General Aptitude Test (GAT)

Raftaar Series
(TEST - 5)
TIME: 150 MINUTES TOTAL MARKS : 600

Instructions
1. These booklets contains 150 questions. Each test is printed in English. Each
questions comprises four responses. You will select the response which you want
to mark on the answer sheet.
2. All questions carry equal marks.
3. Choose ONLY ONE response for each question.
4. There will be penalty for WRONG ANSWERS.
 ENGLISH PAPER-5 S. trees have
(A) R-Q-P-S (B) Q-S-P-R
Directions for the following items:
(C) S-P-Q-R (D) R-P-S-Q
In this section, each item consists of a
sentence with a word underlined and is Q8. 1. Housing facilities
followed by four words. Select the option P. to keep up
that is nearest meaning to the underlined Q. with the increasing
word and indicate your response in the R. influx of people
Answer Sheet accordingly
S. are struggling
Q1. OVERSTRUNG
(A) R-Q-P-S (B) Q-S-P-R
(a) Concerned (b) Active
(C) S-P-Q-R (D) R-P-S-Q
(c) Sensitive (d) Energetic
Q9. 1. Mr. Hawking
Q2. SALACITY
P. can write
(a) Recession (b) Indecency
Q. at the University of Cambridge
(c) Depression (d) Bliss
R. on his computer
Q3. ANGST
S. who teaches?
(a) Anxiety (b) Pride
(A) P-R-S-Q (B) R-S-Q-P
(c) Modesty (d) Simplicity
(C) S-P-Q--R (D) S-Q-P-R
Q4. Laughable
Q10. 1. I would urge you
(a) Amusing (b) Boastful
P. and take no further action
(c) Humorous (d) Tactful
Q. sympathetic view
Q5. HIATUS
R. to take a very
(a) Gap (b) Contempt
S. of the matter
(c) Tight (d) Narrow
(A) R-Q-S-P (B) R-P-S-Q
Directions: Each of the following items in
this section consists of a sentence, the (C) R-S-Q-P (D) S-P-R-Q
parts of which have been jumbled. These Directions for the following items:
parts have been labelled P,Q,R, and S. In this section, each item consists of a
Given below each sentence are four sentence with a word underlined and is
sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You followed by four words. Select the word
are required to rearrange the jumbled that is most opposite in meaning to the
parts of the sentence and underlined word and indicate your
mark your response accordingly. response in the Answer Sheet accordingly
Q6. 1. Accumulation Q11. Piquant
P. aim of life (a) sharp (b) insipid
Q. is not (c) witty (d) poignant
R. the sole Q12. Noxious
S. of wealth (a) nasal (b) sneezing
(A) Q-R-S-P (B) R-S-Q-P (c) notary (d) sanitary
(C) S-Q-R-P (D) PRQS Q13. Hunch
Q7. 1. A large (a) slavery (b) kingly
P. been felled by (c) empirical (d) hindrance
Q. number of sandalwoods Q14. Hedonism
R. a notorious man (a) socialism (b) asceticism

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 (c) revivalism (d) intoxication Q25. (A) bushes (B) trees
Q15. Gauche (C) forests (D) shrubs
(a) mistake (b) abusive Directions: Four alternatives are given for
(c) graceful (d) gaunt the Idiom/Phrase underlined Choose the
alternative which best expresses the
Directions: In question no. in the following
meaning of the Idiom/phrase and mark it
two passage some of the words have been
in the Answer Sheet.
left out. Read the passages carefully and
choose the correct answer to each Q26. An axe to grind
question out of the four alternative and fill (A) No property
in the blanks. (B) Personal end to serve
To every foreign 16 India has something to (C) No sense
17 Those fascinated with our past can
(D) No work to do
feast their eyes on the18 of formerly
princely states the carefully restored Q27. My colleague made his mark as a lawyer at
palaces, forts and antique collections. an early age.
Those taken in by our 19 will find a (A) desired to be
number of 20 waiting to have fresh (B) secured good marks
recruits, preferably from the 21 west.
Here one can buy 22 that the best (C) distinguished himself
traditional craftsmanship can produce. 23 (D) created a vacancy
too can take their pick for India has warm Q28. A burning problem
water 24 vast open spaces, snowy (A) A problem on fire
mountain peaks and luxurious tropical 25
(B) A problem that is obvious
Q16. (A) human (B) tourist
(C) An urgent important problem
(C) person (D) man
(D) A dangerous problem
Q17. (A) give (B) see
Q29. After much contemplation the two rivals
(C) offer (D) take
decided to bury the hatchet and work in
Q18. (A) remains (B) leftovers
unison.
(C) ruins (D) monuments
(A) hide their secrets
Q19. (A) spirituality (B) traditions
(B) defeat their enemies
(C) culture (D) religions
(C) get reconciled
Q20. (A) teachers (B) gurus
(D) go their own way
(C) godmen (D) leaders
Q30. I am all ears to listen to your stories of
Q21. (A) prominent (B) lenient
chivalry
(C) affluent (D) intelligent
(A) eager (B) curious
Q22. (A) handicraft (B) gifts
(C) suspicious (D) worried
(C) article (D) things
Q31. P. The phantom head created by the
Q23. (A) Mountaineers
witches warned him against Macduff.
(B) Divers
Q. The second time they gave him some
(C) Nature lovers
very ambiguous hope.
(D) Wildlife enthusiasts
R. But a bloody child and a child- crowned
Q24. (A) sands (B) rivers
with a golden crown encouraged him to be
(C) seas (D) beaches bold and proud.

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 S. When Macbeth met the weird sisters or Directions: In this section you have a short
witches. passage. After the, we will find some items
based on the passage. First read the
(A) S-Q-P-R (B) Q-P-R-S
passage and then answer the item based
(C) R-S-Q-S (D) S-P-Q-R on it. You are required to select your
Q32. P. Tagore pointed out various evils of answer based on the content of the
society of the time. passage and opinion of the author only
Q. And the beginning of the twentieth Patriotism is easy enough during war. For
century were very tradition-bound. one thing, people become actively
conscious of their country when it is
R. The Indian people in the nineteenth threatened. For another, since everyone or
S. Through the Brahma Samaj he tried to nearly everyone feels it, there is a strong
abolish evil customs like child-marriage collective emotion flowing through the
and caste system. country. But when the war is over, the
country recedes from the consciousness,
(A) Q-P-S-R (B) R-Q-P-S
and it is rarely even at the back of the
(C) P-Q-R-S (D) Q-P-R-S mind. The question, “Am I doing any good
Q33. P. At last, having used up every tower they to the country?” doesn’t occur to the mind;
wrote ‘H. East’ and ‘ T .Brown’ on the minute and even the question, “Is what I am doing
hand of the great clock. good or bad for the country?” occurs only
Q. So they climbed the walls to the top of the rarely. A limited patriotism is better than
school, and found a number of tennis- balls. none, but it is not enough.
R. In doing so, they held up the m i n u t e Q35. The author says that one reason why
hand and so upset the clock’s timing. patriotism is easy during wartime is that
S. They liked it so much up there that they (a) war is the only factor responsible for
went back again and spent their time arousing patriotism.
carving their names on the top of every (b) when the country is in danger, we
tower. become conscious of it.
(A) Q-S-P-R (B) S-P-QR (c) we become patriotic when we are in a
(C) R-S-Q-P (D) P-R-Q-S fighting mood.
Q34. P. At first glance all I could discern was a (d) patriotism is always in the
massive stone table running down its consciousness.
length. Q36. Another reason suggested by the author for
Q. This apartment was not nearly so well the emergence of patriotic feeling during
lighted as the vast stalactite ante-cave. war time is that
R. I stared down the passage and found (a) patriotism is specially required during
myself in a gloomy apartment some 20 wartime.
feet long, which in some past age had (b) we become deeply conscious of danger
been hollowed out by hand out of the to ourselves during wartime.
mountain. (c) patriotism becomes contagious because
S. Next, I discovered a brown thing seated one finds a lot of other people feeling
on the table in the centre. patriotism.
(A) Q-P-S-R (B) R-Q-P-S (d) everyone feels that he/she should strive
(C) S-P-Q-R (D) P-Q-S-R to protect the others.

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 Q42. I felt privileged (A)/ to recite a poem in an
Q37. When the threat of war is over, honour of my teacher (B)/ at a recent school
(a) there is no need for people to be function. (C)/ No error. (D)
interested in others’ welfare. Q43. We discussed about the problem so
(b) people do not consider it necessary to thoroughly (A)/ on the eve of the
serve the country. examination (B)/ that I found it very easy
(c) people tend to become totally unmindful to solve. (C)/ No error. (D)
of national interests. Q44. Any one of these two students (A)/ can be
(d) people are generally anxious to serve sent to participate (B)/ in the drawing
the country. competition. (C)/ No error. (D)
Q38. When the author says that the country Q45. The car plunged in (A)/ an extremely deep
“Recedes from the consciousness”, he valley (B)/ and burst into flames. (C)/
means to say that No error. (D)
(a) people no longer feel that they belong Q46. The chairmen of all (A)/ public sector banks
to the country. met senior RBI officials to give its (B)/
(b) people do not have the country clearly suggestions regarding implementation of the
in the forefront of their mind. new policy. (C)/ No error. (D)
(c) people are not capable of understanding Q47. Each painter was to draw a picture (A)/ as
what is good and desirable for them. realistic as possible; (B)/ one of them draws
(d) the moral values which they have so a rose. (C)/ No error. (D)
far upheld would disappear from their Q48. Cricket and Bollywood (A)/ gets a lot of
minds. (B)/ attention from the Indian media. (C)/
Q39. By a “limited patriotism”, the author refers No error. (D)
to Q49. We will pack not only (A)/ the material
(a) the people’s attitude of indifference to properly (B)/ but will also deliver it to your
the welfare of their country. valued customers (C)/ No error (D)
(b) the attitude of people who love other Q50. The doctor advised Mr. Murunga that (A)/
countries as much as they love their because of his severe cramps (B)/ he should
own country. lay in the bed for a few days (C)/No error (D)
(c) those who are self-centred and mainly
GK PAPER-5
concerned about their own welfare.
Q51. In the election of the President, each
(d) the attitude of people who are
Member of the electoral college has :
indifferent to the welfare of their country
(A) one vote
except during wartime.
(B) as many votes as there are candidate
SPOTING ERRORS (C) one vote with value attached to it
Q40. I saw (A)/ two deers (B)/ in the woods. (D) one vote with value attached to it and he
(C)/ No error. (D) can give as many preferences as there are
Q41. For testing (A)/ the new microphone, (B)/ I candidates
tried to record my voice. (C)/ No error (D) Q52. When can a President use his discretion in
appointing the Prime Minister?
(A) In all circumstances

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 (B) In no circumstances (B) Governor of a State
(C) Only when the Lok Sabha has been (C) Council of Ministers
dissolved (D) Chairman of a State Public Service
(D) When no political party enjoys a clear Commission on the report of Supreme Court
majority in the Lok Sabha Q57. If a resolution impeaching the President is
Q53. Though the President is not a Member of passed, the Pres i dent is considered to have
Parliament, he performs certain functions as been re moved :
an integral part of the Parliament. Which are (A) from the date on which the resolution is
these? passed
I. He can dissolve the Lok Sabha (B) once the Chief Justice of India takes out an
II. He accords assent to the bills passed by order to the effect
Parliament (C) as soon as the Gazette of India notifies it
III. He summons both Houses of Parliament (D) once the new incumbent is elected
IV. He orders elections to the Parliament Q58. Mark the correct response :
when its (A) The President has power to remove the
term is over Prime Minister but not any of his ministers
(A) I, II, III and IV (B) I, II and III unless so advised by the Prime Minister
(C) I and II (D) II, III and IV (B) The President has power neither to
remove the Prime Minister nor any of his
Q54. Each member of Parliament who par tic i
ministers unless the Prime Minister loses the
pates in the Presidential election is entitled to
support of majority in Lok Sabha and tenders
cast as many votes as are obtained by
his resignation
dividing the total number of votes of the
Legislative Assemblies of all the States by the (C) The President can remove Prime Minister
total number of elected members of the two the moment he loses his majority in the Lok
Houses of Parliament. This ensures : Sabha
(A) parity between the voting strengths of the (D) The President has a power to remove any
States and the Parliament of the ministers at his pleasure
(B) parity among the States Q59. When charge against the President is
preferred by either House of Parliament and
(C) uniformity of representation of the
is being investigated by other House :
different States
(A) the President has a right to appear and to
(D) all the above
be represented at such investigation
Q55. Put in chronological order the following
(B) the President has no right to appear and
names of
to be represented at such investigation
Presidents of India.
(C) the President has a right of representation
I. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan but he does not have a right of personal
II. V.V. Giri hearing
III. Dr. Zakir Hussain (D) the President has a right to appear and to
IV. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy be represented either personally or through a
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, III, II, IV legal practitioner
(C) II, I, III, IV (D) I, III, IV, II Q60. The President of India is vested with
ordinance making power by Article 126. He
Q56. The President has the power to re move all exercises this power :
the following except :
(A) Attorney-General of India

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 (A) when Lok Sabha is not in session and Q64. The position of the Vice-President of India
circumstances exist which render it necessary resembles, to a great extent, the position of
for the President to take immediate action the Vice-President of
(B) when Council of States is not in session (A) USA (B) Russia
and the President is satisfied that (C) Italy (D) New Zealand
circumstances exist which render it necessary
Q65. In the event of the resignation or death of
for him to take immediate action
the Prime Minister:
(C) when both Houses of Parliament are not
(A) the Ministry is dissolved
in session and President is satisfied that
circumstances exist which made it necessary (B) fresh general elections must take place
for him to take the immediate action (C) the Cabinet may choose another leader
(D) in all the above circumstances (D) the President decides what to do
Q61. Which one of the following statements is Q66. Which one of the following powers can be
most appropriate? exercised by both the Pres i dent and the
(A) The President shall be bound by the Governor?
advice of the Prime Minister (a) Power to pardon a sentence by court
(B) The President shall be bound by the martial
advice given by the Council of Ministers (b) Power to remit a sentence in an offence
(C) The President shall act on the advice of relating to a matter on the State List
the Prime Minister who shall tender such (c) Power to commute a sentence of death in
advice in consultation with his cabinet certain circumstances
(D) The President shall act in accordance with (d) Power to remit a sentence by court
the advice of the Council of Ministers and he martial
may return such advice for reconsideration Q67. Which one of the following statements is
Q62. An ordinance promulgated by the President: correct?
(A) will lapse automatically after 2 months (A) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(B) will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks holds his office during the pleasure of the
from the meeting of the Parliament President
(C) will automatically become a law after 6 (B) The Governor of the State holds his office
months during the pleasure of the President
(D) will continue to be in force till it is (C) The Prime Minister can only be removed
superseded by an Act of the Parliament by a resolution passed by both Houses of
Parliament
Q63. Which of the following is correct?
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be
(A) If both the President and Vice-President
removed at the pleasure of the President
resign, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha will act
as President till a new President is elected Q68. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be re moved
by a resolution passed by
(B) The Constitution of India prescribes both
the minimum and maximum age limits for (A) a majority of all the then members of Lok
contesting the Presidential election Sabha
(C) In the event of resignation of the (B) a majority of the then members of both
President, the Vice President will act as Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
President for the residual period of the (C) two-thirds majority of the total members
President’s tenure of the Lok Sabha
(D) In India, the President is part of the (D) two-thirds majority of the Lok Sabha
Parliament members present and voting

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Q69. With reference to the Constitution of India, (A) geostrophic wind (B) polar wind
consider the following statements: (C) westerlies (D) trade wind
1. The Council of Ministers of the Union is Q75.Which country has the densest railway
responsible to both the Houses of Parliament. network in terms of per million people?
(A) China (B) USA
2. The President of India cannot appoint any
(C) India (D) Australia
one as Union Minister not recommended by
Q76.Which of the following is the largest?
Prime Minister.
(A) Trans Canadian Trans port System
Which of the statements given above is/are (B) Trans-Siberian System
correct? (C) The railway connecting Perth and
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Brisbane
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (D) The railway from Adelaide to Alice Spring
Q70. Consider the following statements: Q77.On the base of international trade, the most
important ocean route is
1. In India, the power to promulgate (A) Atlantic Ocean, Mediterranean Sea, Indian
Ordinances lies with the President only. Ocean via Suez Canal
2. The power to declare emergency in a State (B) Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean via Cape of
in India lies with the President only. Good Hope
Which of the statements given above is/are (C) North Atlantic Ocean route between
correct? Europe and North America
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (D) Western Coast of North America-Europe
route via Panama Canal
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q78.The Rhine is busiest waterway of Europe
Q71. Among the following, whose verses are used because
in Guru Granth Sahib, the holy book of Sikhs? (A) It attracts tourist traffic owing to beautiful
(A) Moinuddin Chishti landscape along its valley
(B) Sheikh fareed (B) It passes through the most fertile
agricultural region of Europe
(C) Muhammad Nizamuddin Auliya
(C) It serves a highly industrial region by
(D) Mahbub-e-Ilahi carrying raw materials and finished products
Q72. Consider the following pair of person and (D) All of the above
their occupation during Mughal period: Q79.The country which possesses huge reserves
Person/Occupation of mineral oil and yet imports it, is:
1. Nilakantha-Astronomer (A) India (B) UK
2. Basawan-Painter (C) USA (D) Indonesia
Q80.The busiest waterway of North America is
3. Tansen-Musician that of
Which of the above given pairs is/are (A) Great Lakes
correctly matched? (B) Panama Canal
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) Mississippi-Missouri
(C) 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) Hudson River
Q81.From trade point of view, Panama Canal is
Q73. Who among the following was the Sikh Guru less important than Suez Canal, because:
when Golden (A) Panama Canal is shorter in length
Temple (HarmandirSahib) was built? (B) Panama Canal is not on level-land
(A) Guru Angad dev (B) Guru Govind singh (C) Trade between thickly populated
(C) Guru Teg bahadur (D) Guru Arjan dev countries is not through Panama
(D) There are locks in Panama Canal
Q74.When the wind is deflected due to the
rotation of the Earth, it is called as:

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Q82.Which of the following minerals is length is increased to2, what will be the value
transported over long distances in its raw of magnetic field in the solenoid?
state? (A)B (B)2B
(A) Copper (B) Bauxite
(C)B/2 (D)B/4
(C) iron ore (D) Petroleum
Q83.When compared to India, Cuba has greater Q89.Which one of the following statements is
perfect - are yield of sugarcane because of: correct about the magnification of an optical
(A) the influence of sea-winds microscope?
(B) fertile soil (A)Magnification increases with the increase
(C) well developed irrigation facilities in focal length of eye piece
(D) vast undulated land availability (B)Magnification increases with the increase
Q84.One of the largest hydel power schemes in focal length of objective
undertaken in North America and shared by (C)Magnification does not depend upon the
the USA and Canada is: focal length of eye piece
(A) Niagara fall region (B) St. Antony falls (D)Magnification decreases with the increase
(C) Hudson rapids (D) McKenzie river in focal length of eye piece
Q85.Most of the Japanese industries are located
on the: Q90.A homogeneous mixture contains two
(A) Hokkaido coast (B) Honshu coast liquids. How are they separated?
(C) Shikoku coast (D) Kyushu coast (A)By filtration (B)By evaporation
Q86.Match List I with List II and select the (C)By distillation (D)By condensation
correct answer using the code given below Q91.Which of the following is/are Palaeolithic
the Lists: site (s) in India?
List I List II 1. Pallavaram
(Disease) (Remedy) 2. Hunsgi valley
A. Hypermetropia 1. Concave lens 3. Bhimbetka
B.Presbyopia 2.Bifocal lens Select the correct answer using the code
C.Myopia 3.Surgery given below:
D.Cataract 4.Convex lens (A) 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
Code: (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
ABCD Q92. Consider the following statements
(A) 4 2 1 3 regarding the “Script of Harappan
Civilization”:
(B) 4 1 2 3
1. Most of the Script is Pictographic in nature.
(C) 3 1 2 4
2. Script was mostly written from left to right.
(D) 3 2 1 4
3. Scripts are yet to be deciphered.
Q87.A circular coil of single tum has a resistance
of 20 Ω. Which one of the following is the Which of the statements given above is/are
correct value for the resistance between the correct?
ends of any diameter of the coil? (A) 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(A)59 Ω (B)10 Ω (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C)20 Ω (D)40 Ω Q93.The “Urn System” in ancient period is
Q88.In a solenoid, the current flowing through related to which of the following?
the wire is / and number of tums per unit (A) Irrigation system (B) Housing method
length is n. This gives a magnetic field B (C) Burial system (D) Barter exchange
inside the solenoid. If number of turn per unit Q94.Consider the following pairs:

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 Ancient city : Adjacent River (B) Lord Minto – India Councils Act 1909
1. Harappa : Ravi River (C) Lord Wellesley – Subsidiary Alliance
2. Mohenjo-daro : Indus River (D) Lord Curzon – Vernacular Press Act 1878
3. Lothal : Mahi River Q101. India Home Rule Society, founded in
Which of the above pairs/pairs is /are London in February 1905, was one of the
correctly matched? earliest revolutionary societies set up outside
India. This society was founded by
(A) 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(A) Lala Har Dayal
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1,2 and 3 only
(B) VD Savarkar
Q95.The song ‘Jana-Gana-Mana’ composed by
Rabindra Nath Tagore was first published in (C) Shyamji Krishnavarma
January 1912 under the title of (D) Madan Lal Dhingra
(A) Jay He (B) Rashtra Jagriti Q102.Which of the following literary
(C) Bharat Vidhata (D) Matribhoomi personalities made the greatest contribution
in arousing patriotism in the 19th century?
Q96.To whom is the statement “Cowardice and
ahimsa do not go together any more than (A) Dinbandhu Mitra’s exposure of Indigo
water and fire” attributed? planters in Nil Darpan
(A) Acharya Narendra Dev (B) Bankim Chandra with his historical novels
culminating with Ananda Math (1882)
(B) M K Gandhi
(C) Vishnu Krishna Chiplunkar’s Journal
(C) Swami Vivekananda
Nibandh Mala (1874-81)
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
(D) Bharatendu Harishchandra (1850-85)
Q97.Who of the following was associated with through his plays, poems and journals
the publication of a large number of weeklies advocating use of Swadeshi articles and use of
and dailies such as Hindustan, Indian Union, Hindi in courts.
Leader, Maryada, Kissan, Abhudaya etc.?
Q103.The places “Kupgallu, Piklihal and
(A) Motilal Nehru Tekkalakota” are related to which of the
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru following?
(C) Madan Mohan Malaviya (A) Ashoka inscription
(D) Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi (B) Early rock paintings
Q98.The Deccan Riots of 1874-75 in Maharashtra (C) Sacred groves
were directed against (D) Ancient cave temples
(A) Big landlords Q104.Consider the following statements
(B) Moneylenders regarding the bronze-casting technique of
(C) Revenue collectors Indus Valley civilization:
(D) British opium planters 1. The bronze statues were made using the
Q99.Who led the armed raid on the government ‘lost wax’ technique.
armory at Chittagong in 1930? 2. Bronze casting was popular at all the major
(A) Chandra Shekhar Azad centers of the Indus Valley Civilization.
(B) Bhagat Singh Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(C) Surya Sen
(A) 1 Only (B) 2 Only
(D) Sukhdev
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Q100. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched? Q105.Two great Buddhist universities of Nalanda
and Vikramshila were patronised by the
(A) Lord Dalhousie – Doctrine of Lapse

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 (A) Palas (B) Paramaras correct?
(C) Chandelas (D) All the above (A) The speed of sound waves in steel is
higher than that in water
Q106.Which country supplies the Apache attack
(B) The speed of sound waves in air
helicopters to India?
decreases with increase in temperature
(A) Japan (B)France
(C) The speed of sound waves in air increases
(C) USA (D) Israel
with increase in temperature
Q107.Which Indian Armed Force is set to hold (D) The speed of sound waves in water is
command-level exercise named ‘Pralay’? higher than that in air
(A) Indian Army (B) Indian Navy
Q115. The part of the human car that converts
(C) Indian Air Force (D) Indian Coast Guard
the pressure variations associated with
Q108.The Statehood Day of Manipur, Meghalaya audible sound waves to electrical signals is
and Tripura is celebrated on which day? (A) Auditory nerve (B) cochlea
(A) January 18 (B)January 21 (C) eardrum (D) Eustachian tube
(C) January 24 (D) January 27
Q116. Which one of the following metals is most
Q109.Which institution manages the National commonly used for making filament of
Pension System (NPS) in India? incandescent electric bulbs?
(A) RBI (B)PFRDA (A) Aluminium (B) Silver
(C) IRDAI (D) SEBI (C) Copper (D) Tungsten
Q110.Which state cabinet has decided to allow Q117. A bullet of mass 10 g is horizontally fired
regularisation of unauthorized quarrying? with velocity 300 m s from a pistol of mass 1
(A)Madhya Pradesh (B)Gujarat kg. What is the recoil velocity of the pistol?
(C) Karnataka (D) Uttar Pradesh (A) 0.3 m s-1 (B) 3 m s-1
Q111. A Simple pendulum having bob of mass m (C) -3 m s -1 (D) -0.3 m s -1
and length of string l has time period of T . If Q118. A vessel contains oil (density ƿ1 ) over a
the mass of the bob is doubled and the length liquid of density ƿ2 ; a homogenous sphere of
of the string is halved then the time period of volume V floats with half of its volume
the pendulum will be immersed in the liquid and the other half un
(A) T (B) T√2 oil . The weight of the sphere is
(C) 2T (D)√2 T (A) V (p2 – p1 )/ 2 (B) V (p2 + p1 )g /2
Q112. In which one of the following devices, the (C) V (p2 + p1 ) (D) V (p2 +p1 )/2
light energy converted into the electrical Q119. A man is sitting on a rotating stool with his
energy? arms outstretched. If suddenly he folds his
(A) Light-emitting diode arms the angular velocity of the man would
(B) Laser diode (A) increase (B) decrease
(C) Solar cell (C) become zero (D) remain constant
(D) Transistor Q120. For a particle revolving in a circular path ,
Q113. SONAR is a device that is used to measure the acceleration of the particle is
distance of underwater object by a ship . (A) along the tangent
Which of the following types of waves does it (B) along the radius
use for this purpose? (C) zero
(A) Infrasonic waves (D) along the circumstance of the circle
(B) Sound waves in audible range or human Q121. A jet plane flies through air with a velocity
beings of 2 Mach. While the velocity of sound is
(C) Ultrasonic waves 332m/s, the air speed of the plane is
(D) All of the above (A) 166 m/s (B) 66.4 km/s
Q114. Which one of the following statement (C) 332 m/s (D) 664 m/s
about the speed of sound waves is not

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Q122. Two sphere of the same metal have radii in (C) depend on its intensity
the ratio 1:2. Their heat capacities are in what (D) neither depend on its wavelength ,
ratio? frequency nor intensity
(A) 1:2 (B) 1:4 Q129. A coin in a beaker filled with water
(C) 2:1 (D) 1:8 appears raised. This phenomenon occurs
Q123. The thermal conductivity of copper is 4 because of the property of
times that of brass. Two rods of copper and (A) reflection of light
brass having same length and cross- section (B) refraction of light
are joined end to end. The free end of copper (C) total internal reflection of light
is at 0℃ and the free end of brass is at 100℃ . (D) interference of light
The temperature of the junction is Q130. Net charge in a current – carrying
(A) 20℃ (B) 40 ℃ conductor is
(C) 60℃ (D) 10℃ (A) always positive
Q124. Some common mediums in which speed (B) always negative
of sound waves is measured are mentioned (C) zero
below? (D) either positive and negative
1. Air 2. Steel Q131. Which one of the following is the
3. Copper 4. Water resistance that must be placed parallel 12Ω
What is the correct increasing order of the resistance to obtain a combined resistance of
speed of sound? 4Ω?
(A) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3 (B) 4 < 1 < 2 < 3 (A) 2Ω (B) 4Ω
(C) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2 (D) 4 < 1< 3 < 2 (C) 6Ω (D) 8Ω
Q125. The simple harmonic motion of a particle Q132.AN electric iron of resistance 20Ω takes a
is given by y-3 sin 𝜔𝑡 + 4 cos 𝜔𝑡 . Which one current of 5 A. The heat developed in joules in
of the following is the amplitude of this 30 s is
motion? (A) 5 kJ (B) 10 kJ
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 15 kJ (D) 20 kJ
(C) 7 (D) 12 Q133. A house, served by a 220 V supply line, is
Q126. Which of the following statements is/are protected by a 9 A fuse. What is the maximum
true regarding a light wave travelling from air number of 60 watt bulbs that can be turned
to glass? on in parallel?
1. Its frequency remains unchanged (A) 11 (B) 22
2. Its speed changes (C) 33 (D) 44
Select the correct answer using the code Q134. The neutron, proton, electron and alpha
given below : particle are moving with equal kinetic
(A) 1 only energies. How can the particles be arranged
(B) 2 only in the increasing order of their velocities?
(C) Both 1 and 2 (A) alpha particle-neutron-proton-electron
(D) Ne with 12Ωither 1 nor 2 (B) proton-electron-neutron-alpha particles
Q127. When an optician prescribes a 5D lens, (C) electron –proton-neutron-alpha particle
what does it mean? (D) neuron-proton-electron-alpha particle
(A) Concave lens of 20 cm focal length Q135. Which one of the following is a good
(B) Convex lens of 5 com focal length conductor of electricity?
(C) Concave lens of 5 com focal length (A) Shellac (B) Human body
(D) Convex lens of 5 com focal length (C) Glass (D) Ebonite
Q128. In vacuum , the speed of light Q136. Which one of the following is the unit of
(A) depends on its wavelength activity of a radioactive source?
(B) depends on its frequency

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 (A) Lux (B) Becquerel A seed is a ripened
(C) Tesla (D) Siemens (A) ovary (B) flower
Q137. Which of the following is the range of (C) gynoecium (D) ovule
frequency used in optical communication? Q146. Which one of the following processes takes
(A) 103 – 104 Hz (B) 108 – 109 Hz place in takes during entrophication?
(C) 10 – 10 Hz
13 14 (D) 1016 – 1017 Hz (A) Rapid destruction of algal growth
Q138. Which one of the following noble gases is (B) Excessive availability of dissolved oxygen
not found in the atmosphere? (C) Loss of dissolved nutrients from water
(A) Argon (B) Krypton (D) Excessive entry of nutrients into water
(C) Radon (D) Xenon Q147. Which one among the following
Q139. Which one of the following are the correct statements regarding cell is not correct?
statements? The force binding the nucleons (A) Shape and size of cells are related to
inside the nucleus is : specific function
(A) charge dependent (B) Some cells have changing shapes
(B) strong and highly repulsive (C) Each cells has its own capacity to perform
(C) a central force (D) Same type of cells are present in all body
(D) charge independent tissues
Q140. Which one among the following is the most Q148. In which one of the following animals, is
appropriate statements with respect to the skin a respiratory organ?
atomic weight of an element? (A) Cockroach (B) Frog
(A) The atomic weight of an element is the (C)Shark (D) Whale
sum total of the number of protons and Q149. In human body which one among the
neutrons present in the atom of the element following is the largest in size?
(B) Unlike mass number ,the atomic weight of (A) Thyroid (B) Liver
an element can be a fraction (C) Pancreas (D) Spleen
(C) The atomic weight of an element is a Q150. Which one of the following glands in
whole number human body is enlarge due to goiter?
(D) The atomic weight of all the atoms in an (A) Adrenal cortex (B) Adrenal medulla
element is the same (C) Pituitary (D) Thyroid
Q141. The main constituent of vinegar is
(A) Citric acid (B) Acetic acid
(C) Ascorbic acid (D) Tartaric acid
Q142. Deionised water is produced by
(A) Calgon process
(B) Ion-exchange resin process
(C) Clark’s process
(D) Permutit process
Q143. The metal atom, which is present in
superphosphate , is
(A) sodium (Na) (B) potassium (K)
(C) calcium (Ca) (D) magnesium (Mg)
Q144. Three elements Na , S and O combine to
form a compound Na2SO3 . What is the
valency of S in this compound?
(A) 2+ (B) 4 +
(C) 6+ (D) 8+
Q145. Which one of the following statements is
correct?

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