QUESTION 1

Tirade of pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression coma is characteristics of following poison

a. Lead
b. Arsenic
c. Dathura
d. Mercury
e. Opium

QUESTION 2

Which of the following bacteria are the examples of Group D Streptococci?

a. Enterococcus faecalis
b. Streptococcus viridians
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Streptococcus pneumonia

QUESTION 3

A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the
following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy?

a. Cefazolin 1 g q8h
b. Methicillin 500 mg q6h
c. Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h
d. Penicillin V 500 mg q6h
e. Vancomycin 250 mg q6h

QUESTION 4

Name the most potent toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum and C.tetani

a. Aflatoxin
b. Exotoxins
c. Neurotoxin
d. Cytotoxin
e. enterotoxins
QUESTION 5

Which of the following is the most active drug from second generation fluoroquinolones against
gram-negative organisms?

a. Enoxacin
b. Gatifloxacin
c. Levofloxacin
d. Ciprofloxacin
e. Norfloxacin

QUESTION 6

Which of the following statement is true about Dengue fever?

a. There are three serotypes of the dengue virus.

b. Route of transmission for Dengue fever is the fecal-oral route.
c. Treatment of choice for dengue fever is Ribavirin
d. Dengue fever is not associated with low platelet count.
e. Dengue is a febrile illness caused by a flavivirus.

QUESTIO 7

A gentleman of 70 years presents with acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis and is prescribed a
fluoroquinolone. His creatinine clearance is less than 50 mL/min. which of the following would be
the most appropriate choice in this patient?

a. Levofloxacin
b. Norfloxacin
c. Moxifloxacin
d. Ofloxacin
e. Ciprofloxacin

QUESTION 8

Red scorpion venom is

a. Cardiotoxin
b. nephrotoxin
c. Hepatotoxic
d. Hematoxin
e. Neurotoxin
QUESTION 9

Which of the following bacteria is predominantly present in the urogenital flora of a mother and a
newborn female infant?

a. Neisseria gonorrhea
b. Lactobacillus acidophilus
c. Candida albicans
d. Escherichia coli

QUESTION 10

Greenish blue froth at mouth, nostrils and yellowish discoloration of the skin are important
postmortem appearance of

a. Lead poisoning
b. Barbiturate poisoning
c. Opium poisoning
d. Mercury poisoning
e. Copper poisoning

QUESTION 11

Gas gangrene is a lethal infection because clostridium perfringes produces

a. Carbon dioxide gas majorly which cause damage

b. Causes death of tissues by direct invasion
c. Gene mutations in the tissues
d. Multiple exotoxins which cause local and systemic damage
e. Multiple endotoxins causing local and systemic damage

QUESTION 12

Exhumation of a suspected case death due to poisoning, the minimum quantity of earth samples
required from the grave is;

a. 250 gms
b. 500gms
c. 350 gms
d. 300gms
e. 700gms
QUESTION 13

Which of the semisynthetic penicillin which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram
negative bacilli but not penicillinase resistant

a. Piperacillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Cloxacillin
d. Ampicillin
e. Phenoxymethyl penicillin

QUESTION 14

Which one of the following describes the morphology of Corynebacterium on Gram”s staining

a. Cocci
b. Diplococci
c. Coocobacilli
d. Club shaped
e. Bacilli

QUESTION 15

Alopecia skin rash, painful peripheral neuropathy and mental confusion are characteristic features of
poisoning by

a. Lead
b. thallium
c. mercury
d. Chronic arsenic
e. Zinc

QUESTION 16

A 30-year-old male patient presented in OPD with complaints of continuous high-grade fever for ten
days with body aches, pains, and abdominal pain. On examination, the patient had a white-coated
tongue and mild splenomegaly. Diagnosis of enteric fever was suspected. What is the route of
transmission of enteric fever?

a. Vector transmission
b. Feco-oral route transmission
c. Blood transmission
d. Aerosol transmission
e. Sexual transmission
QUESTION 17

Operations in the presence of pus where there is a previously perforated hollow viscus or compound
/open injuries with a history of more than four hours is known as

a. Clean contaminated
b. Compound wound
c. Dirty
d. Contaminated
e. Clean

QUESTION 18

A 19-year-old woman with recurrent sinusitis has been treated with different antibiotics on several
occasions. During the course of one such treatment she developed a severe diarrhea and was
hospitalized. Sigmoidoscopy revealed colitis, and pseudomembranes, were confirmed histologically.
Which of the following drugs, administered orally, is most likely to be effective in the treatment of
colitis due to C difficile?

a. Clindamycin
b. Vancomycin
c. Ampicillin
d. Tetracycline
e. Cefazolin

QUESTION 19

Disinfection is the process of

a. Killing all viruses

b. Killing all spores
c. Killing dangerous microbes and leaving others
d. Killing all microoragnisms
e. Eliminating and reducing harmfull microbes

QUESTION 20

An intravenous drug abuser presented in OPD with complaints of lethargy, weight loss of more than
10 kgs, night sweats, watery diarrhea, and oropharyngeal candidiasis for the last three months.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Amoebic dysentery
b. Enteric fever
c. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
d. Tuberculosis
e. Brucellosis
QUESTION 21

What is a cluster of polar flagella called?

a. Petritrichous
b. Lophotrichous
c. Amphitrichous
d. Monotrichous

QUESTION 22

Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for:

a. Agranulocytosis patients
b. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever
c. Treatment of anthrax
d. Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects
e. Prophylaxis of syphilis

QUESTION 23

Trimethoprim is combined with sulfamethoxazole in the ratio of 1:5 to yield a steady state plasma
concentration of

a. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20
b. Trimethoprim 5: Sulfamethoxazole 1
c. Trimethoprim 20: Sulfamethoxazole 1
d. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 5
e. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 10

QUESTION 24

A 30 years old male comes in outpatient department with history of toothache and swelling of gums
on investigations there is loosening of teeth and osteomyelitis of jawbone (lower jaw). Medical
officer is suspecting chronic poisoning with

a. Tetanus
b. Mercury
c. Arsenic
d. Strychnine
e. Phosphorus
QUESTION 25

Lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that prevents visible growth of a bacterium for 24hours is
termed as:

a. MBC
b. MTC
c. MIC
d. PAE
e. TIC

QUESTION 26

While processing a bacterial sample, you are asked to culture it on MacConkey’s agar. The cultured
growth turns out to be consisting of non-Lactose fermenters colorless colonies. The organism is
gram negative and non-motile. Which is the most probable organism?

a. Shigella
b. Escherichia coli
c. Klebsiella species
d. Salmonella
e. Enterobacter species

QUESTION 27

A disease that can be transmitted by an infectious agent from one individual to another is called

a. endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Pandemic
d. Communicable
e. Comma

QUESTION 28

Anemia associated with polychromasia, punctuate basophilic nucleated red cells are seen in

a. Lead poisoning
b. Zinc poisoning
c. Arsenic poisoning
d. Copper poisoning
e. Mercury poisoning
QUESTION 29

Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to Beta-lactam antibiotics because:

a. They have acquired penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for ?-lactam antibiotics
b. They elaborate an amidase which destroys methicillin and related drugs
c. They are less permeable to ?-lactam antibiotics
d. They produce a ?-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs
e. They express an efflux P pumps

QUESTION 30

The clinical use of term of SIRS describes derangements in all of the following except

a. blood pressure
b. Heart rate
c. temperature
d. white blood count
e. Respiratory rate

QUESTION 31

In a 40 year old male, culture growth has shown infection due to streptococci pneumoniae which is
sensitive to quinolones. The patient is a known case of cardiovascular disease and is on treatment
with antiarrhythmic drugs. Which of the following will most likely to interact with his current
medication?

a. Ofloxacin
b. Trovafloxacin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Levofloxacin
e. Norfloxacin

QUESTION 32

Based on clinical presentation of a patient suffering from high grade fever for last 1 day, you made
the provisional diagnosis of Typhoid fever and order a diagnostic test for typhoid which is most
appropriate at the moment to confirm the diagnosis. The test is

a. Widal Test
b. Blood culture
c. Bone marrow culture
d. Stool culture
e. Urine culture
QUESTION 33

Indicate the sulfonamide whose sodium salt yields a nearly neutral solution which is suitable for
topical use in the eye

a. Sulfadoxine
b. Sulfamoxole
c. Sulfapyridine
d. Sulfadiazine
e. Sulfacetamide

QUESTION 34

Bacillus is a common laboratory contaminant and is used for sterility testing. It is an endospore-
forming bacteria and resistant to extreme environmental conditions. Which bacillus is responsible
for sterility testing:

a. Bacillus thermophilus
b. Bacillus agalactiae
c. Bacillus subtilis
d. Bacillus anthrax

QUESTION 35

Name the bacteria that is a common cause of toxic shock syndrome

a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. streptococcus pneumoniae
c. staphylococcus mutans
d. Staphylococcus intermedius
e. Staphylococcus aureus

QUESTION 36

Antigenic diversity is a major feature of the Escherichia coli which has been utilized to identify over
700 antigenic or serotypes of E. coli. This recognition strategy is based on

a. O, H and D antigens
b. O, H and K antigens
c. O, A and M antigen
d. O, M and K antigen
e. Endotoxins
QUESTION 37

A 16-year-old female presented in OPD with history of high-grade fever for last seven days. She said
that fever is associated with chills and occurs every third day. What is the pattern of fever?

a. Undocumented fever
b. Relapsing fever
c. Remittent fever
d. Intermittent fever
e. Continuous fever