1. It is presumed from the mere doing of a wrong act. This does not require proof.

The burden is upon the wrong doer to prove that he acted without such criminal
intent.
A. intent B. discernment C. motive D. knowledge
2. It is the collection and analysis of facts about persons, things and places,
subject of a crime to identify the guilty party, locate the whereabouts of the
guilty party, and provide admissible evidence to establish the guilt of parties
involved in a crime.
[Link] Investigation B. Criminal Interrogation [Link] [Link]
3. It is the five functions of criminal investigation.
A. collection, recognition, preservation, evolution and presentation.
B. recognition, collection,preservation,evaluation and presentation
C. recognition, presentation,collection,preservation and evaluation
D. recognition, collection,presentation, preservation and evaluation
4. An act defining certain rights of person arrested, detained and/or under
custodial investigation as well as the duties of the arresting, detaining, and
investigating officers and providing penalties for violation thereof.
A. R.A 7483 B. R.A 7438. C. R.A 7834 D. R.A 7384
5. It refers to the person who performs an investigation and considered as the
superstar in the process of investigation.
A. Criminal Investigator B. Criminal Interrogator C. Interviewer D.
Examiner
6. It is a statement or observation that can be verified by other verifiable points of
information.
A. opinion B. knowledge C. facts D. reason
7. It is the knowledge or data which an investigator acquired from other persons
and records.
A. data B. knowledge C. information D. opinion
8. This is the questioning of a person believed to possess knowledge that is in
official interest to the investigator.
A. interview B. interrogation C. examination D. probing
9. Is a self-incriminatory statement of a person directly acknowledging the truth of
his guilt.
A. Admission B. Confession C. Self-incrimination D.
Acknowledgement
10. It is the application of instruments and methods of physical science to the
detection of crimes. In cases where there is no significant physical evidence to
be found, then the use of instrumentation is relatively unimportant.
A. Instrumentation B. Forensic science [Link] D. Expert
11. Performs an investigation. Criminal is also known as investigator
A. Reporter B. Leader C. Prober D. Inquisitor
12. This is demonstrated using a particular means to bring about a desired
result.
A. Motive B. Discernment C. Intent D. Intelligence
13. Refers to the collection and analysis of facts about persons, things and
places, subject of a crime to identify the guilty party, locate the whereabouts of
 the guilty party, and provide admissible evidence to establish the guilt of parties
involved in a crime
A. Investigation B. Inquiry C. Criminal investigation D. Prober
14. This refers to the law which provides for the certain rights of person
arrested, detained and/or under custodial investigation as well as the duties of
the arresting, detaining, and investigating officers.
A. Republic Act 9775 B. Republic Act 9745 C. Republic Act 8792 D.
Republic Act 7438
15. Refers to a questioning by law enforcement officers after a person has
been taken into custodyers afterwise deprived of his freedom of action in any
significant way.
A. Criminal investigation B. Criminal interrogation C. Custodial
Investigation D. Criminal interview
16. Refusing to give up when faced with an adverse situation until all
available facts of an investigation are known and collected. This trait or
characteristic of a good investigator is referred to as:
A. Superior reasoning ability B. Intuition C. Legal knowledge D.
Persistence
17. The who, what, where, when, why and how in Criminal Investigation is
often called the:
A. Golden rule in investigation
B. Cardinal rule in investigation
C. Cardinal questions in investigation
D. Locard’s principle
18. The primary reason why the prober goes to court is to:
A. Comply with subpoena
B. File a complaint
C. Follow court order
D. Testify in court on matters he investigated
19. This stage or phase of investigation involves the first exposure of the
criminal offense to the investigative process. It involves the performance of
duties and responsibilities of the first responder, Investigator on case and SOCO.
A. Preliminary or initial
B. Follow-up or in-depth
C. Final or concluding
D. Custodial Investigation
20. Refers to the questioning of a person believed to Possess knowledge that
is in official interest to the investigator.
A. Probing B. Inquest C. Interview D. Interrogation
21. The interview of a witness can be described using the acronym 'IRONIC,'
which stands for:
A. Identity, Report, Opening Narration, Inquiry, and conclusion. Statement,
B. Identity, Rapport, Opening Statement, Narration, Interrogation, and
conclusion.
C. Identity, Rapport, Opening Statement, Narration, Inquiry, and concieve.
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening Statement, Narration, Inquiry, and conclusion.
22. The skillful questioning of a person suspected of having committed an
offense or a person who is reluctant to make full disclosure of information in his
possession which is pertinent to the investigation.
A. Probing B. Inquest C. Interview D. Interrogation
23. This refers to a witness's sworn out-of-court testimony. It is used to gather
information as part of the discovery process and, in limited circumstances, may
be used at trial.
A. Confession B. Admission C. Sworn Statement D. Deposition
24. Mr. Chalipog admitted that he was the one who committed the crime
during interrogation. This is called
A. Confession B. Admission C. Sworn Statement D. Deposition
25. It involves giving a detailed description of the personality and behavioral
traits of the criminal.
A. Criminal Interrogation B. Criminal Profiling C. Criminal Interview D.
Probing
26. 16. An act penalizing torture and other cruel, inhuman and degrading
treatment or punishment.
A. Republic Act 9775
B. Republic Act 9745
C. Republic Act 8792
D. Republic Act 7438
27. In crime reconstruction, this forms a general conclusion prior to having a
complete explanation based on facts.
A. Inductive reasoning B. Deductive reasoning C. Faulty reasoning D.
Alibi
28. The science that deals with the examination of a corpse to determine the
cause of death is called:
A. Forensic Pathology B. Forensic Odontology

[Link] Anthropology D. Forensic Psychology

29. 19. Which of the following field of forensic science is used possibly to
identify a charred dead body?
A. Forensic Pathology B. Forensic Odontology

C . Forensic Anthropology D. Forensic Psychology

30. 20. Which of the following rights of person arrested detained and under
custodial investigation and interrogation cannot be waived?
A. Right to remain silent
B. Right to a counsel
C. Right to correspondence
D. Right to be informed of his rights
31. Refers to a written document issued by a court. Ordering any peace officer
to bring the person before the court so that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
A. Arrest B. Search warrant C. Warrant of arrest D. Warrant
32. A person can be arrested when, in the law enforcer’s presence, the person
to be arrested has committed, is actually committing, or is attempting to
commit an offense. This arrest is called:
A. Inflagranted Delicto B. In flagrante Delicto D. Warrantless Search D.
Arrest in personal
33. This refers to an examination of an individual or effects, or other building
personremises to discover contraband or some house, papers or e evidence of
guilt to be used in the prosecution of a criminal action.
A. Arrest B. Search warrant C. Search. D. Warrant of arrest
34. The validity of search warrant is:
A. For 10 days B. Unless person is arrested C. For a lifetime. D. For 15
days
35. Generally, the warrant should be served during:
A. Nighttime B. Any time of the night C. Any time of the day and night
D. Daytime
36. It refers to the taking of a person into custody so he can answer for the
commission of an offense.
A. A. Search B. Seizure C. Arresting D. Arrest

37. Can you arrest a person without a warrant of arrest issued by the court?
A. I do not know, I am not a lawyer.
B. Maybe, if allowed by the judge.
C. Yes, if the court allows it.
D. No, since there must be a warrant issued first.
38. Senator Patrick Kawi committed a crime which, under the law, has a
penalty ranging from 6 years and 1 to 12 years of imprisonment. Under the
rules, can the law enforcement officers arrest the senator?
A. No, since the members of the legislative body are immune from arrest.
B. Maybe, if the court allows it.
C. Yes, since the penalty is more than 6 years.
D. I do not have any idea.
39. It refers to a written document issued by a court, ordering any peace
officer to bring the person before the court so that he may be bound to answer
for the commission of an offense.
A. A. Arrest B. Search Warrant C. Warrant of Arrest D. Warrant
40. It shall be the duty of the officer executing the Warrant without
unnecessary delay to arrest and To:
A. Deliver him to the prosecutor’s office for preliminary investigation.
B. Deliver him to the prosecutor’s office for inquest proceeding.
C. Deliver him to the nearest police station or jail for booking procedures
D. Deliver him to the nearest Mayor’s office.
41. The following are things to be done in Effecting 6 arrest, EXCEPT:
A. Identifies himself in a clear and audible voice
B. Show identification
C. Inform the subject that he is under arrest and the reason for the arrest
D. Inform the rights of the person later at the police station
42. Warrant of arrest is valid:
A. For 10 days
B. Unless person is arrested
C. For a lifetime
D. For 15 days
43. A person can be arrested when, in the law enforcer’s presence, the person
to be arrested has committed, is actually committing, or is attempting to
commit an offense. This arrest is called:
A. Inflagranted Delicto B. Arrest in personal C. In flagrante Delicto D.
Warrantless Search
44. In effecting arrest, the operatives must consider the element of:
A. Arrest B. Surprise C. Crime D. Daybreak
45. In implementing the warrant of arrest, the arresting officers shall use
I. At least one Body Worn Camera and one Alternative Recording Device
II. At least two ARDs for justifiable reasons
III. Any device
IV. A Digital SLR Camera and Video Camera
A. I only B. I and II C . I and IV D. I and III

46. The BWC/ARD shall be used and activated to capture executivecord the
relevant incidents during the of the warrant.
A. Upon arrest
B. Upon leaving the police station
C. Upon arrival at the place Of arrest
D. Upon arrival at the police station
47. The BWC/ARD shall be worn in a conspicuous location and in a manner
that maximizes the ability to capture a recording of the arrest. It shall only be
deactivated
A. Upon conclusion of the arrest
B. Upon arrival at the place of arrest
C. Upon arrival at the police station
D. Upon conclusion of the arrest and delivery of the person arrested to the
nearest police station or jail
48. When are the rights of a person under custodial investigation terminated?
A. Upon completion of the custodial investigation
B. When the person made a confession
C. After arrest
D. As soon as charges are filed against him
49. When the person was arrested by virtue of warrantless arrest on crimes
classified as less grave offense, the police officer must subject the person for an
inquest procedure within
A. 12 hours B. 18 hours D. 24 hours D. 36 hours
50. This refers to an examination of an individual’s person, house, papers or
effects, or other buildings, and premises to discover contraband or some
evidence of guilt to be used in the prosecution of a criminal action.
A. Arrest B. Search C. Search Warrant D. Warrant of Arrest
51. The validity of Search Warrant is:
A. For 10 days
B. Unless the person is arrested
C. For a lifetime
D. For 15 days
52. Generally, the warrant should be served during
A. Nighttime
B. Any time of the night.
C. Any time of the day and night.
D. Daytime.
53. A person lawfully arrested may be searched for dangerous weapons or
anything which may be used, or which may constitute proof in the commission
of an offense, without a search warrant. This type of warrantless search is
called:
A. Search made incidental to a valid arrest
B. Search of moving vehicles
C. Seizure of evidence in plain view
D. Searches under stop and frisk rule

54. A type of search which has the purpose of placing the subject in an “off-
balance” position requiring the use of both arms and legs to keep him from
falling to the ground. This is considered as the safest type of search.
A. Wall Search
B. Standing Search
C. Kneeling Search
D. Prone Search
55. It refers to a surprise invasion of a building of area. It is small-scale attack
of a limited territory.
A. Arrest B. Search C. Search Warrant D. Raid
56. It refers to the end product resulting from the collection, evaluation,
analysis, integration, and interpretation of all available information regarding
the activities of criminals and other law violators for the purpose of affecting
their arrest, obtaining evidence, and forestalling plan to commit crimes.
A. Strategic intelligence
B. Operational intelligence
C. Intelligence
D. Police intelligence
57. A type of intelligence covering the activity devoted in destroying the
effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and the protection of information
against espionage, subversion and sabotage.
A. Intelligence
B. Counter intelligence
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Line intelligence
58. This is a biographical data through fictitious which will portray the
personality of the agent which is to assume or this is any scenario to cover-up
the operation.
 A. Surveillance
B. Cover
C. Cover story
D. Cover support
59. This is an investigative technique in which agent conceal his official
identity and obtain information from the target organization.
A. Surveillance
B. Shadowing
C. Stakeout
D. Undercover operation
60. It refers to the discreet observation of a place, person and things to collect
information and evidence of a crime under investigation.
A. Investigation
B. Surveillance
C. Elicitation
D. Shadowing

61. A classification of intelligence which focuses on the long-term aims of law

enforcement agencies changes in the crime environment, threats chapublic
safety and order, opportunities for to pulling action and the development of
counter programs and likely avenues for change to policies, programs, and
legislation.
A. Strategic intelligence
B. Operational intelligence
C. Intelligence
D. Police Intelligence
62. Refers to the end product resulting from the collection, evaluation,
analysis, integration and interpretation of all available information regarding the
activities of criminals and other law violators for the purpose of affecting their
arrest, obtaining evidence, and forestalling plan to commit crimes.
A. Strategic intelligence B. Operational intelligence C. Intelligence D.
Police Intelligence
63. Refers to the intelligence required by the commander to provide for
planning and conduct of tactical operation. This refers to knowledge of the
people, weather, enemy, and terrain (PWET) used in planning and conducting
tactical and administrative operation in a counter insurgency
A. Intelligence B. Police Intelligence C. Strategic Intelligence D. Line
Intelligence
64. A type of intelligence covering the activity devoted in destroying the
effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and the protection of information
against espionage, subversion and sabotage.
A. Intelligence B. Counter Intelligence C. Strategic Intelligence D.
Line Intelligence
65. The following are the phases of intelligence cycle, EXCEPT:
i. Directing the collection efforts ii. Collection of information
 iii. Processing the collected information. [Link] and use. V.
Collection
A. I only B. I and III C. II D. V
66. In processing of collected information, this refers to the determination of
the pertinence of the information to the operation, reliability of the source of or
agency and the accuracy of the information.
A. Recording B. Evaluation C. Credibility D. Analysis
67. Police Officer Yangos collected an information and was evaluated as B-1.
The information is considered as:
A. Completely Reliable Sources Confirmed By Other
B. Usually Reliable- Probably True
C. Fairly Reliable- Probably True
D. Not Usually Reliable- Possibly True
68. This is the acquisition and analysis of information to identify, track, and
predict cyber capabilities, intentions, and activities to offer courses of action
that enhance decision making.
A. Intelligence B. National Security intelligence C. Cyber
intelligence D. Tactical intelligence
69. It is how an individual group or It is hos the true nature of its acts and of
existence from the observer. Organization
A. Surveillance B. Cover Store C. Cover D. Cover Support

70. This is a biographical data through fictitious Thich will portray the
personality of the agent which is to assume or this is any scenario to cover-up
the operation.
A. Surveillance B. Cover Story C. Cover D. Cover Support
71. Refers to an agent assigned in target areas with the primary mission of
supporting the cover story.
A. Surveillance B. Cover Story C. Cover D. Cover Support
72. A type of cover using biographical data adopted for the purpose.
A. Natural Cover B. Artificial Cover C. Cover within a Cover D.
Multiple Cover
73. This is an investigative technique in which agent conceal his official
identity and obtain information from the target organization.
A. Surveillance B. Shadowing C. Stakeout D. Undercover operation
74. refers to a person who gives information to the police voluntarily, without
any consideration.
A. Informer B. Confidential Informants C. Informant D. Agent
75. A system or plan whereby information of intelligence value is obtained
through the process of direct intercommunication in which one or more of the
parties to the communication is unaware of the specific purpose of the
conversation.
A. Eavesdropping B. Elicitation C. Surveillance D. Casing
76. This is a reconnaissance or surveillance of a building, place or area to
determine its suitability for intelligence use or its vulnerability in operations.
A. Eavesdropping B. Elicitation C. Surveillance D. Casing
77. Refers to the discreet observation of a place, person and things to collect
information and evidence of a crime under investigation.
A. Investigation B. Surveillance C. Elicitation D. Shadowing
78. The person conducting surveillance is called surveillant. While the subject
of surveillance is called:
A. Surveillance B. Plant C. Rabbit D. Undercover Man
79. Police Officer Yangos follows his subject wherever it goes and observes his
movement Thus, Police Officer Yangos is conducting:
A. Stakeout B. Undercover operation C. Shadowing D. Casing
80. This refers to an accomplice or associate of the subject of surveillance
A. Decoy B. Contact C. Convoy т D. Made
81. Police Officer Yangos follows the the subject in Policregular basis. Thus his
observation to the subject is frequent and varies on each occasion. Police Office
Yangos Surveillance? Is conducting what type
A. Shadowing B. Roping C. Stakeout [Link]
82. There are two ways of collecting information. One is thru human and the
other is thru
A. Surveillance B. Intelligence operation C. Technical D. Covert
83. Police Officer Sumiteg is constantly observing the movement and
activities of the their subject from a fix position. Police Officer Sumiteg is
conducting what type of Surveillance?
A. Shadowing B. Undercover Operation C. Elicitation D. Stakeout
84. It is a secret action undertaken by an intelligence /counterintelligence
organization in behalf of the government or other friendly forces.
A. Intelligence B. Clandestine Operation C. Strategic Intelligence D. Line
Intelligence
85. Refers to an agent who undertakes positive action against unfriendly
power/ forces resulting in t loss temporarily or permanently of an article,
material or facilities which are being used. In the
A. Action Agent B. Propagandist C. Saboteur D. Provocateur
86. These are information or materials in any form or of any nature the
safeguarding of whichem necessary in the interest of national security, and
which is classified for such purpose by the responsible classifying authority.
A. Document B. Classify C. Classified Matters D. Security Clearance
87. The grant of access to classified matter only to properly cleared persons
when such classified information is required in the performance of their official
duties and restricting it to specified physical confines when possible.
A. Compromise B. Compartmentalization C. Need to Know D.
Declassify
88. These are information and materials the unauthorized disclosure of which
would cause exceptionally grave damage to the nation, politically, economically
or militarily.
A. Top secret B. Secret C. Confidential D. Restricted
89. These are information or materials, the unauthorized disclosure of which
would endanger national security, cause serious injury to the interest or prestige
of the nation or of any governmental activity or would be of great advantage to
a foreign nation.
 A. Top secret B. Secret C. Confidential D. Restricted
90. These are information and unauthorized materials, the disclosure of which
would be prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or government
activity or would cause administrative embarrassment or unwarranted injury to
an individual or would be an advantage to a foreign nation.
A. Top secret B. Secret C. Confidential D. Restricted
91. Upon arrival at the crime scene, the first responder’s first priority is to:
A. Cordon the crime scene
B. Arrest the perpetrators
C. Preserve the evidence
D. Render medical assistance to injured person
92. In this crime scene search method, the crime scene is blocked out in the
form of a rectangle. The searchers proceed slowly at the same pace along,
paths parallel to one side of the rectangle.
A. Strip B. Grid C. Spiral D. Wheel
93. A type of physical evidence which refers to objects or substances which
are an essential part of the body of the crime
A. Physical evidence B. Corpus Delicti C. Associative evidence D.
Tracing evidence
94. A type of physical evidence which assists the investigator in locating the
suspect.
A. Physical evidence B. Corpus Delicti C. Associative evidence D.
Tracing evidence
95. This is the simplest and the most effective way of showing actual
measurements, and of identifying significant items of evidence in their location
at the crime scene.
A. Photography
B. Searching the scene
C. Crime scene sketch
D. Videography
96. The physical location where a suspect either commits an illegal act or
leaves physical evidence of such act. The location at which criminal offense has
occurred. A suspected
A. Crime scene
B. Indoor crime scene
C. Place
D. Secondary crime scene
97. In suspected or reported chemical, biological, nuclear (CBRN) situations,
who radiological or nu has the preference in entering the scene?
A. Explosive and Ordinance Division
B. SOCO
C. Special Rescue Team of the BFP
D. DOH
98. Upon arrival at the crime scene, the first responder first priority is to:
A. Cordon the crime scene
B. Arrest the perpetrators
C. Preserve the evidence
 D. Render medical assistance to injured person
99. If there are two or more witnesses at the crime scene, the first responders
or the Investigator must see to it that they are:
A. Away B. Secluded C. Separated D. Given food
100. When there are one or two officers to search The area due to lack of
personnel, which of the Following search method is appropriate to be
A. Strip B. Spiral C. Grid D. Wheel
101. In this crime scene search method, the crime scene is blocked out in the
form of a rectarigón The searchers proceed slowly at the same pace along,
paths parallel to one side of the rectangle.
A. Strip B. Grid C. Spiral D. Wheel
102. This type area inconsideredearch is appropriate then the area is
considered to be approximately circular.
A. Strip B. Grid C. Spiral D. Wheel
103. In this method of searching the crime scene, the crime scene is divided
into quadrants. One searcher is assigned to each subdivision of a quadrant, then
each quadrant is cut into another set of quadrants.
A. Strip B. Grid C. Spiral D. Zone
104. These are articles and materials which are found in the crime scene in
connection with the investigation, and which aid in establishing the identity of
the perpetrator, ог the circumstances under which the crime was committed or,
which, in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
A. Physical evidence B. Corpus Delicti C. Associative evidence
D. Tracing evidence
105. A type of physical evidence which refers to objects or substances which
are an essential part of the body of the crime
A. Physical evidence B. Corpus Delicti C. Associative evidence D.
Tracing evidence

106. A type of physical evidence which links the suspect to the crime or
offense.
A. Physical evidence B. Corpus Delicti C. Associative evidence D.
Tracing evidence
107. A type of physical evidence which assist the investigator in locating the
suspect.
A. Physical evidence B. Associative evidence C. Corpus Delicti D.
Tracing evidence
108. Referred to as the document that presents the chronological possession
of evidence from the moment it was collected at the crime scene until it is
presented in court?
A. Evidence monitoring log B. Chain of evidence C. Crime scene log D.
Chain of custody form
109. This is to facilitate proper identification of the pieces of evidence being
collected.
A. Searching of physical evidence B. Sketching of physical evidence C.

[Link] of physical evidence D. Labeling or tagging of physical

evidence
110. This is simplest and the most effective way of showing actual
measurements, and of identifying significant items of evidence in their location
at the crime scene.
A. Photography B. Searching the scene C. Crime scene sketch D.
Videography
111. This type of sketch is done by the Investigator at the crime scene. No
scale, proportion ignored, and everything is approximate.
A. Sketch B. Rough sketch C. Photography D. Finished sketch
112. This type of sketch is made primarily for court- room presentation.
A. Sketch B. Rough sketch C. Photography D. Finished sketch
113. The determination of the actions surrounding the commission of a crime.
Careful and competent examination of the physical evidence, the
documentation of the crime scene allows for this determination.
A. Crime reenactment B. Crime scene reconstruction

C. Criminal profiling D. Mental reconstruction

114. The application of psychological theory to the analysis and reconstruction

of the forensic evidence that relates to an offender’s crime scenes, victim’s
behavior. It tends to answer the question “why” or questions regarding the
offender’s motive and intent.
A. Crime motives
B. Crime scene reconstruction
C. Criminal profiling
D. Crime reconstruction
115. This refers to the duly recorded, authorized movements, and custody of
the evidence at each state, from the moment of collection or confiscation to the
receipt in the forensic laboratory for examination until it is presented to the
court.
A. Evidence monitoring log
B. Chain of custody of evidence
C. Crime scene log
D. Chain of custody form