UK CAA Ops 6 February
Use my answers at your own risk! The answer I think is correct is highlighted in yellow.
1. What are the requirements to dry lease in from a non-EU operator? (Choose 2)
a. Not more than 7 months in 12 months
b. Demonstrate that operational requirement cannot be fulfilled with an EU operator
2. Which of the following statements regarding safety is true?
a. The Operations Manual is the primary means of safety communications to everyone
in the organisation.
b. Safety communication with an employee is dependent on his roles and duties.
c. The Flight Operations manager is in charge of communicating with all staff regarding
safety.
d. Once a high standard of safety is reached, the organisation does not need to further
communicate with its members about safety.
3. After an act of unlawful interference, who should file a report to the relevant authorities?
a. The Pilot-in-Command
4. What is the ICAO definition of commercial air transport?
a. Any commercial operation
b. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized services such as
agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search
and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.
c. An aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for
remuneration or hire.
d. Brexit is good for Britain
5. A crew member wishes to consult the procedures for emergency evacuation and safety
stations. Where would he look for this information?
a. Part A of the Operations Manual
b. Part B of the Operations Manual
c. Probably some made up ICAO document
d. Are you still reading my made up options?
6. It is snowing and the OAT is -10 degrees Celsius. What should be done?
a. The commander should follow the Clean Aircraft Concept as found in ICAO Doc
whatever
b. In order to prevent stalls the takeoff should be performed at a higher airspeed with
flaps retracted.
c. Check and make sure that the control surfaces are not obstructed with ice, and then
take off.
d. 10 points to Gryffindor
7. A flight crew requires training in an aircraft or simulator every ___ months?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 18
8. What training is required for a pilot to act as Commander?
a. Engine failure during take-off, one-engine inoperative climb, one-engine inoperative
go around, one-engine inoperative landing (and I might have missed one-engine
inoperative missed approach… high five if you get the pun)
b. Engine failure at the most critical point during take-off, one-engine inoperative
holding procedures (blah blah, holding is wrong)
c. Engine failure below 500 feet AGL, one-engine inoperative climb (blah blah)
d. Engine failure during the most critical point during take-off, one-engine precision
approach, one-engine non-precision approach
9. (Using the annex) An aircraft has an ETOPS range of xxx min at yyy kts, and the only suitable
airports are those on the annex. Which track should be selected? (Author’s note: The ETOPS
range is 735 nm or 12.25 degrees of latitude; you will use the latitude to calibrate your
compass)
a. Track A with flight time xxxx (Completely out of ETOPS range)
b. Track B with flight time yyyy (Completely out of ETOPS range)
c. Track C (Out of range of one alternate airport, and the range rings from the two
remaining airports TOUCH at ONE POINT on track C, I shit you not), also this track is
5 minutes faster than track D
d. Track D (Well within ETOPS range, also 5 minutes slower than track C)
I wrote in the comments that depending on how you construct the range rings, track
C is either barely in ETOPS range or about 5 nm out of a 735 nm ETOPS range. If this
were a practical question (i.e. I had to plan on an A4 sheet the best track, I would
choose Track D because I add 5 minutes to my flight time but I am definitely within
ETOPS range
10. According to (some reg), what is Commander’s responsibility regarding low-visibility
operations?
a. Make sure the Master Minimum Equipment List is.. (brain shut off at this point
because MMEL is irrelevant)
b. Ensure that the Minimum Equipment List is consulted and any items that are
deferred are signed
c. The Commander must satisfy himself that the status of the aeroplane and of the
relevant airborne systems is appropriate for the specific operation to be conducted.
d. Ensure training is carried out according to the Operations Manual
11. Maximum duty hours without extension?
a. 13 hours
b. 10 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 65 years
12. Which of the following is correct?
a. All flight equipment requires approval
b. All required flight equipment requires approval
c. A child-restraint does not require approval
d. An accurate time piece does not require approval.
13. You are flying VFR without reference to landmarks, what do you need? (This was an Air Law
question, tricky!)
a. 1 VOR and 1 ADF
b. 2 VORs
c. Radios for two-way communication
d. Radios and navigation equipment appropriate to the route to be flown
14. What is to be protected in the transport of dangerous goods? Pick 3.
a. Passengers
b. Aircraft
c. General public
d. Crew
e. Airport buildings
15. An undeclared dangerous good has been found in baggage belonging to passenger or a
member of crew.
a. The state of occurrence and the local ATS should be notified
b. The crew or passenger must be offloaded and local police informed
c. A report must be submitted to the State in which the dangerous good has been
found
d. Cannot recall
16. According to ICAO Doc whatever (the noise abatement document), procedures should not
be followed if:
a. (Crosswind component, which has not exceeded the crosswind limits from the
document)
b. (Tailwind component, which has not exceeded the tailwind limits from the
document)
c. Horizontal visibility 3000 m
d. Windshear
17. When flying a Category I approach, there is a legal requirement for runway lighting to be
operational. However, when flying a Category IIIB approach at night, there is no legal
requirement for runway and approach lighting to be turned on. Why is this so?
a. Low visibility procedures involve dimming of lights to prevent glare
b. Categories II and above approaches are conducted while flying by instruments only,
so the pilots do not have to look outside
c. Categories II and above approaches are conducted with an autoland with no manual
input
d. The likely visibility would not allow the lights to be seen in any case. (I actually chose
this, I cannot understand why I need to justify a regulation)
18. If you cannot maintain Oceanic clearance, you need to deviate from your route by __ nm
(type in): 15
19. [The dreaded PIKIL question] While flying at FL330 you receive an oceanic clearance to
maintain FL350 after PIKIL. What should you do?
a. Request domestic clearance to climb to FL350
b. Climb to FL350 10 nm away from PIKIL
c. Climb to FL350 after passing PIKIL
d. Climb immediately to FL350
20. What sort of communications will you use while flying on T-routes?
a. VHF or HF with Santa Maria OCA and Shanwick OCA
b. HF with Santa Maria OCA and Shanwick OCA
c. I will attempt to teach Logic
d. Watch me
The options are ambiguous: “VHF or HF with Santa Maria OCA and Shanwick OCA”:
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA Yes Yes
Shanwick OCA Yes Yes
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA Yes No
Shanwick OCA No Yes
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA No No
Shanwick OCA Yes Yes
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA No Yes
Shanwick OCA Yes No
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA Yes Yes
Shanwick OCA No No
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA Yes Yes
Shanwick OCA Yes No
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA No Yes
Shanwick OCA Yes Yes
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA Yes Yes
Shanwick OCA No Yes
All are equally valid interpretations. Extra credit if you spot a mistake?
Likewise, “HF with Santa Maria OCA and Shanwick OCA”
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA No Yes
Shanwick OCA No Yes
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA Yes Yes
Shanwick OCA No Yes
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA Yes Yes
Shanwick OCA Yes Yes
VHF HF
Santa Maria OCA No Yes
Shanwick OCA Yes Yes
21. When should you request an oceanic clearance?
a. 40 minutes before oceanic boundary
b. 15 minutes before oceanic boundary
c. After entering oceanic airspace
d. Fun fact: it costs £122.00 just for the CAA to release records to a new Competent
Authority for a transfer of licence
22. What is true?
a. At some airports close to the Oceanic airspace you must request for oceanic
clearance before departure.
b. Oceanic clearances must be received by 40 minutes before entering oceanic airspace
c. Oceanic clearances must be received by 15 minutes before entering oceanic airspace
d. It’s 0027L here and I’m tired guys
23. What is included in a NAT Oceanic Clearance?
a. Route, FL, Mach
24. Enroute to planned oceanic entry BAGEL you receive an oceanic clearance with entry point
MUPET, what should you do?
a. Programme your FMC to fly directly to MUPET
b. Fly to BAGEL, then to MUPET
c. Request domestic clearance to MUPET
d. Remind the aircraft commander that your ATPL results imply high moral worth
25. Long SNOWTAM extract with H) 4/4/4, what is the estimated surface friction?
a. Medium-good
b. Medium
c. Medium-poor
d. Poor
26. How is an estimated surface friction written in a SNOWTAM?
a. .43/.23/.25
b. 3/3/3
c. GOOD/MEDIUM/GOOD
d. I lucked out having these questions back to back
27. When conducting a Category II approach, what is the requirement for height callouts?
a. 200 feet below the runway threshold elevation
b. 200 feet below the aerodome elevation
c. 500 feet below the aerodome elevation
28. What is the definition of updraft and downdraft windshear?
a. A change in horizontal wind velocity
b. A change in horizontal wind velocity with vertical distance
c. A change in vertical wind velocity
29. Icing was found on the aircraft and only one side of the aircraft was de-iced/anti-iced. The
aircraft then proceeded to take off. Who is at fault? (The question actually used the phrase
“at fault”, which I criticised in my comments, because EVERYONE is at fault in a causal Swiss
Cheese model, but the question is much better phrased with who bears “ultimate
responsibility”)
a. The de-icing operator
b. The airport authority
c. The company that is responsible for de-icing operations
d. The Commander
30. If your static port freezes during a climb? What happens to the altimeter reading?
a. Chaps/chapettes, you should know this
b. Freezes at a fixed altitude
c. Slowly drops to zero
d. Attempts to renegotiate the backstop agreement
31. During flight, ice freezes over the pressure sensors around the engine intake.
a. The master warning warns, and the autopilot disconnects.
b. The engine reports erroneous readings and the auto-thrust provided might be
limited
c. The autopilot is unable to cope, or words to that effect
d. Can’t recall
32. During take-off, windshear is encountered. What is the proper action?
a. Maintain flaps and landing gear configuration until terrain clearance is confirmed.
b. Maintain flaps configuration, but raise the landing gear to improve climb
performance.
c. Now I feel like a question bank writer
d. Hey Macarena?
33. When a microburst is encountered, what is the proper course of action?
a. Aggressively increase thrust to improve performance
b. Quickly and positively increase the pitch angle, taking care not to activate the stick
shaker or equivalent
34. How should a precautionary landing be made?
a. Choose a site at the earliest opportunity
b. Immediately land the aircraft as a top priority
c. The only available site of landing is the takeoff aerodrome
d. The only available site of landing is the alternate aerodrome
35. An identified source of smoke is present in the flight deck. The proper action
a. Inform the cabin crew to don PBE and fight the fire with the H2O extinguisher
b. Isolate the affected equipment using circuit breakers
c. Divert immediately bearing in mind your aircraft is only rated for 90 minutes of
ETOPS
d. Prepare for an emergency landing
36. To ditch an aircraft on water the landing gear should be (up/down) [dropdown box] and the
nose should be (up/down).
37. A tailwind increases during approach. The aircraft:
a. Flies under the glide path
b. Flies above the glide path
c. Stays on the glide path
d. Receives nirvana, and is one with the glide path
38. Where are VORs referenced to True North
a. Canadian Northern Domestic Airspace
39. Given a maximum cabin pressure altitude of 14000 feet and a maximum differential
pressure of 3 psi, what is the maximum cruising altitude? (Use annex)
a. Use the annex, this is dead simple
40. A microburst is an area of intense (updrafts/downdrafts) lasting less than 5 minutes across a
region (greater than/smaller than) 5 km
41. According to EU Air Ops what must the commander consider when planning fuel (choose 3
of 5):
a. Procedures in the Operations Manual
b. Anticipated masses
c. Different types of fuel available
d. Fuel consumption data
e. Something to do with competent authority
