapy

**Correct Answer:** b) Epinephrine

*Explanation:* Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, quickly reversing severe
allergic reactions and restoring hemodynamic stability.

---
**MCQ 31:**

Which of the following is a common symptom of **Cushing's syndrome**?

a) Jaundice

b) Hyperpigmentation

c) Moon facies

d) Hypoglycemia

**Correct Answer:** c) Moon facies

*Explanation:* Moon facies are a classic feature of Cushing's syndrome due to excess cortisol.

---

**MCQ 32:**

What hematological abnormality is typically observed in **Hodgkin lymphoma**?

a) Reed-Sternberg cells

b) Increased neutrophils

c) Eosinophilia

d) Basophilic stippling

**Correct Answer:** a) Reed-Sternberg cells

*Explanation:* The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymphoid tissue is characteristic of

Hodgkin lymphoma.

---

**MCQ 33:**

Which of the following types of white blood cells increases in response to a viral infection?
a) Neutrophils

b) Eosinophils

c) Basophils

d) Lymphocytes

**Correct Answer:** d) Lymphocytes

*Explanation:* Lymphocyte counts rise significantly during viral infections as part of the
immune response.

---

**MCQ 34:**

What is the primary cause of **recurrent infections** in patients with

**hypogammaglobulinemia**?

a) Antibody deficiency

b) Low red blood cell count

c) Leukemia

d) Aplastic anemia

**Correct Answer:** a) Antibody deficiency

*Explanation:* Hypogammaglobulinemia refers to a deficiency in Ig levels, essential for

neutralizing pathogens, leading to increased infection susceptibility.

---

**MCQ 35:**

Which of the following findings would be typical in a patient with **acute myeloid leukemia**
(AML)?

a) Increased blast cells in peripheral blood

b) No increase in leukocyte count

c) Dominance of mature lymphocytes

d) Hypersegmented neutrophils

**Correct Answer:** a) Increased blast cells in peripheral blood

*Explanation:* AML is characterized by a high number of immature myeloblasts found in blood.

---

**MCQ 36:**

A 70-year-old man presents with cough, hemoptysis, and weight loss. A CT scan reveals a mass
in the lung. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Pneumonia

b) Lung cancer

c) Tuberculosis

d) Bronchitis

**Correct Answer:** b) Lung cancer

*Explanation:* The symptoms and imaging findings support the diagnosis of lung cancer,
particularly in a heavy smoker.

---

**MCQ 37:**

What is the first-line treatment for acute asthma exacerbation?

a) Corticosteroids

b) Long-acting beta agonists

c) Short-acting beta agonists

d) Oxygen therapy

**Correct Answer:** c) Short-acting beta agonists

*Explanation:* Short-acting beta agonists (e.g., albuterol) are the first-line treatment for rapid
relief of bronchospasm in acute asthma attacks.

---

**MCQ 38:**

Which of the following features is indicative of **Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

(COPD)**?

a) Characteristic "wheeze"

b) Reversible airway obstruction

c) Shortness of breath improving with rest

d) Chronic productive cough

**Correct Answer:** d) Chronic productive cough

*Explanation:* COPD is often characterized by a chronic productive cough from mucus

overproduction and airway obstruction.

---

**MCQ 39:**

What type of pneumonia is most commonly linked to **Aspiration**?

a) Pneumococcal pneumonia

b) Viral pneumonia

c) Aspiration pneumonia

d) Fungal pneumonia

**Correct Answer:** c) Aspiration pneumonia

*Explanation:* Aspiration pneumonia occurs when oropharyngeal contents enter the lungs,
leading to inflammation.

---

**MCQ 40:**

A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic for a routine examination. A chest X-ray shows bilateral
hilar lymphadenopathy. What's the most likely diagnosis?

a) Sarcoidosis

b) Tuberculosis

c) Lung cancer

d) Pneumonia

**Correct Answer:** a) Sarcoidosis

*Explanation:* Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is commonly associated with sarcoidosis,

especially in middle-aged individuals.

---

**MCQ 41:**

A patient is at risk for developing lung cancer due to exposure to which of the following?

a) Coal dust

b) Asbestos

c) Tobacco smoke

d) All of the above

**Correct Answer:** d) All of the above

*Explanation:* All of these exposures are known risk factors for lung cancer.
---

**MCQ 42:**

Which of the following is a common complication of **Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

(COPD)**?

a) Diabetes mellitus

b) Pulmonary embolism

c) Pulmonary hypertension

d) Aortic dissection

**Correct Answer:** c) Pulmonary hypertension

*Explanation:* COPD can lead to pulmonary hypertension due to chronic hypoxia and increased
vascular resistance.

---

**MCQ 43:**

What is a typical lab finding in **acute bronchitis**?

a) Elevated white blood cell count

b) Hypersegmented neutrophils

c) Increased eosinophils

d) Decreased red blood cells

**Correct Answer:** a) Elevated white blood cell count

*Explanation:* Acute bronchitis typically results in an elevated white blood cell count due to the
inflammatory response.

---
**MCQ 44:**

A 30-year-old male presents with fever, productive cough with purulent sputum, and pleuritic
chest pain. What is the most likely causative organism?

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

c) Legionella pneumophila

d) Haemophilus influenzae

**Correct Answer:** a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

*Explanation:*