EDO STATE

PRE-PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION FOR MIDWIVES.

NOVEMBER, 2022

PERSPECTIVES IN MIDWIFERY PRACTICE

PAPER 1

OBJECTIVE QUESTION ANSWER ALL QUESTION

INSTRUCTION: THE FOLLOWING ARE OBJECTIVES TEST ITEMS, CLICKON

THE APPROPRIATE ANSWER.

1. ---------------------- is essential for embryogenesis growth and epithelial differentiation

(a)vitamin C
(b) vitamin A
(c) vitamin B
(d) vitamin D
2. Uterine soufflé is heard most distinctly near the --------------------- of the uterus
(a) middle portion
(b) higher portion
(c) lower portion
(d) center portion
3. At five weeks gestation, the uterus feels like a small----------------
(a)grape fruit
(b) tenis ball
(c) unripe pear
(d) orange
4. By eight weeks gestation, the uterus feels like a large
(a) pear
(b)orange
 (c) ball
(d) guava
5. ---------------is an increased thickness of fetal skin and fat at the back of the fetal neck
(a) choroid plexus
(b) nuchal foci
(c) nuchal fold
(d) choroid foci
6. The active phase of first stage of labour starts from ------
(a) 2-4 cm dilatation
(b)3-4 cm dilatation
(c)3-5 cm dilatation
(d)1-2 cm dilatation
7. ---------------- plays an essential role in the metabolism of calcium and phosphorus in the
body
(a) vitamin A
(b) vitamin D
(c) vitamin B
(d) vitamin K
8. The carbohydrate component of human milk is provided chiefly by ------------
(a) lactose
(b) fructose
(c)sucrose
(d)maltose
9. ----------------- excretion may be decreased in the supine and sitting position
(a) potassium
(b) sodium
(c) calcium
(d) phosphorus
10. Angiotensinogen level peak at -----------------------
(a) 30-31 weeks
(b) 30-32 weeks
(c) 32- 33 weeks
(d) 29-30 weeks
11. Fetal cord is approximately ----------------------in diameter
(a) 3-4cm
(b)4-5cm
(c) 2-3cm
(d) 1-2cm
12. The bowel sound at birth is present ------------hour after birth
(a) 6
(b) 1
 (c)24
(d) 12
13. A normal baby weighs approximately -------------------at birth
(a) 2.5kg
(b) 4kg
(c)3.5kg
(d)5kg
14. The following is used in hip examination of newborn
(a) Barlow’s test
(b) blood test
(c)traction response
(d) ventral suspension
15. Normal fetal heart rate ranges between
(a)100-120b/m
(b)90-80 b/m
(c)180 -200 b/m
(d) 140-160b/m
16. Adrenal gland develops from -------------------- and ---------------------
(a) neural crest and ectoderm
(b)ectoderm and mesoderm
(c) mast cell and neural cell
(d) neural crest and mesoderm
17. The testes measures
(a) 4.5cm long 3.5cm wide and 2.5 cm thick
(b) 2.5cm long 2.5cm wide and 1.5cm thick
(c) 4.5cm long 2.5cm wide and 3cm thick
(d) 4.5cm long 2.5cm wide and 2.5cm thick
18. The interstitial portion of the fallopian tube is ----------------cm long
(a) 2.5cm
(b)1.25cm
(c) 3.5cm
(d)2cm
19. The proliferative phase of menstrual cycle works under the influence of which of the
following hormone
(a)FSH
(b)LH
(c) oestrogen
(d)progesterone
20. During the process of fetal development testes descend into the scrotum at --------------
(a)8-12weeks
(b)32-36 weeks
 (c) 28-32weeks
(d)16-20weeks
21. Latent phase of labour may last ------------------hours in primigravid woman
(a) 8-10
(b) 6-8
(c) 7-10
(d) 7-8
22. Transitional phase of labour is when the cervix is around -------------- dilated until it is
fully dilated
(a) 8cm
(b) 9cm
(c)7cm
(d) 6cm
23. Factors that render the pill less effective includes the following except
(a) interaction with other medication
(b) interaction with food
(c) vomiting within 3 hours of taking a pill
(d)severe diarhoea
24. The following are examples of barrier methods of contraception except
(a) condom
(b) vault caps
(c)spermicidal cream
(d) bladder base cap
25. The fertile time lasts around----------------days in each menstrual cycle
(a) 8-9
(b) 7-8
(c) 8- 10
(d) 9- 10
26. Changes in mucus secretion may be affected by the following except
(a) spermicide
(b) vaginal infection
(c) on waking up
(d) some medication
27. One of the following is a cause of frigidity
(a) lack of orgasm
(b) husband’s deep sleep
(c) lack of plenty time for play
(d) lack of dialogue
28. All except one are means of recognizing orgasm in female
(a) deeper respiration
(b) muscular spasm
 (c)high pitch cry
(d) call out
29. Home delivery kit should contain all of the following except
(a) episiotomy scissors
(b)disposal enema kit
(c) tape measure
(d) blood giving set
30. Which of the under-listed is not a criteria used in determining home confinement
(a) the midwife’s experience and capability
(b) the midwife’s assessment of the home environment
(c) the woman has had two previous normal deliveries
(d) the women insisting to be delivered at home
31. One of the disadvantage of home delivery is -----------------------
(a) it is economical
(b) free from hospital routine
(c) encourage family participation
(d) presents high risks of complication
32. On posting to rural area for community experience, the following are excepted of the
student midwife except
(a) participating in home visits
(b) conducting infant welfare clinic
(c) paying visit to specialist hospital
(d) holding seminar
33. The following are requirement for conception except
(a)ovum
(b) fertile mucus
(c) sperm
(d) cervix
34. Environmental sanitation deals with the following except
(a) provision of safe water supply
(b) adequate disposal of waste
(c) provision of essential immunization for children 0-2 years
(d) provision of habitable dwelling
35. Oral rehydration solution is better used within
(a)12 hours
(b)18 hours
(c) 36 hours
(d) 24 hours
36. The following are the midwives role in child protection procedure
(a) recognize the risk of abuse to an unborn child
(b) contribute to enquires from other professionals about children and their family
 (c) plan and respond to adolescents needs
(d) contribute to serious case reviews and their implementation
37. --------------- prevention can be described as a health care before a disease process starts
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) intermediary
38. During the last few weeks of pregnancy the following physical and psychological
changes occur excepts
(a)mood swings and surge of energy
(b) lower uterine segment segment expands to allow the fetal head to sink lower
(c) walking may become more difficult
(d) pressure at the fundus
39. The two features of true labour that are absent in spurious labour are
(a) effacement and dilatation of cervix
(b)contraction and retraction
(c) frequent micturition and effacement
(d) excessive mucus secretion and retraction
40. ---------------- is the most effective pain relief in labour but is associated with increased
rates
(a) entomox
(b) epidural
(c) pethidine
(d)pentazocine
41. Until the end of the ---------- century, midwifery was practiced entirely by women
(a) 13th
(b) 14th
(c)16th
(d) 1st
42. Dr --------------was the first to describe mechanism of labour
(a)Dr Sapara
(b) Miss Florence Nightingale
(c) Dr Willim Smellie
(d) Dr Chamberland
43. The first batch of student midwives trained by mrs Peregrino qualified in ------------------
(a) 1927
(b)1929
(c) 1934
(d)1933
44. At puberty the female gonad are-------------- and -------------- and at menopause
-------------and --------------
 (a) white and solid, smooth and rough
(b)smooth and dull, shrunken and rough
(c) shrunken and soft, rough and dull
(d) pale and solid , smooth and shrunken
45. The following are functions of the fallopian tubes expect one
(a) propel the ovum toward the uterus
(b)receive the spermatozoa and is good site for fertilization
(c) secrete nutrients to support the egg during transport
(d) secrete nutrients to support the embryo during growth
46. ---------------------- is thought to stimulate aggressive and sexual drive
(a) seminal vesicles
(b) vas deference
(c) male gonads
(d) epididymis
47. ---------------- -lies at the upper part of the urethra and lies in direct contact with the
bladder
(a) cowpers gland
(b) prostate gland
(c) penis
(d) none of the above
48. An average woman has approximately ------------menstrual cycles in her life time
(a) 450
(b) 350
(c)250
(d)150
49. ------------------ is the natural changes that occur for the preparation and release of an
ocyte
(a) uterine cycle
(b) ovarian cycle
(c) endometrial cycle
(d) none of the above
50. The average blood loss during menstruation is between -------------------------
(a) 50-150 mls
(b) 40- 150 mls
(c) 80-150 mls
(d) 70-150mls
51. In a prolong menstrual cycle, only the ------------------ phase is longer
(a) secretory phase
(b) lacteal phase
(c) proliferative phase
(d) menstrual phase
52. The nucleus of the ovum contain ---------------- autosomes and ------------- chromosome
while that of the spermatozoa cames ------------- autosomes and ------------- chromosomes.
(a) 22 and X, 22 and X or Y chromosomes
(b) 23 and Y, 22 and X, X chromosomes
(c) 22 and Y and 22 and X chromosomes
(d) 21 and X, 22 and X or Y chromosomes
53. The beautiful precaution nature takes to guard against producing an abnormal offspring is
(a) osmosis
(b) meiosis
(c) diffusion
(d) none of the above
54. The sperm is endowed with the natural dissolver known as the -------------- from the
-------------
(a) flagellum, acrosome
(b) hyaluronidase, flagellum
(c) hyaluronidase, acrosome
(d) proligeus, acrosome
55. The malure sperm is made up of all but one
(a) nucleus
(b) neck
(c) flagellum
(d) proligeus
56. The segmentation of the fertilized ovum takes place once every -------------- hours
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
57. ---------------- is the stage of development that the cavity is reached four days after
fertilization.
(a) embryo
(b) morula
(c) trophoblast
(d) blastocyst
58. The decedua is differentiated in all but one
(a) deciduas shoma
(b) decidua basalis
(c) decidua vera
(d) decidua capsularis
59. The cyclotrophoblast produces a hormone that serve as a basis for pregnancy test and the
hormone is known as ---------------
(a) human placenta laclogen
 (b) human corpus lenteum
(c) human chorionic gonatrophin
(d) human gonatrophin
60. During ovulation, some women experience varying degrees of abdominal pain known as
------------
(a) dyspareniuea
(b) muttleschmerz
(c) dysmenorrheal
(d) menopause
61. The cervical mucus at the time of ovulation becomes slippery and draws giving an
appearance of an egg white is called ---------------
(a) skinberkiet
(b) skinners
(c) smelliveit
(d) skinowhite
62. The deep penetration into the basal decedua is checked by a layer of fibrinoid material
present in the deeper layer of the functional layer of the decidua called layer of
--------------
(a) butch nita
(b) nitabutch
(c) natures frondosum
(d) nutritive process
63. Which of the following are characteristic of the puerperal bladder
(a) under distention, complete empting
(b) under distention, incomplete empting
(c) over distention, complete empting
(d) over distention, incomplete emptying
64. Each body cell has a
(a) a nucleus and 46 pairs of chromosome
(b) a nucleus and 46 chromosome
(c) a cell with 46 chromosome
(d) a cytoplasm with 46 pair of chromosomes
65. Each ejaculation produces
(a) 3,000 spermatozoa
(b) 300 spermatozoa
(c) 300,000 000 spermatozoa
(d) 30,000 spermatozoa
66. Division of zygote into even numbers is called
(a) sendimentaion
(b) sendatation
 (c) segmentation
(d) cystic restructuring
67. During the secretory phase of menstrual cycle, the endometrium hypertrophies and
assumes a thickness of ---------
(a) 5-8mm
(b) 4-8mm
(c) 6-8mm
(d) 0-8mm
68. The pelvic floor muscle aids
(a) descents and child birth
(b) delays descent and child birth
(c) counters mechanism of labour
(d) works against swing door action
69. The actively manage first stage of labour the midwife dose the following except
(a) inform mothers of various interventions possible
(b) grant mothers wishes
(c) deny mothers wishes
(d) proper documentations and supportive care
Rearrange the following passive movements of the fetus in the order they occur for
78-80

(a) lateral flexation

(b) descent
(c) crowning
(d) resustation
(e) internal rotation of head
(f) internal rotation of shoulders
(g) extension

70. I
71. II
72. III
73. The indicating point in normal mechanism of labour is
(a) sacro iliac joint
(b) illio pechneal eminence
(c) saggital sutures
(d) vault
74. In a well flexed head, the midwife on vaginal examination is likely to feet
(a) anterior frontanelle
(b) posterior fontanelle
 (c) parietal eminence
(d) lambdiodal sutures
75. Dry lip and mouth are part of the gastro-intestinal changes during labour, this is due to (a)
Mouth breathing, dehydration and emotional response to labour
(b) Excessive exercise and movement of the baby
(c) Increased muscular activity during labour
(d) Minute tears and laceration in the mucous membrane of the mouth.
76. At the completion of labour ,the uterus measure
(a)15cm x 12cm x 7.5cm
(b)16cm x 12cm x 8cm
(c)10cm x 10cm x 12cm
(d)12cm x 18cm x 7.5cm
77. At the end of one week the uterus weighs
(a) 0-450 grammes
(b) 0-900 grammes
(c) 0-200 grammes
(d)O-60 grammes.

78. Lochia serosa is made up of

(a) Seum leucoytes and organisms
(b) Liquor amni,venix caseosa and meconium
(c)cervical mucus,liquor and caseosa
(d)Meconcum leucoytes and liquor.
79. The placenta site involves just like the uterus and completely heals within
(a) 2-3 days
(b) 6-8 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 9 days
80. The process of skin to skin contact between mother basy through cuddling is known as
(a) maternal affection
(b) bonding
(c) kanagaroed affection
(d) mother child relationship
81. The symbol X represents
(a) contractions in ten minutes
(b) descent of the head
(c) alert line symbol on cervicogram
(d) cervical dilatation and vaginal examination time
82. The active phase of labour begins when the cervix is
(a) 3cm dilated
(b) 4cm dilated
 (c) 5cm dilated
(d) 6cm dilated
83. The muscle responsible for bladder control is
(a) iliococcygeus muscle
(b) pubococcygeus muscle
(c) ischiocerygeus muscle
(d) all of the above
84. The perineum is supplied by the nerve named as
(a) perineulral nerve
(b) pudendal nerve
(c) both A and B
(d) none of the above
85. The colour of the ovary is
(a) pale
(b) red
(c) white
(d) yellow
86. Hymen consist of what type of epithelial tissue
(a) simple epithelium
(b) stratified epithelium
(c) covered by stratified squamous epithelium
(d) columnar epithelium
87. What is the principal erogenous organ in women
(a) vagina
(b) clitoris
(c) labia minora
(d) labia majora
88. The prepuce of the clitoris is formed from tissues of which of the following?
(a) urethra
(b) mons pubis
(c) labia Minora
(d) labia majora
89. From which embryonic structure does the vestibule arises
(a) genital ridge
(b) urogenital sinus
(c) mullerian duct
(d) mebonephric ducts
90. Which of the following not opened onto the vestibule
(a) urethra
(b) skene ducts
 (c) bartholin ducts
(d) mullerian duct
91. Which of the following process leads to uterine enlargement during pregnancy
(a) hypertrophy
(b) hyperplasia
(c) decidualization
(d) collagen dissociation
92. During pregnancy the part of the uterus becomes the lower uterine segment is (a) cervix
(b) comua
(c) corpus
(d) isthmus
93. The perineum consists of:
(a) Muscles and fascia of the urogenital and pelvic diaphragm
(b) The central tendons of the perineum and Levator Ani
(c) All structures lying between the symphysis pubis and coccyx
(d) The vulva and perineal body
94. Which of the following is NOT part of the Levator Ani muscles?
(a) Ilio coccygeus
(b) Pubo coccygeus
(c) Bulbo cavernosus
(d) Pubo rectalis

95. In the posterior region of the labia majora, the vulva is lubricated by secretion from one
of the following glands:
(a) Sebaceous
(b) Skene’s
(c) Inguinal
(d) Bartholins.

96. In an attempt to facilitate easy passage of baby during the perineal phase, an episiotomy
is performed. Which of the following anatomical structures are affected:
(a) The perineal muscle and vaginal mucosa
(b) The bulbo cavernosus and vaginal mucosa
(c) The transverse perinei and ischio cavernosus
(d) The vaginal mucosa and the skin

97. Which of the following muscles provide a base for breast tissue?
(a) Vastus lateralis
(b) Trapezius
(c) Pectoralis
(d) Gluteal
98. The endometrium is composed of three layer of tissue in this order:
(a) Compact, spongy and basal
(b) Spongy, compact and basal
(c) Basal, compact and spongy
(d) Compact, basal and spongy

99. The granulosa cells of the graafian follicle secrete:

(a) Oestrogen
(b) Chorionic gonadotrophin
(c) Androgen
(d) Luteinizing hormone.

100. The blood supply of the uterus is mainly through the uterine arteries which are
branches of the:
(a) External iliac arteries
(b) Femoral arteries
(c) Internal iliac arteries
(d) Superior saphenous artery

101. Foetal blood originates from the:

(a) Trophoblast
(b) Syncytiotropholast
(c) Cytotrophoblast
(d) Inner cell mass .

102. The bones which forms the vault of the fetal skull are laid down in:
(a) Membrane
(b) Cartilage
(c) Fibrous tissue
(d) Rectangular tissue.

103. The double fold of dura mater lying between the two cerebral hemispheres is
called the:
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Falx cerebri
(c) Basal ganglia
(d) Tentorium cerebelli.

104. The placenta develops from:

(a) Chorion leave
(b) Chorionic membrane
(c) Chorionic frondosum
(d) Amniotic membrane.

105. which of the following foetal organs is responsible for formation of red blood
cells from the 3rd- 6th month of intra uterine life?
(a) Red bone
(b) Spleen
(c) Liver
(d) Heart.

106. Towards the end of pregnancy, iron stone are laid down in the:
(a) Spleen
(b) Liver
(c) Heart
(d) Red bone marrow.

107. The following are characteristics of a normal infant execpet:

(a) Average length of 50 – 54cm
(b) Apex beat of 100 beats/minute
(c) Head circumference of between 33 – 35cm
(d) Respiration rate 18 – 20 times/minute.

108. At birth a normal infant weighs between:

(a) 1.5kg – 2.3kg
(b) 2kg – 2.5kg
(c) 2.5kg – 3.5kg
(d) 3kg – 6kg
109. When a woman is married to more than one man, it is called?
(a) Polyandry
(b) Filiarate
(c) Incests
(d) Sorotate

110. Social stratification in the community is a distinction based on?

(a) Maturation criteria
(b) Superiority – inferiority criteria
(c) Psychological and biological criteria
(d) Majority criteria

111. The role of midwife in the community includes:

(a) Visiting village heads
(b) Motivating and encourage health behavior
(c) Encouraging parents to discipline their children
(d) Settling famiy quarrel.

112. Home delivery kit should contain all of the following except?
(a) Episiotomy scissors
(b) Disposable enema kit
(c) Tape measure
(d) Blood giving kit
113. One of the disadvantages of home delivery is?
(a) It is economical
(b) Free from hospital routine
(c) Encourages family participation
(d) Presents high risk of complication.

114. On posting to the rural area for community experience, the following are expected
of the student midwife except:
(a) Participation in home visits
(b) Conducting infant welfare clinic
(c) Paying visits to specialist hospitals
(d) Holding seminars

115. Oral rehydration solution is better used within:

(a) 12 hours
(b) 18 hours
(c) 36 hours
(d) 24 hours.

116. A 20-years-old woman has just been informed that her 5 days old baby who had
severe congenital abnormalities has died. When counselling her and her husband, the
most important action is?
(a) Tell them that they are young and can have another child
(b) Attempt to allay any feeling of guilt and inadequacy
(c) Advise them that post mortem is not necessary
(d) Prescribe tranquilizers for the mother.

117. Development is the result of :

(a) Good nutrition and heredity
(b)Maturation and phenotype
(c) Heredity and environment
(d)Learning and motivation.

118. In exclusive breast feeding, baby is put to the breast:

(a) 3 hours after delivery
(b) 1 hour after delivery
(c) Immediately after delivery
(d) As soon as baby passes meconium

119. The following are advantages of breast feeding except:

(a) Provides the baby with the best form of nutrition
(b)It preserves the health of the breast
(c) It provides security for the baby
(d)Prevents against infection.

120. The healthy infant normally sits with support by the …………… month of life:
(a) 3rd or 4th
(b)5th or 6th
(c) 7th or 8th
(d)9th or 10th

121. Triple vaccine provides immunization against:

(a) Diphtheria, tetanus and polio
(b) Polio, diphtheria and measles
(c) Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis
(d) Whooping cough, tetanus and measles

122. A child aged 4 -5 years may be expected to:

(a) Listen and responds to formal lessons
(b) Learn readily through play
(c) Form stable friendship
(d) Appreciate the significance of number.

123. The goal of discipline in children is:

(a) Obedience to outsiders
(b) Self-control
(c) Permitting the child to have freedom
(d) Preventing antisocial behaviors

124. The nutritional status of school children can be assessed by the:

(a) Intellectual ability of the child
(b) Healthy visitors on routine check
(c) Child looking withdrawn
(d) Clinical surge.

125. A child who breaks a toy when asked to return the toy to the owner is described
as:
(a) Frustrated
(b) Regressive
(c) Anxious
(d) Aggressive.

126. Behavioral problems of the child are mostly related to:

(a) Hereditary defect
(b) Anxiety
(c) Disturbance of parenting
(d) Over protection.

127. A measure that can be taken to encourage initiative in pre-school children will
involve:
(a) Playing often with them
(b) Encouraging question
(c) Dismantling toys
(d) Providing adequate nutrition

128. Curiosity and destructiveness are development attributes of:

(a) School age children
(b) Nenonates
(c) Toddlers
(d) Pre-school children.

129. Adolescence period is characterized by the development of secondary sex

characterized which include the following except
(a) Pubic hair growth
(b) Deepening of the voice
(c) Enlargement of breasts in girls
(d) Descent of testes into scrotum.

130. The period in life which drug abuse is most common is:
(a) Childhood
(b) Adolescence
(c) Adulthood
(d) Old age.

131. Neonatal mortality is defined as:

(a) Death occurring in the first month of life
(b) Death occurring in the first week
(c) Death occurring in the first year of life
(d) Death occurring in the first 24 hours.

132. Infant mortality refers to babies who die:

(a) As unexpected ‘cot death’
(b) As a result of infection
(c) In the first month of life
(d) In the first year of life

133. The purpose of research in midwifery is to:

(a) Increase understanding of clients
(b) Help improve understanding between midwives and their clients
(c) Improve quality of client care
(d) Enrich the midwifery curriculum.

134. The most appropriate research design to determine cause and effect relationship
is:
(a) Empirical
(b) Explorative
(c) Experimental
(d) Descriptive
135. The main attribute differentiating research from problem solving is ?
(a) Data gathering
(b) Control of variable
(c) Problem identification
(d) Problem solution.

136. In research, the group of interest is referred to as:

(a) Sample population
(b) Target sample
(c) Study group
(d) Population.

137. Probability sample are those that:

(a) Have the possibility of bias
(b) Eliminate all errors
(c) Reduce chances of individualism
(d) Eliminate the possibility of bias.

138. In statistics, mean is symbolized as:

(a) S
(b) S2
(c) X
(d) X

139. Standard deviation is symbolized as:

(a) S
(b) S2
(c) r
(d) √ s

140. When a researcher collects information by himself from a population, it is called

……………………. Source of data collection.
(a) Secondary source
(b) Primary source
(c) Sampling method
(d) Sampling technique
141. The first stage in illness adaptation is:
(a) Acceptance of the illness
(b) Denial of the illness
(c) Seeking help
(d) Destroying the illness.

142. One of the following leadership styles leads to greater involvement of persons and
maximum output:
(a) Autocracy
(b) Laisser faire
(c) Democracy
(d) Bureaucracy

143. The law guiding the practice of midwifery is:

(a) The Nigerian constitution
(b) Decree 89 of 1979
(c) Midwives rules and regulations
(d) Nigerian law and midwives decree.

144. During pregnancy the ………………. Hormone relaxes and dilates the walls of
the uterus.
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) Relaxin
(d) Oxytocin

145. The uterine tube consists of the interstitial portion, isthmus, ampulla and the
…………………
(a) Mesosalpinx
(b) Cornua
(c) Fimbriae
(d) Infundibulum

146. The lymphatic drainage of the ovaries is

(a) Lumbar glands
(b) Sacral glands.
(c) Ilac glands
(d) Inguinal glands.

147. The following are stages of urine formation except:

(a) Reabsorption.
(b) Concentration
(c) Filtration
(d) Secretion.

148. The base of the bladder is …………….shaped.

(a) Pyramidal
(b) Oval.
(c) Triangular
(d) Globular.

149. The length of the ureter measures:

(a) 10 – 15cm.
(b) 15 – 20cm
(c) 20 – 24cm
(d) 25 – 30cm

150. The fertilized ovum reaches the uterus in ………………….. days.

(a) 2 – 3
(b) 3 – 4
(c) 4 – 5
(d) 6 – 7

151. The dark pigmented colouration around the nipple is called the
(a) Muscular tissue
(b) Areolar tissue
(c) Glandular tissue
(d) Fibrous tissue.

152. The percentage of protein in the colostrum is

(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 21%
(d) 8%

153. Matured spermatozoa are stored in the:

(a) Lactiferous duct
(b) Scrotum
(c) Epididymis
(d) Lactic cells
154. Embryonic plate means :
(a) Site adjacent to endoderm
(b) Site for fetal development
(c) Site for feto-placental development
(d) Location for fetal formation.

155. Insertion of the cord at the edge of the placenta is called:

(a) Placenta tripartite
(b) Placenta circumvallate
(c) Placenta velamentous
(d) Abnormal placenta.

156. The colour of lochia alba is?

(a) Whitish
(b) Pinkish
(c) Reddish
(d) Bluish.

157. Mento-vertical diameter measures……………………cm.

(a) 12
(b) 13.5
(c) 13
(d) 11.5

158. Glabella means

(a) Sinciput
(b) Bridge of the nose
(c) Mentum
(d) Bregma

159. The following is the definition of partograph EXCEPT

(a) A tool for effective monitoring and management of labour
(b) It is a chart in which client features of labour are written in a graphical form.
(c) It provides opportunity for early identification of any deviation from normal
(d) It shows the contractions and relaxations during second stage of labour.

160. Assessment phase of nursing process is

(a) Data collection, organization of data, data validation and documentation of data.
(b) Data collection, data analysis, validation of data and documentation of data.
(c) Collection of data, pritorization of data and validation of data.
(d) Collection of data related outcome

161. Recipients of health care is the citizens’ right called

(a) Nurses right
(b) Legal right
(c) Patient bills of right
(d) Health personal bill of right

162. The recommended intra venous fluid to manage bleeding patient is

(a) Ringers lactate
(b) Dextrose saline
(c) Normal saline
(d) 5% dextrose in water

163. During pregnancy the weight of the uterus increases from 60 gram to
…………………. Gram.
(a) 800
(b) 1000
(c) 600
(d) 400

164. The PH of the vagina in pregnancy is :

(a) 4.2 – 4.5
(b) 4.5 – 5.0
(c) 0.5 – 0.1
(d) 4.3 – 4.5
165. A midwife should not allow labour exceed ………………… hours from the
active phase:
(a) 10 – 12
(b) 12
(c) 16 – 18
(d) 10 – 14

166. Colostrum can be expressed from the breast as from ………………… weeks of
pregnancy.
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 32

167. A full term baby is delivered at ……………….. weeks of gestation.

(a) 36 – 38
(b) 40 – 43
(c) 38 – 42
(d) 34 – 38

168. The following are signs of fetal distress during labour except
(a) Fetal tachycardia
(b) Fetal bradycardia.
(c) Meconium stained liquor
(d) Blood stained liquor

169. The nature of urine contraction in spurious labour are:

(a) Irregular and erractic
(b) Regular and full
(c) Regular with cervical dilatation
(d) Sub-regular and strong

170. The most important factor in reducing maternal morbidity and mortality is:
(a) Improved housing and recreation
(b) Improved obstetric care
(c) Improved national health services
(d) Improved school health services

171. The part of the fetus which lies at the pelvic brim or in the lower pole of the
uterus is known as
(a) Presentation
(b) Attitude
(c) Position
(d) Denomination
172. The relationship between the denominator of the presentation and the six points
on the pelvic brim is called
(a) Flexion.
(b) Attitude
(c) Position
(d) Lie

173. The relationship between the long axis of the fetus and the long axis of the uterus
is known as
(a) Flexion.
(b) Attitude
(c) Position
(d) Lie

174. Prickling tingling sensation due to increased blood supply to the nipple occurs at
……………………. Weeks of pregnancy.
(a) 3 – 4
(b) 6 – 8
(c) 8 – 12
(d) 16

175. The following are causes of non-engagement of the fetal head at term EXCEPT
(a) Occipito posterior position
(b) Multiple pregnancy
(c) Full bladder
(d) Multiparity

176. Bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks of gestation is referred as
(a) Threatened abortion
(b) Accidental bleeding
(c) Antepartum haemorrhage
(d) Incidental haemorrhage

177. A pregnant woman whose fundal height is at the level of the umbilicus, is said to
be …………….. Weeks pregnant.
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 28
178. Milestones is used for the assessment of
(a) Weight and height
(b) Motor and psychological development
(c) Weight and age
(d) Height and motor development
179. The following are factor affecting the choice of client’s food except
(a) Religion
(b) Relationship
(c) Taboo
(d) Political instability

180. The baby’s cord should fall off within ……………….. days.
(a) 3 – 5
(b) 5 – 6
(c) 7 – 10
(d) 4 – 7

181. Which one of the following is a delivery instrument?

(a) Methylated spirit
(b) Kocker’s forceps
(c) Iodine
(d) Sterile towels

182. The leading cause of death among Nigeria is :

(a) Poverty
(b) Poor waste disposal
(c) Malnutrition
(d) Bad roads

183. Vasectomy is the occlusion of the ………………………

(a) Glans penis
(b) Vas deferens
(c) Seminal vesicle
(d) Spermatic cord

184. Whichof the following conditions necessitate re-filling of the diaphragm

(a) Before a major pelvic surgery
(b) Pelvic pain
(c) Allergic to rubber
(d) Vaginitis.

185. The length of the female urethra is

(a) 5 cm
(b) 4.5cm
(c) 4cm
(d) 3.5cm

186. The most common complaint by women using implant

(a) Heavy bleeding
(b) Scanty bleeding
(c) Irregular bleeding
(d) Moderate mensuration

187. Coitus interrupts means

(a) Safe period
(b) Hormonal method
(c) Fertility test
(d) Withdrawal of penis during intercourse before ejaculation.

188. The female condom is also known as

(a) Durex
(b) Femidom
(c) Cervical cap
(d) Sheath

189. The following are barriers methods of contraception EXCEPT.

(a) Condom
(b) Intra uterine contraceptive device
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Cervical cap

190. The following are investigations done during male infertility test EXCEPT
(a) Semen analysis
(b) Chromosome studies
(c) Basal body temperature check
(d) Biopsy of the testis

191. Injectable hormonal method of child spacing called sayana is usually

administered:
(a) Orally and intramuscularly
(b) Subcutaneously
(c) Intravenously
(d) Intradermally

192. In male, the seminiferous tubules produce:

(a) Spermatozoa
(b) Testosterone
(c) Semen
(d) Seminal fluid.

193. Pathological jaundice in newborn usually appears within ……………….. hours of

birth
(a) 12
(b) 24
(c) 48
(d) 6
194. The most important factor in moulding is:
(a) The overriding of the skull bone
(b) The overriding of the skull bone bone fontanelle
(c) The overriding of the skull bone at the suture.
(d) Cephal haematoma

195. An infant differentiate between family members and visitors by the age of
…………………….. weeks.
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 30

196. In order to prevent hypoglycaemia in a baby of a diabetic mother, the baby should
be fed within ………………… hours after birth.
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10

197. The best period to intiate exclusive breast feeding is

rd
(a) 3 stage of labour
(b) 2nd stage of labour
(c) 2nd day of post partum
(d) 3rd day of post partum

198. Oedipus complex is seen in

(a) Infancy
(b) Early childhood
(c) Pre-school
(d) Childhood

199. The head of the baby at birth comprises …………………. Of the body mass
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 30%

200. The first dose of measles vaccine is given at

(a) Birth
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 6 months
(d) 9 months

201. It is expected that a normal infant should sustain regular respiration within
……………………….. Seconds after delivery.
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 90

202. Drew smith catheter is used to

(a) Pass urinary catheter
(b) Drain hind catheter
(c) Aspirate baby’s air way
(d) Aspirate mucous

203. The psychologist who first measured children’s intelligence is :

(a) Sigmund freud
(b) Binet
(c) Gestalt
(d) Piaget

204. The play that involves lending and borrowing of play materials in children is
known as the
(a) Associative play
(b) Parallel play.
(c) Solitary play
(d) Cooperation play

205. Anterior fontanelle closes normally at about …………………….. mouth

(a) 6
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 30

206. The white sticky substance present on the baby’s skin at birth is called the?
(a) Aminiotic fluid
(b) Vernix caseosa
(c) Wharton’s jelly
(d) Lanugo

207. The umbilical cord stump normally separates by the process of

(a) Fibrosis
(b) Dry gangrene
(c) Nidation
(d) Autolysis

208. Weaning should start from

(a) Birth
(b) 6 months after birth
(c) 9 months after birth
(d) 15 months of birth

209. The following infants are highly susceptible to infection EXCEPT?

(a) Babies born after early rupture of membrane
(b) The pretern babies
(c) Post term babies
(d) Babies delivered before early rupture of membrane

210. False pelvis is that part of the pelvis situated

(a) Above the pelvic brim
(b) In between the pelvic brim
(c) Below the pelvic outlet
(d) Below the pelvic brim

211. The most appropriate teaching aids use for health education to a group of
pregnant women is
(a) Flip charts
(b) Familiar and locally available items
(c) Materials from the health education unit
(d) An overhead projector

212. The four pillars of safe motherhood in Nigeria are

(a) Family planning, ante-natal car e, clean safe delivery and essential obstetrics
(b) Family planning , waste management , safe delivery and essential obstetrics
(c) Essential obstetrics, life skills, child health and family planning
(d) Family planning, ante-natal care, immunization and infant growth.

213. The goal of safe motherhood is

(a) To reduce maternal and neonatal mortality
(b) To reduce maternal and neonatal morbidity and mortality
(c) Family planning, ante-natal care immunization and infant growth
(d) Growth monitoring

214. The following are indications for vaginal examinations EXCEPT

(a) To monitor progress of labour
(b) To confirm position of presenting part
(c) To monitor efficiency of uterine contractions
(d) To assess capcut, moulding and bag of fore water

215. The following are obstetrics emergencies EXCEPT

(a) Fetal distress
(b) Actue abdominal pain
(c) Draining of liquor
(d) Vaginal examination

216. The major cause of maternal mortality is

(a) Obstructed labour
(b) Septiceamia
(c) Haemorrage
(d) Abortion

217. A woman undergoing trials of labour must be monitored closely, labour must not
exceed ……………………. Hours
(a) 24
(b) 16 – 18
(c) 12 – 14
(d) 10 – 12

218. During menstrual cycle, the secretary phase comes :

(a) After ovulation
(b) Before proliferation phase
(c) In between menstrual flow
(d) After proliferation phase

219. The vaginal secretion is made acidic by the action of

(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Staphylococcal bacilli
(c) Doderlin’s bacilli
(d) Streptococcal bacilli

220. The most important clinical examination for a primigravida at 36 weeks is?
(a) Haemoglobin check
(b) Vaginal examination
(c) Abdominal examination
(d) Pelvic assessment

221. During home delivery the best way to rehydrate a woman in normal labour is by
(a) Intravenous infusion of normal saline
(b) Oral sips of water
(c) Oral glucose drinks at regular intervals
(d) Water and food

222. Which of the following is the name for the arrangement of the cervical tissues?
(a) Rugae
(b) Arbor vitae
(c) Connective tissues
(d) Multip Os

223. Another name for vaginal orifice is

(a) Introitus
(b) Hymen
(c) Carunculae
(d) Frenulum

224. Which of the following refers to folds of labia minora attached to the
undersurface of the clitoris ?
(a) Vestibule
(b) Frenulum
(c) Prepuce
(d) Labia majus

225. The point where the forntal, sagittal and coronal structures meet is referred to as:
(a) Lamda
(b) Bregma
(c) Posterior frontanelle
(d) Occiput

226. The clitoris measure………………………… long anteriorly

(a) 1.5cm
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 3.5cm
(d) 4.5cm

227. To exclude pregnancy induced hypertension in women during the antenatal care,
the following are necessary EXECPT
(a) Weighing
(b) Haemoglobin estimation
(c) Blood pressure estimation
(d) Urinalysis

228. Which of the following is the engaging diameter in a well flexed head?
(a) Occipito frontal diameter
(b) Sub occipito bregmatic diameter
(c) Sub mento bregmatic diameter
(d) Sub occipito frontal diameter

229. Which of the following is the composition of the amniotic fluid?

(a) 95% water and 5% dissolved solid matter including food substance and waste
(b) 98% water and 2% dissolved solid matter including food substances and waste
(c) 90% water and 10% dissolved solid matter including food and waste
(d) 99% water and 1% dissolved solid matter including food substances and waste

230. The renal threshold for glucose in a pregnant woman is :

(a) 8.5 mmol/L
(b) 10 mmol/L
(c) 8.3 mmol/L
(d) 8 mmol/L
231. The regenerative stage which consists of the regrowth and thickening of the
endometrium occurs under the influence of …………………………..
(a) Progesterone
(b) Prolactin
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone
(d) Oestrogen

232. The kidneys plays part in the following EXCEPT

(a) Red cell production
(b) Maintenance of blood pressure
(c) Oxygen production
(d) Excretion of wastes

233. The midwives service scheme in Nigeria was launched in the year
(a) 2000
(b) 2005
(c) 2008
(d) 2009

234. The ethical principle that states that clients must be fairly is known as
(a) Principle fairness
(b) Principal of equity
(c) Principle of justice
(d) Principle of no mal – eficence

235. Which of the following best describes the general examination of a woman when
it involves has physical, social and psychological well being?
(a) Total
(b) Totalistic
(c) Complete
(d) Holistic

236. The following is the role of midwife EXCEPT?

(a) Researcher
(b) Educator
(c) Carer of the childbearing family
(d) Social worker

237. Principle of fidelity means

(a) Being truthful
(b) Always doing good
(c) Promise keeping
(d) Doing no harm

Mrs. Ode has caesarean section two days ago and is having pains. She was asked to
commence ambulation as well as graded oral fluid. Her baby is crying for food.
Question 146 – 148 refers to the above scenario.

238. What will be your first action?

(a) Feed the baby
(b) Relieve pain
(c) Ambulate her
(d) Give graded oral fluid

239. Which theory did you base on your decision on

(a) Orem’s model
(b) Maslow’s hierrhachy of needs
(c) Interpersonal model
(d) Activities of daily living model

240. The first need to be met using maslow hierrhacy of needs is known as?
(a) Love and belonging
(b) Physiological need
(c) Security need
(d) Shelter and clothing

241. The clinical judgment about individual, family or community responses to actual
or potential health problems within the domain of nursing is known as:
(a) Nursing process
(b) Nursing diagnosis
(c) Nursing assessment
(d) Nursing decision

242. The functional health patterns used in assessing clients for care was propounded
by
(a) Gordon
(b) NANDA
(c) Viginia Henderson
(d) Florence nightingale

243. The following findings from prenatal assessment may require additional antenatal
care EXCEPT
(a) Grand multiparity
(b) Baby small or large for gestational age
(c) Age less than 20 years or over 35 years
(d) Multiple pregnancy

244. Which of the following hormone form the basis for pregnancy test?
(a) Follicle stimulating hormone
(b) Oestrogen and progesterone
(c) Human chorionic gonadotrophin
(d) Human placenta lactogen
245. The following are signs of active labour EXCEPT
(a) Contraction occurring 3 in 10 minutes lasting 50 seconds
(b) Contraction occurring 2 in 10 minutes lasting 40 seconds
(c) Contraction occurring 1 in 10 minutes lasting 40 seconds
(d) Contraction occurring 1 in 10 minutes lasting 55 seconds

246. During management of a woman in labour, the following basic principles should
be applied EXCEPT.
(a) Strict antisepsis
(b) Oberservation of progress of labour
(c) Emotional and physical comfort of the mother
(d) Recognition of abnormal developments

247. During postnatal visit you will advice the woman the following EXCEPT
(a) Exclusive breast feeding
(b) Importance of adequate diet
(c) Sexual activities
(d) Use of drugs

248. The umbilical cord heal by

(a) Dry gangrene
(b) Wet gangrene
(c) Ischaemia
(d) Anaemia

249. The most reliable temperature in the new born is taken at the?
(a) Axilla
(b) Mouth
(c) Armpit
(d) Rectum

250. The best index for measuring nutrition and growth is?
(a) Weight
(b) Arm circumference
(c) Height
(d) Head circumference
251.
PAPER I MARKING SCHEME OBJ
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. C
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. B
24. D
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. C
29. D
30. D
31. D
32. C
33. D
34. C
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. D
39. A
40. B
41. C
42. C
43. D
44. B
45. D
46. C
47. B
48. A
49. B
50. A
51. C
52. A
53. B
54. C
55. D
56. C
57. D
58. A
59. C
60. B
61. A
62. B
63. D
64. A
65. C
66. C
67. B
68. A
69. C
70. B
71. E
72. C
73. A
74. B
75. A
76. A
77. A
78. B
79. C
80. C
81. D
82. B
83. B
84. B
85. C
86. C
87. B
88. C
89. B
90. D
91. A
92. D
93.A
94. B
95. D
96. A
97. C
98. C
99. A
100. C
101. D
102. A
103. B
104. C
105. C
106. B
107. D
108. C
109. A
110. B
111. B
112. D
113. D
114. C
115. D
116. B
117. C
118. C
119. B
120. B
121. C
122. B
123. D
124. D
125. D
126. C
127. C
128. C
129. D
130. B
131. A
132. D
133. C
134. C
135. B
136. B
137. A
138. C
139. A
140. B
141. B
142. C
143. B
144. C
145. D
146. A
147. B
148. C
149. A
150. B
151. B
152. B
153. C
154. B
155. C
156. A
157. B
158. B
159. D
160. A
161. C
162. B
163. B
164. A
165. D
166. D
167. C
168. D
169. A
170. B
171. A
172. C
173. D
174. A
175. D
176. A
177. A
178. B
179. D
180. C
181. B
182. A
183. B
184. B
185. C
186. C
187. D
188. B
189. B
190. C
191. D
192. A
193. B
194. B
195. A
196. A
197. A
198. C
199. C
200. D
201. B
202. B
203. B
204. A
205. B
206. B
207. B
208. B
209. C
210. A
211. B
212. A
213. B
214. C
215. D
216. C
217. C
218. A
219. C
220. D
221. C
222. B
223. A
224. B
225. B
226. B
227. B
228. B
229. D
230. C
231. D
232. C
233. D
234. C
235. D
236. D
237. D
238. B
239. B
240. B
241. B
242. A
243. A
244. C
245. C
246. A
247. D
248. A
249. D
250. B