SAVEETHA SCHOOL OF LAW

ADMINISTRATIVE LAW
QUESTION PAPER AND ANSWER KEY

1. Administrative law is a branch of ________

Public law
2. Administrative law constitutes ______ and _________laws
3. ____________is the source of administrative law
precedents
4. __________is the reason of growth of administrative law
5. Cancellation of license is which type of action in administrative law
Quasi judicial
6. _______________is the need of delegated legislation
welfare state

7. ___________function cannot be delegated

Essential functions

8. __________is one method to control delegated legislation

Judicial review
9. In which case it was observed that the delegated legislation could be challenged despite the
fact that the parental Act was constitutional

10. The Maxim “Delegatus non potest delegare” means __________

A delegate cannot further delegate

11. ____________is the reason for the establishment of tribunals

12. Tribunals are dealt under Part _______of the Constitution of India

Part 13A
13. _____________was the first administrative tribunal set up in India
Central Administrative Tribunal

14. Delegated Legislation can be controlled by ___________

Judicial review
15. Personal Bias means ____________

16. Montesquieu propounded the theory of Separation of Power based on the model of _____
United Kingdom

17. A.K. Kraipak vs Union Of India, is a landmark judgment in relation to ______

 Bias

18. Speaking Orders are the orders which are issued by _________
Administrative authorities

19. Under Right to Information Act ____________

Information is furnished on payment of fees as may be prescribed

20. Whether employees of public corporations are government servants?

No

21. In central services categories like sweepers, gardeners, peons, etc. are classified as_____
Class IV service

22. The Chairman or any member of the Public service commissions in India can be removed
_______
only by President

23. Who defines Administrative law as “The law relating to administration. It determines the
organisation, power and the duties of administrative authority?”

24. Origin of the concept of Droit Administratiff is from ___________

25. According to A.V. Dicey’s formulation of Rule of Law, it denotes _______________

26. The term Rule of Law is derived from the French term “La Principe De Legalite” which
means ____________

Law is supreme

27. “In a landmark decision, the Apex Court of India has ruled that rule of law constitutes one of
the basic structure of the constitution of India which even plenary power of parliament”. The
landmark decision is ________________

28. In India Doctrine of separation of power has been accorded a constitutional status.
_________in the Constitution of India ensures separation of powers.

29. The basic concept of Delegation of Legislation denotes ____________delegation of power

30. Delegated legislation means __________

31. The term delegated legislation may be used in __________senses

32. The Constitutionality of administrative rule making in India can be studied in

________phases

33. The Privy council applied the doctrine of conditional legislation in the matter of __________

34. The theory of natural justice is based on two principles one of which is Nemo Debet Ease
Judex in propria causa which means _____________
35. An administrative orders may itself contain reasons on the file may disclose reasons to arrive
at the decision showing application of mind to the facts in the issue. The above expression
denotes __________

36. The expression Ultra vires means __________

37. Tribunal is a ____________body

38. The term tribunal means __________

39. The tribunal is established by the _____________in accordance with the provisions of the
statute

40. A government company is like a private company registered under the Companies Act in
which not less than ________of the share capital is held by the government

41. Statutory public corporations are of _________types

42. The term ombudsman is derived from _______-language

43. The term ombudsman means __________

44. Ombudsman is said to be an officer of ____________

45. Ombudsman as an institute was first set up by __________

46. The doctrine of Legitimate expectation means _______

47. The doctrine of legitimate expression is used to denote ___________-

48. Post natal publicity is one of the fourth stages of ______________control of administrative
rule making

49. Antenatal publicity required by the enabling Act attracts the application of Section 23 of
__________

50. The Constitution of India has recognised feudalism of tribunals as a judicial decision subject
to Article ______]

51. Supreme legislation is a method which has been enacted by ________

52. To implement Fundamental Rights __________ can be issued by the court

53. The principle of Rule of Law was propounded by __________

54. In administrative proceedings natural justice means ________

55. In case of illegal detention ___________Writ may be issued

56. What are types of delegated legislation?

57. _________are the stages of safeguard taken against delegated legislation

58. The decision of which case became a turning point in the principle of natural justice is
applicable to administrative proceedings also

59. In the case of State Trading Corporation v CTO Bihar whether the commercial corporation
presumed to be the agent of the state?

60. The Maxim Audi Alterem Partem means _______-

61. Essential legislative function is ____________-

62. What is excessive delegation?

63. In which case it was held by the Supreme Court that power to repeal an Act could not be
delegated as it was an essential legislative function?

64. ____________are the two forms of the doctrine of Ultra vires

65. The executive branch of the government includes _____.

66. Prerogative writs to review an administrative action are _________

67. A mandatory procedural requirement for an administrative tribunal must be ___________

68. Judicial review of an administrative action means _______________

69. The principle of Natural justice ensures ______________

70. According to A.V. Dicey, Rule of Law is embodied in __________

71. A Mandatory procedural requirement for a tribunal is ______

72. Administrative law is the law relating to the powers and procedures of _____________

73. What is the effect of violation of the rule Audi alterm partem

74. What is procedural ultra vires?

75. What happens when mandatory procedural norms are not adhered to ?

76. ‘Nemo debit esse judex in propria causa’ means __________

77. ____________-is mandatory before taking action against a individual

78. “Equality is antithetic to arbitrariness” was held in which case?

79. ____________is the exception to the rule of natural justice

 80. Lokpal or Lokayukta is competent to _____________\

81. Which doctrine was developed by court to control administrative action?

82. Which state has not yet established the institution of Lokayukta?

83. Which is not considered to be a basic source of administrative law?

84. Doctrine of pleasure is related to ___________

85. The case Manaklal v Dr Premchand deals with ________

86. The case Olga Tellis v Bombay Municipal Corporation deals with ___________

87. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India deals with __________

88. Maneka Gandhi v Union of India is a landmark judgement pertains to _______

89. The rule of audi alterm partem requires reasonable opportunity of hearing. Hearing may be
__________

90. In which case was the rule against bias propounded?

91. What is pecuniary bias?

92. What is personal bias?

93. _______________is the exception to the rule of bias

94. What is colourable exercise of power?

95. What is relevant consideration?

96. What is irrelevant consideration?

97. What is fettering discretion?

98. What is ‘Wednesbury unreasonableness’?

99. L Chandrakumar v union of India deals with __________

100. Laying’ of delegated legislation means ______________