A

24126 120 MINUTES

1. What distinguishes Major Depressive Disorder from Bipolar Disorders?
A) Presence of hallucinations and delusions
B) Recurrent episodes of both depression and mania
C) Persistent low mood without episodes of mania
D) Social deficits and discomfort with close relationships

2. The central concept in Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory related to motivation in

learning is:
A) Classical conditioning B) Self-efficacy
C) Operant conditioning D) Zone of Proximal Development

3. The type of reasoning which involves drawing general conclusions from specific
observations or evidence:
A) Deductive reasoning B) Syllogistic reasoning
C) Inductive reasoning D) Conditional reasoning

4. Which of the following is a key feature of the multimode theory of attention?

A) Attention is a single, undivided resource.
B) Attention operates independently in parallel.
C) Attention can be allocated to multiple tasks simultaneously.
D) Attention is entirely controlled by external stimuli.

5. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
a. Carl Jung 1. Unconditional positive regard
b. R.B. Cattell 2. Self actualization
c. Carl Rogers 3. Central and secondary traits
d. Abraham Maslow 4. Archetypes

A) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 B) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 D) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

6. Assertion (A): There are 5 stages of group formation according to Tuckman,

each with its own functions
Reason (R): The stage in group formation, which deals with reaching
consensus is Norming

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true
7. According to Lewin's Field Theory in the Cognitive Perspective, what is
considered as the key determinant of behavior?
A) Genetic predispositions B) Psychological field
C) Classical conditioning D) Unconscious conflicts

8. How do social factors influence health behaviors according to the Social

Cognitive Theory of health promotion?
A) Social factors have no impact on health behaviors.
B) Observational learning, social support, and social norms shape health
behaviors.
C) Social factors exclusively influence psychological aspects of health.
D) Health behaviors are solely determined by individual motivation.

9. What distinguishes biofeedback from other therapeutic interventions in clinical

settings?
A) It relies solely on medication.
B) It involves monitoring and controlling physiological processes
C) It exclusively focuses on talk therapy.
D) It avoids addressing physical symptoms.

10. The primary objective of a T-group (Training Group) in organizational

development is:
A) Enhancing technical skills of employees
B) Improving communication and interpersonal relations
C) Providing advanced leadership training
D) Conducting team-building exercises

11. Behavioral and Emotional Disorders with onset in childhood and adolescence may
include conditions such as:
A) Specific Learning Disorders
B) Intellectual Disabilities
C) Oppositional Defiant Disorder and Conduct Disorder
D) Autism Spectrum Disorders

12. Identify the correct order:

A) Incubation-Preparation-Illumination-Verification
B) Preparation-Incubation-Illumination-Verification
C) Preparation-Illumination-Incubation-Verification
D) Verification-Preparation-Incubation-Illumination

13. EPPS stands for?

A) Eysenk’s Personal Preference Schedule
B) Edward’s Personal Preference Schedule
C) Ego Personality Preference Schedule
D) Extroversion Personality Preference Schedule

2
14. The primary focus of the PASS (Planning, Attention, Simultaneous, Successive)
model of intelligence proposed by Das and his colleagues is:
A) The role of creativity in intelligence
B) The interaction of multiple intelligences
C) Understanding cognitive processes in intelligence
D) Identifying specific abilities in intelligence

15. Vigilance is best described as:

A) Focusing on multiple tasks simultaneously
B) Maintaining attention over prolonged periods for rare events
C) Rapidly switching attention between tasks
D) Selectively attending to one task only

16. The personality traits associated with Type A personalities, according to health
psychology:
A) Laid-back and relaxed tendencies.
B) Competitive, time-urgent, and prone to hostility.
C) Introverted and reflective characteristics.
D) Nonchalant and indifferent attitudes.

17. Assertion (A): Cognitive dissonance theory explain the discomfort people feel
when their attitudes and behaviors are inconsistent
Reason (R): Discrepancy resolution explains this.

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true

18. What is a primary goal of school counseling in the context of therapeutic

intervention?
A) Providing academic tutoring to struggling students.
B) Focusing exclusively on resolving disciplinary issues.
C) Supporting students' social-emotional well-being and mental health.
D) Ignoring the psychosocial aspects of students' lives.

19. Ethology, as a subfield of biology, focuses on the study of:

A) Genetic mutations
B) Innate behaviors and instincts in animals
C) Human consciousness
D) Societal influences on behavior

20. The brain structure which is heavily involved in the physiological basis of
memory, particularly in the formation of new long-term memories?
A) Cerebellum B) Hypothalamus
C) Hippocampus D) Medulla oblongata

3
21. According to the bounded rationality approach, what do decision-makers do when
faced with complex decisions?
A) They use algorithms to reach optimal solutions.
B) They rely on heuristics to simplify the decision process.
C) They collect all possible information before making a decision.
D) They seek advice from experts.

22. Drive Reduction Theory posits that motivation arises from:

A) The desire for novelty and new experiences
B) A discrepancy between a physiological need and a desired goal
C) The innate instincts inherited from ancestors
D) External rewards and punishments

23. What is the name given to the method of analyzing the inter relations between the
members of a social group?
A) Sociometry B) Socio mapping
C) Socio plot D) Epistemology

24. "Education is what survives when what has been learnt has been forgotten." Who
said this?
A) Ivan Pavlov B) BF Skinner
C) Sigmund Freud D) Albert Bandura

25. In the context of group therapies, how does the therapeutic factor of universality
contribute to the healing process?
A) By emphasizing the uniqueness of each individual's experiences.
B) By highlighting the commonality of struggles and challenges among group
members.
C) By discouraging group members from sharing personal experiences.
D) By promoting competition among group members.

26. The primary goal of response elimination and extinction procedures in behavior
therapy is:
A) Reinforcing undesirable behaviors.
B) Encouraging the persistence of maladaptive behaviors.
C) Eliminating or reducing unwanted behaviors by removing reinforcement.
D) Introducing aversive stimuli to reinforce behavior.

27. Amnestic Disorder involves significant impairment in:

A) Language and communication skills
B) Motor coordination and balance
C) Memory and learning ability
D) Emotional regulation

4
28. In contingency management, the central focus is:
A) Ignoring the consequences of behavior.
B) Manipulating internal thought processes.
C) Controlling environmental factors to influence behavior.
D) Promoting self-regulation.

29. The primary motivator of human behavior, according to Alfred Adler is:
A) Power and superiority
B) Collective unconscious
C) Inferiority and compensation
D) Oedipus complex

30. Organizational counseling for chronic absentees typically involves:

A) Implementing punitive measures to discourage absenteeism
B) Identifying root causes and providing support to address chronic
absenteeism
C) Terminating the employment of chronically absent employees
D) Ignoring the issue to avoid confrontation

31. Delirium is typically characterized by:

A) Chronic and persistent worry about a variety of topics
B) Sudden, severe confusion and changes in awareness
C) Excessive preoccupation with a perceived defect in physical appearance
D) Multiple physical complaints without clear medical explanation

32. According to situational influence, what effect describes the tendency for
individuals to be less likely to provide help in an emergency situation when others
are present?
A) Bystander effect B) Reciprocity norm
C) Social exchange theory D) Diffusion of responsibility

33. The Eastern tradition which emphasizes the path of self-discipline, meditation,
and physical postures to achieve spiritual and physical well-being:
A) Buddhism B) Yoga C) Sufism D) Taoism

34. Cultural diversity training in organizations aims to:

A) Promote a homogeneous workplace culture
B) Eliminate individual differences among employees
C) Foster understanding and respect for diverse backgrounds and perspectives
D) Encourage discrimination based on cultural differences

35. Gender Dysphoria involves:

A) Disruption in the experience of one's gender identity
B) Sexual attraction to individuals of the same sex
C) Aversion to sexual activity
D) Persistent fear of gaining weight and distorted body image

5
36. Match List I with List II:
List I List II
a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder 1. Excessive preoccupation with a perceived
defect in physical appearance
b. Dissociative Identity Disorder 2. Recollection of distressing experiences
c. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder 3. Multiple personalities or identities within
an individual
d. Body Dysmorphic Disorder 4. Recurrent, excessive worry about a variety
of topics

A) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3 B) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

C) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 D) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

37. Conflict escalation refers to the process by which:

A) Conflicts are intensified and worsen over time
B) Conflicts are resolved through compromise
C) Group polarization occurs
D) Social dilemmas are avoided

38. The phenomenon which refers to the persistence of one's initial beliefs, even in the
face of disconfirming evidence:
A) Confirmatory hypothesis testing
B) Perseverance of beliefs
C) The self-fulfilling prophecy
D) Stereotyping

39. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of Schizophrenia Spectrum

and other Psychotic Disorders?
A) Elevated mood and grandiosity
B) Intrusive, distressing thoughts or emotions
C) Excessive worrying and anxiety
D) Hallucinations and delusions

40. The term which describes the tendency for group members to suppress dissenting
viewpoints for the sake of group harmony or conformity:
A) Group polarization B) Groupthink
C) Social facilitation D) Social loafing

41. Victor Frankl's Logotherapy focuses on:

A) Unconscious conflicts B) Finding meaning in life
C) Basic anxiety D) Archetypal symbols

42. Which factor is crucial in resolving conflicts and achieving mutually beneficial
outcomes through communication and compromise?
A) Group polarization B) Negotiation
C) Social impact theory D) Social facilitation

6
43. According to Rollo May's Existential Perspective, the term for the fear of
experiencing one's own existence and making choices is:
A) Basic anxiety B) Existentialism
C) Neuroticism D) Existential dread

44. The term which refers to organized structures of knowledge about the self that
guide the processing of self-relevant information:
A) Self-discrepancies B) Self-schemas
C) Self-esteem D) Self-presentation

45. Assertion (A): Normality and abnormality exist in a continuum

Reason (R) : It is an either-or proposition.

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

46. Pragmatics is concerned with:

A) Speech sounds B) Word structure
C) Grammar D) Context

47. A qualitative research method that deals with interpretation, especially of

literary texts and scripts:
A) Ethnomethodology B) Hermeneutics
C) Protocol analysis D) Verstehen

48. The name given to instability or fluctuation of emotions:

A) Blunted affect B) Flat affect
C) Labile affect D) Constricted affect

49. The law which states that smallest detectable difference for any intensity of a
stimulus is a constant function of the intensity of the stimulus:
A) Weber’s law B) Fechner’s law
C) Steven’s Power law D) Law of effect

50. The physiological structure which is closely associated with sustained attention?
A) Hippocampus B) Amygdala
C) Prefrontal cortex D) Cerebellum

51. In the context of creativity, what does "Big C" refer to?
A) Creative contributions at the individual level
B) Eminent contributions at the societal or cultural level
C) Creative thinking in small groups
D) Eminent thinking in controlled environments

7
52. How does the concept of "psychoneuroendocrinology" contribute to the
understanding of the relationship between psychological factors and the endocrine
system in health?
A) It focuses solely on neurological aspects of health.
B) It explores the complex interactions between psychological processes, the
nervous system, and the endocrine system.
C) It ignores the impact of psychological factors on hormonal regulation.
D) It exclusively addresses the role of hormones in behavior.

53. According to homeostasis theory, what would motivate an individual to eat when
they are hungry?
A) The desire for pleasure
B) The need to reduce physiological imbalance
C) Cultural norms and social pressure
D) Instinctual behaviors

54. Match the List I with List II

List I List II
a. Level of processing 1. James McClelland
b. Multi store model 2. Craik & Lockhart
c. Working memory 3. Atkinson & Shiffrin
d. PDP 4. Baddelley& Hitch

A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 B) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1

C) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 D) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

55. Assertion (A): Declarative memory is memory for facts and things
Reason (R): It is concerned with remembering ‘how’

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true

56. What is a common obstacle to problem-solving in which individuals are unable to

see new uses for familiar objects or ideas?
A) Functional fixedness B) Confirmation bias
C) Anchoring effect D) Availability heuristic

57. In classical conditioning, what is the term for the initial learning phase where a
neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus to create a conditioned
response?
A) One-shot learning
B) Operant conditioning
C) Conditioned emotional reaction
D) Acquisition

8
58. The term for the automatic activation of stereotypes without the individual's
awareness or intent is:
A) Confirmation bias B) Implicit bias
C) In-group bias D) Actor-observer bias

59. In the context of organizational psychology, what is the Hawthorne effect?

A) Employees' tendency to work harder when they know they are being observed
B) The impact of organizational culture on employee motivation
C) The relationship between job satisfaction and job performance
D) The influence of leadership styles on team dynamics

60. The main factor contributing to Vascular Dementia is:

A) Neurotransmitter imbalances
B) Genetic predisposition
C) Impaired blood flow to the brain
D) Chronic stress and anxiety

61. In the context of special education, the goal of an Individualized Education

Program (IEP) is:
A) Maintaining a standardized curriculum for all students.
B) Adapting the learning environment to meet the unique needs of each
student with a disability.
C) Excluding students with disabilities from mainstream classrooms.
D) Ignoring the need for specialized instruction.

62. According to Vygotsky, what is the term for the range of tasks that a learner can
perform with the help of a more knowledgeable person, but cannot perform
independently?
A) Discovery learning
B) Self-efficacy
C) Zone of Proximal Development
D) Expectancy theory

63. How does the Biological and Evolutionary perspective explain the role of genes in
behavior?
A) Genes have minimal impact on behavior
B) Genes interact with environmental factors to influence behavior
C) Genes solely determine behavior
D) Environmental factors override genetic influences

64. The term which describes the tendency to attribute one's successes to internal
factors and one's failures to external factors:
A) Confirmation bias B) Self - serving bias
C) Self-fulfilling prophecy D) Attribution biases

9
65. What characterizes health-enhancing behavior, as opposed to health-
compromising behavior?
A) Health-enhancing behavior disregards psychological factors.
B) Health-compromising behavior exclusively focuses on social influences.
C) Health-enhancing behavior promotes overall wellbeing, while health-
compromising behavior poses risks to health.
D) Both behaviors have similar consequences on wellbeing.

66. In Henry Murray’s theory, the term used to describe a person's unique pattern of
needs, interests, and potential conflicts is:
A) Archetype B) Persona
C) Personology D) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

67. Unspecified Organic Mental Disorders refer to cases where:

A) The exact cause of the disorder is known
B) The symptoms do not fit into a specific category but are clearly of organic
origin
C) The disorder is primarily caused by psychological factors
D) The individual intentionally feigns symptoms for personal gain

68. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
a. James – Lange theory 1. Physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal
b. Cannon Bard theory 2. Physiological arousal precedes emotion
c. Schachter Singer theory 3. Cognitive processes mediate between external
stimuli and emotional experiences
d. Cognitive Mediation Theory 4. Emotion and physiological responses occur
simultaneously
A) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 B) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2 D) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

69. Among the listed personality assessment methods, which one relies on respondents
ranking a set of statements or items in relation to each other?
A) Q-sort B) Check-lists
C) Semantic differential D) Sociometry

70. The situational factor which can influence pro-social behavior by creating a
diffusion of responsibility among bystanders:
A) Social facilitation B) Pluralistic ignorance
C) Reciprocity principle D) Attachment theory

71. The term "MSE" in mental health refers to:

A) Mini-Social Evaluation
B) Mental Status Examination
C) Mood and Symptom Exploration
D) Memory and Sensory Evaluation

10
72. Assertion (A): Thinking often involves the manipulation of images
Reason (R): Images are mental pictures of the world which are manipulated
during thought

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true

73. The theory of perception which suggests that our brains construct perceptions by
combining information from multiple sensory modalities:
A) Direct perception B) Feature theory
C) Computational theory D) Prototype theory

74. Which neuro developmental disorder is characterized by persistent deficits in

social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts, along with
restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities?
A) Intellectual Disability
B) Autism Spectrum Disorder
C) Specific Learning Disorder
D) Communication Disorder

75. Which component of memory tests assesses an individual's ability to recall past
experiences and personal events?
A) Semantic memory B) Episodic memory
C) Procedural memory D) Sensory memory

76. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
a. Robert Sternberg 1. Emotional Intelligence
b. Howard Gardner 2. Two factor theory
c. Charles Spearman 3. SOI model
d. Daniel Goleman 4. Multiple intelligence

A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 B) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3 D) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

77. According to the need to belong theory, what is the psychological drive that
motivates individuals to form and maintain relationships with others?
A) Social facilitation B) Affiliation motive
C) Ostracism aversion D) Conformity pressure

78. The neurotransmitter which is often more linked to feelings of pleasure and
reward and plays a role in motivation and addiction:
A) Serotonin B) Dopamine
C) Norepinephrine D) GABA (Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid)

11
79. Assertion (A): Emotions help us survive and adjust to changing conditions
Reason (R): Emotions are linked to many basic adaptive behaviours such as
attacking, fleeing, seeking comfort, helping others etc

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true

80. How does the concept of locus of control influence health behaviors?
A) Internal locus of control is associated with a belief in personal control over
health outcomes, while external locus of control relies on external factors.
B) Both internal and external locus of control have no impact on health behaviors.
C) External locus of control is associated with personal control over health
outcomes, while internal locus of control relies on external factors.
D) Health locus of control is irrelevant to health behaviors.

81. The central concept of the Job Characteristics Model (JCM) in organizational
psychology:
A) Employee motivation is influenced by the interaction of core job dimensions.
B) Job satisfaction is primarily determined by external rewards.
C) Task significance is the most critical factor for job performance.
D) Job rotation is essential for employee engagement.

82. How does Beck Cognitive Therapy address cognitive distortions?

A) By reinforcing distorted thought patterns.
B) By avoiding any discussion of cognitive processes.
C) By challenging and restructuring negative thought patterns.
D) By encouraging the persistence of irrational beliefs.

83. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
a. Episodic 1. Definition of Psychology
b. Semantic 2. Light trails
c. Procedural 3. First day in school
d. Iconic 4. Riding a bicycle

A) a-1,b-4,c-3,d-2 B) a-3,b-1,c-4,d-2
C) a-3, b-4,c-2, d-1 D) a-1,b-2,c-4,d-3

84. What phenomenon occurs when individuals exert less effort in a group setting
because their individual contributions are less noticeable?
A) Social facilitation B) Social loafing
C) Group polarization D) Groupthink

12
85. The "ARAS" in the context of stress and arousal stands for:
A) Autonomic Response to Anxiety and Stress
B) Arousal Regulation and Adjustment System
C) Ascending Reticular Activating System
D) Anxiety Reduction and Adaptation Support

86. Assertion(A): Bottom up processing refers to the use of contextual information in

pattern recognition
Reason (R): In bottom up processing, perception begins with the stimulus itself

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true

87. According to the Equity Theory in organizational psychology, what is a likely

outcome if an employee perceives an inequity in the distribution of rewards?
A) The employee will be motivated to work harder.
B) The employee will experience job satisfaction.
C) The employee may seek to restore equity through various means.
D) The employee will ignore the perceived inequity for the sake of team
harmony.

88. Effective communication strategies in schools involve:

A) Ignoring communication barriers to maintain a positive atmosphere.
B) Using a one-size-fits-all approach for diverse student needs.
C) Clear and consistent communication with students, parents, and colleagues.
D) Minimizing communication to avoid misunderstandings

89. The term which refers to the phenomenon where individuals act in ways that
cause their expectations to come true:
A) Self-fulfilling prophecy B) Confirmation bias
C) Stereotype resistance D) Automatic stereotype activation

90. Assertion (A): People’s perceptions are not relative to their spoken language
Reason (R): Structure of a language affects a speaker’s worldview

A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true

13
91. In the context of organizational behavior, what is the key distinction between
transformational and transactional leadership?
A) Transactional leadership focuses on individualized consideration, while
transformational leadership emphasizes contingent reward.
B) Transformational leadership emphasizes charisma and inspiration, while
transactional leadership relies on laissez-faire management.
C) Transactional leadership uses charisma to inspire followers, while
transformational leadership emphasizes contingent reward.
D) Transformational leadership inspires and motivates through vision, while
transactional leadership relies on rewards and punishments.

92. What is the main focus of the Working Memory model proposed by Baddeley and
Hitch?
A) The distinction between short-term and long-term memory
B) The role of consolidation in memory
C) The capacity limits of sensory memory
D) The active manipulation of information for cognitive tasks

93. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
a. Intensity theory 1. John Paul Nafe
b. Specificity theory 2. Plato
c. Pattern theory 3. Melzack-Wall
d. Gate control theory 4. Von Frey

A) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 B) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

C) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 D) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3

94. A common characteristic of Substance Use Disorders (SUDs) is:

A) Stable and controlled use of psychoactive substances
B) Absence of withdrawal symptoms
C) Continued use despite significant substance-related problems
D) Lack of tolerance development

95. In signal detection theory, what does a high hit rate and a low false alarm rate
indicate?
A) High sensitivity B) Low sensitivity
C) High specificity D) Low specificity

96. In Milgram's obedience study, what was the primary factor influencing
participants to administer potentially harmful shocks to others?
A) Presence of an authority figure
B) Group pressure
C) Fear of punishment
D) Personal beliefs

14
97. How does stress inoculation differ from traditional relaxation techniques in
clinical settings?
A) Stress inoculation exclusively relies on cognitive strategies, while
relaxation techniques focus on physiological responses.
B) Relaxation techniques aim to expose individuals to stressors, while stress
inoculation focuses on minimizing stress exposure.
C) Stress inoculation prepares individuals to cope with anticipated stress
through cognitive-behavioral strategies.
D) Relaxation techniques solely target external stressors without addressing
cognitive processes.

98. Arrange the following psychosocial stages in order

1. Initiative Vs Guilt 2. Trust Vs Mistrust
3. Industry Vs Inferiority 4. Autonomy Vs Shame

A) 1,2,3,4 B) 2,3,4,1 C) 2,1,4,3 D) 2,4,1,3

99. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
a. Latent learning 1. Sudden understanding of a problem
b. Insight learning 2. Behavior is influenced by its consequences
c. Operant conditioning 3. Neutral stimulus is paired with a conditioned one
d. Classical Conditioning 4. Not immediately expressed in an overt response

A) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4 B) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1 D) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

100. The memory test which assesses a person's ability to repeat a sequence of digits in
the same order they were presented:
A) PGI memory test B) WMS memory test
C) Digit span test D) Memory recall test

101. Intrinsic motivation is best described as the motivation that arises from:
A) External rewards or incentives
B) Social approval and recognition
C) Personal enjoyment and satisfaction
D) Biological needs

102. The method developed by Likert for the construction of attitude scale was named
later by Bird as:
A) Method of equal appearing intervals
B) Method of summated ratings
C) Cumulative scale
D) Method of rank order

15
103. The forgetting curve hypothesizes:
A) The incline in forgetting in time
B) The decline in forgetting in time
C) The incline in memory retention in time
D) The decline in memory retention in time

104. What is the central premise of Rational Emotive Therapy (RET)?

A) Focusing solely on altering external circumstances.
B) Changing irrational beliefs to alleviate emotional distress and dysfunctional
behaviors.
C) Ignoring the role of cognitive processes in emotional experiences.
D) Emphasizing the importance of accepting irrational beliefs.

105. When a horoscope reader says ‘Something that you have been waiting for will
happen shortly, and you will feel more confident’ and you realize it is surprisingly
accurate. This is called:
A) Barnum effect B) Hindsight effect
C) Self-serving effect D) Self-fulfilling prophecy

106. The type of amnesia which is characterized by the inability to form new long-term
memories while retaining old ones:
A) Retrograde amnesia B) Anterograde amnesia
C) Infantile amnesia D) Dissociative amnesia

107. Knowledge of result, often used in behavior modification and learning contexts,
involves:
A) Providing individuals with feedback on their performance
B) Offering external rewards to motivate behavior
C) Encouraging intrinsic motivation through autonomy
D) Creating a sense of belongingness and love

108. Social needs, as described in Maslow's hierarchy of needs, include:

A) Physiological and safety needs
B) Esteem and self-actualization needs
C) Belongingness and love needs
D) Intrinsic and extrinsic needs

109. What role does Positive Behavior Support (PBS) play in addressing problem
behavior in schools?
A) Punishing students for challenging behavior.
B) Ignoring problematic behaviors to avoid confrontation.
C) Focusing on proactive strategies to encourage positive social and
communication skills.
D) Eliminating all forms of discipline to create a lenient environment.

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110. How does hypnosis function as a therapeutic technique in clinical settings?
A) By inducing a state of awareness through suggestibility.
B) By suppressing the conscious mind entirely.
C) By relying on external substances to induce relaxation.
D) By promoting cognitive restructuring.

111. The concept of Personal Construct Theory in the Cognitive and Social Cognitive
Perspective was proposed by:
A) Albert Bandura B) George Kelly
C) Walter Mischel D) Julian Rotter

112. Which of the following cluster correctly defines the variables of Howard
Gardner’s multiple intelligence?
A) Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence, Emotional intelligence, Intrapersonal
intelligence, Logical-mathematical intelligence, Musical intelligence,
Naturalistic intelligence, Verbal-linguistic intelligence, and Visual-spatial
intelligence
B) Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence, Interpersonal intelligence Intrapersonal
intelligence, Logical-mathematical intelligence, Musical intelligence,
Naturalistic intelligence, Verbal-linguistic intelligence, and Visual-spatial
intelligence
C) Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence, Interpersonal intelligence Intrapersonal
intelligence, Logical-mathematical intelligence, Musical intelligence,
Spiritual intelligence, Verbal-linguistic intelligence, and Visual-spatial
intelligence
D) Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence, Interpersonal intelligence, Emotional
intelligence, Logical-mathematical intelligence, Musical intelligence,
Naturalistic intelligence, Verbal-linguistic intelligence, and Spiritual
intelligence

113. Margaret Mahler and John Bowlby are associated with which following aspect of
the Psychodynamic perspective?
A) Classical Psychoanalysis
B) Object relations and attachment theories
C) Neoanalytic theories
D) Personology

114. The effect that occurs because mood states can serve as effective retrieval cues:
A) Mood-congruence effect
B) Mood-incongruence effect
C) State-dependent memory
D) State-independent memory

115. The type of learning which is mostly associated with behavior modification:
A) Discovery learning B) Operant conditioning
C) Observational learning D) Latent learning

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116. The primary emphasis of systematic desensitization in behavior therapy is:
A) Gradual exposure to anxiety-inducing stimuli without relaxation
techniques.
B) Immediate confrontation of intense fears to promote rapid desensitization.
C) Combining relaxation with gradual exposure to feared stimuli to alleviate
anxiety.
D) Avoiding any exposure to anxiety-provoking situations.

117. The drive reduction theory of motivation was proposed by:

A) Mowrer B) Hull
C) Spencer D) Guthrie

118. Vivid recollections of personal experiences related to traumer or rare events is ------
memory.
A) Flash bulb B) Episodic
C) Semantic D) Traumatic

119. The concept of ‘Cognitive map’ was originated by:

A) Bowlby B) Triesman C) Tolman D) Taylor

120. A person who is anxious about closed places is suffering from:

A) Agoraphobia B) Acrophobia
C) Claustrophobia D) Scopaphobia

_________________________

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