External assessment 2022

Multiple choice question book

Biology
Paper 1

General instruction
• Work in this book will not be marked.
Section 1

QUESTION 1
What is the molecular unit of heredity?

(A) gene

(B) genome

(C) nucleotide

(D) chromosome

QUESTION 2
Which stage of making recombinant DNA requires DNA ligase?

(A) cutting

(B) joining

(C) isolation

(D) transformation

QUESTION 3
A survey of grasshopper species was conducted across four eucalypt communities. Counts were conducted and
the average abundance per 400 m2 recorded.

Grasshopper species (A–F)

Community A B C D E F Total
I 32 18 1 3 0 46 100
II 3 2 0 1 3 12 21
III 3 2 28 3 18 51 105
IV 18 13 12 14 16 15 88

Which community has both the highest species richness and highest evenness for grasshoppers?
(A) I

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV

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QUESTION 4
The graph shows the effect of a selection pressure on a hypothetical population.

Key
Before the
selection
pressure
Number of individuals

20 generations
later

Phenotype

Which mode of phenotypic selection corresponds with the data?

(A) negative

(B) disruptive

(C) stabilising

(D) directional

QUESTION 5
A researcher captured, marked and released 36 frogs. The following day they captured 24 frogs and
18 were marked.
M ×n
Calculate the approximate size of the frog population using the Lincoln index: N =
m
(A) 27

(B) 48

(C) 54

(D) 60

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QUESTION 6
The role of helicase in DNA replication is to

(A) initiate the process by binding to recognition sites along the template strand.

(B) add complementary bases to the template strand.

(C) unwind and separate DNA strands.

(D) join DNA strands together.

QUESTION 7
What is used directly by plants for protein synthesis?

(A) nitrite, NO2–

(B) nitrate, NO3–

(C) ammonia, NH3

(D) atmospheric nitrogen, N2

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QUESTION 8
The graph shows how the populations of two species in an ecosystem change over time.

Key
Species X
Species Y
Number of organisms

Time

Which species interaction is represented?

(A) predation, where species X preys on species Y

(B) predation, where species Y preys on species X

(C) competition, where species X outcompetes species Y

(D) competition, where species Y outcompetes species X

QUESTION 9
Polygenic inheritance involves multiple

(A) alleles for a single gene.

(B) genes with the same alleles.

(C) genes coding for a single characteristic.

(D) characteristics resulting from a single gene.

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QUESTION 10
Wings in birds, bats and pterosaurs are phenotypically similar, though they belong to different families and
do not have a common ancestor with the trait. While the general morphology is similar, the structure and
organisation of each wing is different.
This is an example of

(A) coevolution.

(B) parallel evolution.

(C) divergent evolution.

(D) convergent evolution.

QUESTION 11
Evolutionary relationships were investigated by sequencing a section of protein from five different species.
Each letter represents an amino acid.

Species I D E V G W E A L G R L V S
Species II D E V G W E G L G R A V S
Species III D E A G S E G L A R L E S
Species IV D E V G S E G L G R L E S
Species V D E V G W E A L A R L V S

It can be inferred that Species I is most closely related to

(A) Species II.

(B) Species III.

(C) Species IV.

(D) Species V.

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QUESTION 12
Speciation occurs when

(A) the gene pool of an existing species becomes too small to support a viable population.

(B) selection pressures cause significant changes to the allele frequencies of a population.

(C) genetic drift is no longer occurring within populations.

(D) gene flow is no longer occurring between populations.

QUESTION 13
An error during DNA replication resulted in the following change to mRNA transcripts.

mRNA before AUGAAGUUUGGCAUC … (continued)

mRNA after AUGAAGUUUGCAUCG … (continued)

The DNA replication error most likely involved

(A) deletion of cytosine.

(B) insertion of guanine.

(C) substitution of uracil with guanine.

(D) substitution of guanine with cytosine.

QUESTION 14
Prior to fertilisation, a secondary oocyte will arrest at which stage of meiosis?

(A) prophase I

(B) prophase II

(C) metaphase I

(D) metaphase II

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QUESTION 15
The environment’s influence on gene expression can be investigated by comparing the rate of concordance in
monozygotic (identical) and dizygotic (non-identical) twins. Concordance occurs when both twins express a
trait.
Strong environmental influence is suspected when concordance is

(A) higher in monozygotic twins.

(B) only observed in dizygotic twins.

(C) only observed in monozygotic twins.

(D) similar in monozygotic and dizygotic twins.

QUESTION 16
If each shape represents a different species, which diagram shows the common assumptions of cladistics?

(A) (B)

Time Time

(C) (D)

Time Time

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QUESTION 17
Students used quadrats to investigate biodiversity in a grassland community with scattered distribution of plant
species. The students agreed on a counting criteria for each quadrat to

(A) reduce the time taken to count the different species.

(B) minimise statistical uncertainty.

(C) ensure all strata were sampled.

(D) minimise bias.

QUESTION 18
The competitive exclusion principle applies to different species occupying the same

(A) niche.

(B) habitat.

(C) environment.

(D) trophic level.

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QUESTION 19
The graph shows the effect of light intensity on the germination success of seeds from four plant species.

100
Species I

80
Germination (%)

60
Species II
40
Species III
20

Species IV
0
Light intensity

Which is most likely to be a pioneer species?

(A) I

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV

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QUESTION 20
A section of DNA is made up of two strands, I and II.

Base Strand I Strand II

composition composition
adenine
cytosine 25%
guanine 14%
thymine 29%

It can be inferred that

(A) strand I contains 25% cytosine.

(B) strand I contains 32% adenine.

(C) strand II contains 29% thymine.

(D) strand II contains 71% adenine.

10 of 10
References
Question 8
Modified from LotkaVolterra en.svg — Wikimedia Commons 2010, https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/
File:LotkaVolterra_en.svg, CC BY-SA 3.0.

© State of Queensland (QCAA) 2022

Licence: https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/4.0 | Copyright notice: www.qcaa.qld.edu.au/copyright — lists the
full terms and conditions, which specify certain exceptions to the licence. | Attribution: © State of Queensland (QCAA) 2022
 LUI School code

School name

Given name/s
Attach your
barcode ID label here
Family name

Book of books used

External assessment 2022

Question and response book

Biology
Paper 1

Time allowed Section 1 (20 marks)

Clear zone — margin trimmed off after completion of assessment

• Perusal time — 10 minutes • 20 multiple choice questions

• Working time — 90 minutes
Section 2 (22 marks)
General instructions • 8 short response questions

• Answer all questions in this question and

response book.
• QCAA-approved calculator permitted.
• Planning paper will not be marked.
 DO NOT WRITE ON THIS PAGE

THIS PAGE WILL NOT BE MARKED

 Section 1
Instructions
• Choose the best answer for Questions 1–20.
• This section has 20 questions and is worth 20 marks.
• Use a 2B pencil to fill in the A, B, C or D answer bubble completely.
• If you change your mind or make a mistake, use an eraser to remove your response and fill in the new
answer bubble completely.

A B C D
Example:

A B C D
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

Do not write outside this box.

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 Section 2
Instructions
• Write using black or blue pen.
• If you need more space for a response, use the additional pages at the back of this book.
– On the additional pages, write the question number you are responding to.
– Cancel any incorrect response by ruling a single diagonal line through your work.
– Write the page number of your alternative/additional response, i.e. See page …
– If you do not do this, your original response will be marked.
• This section has eight questions and is worth 22 marks.

QUESTION 21 (2 marks)
Describe two reproductive strategies used to distinguish K-strategists from r-strategists.

Strategy 1:

Strategy 2:

Do not write outside this box.

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 QUESTION 22 (2 marks)
Explain how two abiotic factors affect the distribution of species in an ecosystem.

Ecosystem:

Abiotic factor 1:

Abiotic factor 2:

Do not write outside this box.

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 QUESTION 23 (3 marks)
Compare microevolution and macroevolution.

Do not write outside this box.

4 of 13
 QUESTION 24 (2 marks)
Explain two ways that classifying ecosystems allows for effective management of old-growth forests.

Do not write outside this box.

5 of 13
 QUESTION 25 (4 marks)
Severe weather events have caused widespread loss of seagrass in meadows off Location A.
Seagrasses have the capacity to recover from weather-associated disturbances and return to pre-impact
levels within 4 to 60 months. Deep-water meadows have a higher rate of recovery than shallow-water
meadows.

Location A

Key
Shallow-water meadows
Deep-water meadows
Sea 0 2.5 5 N
Land
Kilometres

Describe how stratified sampling could be used to study how seagrass meadows off Location A recover
after a severe weather event. Identify a surveying technique and purpose for the study in your response.

Do not write outside this box.

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Do not write outside this box.

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 QUESTION 26 (4 marks)
Karyotypes for two human gametes are shown.

Karyotype A (sperm cell) Karyotype B (egg cell)

a) Identify which cell exhibits aneuploidy. Refer to evidence from the karyotype. [1 mark]

Do not write outside this box.

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 b) Explain how this chromosome abnormality may have occurred.  [2 marks]

This table lists some genetic conditions resulting from chromosomal abnormalities.

Genetic condition Common name

Monosomy 5 Cri du chat syndrome
Monosomy X Turner syndrome
Trisomy 13 Patau syndrome
Trisomy 18 Edwards syndrome
Trisomy X Triple X syndrome

c) Predict which genetic condition would occur if the two gametes produced a zygote. [1 mark]

Do not write outside this box.

9 of 13
 QUESTION 27 (2 marks)
Explain the purpose of gel electrophoresis in DNA profiling.

QUESTION 28 (3 marks)
In 1950, the myxoma virus was released into Australian pest rabbit populations to reduce their numbers.
The resulting disease, myxomatosis, initially wiped out 95% of the rabbit population; however, it quickly
became less effective as a population control measure.
This graph shows the frequency of myxomatosis resistance in Australia’s rabbit population from
1949 to 1956.

100

90
Frequency of myxomatosis resistance (%)

80

70

60

50

40

30

20

10

0
1949 1950 1951 1952 1953 1954 1955 1956
Year

Do not write outside this box.

10 of 13
 Use evidence from the graph and the principles of natural selection to explain how myxomatosis became
ineffective as a population control measure.

END OF PAPER

Do not write outside this box.

11 of 13
 ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR STUDENT RESPONSES
Write the question number you are responding to.

Do not write outside this box.

12 of 13
 ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR STUDENT RESPONSES
Write the question number you are responding to.

Do not write outside this box.

13 of 13
Clear zone — margin trimmed off after completion of assessment
 LUI School code

School name

Given name/s
Attach your
barcode ID label here
Family name

Book of books used

External assessment 2022

Question and response book

Biology
Paper 2

Time allowed Section 1 (45 marks)

Clear zone — margin trimmed off after completion of assessment

• Perusal time — 10 minutes • 11 short response questions

• Working time — 90 minutes

General instructions
• Answer all questions in this question and
response book.
• Write using black or blue pen.
• QCAA-approved calculator permitted.
• Planning paper will not be marked.
 DO NOT WRITE ON THIS PAGE

THIS PAGE WILL NOT BE MARKED

 Section 1
Instructions
• If you need more space for a response, use the additional pages at the back of this book.
– On the additional pages, write the question number you are responding to.
– Cancel any incorrect response by ruling a single diagonal line through your work.
– Write the page number of your alternative/additional response, i.e. See page …
– If you do not do this, your original response will be marked.

DO NOT WRITE ON THIS PAGE

THIS PAGE WILL NOT BE MARKED

Do not write outside this box.

1 of 17
 QUESTION 1 (3 marks)
This phylogenetic tree uses horizontal distance to represent genetic difference.

Species A

Species B
Species C

Species D

1 unit
Scale 1 unit = nucleotide difference

a) Infer which species is most closely related to species B. Explain your reasoning. [2 marks]

b) Determine the genetic difference between species A and D. [1 mark]

Do not write outside this box.

2 of 17
 QUESTION 2 (4 marks)
This is a biomass pyramid for a grassland community.

11.5 g/m2

36 g/m2

900 g/m2
Not to scale

a) Calculate the percentage energy transfer between the first two trophic levels.
Show your working. [2 marks]

b) Explain the loss of biomass between trophic levels. [2 marks]

Do not write outside this box.

3 of 17
 QUESTION 3 (4 marks)
A glacier has retreated, leaving a large amount of gravel, small rocks, sand and mud.
a) Explain the steps of succession that would occur if the glacier continues to retreat. [3 marks]

b) Identify the type of ecological succession. [1 mark]

QUESTION 4 (1 mark)
Define keystone species.

Do not write outside this box.

4 of 17
 QUESTION 5 (5 marks)
a) Describe the roles of messenger RNA and transfer RNA in protein synthesis. [2 marks]

b) Explain how transcription factors control cell differentiation, using an example. [3 marks]

Do not write outside this box.

5 of 17
 QUESTION 6 (5 marks)
An environmental report identified overexploitation, habitat destruction and pollution as human
activities affecting biodiversity in Australia. The tables show the estimated impact of each activity
in 2011 and 2016.

2011 2016
Assessment grade Confidence Assessment grade Confidence
Very Very Very Very
Human
high High Low low In In high High Low low In In
activities
impact impact impact impact grade trend impact impact impact impact grade trend

Over-
exploitation

Habitat
destruction

Pollution

Recent trends Grade Confidence

Improving Very low impact: Few, if any, Adequate: Adequate high-

species and/or ecosystems are quality evidence and high level
Getting worse suffering substantial adverse effects of consensus
from this pressure
Stable
Low impact: A small proportion Somewhat adequate: Adequate
of species and/or ecosystems are high-quality evidence or high
suffering substantial adverse effects level of consensus
from this pressure
High impact: A significant Limited: Limited evidence or
proportion of species and/or limited consensus
ecosystems are suffering substantial
adverse effects from this pressure
Very high impact: A large Very limited: Limited evidence
proportion of species and/or and limited consensus
ecosystems are suffering substantial
adverse effects from this pressure

Do not write outside this box.

6 of 17
 a) Explain how one human activity identified in the tables could reduce biodiversity. [1 mark]

b) Predict which human activities will have the highest and lowest impact on biodiversity
in 2023. Explain your reasoning using evidence from the tables. [4 marks]

Highest impact: 

Lowest impact: 

Do not write outside this box.

7 of 17
 QUESTION 7 (6 marks)
The graph shows the population of bacteria in a Petri dish over time.

12 000

10 000

8000
Population

6000

4000

2000

0
0 50 100 150 200 250 300 350
Time (minutes)

a) Identify the mode of population growth. [1 mark]

b) Determine the carrying capacity under these conditions. [1 mark]

Do not write outside this box.

8 of 17
 Conditions were modified at 380 minutes and the population continued to be monitored. Results are
shown.

25 000

20 000
Population

15 000

10 000

5000

0
0 100 200 300 400 450
Time (minutes)

c) Identify two modifications that could cause this change. Explain your reasoning.  [4 marks]

Do not write outside this box.

9 of 17
 QUESTION 8 (3 marks)
Over time, the South African cheetah population has suffered drastic reduction due to periodic droughts,
disease and hunting. Currently, only small, isolated populations of cheetahs exist in the wild. Explain, in
terms of genetic diversity, why cheetah populations are now on the verge of extinction.

Do not write outside this box.

10 of 17
 QUESTION 9 (3 marks)
The biological species concept defines species as a group of organisms that can interbreed to produce
fertile offspring.
a) Identify another method for defining a species. [1 mark]

b) Describe one limitation of the biological species concept and one limitation of the
method identified in Question 9a). [2 marks]

QUESTION 10 (3 marks)
In fruit flies, eye colour is a sex-linked trait inherited on the X chromosome. The red-eye allele (R) is
dominant over the white-eye allele (r). A red-eyed male and white-eyed female have 50 offspring.
Use a Punnett square to predict the number of male and female offspring and their eye colour.

Do not write outside this box.

11 of 17
 QUESTION 11 (8 marks)
Allele frequencies were monitored in two large populations of field mice from neighbouring forests over a
10-year period. Results are shown.

Forest X

Year Genotype Allele frequency

AA Aa aa A a
2013 52 146 102 0.42 0.58
2014 48 144 108 0.40 0.60
2015 55 147 98 0.43 0.57
2016 60 150 90 0.45 0.55
2017 58 142 100 0.43 0.57
2018 58 148 94 0.44 0.56
2019 59 152 89 0.45 0.55
2020 60 148 92 0.45 0.55
2021 65 149 86 0.46 0.54
2022 66 149 85 0.47 0.53

Forest Y

Year Genotype Allele frequency

AA Aa aa A a
2013 0 0 300 0.00 1.00
2014 0 0 300 0.00 1.00
2015 0 0 300 0.00 1.00
2016 0 15 285 0.03 0.98
2017 3 46 251 0.09 0.91
2018 14 60 226
2019 31 91 178 0.26 0.75
2020 48 104 148 0.33 0.67
2021 60 122 118 0.40 0.60
2022 66 137 97 0.45 0.55

Do not write outside this box.

12 of 17
 a) Calculate the allele frequencies for forest Y in 2018. Show your working. [2 marks]

b) Identify temporal trends in allele frequency for forests X and Y and infer reasons for
the observed differences. [6 marks]

END OF PAPER
Do not write outside this box.

13 of 17
 ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR STUDENT RESPONSES
Write the question number you are responding to.

Do not write outside this box.

14 of 17
 ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR STUDENT RESPONSES
Write the question number you are responding to.

Do not write outside this box.

15 of 17
 ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR STUDENT RESPONSES
Write the question number you are responding to.

Do not write outside this box.

16 of 17
 ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR STUDENT RESPONSES
Write the question number you are responding to.

Do not write outside this box.

17 of 17
References
Question 6
Adapted from
Australian Government Department of Sustainability, Environment, Water, Population and Communities,
2011, Australia: State of the environment 2011, p. 640, Canberra, https://soe.dcceew.gov.au/sites/
default/files/2022-05/soe2011-report-biodiversity.pdf. Used under Creative Commons Attribution 4.0
licence (CC BY 4.0).
Australian Government Department of the Environment and Energy 2017, Australia: State of the
environment 2016, pp. 39–41, Canberra, https://soe.dcceew.gov.au/sites/default/files/2022-05/soe2016-
biodiversity-launch-version2-24feb17.pdf. Used under Creative Commons Attribution 4.0 licence
(CC BY 4.0).

Clear zone — margin trimmed off after completion of assessment

© State of Queensland (QCAA) 2022

Licence: https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/4.0 | Copyright notice: www.qcaa.qld.edu.au/copyright — lists the
full terms and conditions, which specify certain exceptions to the licence. | Attribution: © State of Queensland (QCAA) 2022
Biology marking guide
and response
External assessment 2022

Combination response (87 marks)

Assessment objectives
This assessment instrument is used to determine student achievement in the following objectives:
1. describe and explain biodiversity, ecosystem dynamics, DNA, genes and the continuity of life,
and the continuity of life on Earth
2. apply understanding of biodiversity, ecosystem dynamics, DNA, genes and the continuity of
life, and the continuity of life on Earth
3. analyse evidence about biodiversity, ecosystem dynamics, DNA, genes and the continuity of
life, and the continuity of life on Earth to identify trends, patterns, relationships, limitations or
uncertainty
4. interpret evidence about biodiversity, ecosystem dynamics, DNA, genes and the continuity of
life, and the continuity of life on Earth to draw conclusions based on analysis.
Note: Objectives 5, 6 and 7 are not assessed in this instrument.


 Purpose
This document consists of a marking guide and a sample response.
The marking guide:
• provides a tool for calibrating external assessment markers to ensure reliability of results
• indicates the correlation, for each question, between mark allocation and qualities at each
level of the mark range
• informs schools and students about how marks are matched to qualities in student responses.
The sample response:
• demonstrates the qualities of a high-level response
• has been annotated using the marking guide.

Mark allocation
Where a response does not meet any of the descriptors for a question or a criterion, a mark of ‘0’
will be recorded.
Where no response to a question has been made, a mark of ‘N’ will be recorded.
Allowing for FT error — refers to ‘follow through’, where an error in the prior section of working is
used later in the response, a mark (or marks) for the rest of the response can be awarded so long
as it still demonstrates the correct conceptual understanding or skill in the rest of the response.
Allow FT mark/s — refers to ‘follow through’, where an error in the prior section of working is used
later in the response, a mark (or marks) for the rest of the response can still be awarded so long
as it still demonstrates the correct conceptual understanding or skill in the rest of the response.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Marking guide
Multiple choice
Question Response

1 A

2 B

3 D

4 C

5 B

6 C

7 B

8 B

9 C

10 D

11 D

12 D

13 A

14 D

15 D

16 C

17 D

18 A

19 A

20 B

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Short response
Q Sample response The response:

21 Strategy 1: Number of offspring — K-strategists have • describes one reproductive strategy used to
fewer offspring than r-strategists. distinguish K-strategists from r-strategists
Strategy 2: Age of reproduction — K-strategists [1 mark]
reproduce at a later age than r-strategists. • describes a second reproductive strategy used
to distinguish K-strategists from r-strategists
[1 mark]

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

22 Ecosystem: Rainforest • explains how one abiotic factor affects the

Abiotic factor 1: Availability of light: In a rainforest, light distribution of species in the identified
becomes less available in the understorey, so only ecosystem [1 mark]
plants that are adapted to low-light conditions can • explains how a second abiotic factor affects the
survive there. distribution of species in the identified
Abiotic factor 2: Availability of water: Rainforest frogs ecosystem [1 mark]
need to be distributed near pools of water for their
tadpoles to grow and survive.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

23 Both involve changes in allele frequencies, but in • provides a similarity [1 mark]

microevolution, this change occurs within a species,
• provides a difference [1 mark]
whereas for macroevolution, the change is at or above
the species level. This means that in microevolution, the • states the significance [1 mark]
descendant is in the same taxonomic group as the
ancestor, whereas in macroevolution, the descendant is
in a different taxonomic group.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

24 Classification allows us to document, monitor and • explains one way classification allows for
communicate information about biodiversity, which can effective management of old-growth forests
be used to monitor how old-growth forests recover after [1 mark]
a disturbance, e.g. the progression from tall open • explains a second way classification allows for
woodland to tall closed forest. effective management of old-growth forests
Classification can also be used to identify which parts of [1 mark]
an area have similar species composition and abiotic
factors. This data can be used to inform effective
management, as similar management principles would
apply to old growth forests with similar species
composition.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

25 Stratified sampling could be used to investigate how the • indicates the study will take place over time
percentage cover of seagrass changes along a depth [1 mark]
gradient over a 60-month period. • indicates that sampling will occur in both deep
Quadrats could be used to estimate the percentage and shallow water [1 mark]
cover of seagrass at 250 km intervals along a 7 km belt • identifies an appropriate surveying technique
transect north of location A, covering both shallow-water [1 mark]
and deep-water meadows. Multiple quadrats should be
placed at each interval to ensure the reliability of data, • identifies an appropriate purpose for the study
and the depth at each sampling point must be recorded. [1 mark]
Data could be collected each month for 60 months.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

26a) The sperm cell is missing a sex chromosome. • identifies the sperm cell is missing a
chromosome [1 mark]

26b) The abnormality may have occurred due to non- • identifies the abnormality may be due to non-
disjunction during meiosis, where the sex chromosomes disjunction [1 mark]
failed to separate at anaphase and ended up in the • explains that non-disjunction occurs when
same daughter cell. This results in the daughter cells chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis
(gametes) containing either two copies of the sex [1 mark]
chromosome/s or no copies, as is the case for
karyotype A.

26c) Turner syndrome. • predicts Turner syndrome [1 mark]

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

27 Gel electrophoresis separates DNA segments based on • identifies that gel electrophoresis is used to
size to produce characteristic banding patterns. separate DNA fragments based on size
[1 mark]
• explains that this produces characteristic
banding patterns [1 mark]

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

28 The introduction of the myxoma virus conferred a • recognises that the myxomatosis-resistant
selective advantage on the myxomatosis-resistant phenotype provided a selective advantage
phenotype. Myxomatosis-resistant rabbits had an [1 mark]
increased chance of surviving to reproduce and pass on • uses evidence from the graph to establish that
the trait. This led to an increase in the frequency of this this caused myxomatosis resistance to
phenotype in the population from approximately 9% in increase in the population [1 mark]
1950 to approximately 96% in 1953.
• concludes that myxomatosis became less
After 1953, most of the remaining rabbits possessed the effective as the percentage of myxomatosis-
myxomatosis-resistant phenotype, so the disease was resistant rabbits increased [1 mark]
no longer effective at reducing rabbit numbers.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Paper 2: Short response
Q Sample response The response:

1a) Species A. Species A and B have the least genetic • infers species A is most closely related to
difference, suggesting there has been less time since species B [1 mark]
they diverged for mutations to occur. • provides appropriate reasoning [1 mark]

1b) 6 nucleotides • states 6 nucleotides [1 mark]

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

2a) Energy transfer = 36/900 × 100% = 4% • correctly calculates energy transfer [1 mark]
• shows appropriate working [1 mark]

2b) At each trophic level, some energy is lost to respiration • identifies a process that accounts for loss of
and decomposition. In these processes, organic biomass [1 mark]
compounds that contribute to biomass are converted • explains the process [1 mark]
into inorganic substances, such as CO2 and H2O.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

3a) Pioneer species, such as lichens will begin the process • explains
of soil formation by breaking down the substrate and - pioneer species’ role in establishing soil
adding organic material through their own death and [1 mark]
decay. - changes in community composition [1 mark]
This will allow new species to colonise/inhabit the area, - establishment of a climax community
changing the community composition. The community [1 mark]
composition will continue to change over time until a
climax community is established.

3b) Primary succession • identifies primary succession [1 mark]

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

4 A plant or animal that plays a unique and crucial role in • provides an appropriate definition [1 mark]
the way an ecosystem functions.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

5a) Messenger RNA (or mRNA) provides copies of the gene • describes the role of messenger RNA in protein
from the DNA template strand. synthesis [1 mark]
Transfer RNA (or tRNA) decodes mRNA sequences by • describes the role of transfer RNA in protein
matching amino acids to codons of the mRNA. synthesis [1 mark]

5b) Transcription factors are proteins that turn specific • recognises that transcription factors regulate
genes on or off by binding to nearby sections of DNA. gene expression by binding to specific DNA
This allows different genes to be expressed in different sequences [1 mark]
cell types. For example, the SRY gene on the Y • explains that this allows for differential gene
chromosome promotes the development of testes by expression [1 mark]
producing a protein that regulates the expression of
• provides an example [1 mark]
genes (production of proteins) required by Sertoli cells.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

6a) Habitat destruction: organisms that previously inhabited • explains how a human activity reduces
the site are displaced or killed, which could disrupt food biodiversity [1 mark]
chains

6b) Highest impact: Habitat destruction • predicts the highest impact will be from habitat
In 2016, there was high-quality evidence and a high destruction [1 mark]
level of consensus that habitat destruction was causing • explains the prediction using evidence
a large proportion of species and/or ecosystems to [1 mark]
suffer substantial adverse effects, and that the impact • predicts the lowest impact will be from
was deteriorating. This is in contrast to 2011, when the overexploitation [1 mark]
effects of the impact were improving.
• explains the prediction using evidence
Lowest impact: Overexploitation [1 mark]
In 2016, there was adequate high-quality evidence to
suggest that overexploitation was affecting only a small
proportion of species and/or ecosystems. This was an
improvement from 2011 where there was high-quality
evidence (and consensus) that a large proportion of
species were affected. This implies that measures to
improve overexploitation have been implemented since
2011.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

7a) Logistic growth. • identifies logistic growth [1 mark]

7b) 10 000. • determines the carrying capacity is 10 000

[1 mark]

7c) More nutrients added to the Petri dish: an increase in • identifies one modification that could cause the
food availability would allow a larger population to obtain change [1 mark]
vital nutrients, therefore increasing the carrying capacity. • explains how the first modification increases
Increasing the size of the Petri dish: This would increase carrying capacity [1 mark]
the available space, so more organisms can survive and • identifies a second modification that could
be in contact with the nutrient agar. cause the change [1 mark]
• explains how the second modification
increases carrying capacity [1 mark]

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

8 The cheetah population has suffered a severe • explains that

bottleneck. This means that (by chance) certain alleles - the reduction in population has reduced
may be over- or under-represented in the surviving genetic variability [1 mark]
population, and some (potentially ‘fitter’) alleles may - some alleles may have been eliminated from
have been lost altogether. This reduces genetic the gene pool [1 mark]
variability and means that the small surviving
population’s gene pool is not representative of the - a population with limited genetic variability
original population. may not be able to evolve in response to
changing conditions [1 mark]
If the environment suddenly changes, the selection
pressures on the cheetahs will also change. Having a
limited gene pool may mean the population cannot
adapt to the changing conditions and are therefore at
increased risk of extinction.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

9a) Phylogenetic species concept • identifies another method for defining a species
[1 mark]

9b) A limitation of the biological species concept is that it • identifies a limitation of the biological species
only applies to sexually reproducing organisms. concept [1 mark]
A limitation of the phylogenetic species concept is that it • identifies a limitation of the method identified in
requires significant morphological differences to allow Question 9a) [1 mark]
for appropriate evaluation.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

10 • provides working using a Punnett square

XR Y [1 mark]
• predicts 25 females with red eyes [1 mark]
Xr XR Xr Xr Y
• predicts 25 males with white eyes [1 mark]
Xr XR Xr Xr Y

Approximately 25 red-eyed females and 25 white-eyed

males.

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022
 Q Sample response The response:

11a) Frequency (a) = [(2 x 226) + 60] / 600 • provides appropriate working [1 mark]
= 0.85 • calculates the frequencies of both alleles
Frequency (A) = [(2 x 14) + 60] / 600 [1 mark]
= 0.15

11b) Allele frequencies remained relatively constant in • identifies allele frequencies remain relatively
forest X over the 10-year period, with a slight increase in constant in forest X over time [1 mark]
allele A over time. This suggests genetic drift is
• infers a reason for the temporal change in
occurring and the changes are likely due to chance
forest X [1 mark]
rather than the environment favouring a particular
phenotype. • identifies allele A first appeared in forest Y in
This contrasts with forest Y, where the frequency of 2016 [1 mark]
allele A increases significantly over time after it first • infers this is due to migration (gene flow) or
appears in 2016. The allele may have been introduced mutation [1 mark]
to forest Y due to migration (mice moving in from a • identifies the frequency of allele A increases
neighbouring forest) or mutation. Either way, it is evident over time in forest Y [1 mark]
that the allele A provided a selective advantage to mice
• infers allele A provides a selective advantage
in forest Y, resulting in its frequency increasing over
to mice in forest Y [1 mark]
time.

© State of Queensland (QCAA) 2022

Licence: https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/4.0 | Copyright notice: www.qcaa.qld.edu.au/copyright — lists the full terms and conditions, which specify certain exceptions to
the licence. | Attribution: © State of Queensland (QCAA) 2022

Biology marking guide and response Queensland Curriculum & Assessment Authority
External assessment 2022