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Ele Telecom Eng P2

This document is a test booklet for an examination with a maximum score of 200 points and a duration of 3 hours. It contains instructions for candidates regarding the examination process, including how to fill out the answer sheet and the consequences of incorrect submissions. The test consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering various topics in electronics and circuit design.

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sibu444
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
48 views16 pages

Ele Telecom Eng P2

This document is a test booklet for an examination with a maximum score of 200 points and a duration of 3 hours. It contains instructions for candidates regarding the examination process, including how to fill out the answer sheet and the consequences of incorrect submissions. The test consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering various topics in electronics and circuit design.

Uploaded by

sibu444
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

D0 NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED T0 DO SO

T. 8. C. : OTE - 9/2023
Test BooHet Serle8
TEST BOOKLET

EE ELECTRON[IC?N::I::i:EicF¥bM-UN]CAT]°:I No 2. 3697
Time Allowed : 3 Hours Maximum Marl8 : 200
: INSTRUCTIONS T0 CANI)IDATES :
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN
OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPIACED BY A COMPLETE
TEST BOOKLET OF` THE SAME SERIES ISSUED TO YOU.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, a, C OR D, AS THE CASE I\IAY
BE, IN THE APPROPRIATE PIACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET USING BALL POINT PEN
(BLUE OR BLACK).
3. You have to enter your Roll No. on the Test Booklet
in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write
czngfhi.ng else on the Test Booklet.
4. YOU ARE REQUIRED TO FII,L UP a DARKEN ROLL NO., TEST BOOKLET /
QUESTION BOOKLET SERIES IN THE ANSWER SHEET AS WELL AS FILL UP
TEST BOOKLET / QUESTION BOOKLE'r sERIEs AND SERIAI, NO. AND ANswER
SHEET SERIAI, NO. IN THE ATTENDANCE SHEET CAREFULLY. WRONGLY
FILLED UP ANSWER SHEETS ARE LIABIE FOR RRJECTION AT THE RISK OF
THE CANDIDATE.
5. This Test Booklet contains loo items (questions). Each item (question) comprises
of four responses (answers). You have to select the correct response (answer)
¥hmlmc:rey::==:etoco¥¥ci|:=p:::)ei=Tweerf;g:rsE:::i.inarcis(a,aryf:nie&et:::pg:::
(answer) which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response
(answer) for each item (question).
6. You have to mark (darken) all your responses (answers) ONLY on the Separate
Answer Sheet provided by using BALL POINT PEN (BLUE OR BLACK). See
instructions in the Answer Sheet.
7. All items (questions) carry equal marks. All items (questions) are compulsory. Your
total marks will depend only on the number of correct responses (answers) marked
by you in the Answer Sheet. There shall be negative marhig of 25% weightage.
8. Before you proceed to mark (darken) in the Answer Sheet the responses (answers) to
yh=g:S;teermssh::T:Sstfp°enrsL[en£#s:::ato:s°:gnetttoy;:uh:yaty°ofT£:=3££eo:¥#g:tier
9. After you have completed filling in all your responses (answers) on the Answer
Sheet and after conclusion of the examination, you should hand over to the Invigilator
the Ausu/er Sheet issued to you. You are allowed to take with you the candidate's
copy / second page of the Answer Sheet along with the Test Booklet, after
completion of the examination, for your reference.
10.Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO


/36-A
1. Driving a LJK flip-flop with input and 6. The Boolean function y= AB+ CD
its negation at J and K terminals is to be realized using only two-
respectively result in input NAND gates. The minimum
number of gates required is
(A) SR
(A)2
(B)T
(a)3
(C)D
(C)4
(D) None of the above
(D)5
2. Two operands can be checked for
equality using 7. Identify the correct pair of
universal gates.
(A) OR operation
(A) AND, OR
(8) NAND operation
(a) NOR, OR
(C) EX-OR operation
(C) NAND, NOR
(D) None of the above (D) NAND, EX-OR

3. SRAM devices are made using 8. Logic gates with associated


(A) Bipolar, MOS or BiMOS
hysteresis are
technologies (A) latches
(8) MOS technology (8) Schmitt gates
(C) Bipolar technology (C) finite state machines
(D) BiMOS technology (D) None of the above

4. F`ind the decimal equivalent of a 9. What is the minimum resolvable


binary number 10001110, which analog signal in mv in the case of
has been represented in 2's a 12-bit A/D converter for a full
complement form. scale analog input of 5 V?

(A) -114 (A) 1.2

(a) +114 (8) 10

(C) +142 (C) 20

(D) 30
(D) None of the above
10. The average conversion time of an
5. Octal equivalent of hexadecimal
eight-bit counter-type A/D converter
number 2E.Cl would be
run by a 10 MHz clock would be
(A) 212.602
(A) 12.8LLS

(8) 156.602
(a) 25.5LIS
(C) 56.623 (C) 80ns
(D) 6lF.C4 (D) 800ns
/36-A
11. A counter that has a modulus of 64 16. For the BJT circuit shown in the
should use a minimum of how many following figure, assume that the P
flip-flops? of the transistor is very large and
(A)6 VBE = 0.7 V- The mode of operation
(a) 16
of the BJT is
10kQ
(C)8

(D) None of the above

12. A full-adder can be constructed


from two half-adders and one
(A) two-input OR gate
(8) two-input NAND gate
(C) two-input Exclusive-NOR gate (A) cut-off

(D) None of the above (8) saturation


(C) normal active
13. In a decoder, n is the number of
(D) reverse active
input lines and in is the number of
output lines. Which of the following
17. The bias current through the diodes
equations is valid?
in rnA is
(A) in-2n
9900 a
(a) rl-2m
(c) m=2n
(D) ns2m 12.7 V

14. The Quine-Mccluskey tabulation


method of simplification of Boolean
functions is based on
(A) De Morgan's thorem
(8) absorption law
(A)1
(C) complementation theorem
(8) 1.28
(D) involution theorem
(C) 1.5
15. The channel length modulation
coefficient is ignored. If the gate- (D)2
to-source voltage V GS is 1 V to
keep the transistor at the edge of 18. Input and output from a common-
saturation, then threshold voltage base amplifier are fed to an
or the transistor (rounded off to one oscilloscope to see their phase
decimal place) is relationship. The Lissajous figure is
(A) O.3V (A) a straight line
(a) 0.5V (8) an ellipse
(C) 1.6V (C) an oblique ellipse
(D) lv (D) a circle
/36-A I P.T.O.
19. The output voltage (in volts) of the 22. If the given circuit is in active region
circuit shown in the following figure and has a higher value of a, then
is the value of IC is

220 HF

__,__EE
(A) lloJZ
(a) 110

(c) 22oJZ
(D) None of the above (A) 15mA

(B) 5InA

20. Which of the following circuits can (C) 7mA


be used for generating a square (D) None of the above
wave signal from a sinusoidal input?
(A) Diode clipper 23.r£:e:ujFusthvoo#:ge]|v?hoeftf%:1:i:c£:1:
(8) Diode clanper figure (given that VBE voltage for
(C) Voltage comparator transistors 0] and 02 is O.7V) is
(D) Oscillator circuit

21. Circuit shown in the following figure


isa

(A) clipping circuit (A) 450


(8) positive clamping circuit (B) 511

(C) negative clamping circuit (C) 4300


(D) two-level clipper (D) None of the above

/36-A 4
24. The ideal op-amp has which of the 28. The input offset voltage of the op-amp
following characteristics? is 0.5 mv. What is the output voltage
of the circuit shown?
(A) R{ = oo, A = co, I?a = 0

(8) j3, = 0, A = co, Ro = 0

|C) Rt = co, A = co, Ro = cx.

(D) Rz. = 0, A = cx], Ro = oo

25. In a negative feedback amplifier


using voltage-series (i.e., voltage
sampling, series mixing) feedback
(A) ji{ decreases and j3o decreases (A) ±lv

(a) Rf decreases and Ro increases (a) ±1.25V


(C) Rf increases and Ro decreases (C) ±O.625V
(D) Rz increases and I?o increases
(D) ±2.5V
26. If input offset voltage of 5 mv and
an open-loop voltage gain of 10000, 29. Find the value of A to ensure the
then Vo is stability of the system given by the
open-loop transfer function.

Ks (3s + 1)
G(s) -
(s + 1)(s + 2)

(A) -2

(8)0

(C) All positive value of A

(D) None of the above


(A) OV

(8) 5mv 30. Which one of the following options


coITectlg describes the location of
(C) +15V or -15V the roots of the equation
(D) +50V or -50V s4 + s2 + 1 = 0 on the plane?

27. The current gain of a bipolar (A) Four Left Half Plane (LHP) roots
transistor drops at high frequencies (8) One Right Half Plane (RHP)
because of root, one LHP root and two roots
(A) transistor capacitance on the imaginary axis

(8) high current effects in the base (C) Two RHP roots and two LHP roots
(C) parasitic inductive elements (D) All four roots are on the
(D) the early effect imaginary axis

/36-A I P.T.O-
31. Signal flow graph is used to obtain 35. A unity feedback control system
the hGa(a:)=Ko/i:3n-+Lo;:2t:ar2s:;:T::c:==
(A) stability of a system
K for which s = -1 + j 1 will lie on
(8) transfer function of a system the root locus of this system is
(C) controllability of a system
(A)4
(D) observability of a system
(8) 5.5
32. A unity feedback system has open- (C) 6.5
loop transfer function G(s). The
(D) 10
steady state error is zero for
(A) step input and type-1 G(s) 36. The root locus of the system
(8) ramp input and type-1 G(s) G(s) = K/(s(s + 2)(s + 3)) has the
(C) ramp input and type-O G(s) break-away point located at
(D) None of the above (A) (-0.5, 0)
(8) (-2.548, 0)
33. A linear time invariant system is
desc[:b:e]d=b[y_ore_§[[t::vffia:b]L:model (C) (4, 0)
(D) (-0.784, 0)

37. The phase of the lead compensator


y-[1 2][::] G(s) = (s + ci)/(s + b) will be
maximum at
(A) The system is completely (AI J52 ra!ii|s
controllable
(8) The system is not completely (a) J5rad/s
controllable
(C) The system is partially (C) J6rad/s
observable
(D) Ji5rad/s
(D) The system is not completely
controllable but completely
observable 38. For the signal flow graph shown in
the following figure, determine the
34. A region of negative differential transfer function for A = 1.
resistance is observed in the
current-voltage characteristics of a
silicon PIv junction, if
(A) both the P-region and the
JV-region are heavily doped
(8) the IV-region is heavily doped
compared to the P-region
(C) the P-region is heavily doped (A) 1/(s+ 1)
compared to the IV-region
(8) 0.5/(s + 2)
(D) an intrinsic silicon region is
inserted between the P-region (C) 1/(s+ 1.5)

and the IV-region (D) 0.5/(s + 1.5)


/36-A
39. The transfer function of the system 43. Identify the lead compensator
among the following.

(A) s + 2/s + 4

(a) s + 2/s(s + 4)

(C) s + 4/s + 2

(D) None of the above


1S

(A) G] + G2(1 -Gi Hi)/1 -GiHi 44. A transmission line has an


inductance of 8.25 nH/in and a
(8) Gi + G2(1 + GiHi)/1 -GiHi
capacitance of 3.3 pF/in. What will
(C) G] + G2(1 + GiHi)/1 + GiHi be the characteristic impedance of
transmission line in ohms?
(D) None of the above
(A) 2500
40. The point from which the signal is
(a) 300
taken for the feedback purpose is
(C) 75
(A) summing point
(D) 50
(8) take-off point

(C) feedback point 45. Negative feedback in a closed-loop


(D) None of the above control system does not

(A) reduce the overall again


41. Find the steady-state response
of the transfer function (8) reduce bandwidth
C = 20/s(s2 + 20s + 60).
(C) improve disturbance rejection
(A) 0.33
(D) reduce sensitivity to parameter
(a) 0.5 variation

(C) 0.75
46. A lead compensator network
(D) None of the above includes a parallel combination of
A and C in the feed-forward path.
42. If G(s)fJ(s) = K/s(s + 2)(s + 3), then If the transfer function of the
the type and order of the system compensator is G(s) = s + 2/s + 4,
are the value of RC is

(A) 1,2 (A) 0.5

(8) 1,3 (a)7

(C) 3' 3 (C) 10

(D) None of the above (D) None of the above


/36-A I P.T.0.
47. The amplitude spectrum of a 51. The frequency range for satellite
Gaussian pulse is communication is

(A) 1 kHz to 100 kHz


(A) uniform
(8) loo kHz to 10 MHz
(8) Gaussian
(C) 10 MHz to 30 MHz
(C) sinusoidal
(D) 1 GHz to 30 GHz
(D) exponential
52. An AM signal is detected using an
envelope detector. The carrier
48. The image channel selectivity of
frequency and the modulating
superheterodyne receiver depends
signal frequency are 1 MHz and
upon
2 kHz respectively. An appropriate
value for the time constant of the
(A) IF` amplifiers only
envelope detector in microseconds
(8) RF and IF amplifiers only is

(A) 500
(C)preselector, RF and IF
amplifiers (a) 20

(D) preselector and RF amplifiers (C) 0.2

(D)1
49. The spectral density of a real
valued random process has 53. In a PCM system, if the code word
length is increased from 6 to 8 bits,
(A) an even symmetry the signal to quantization noise
ratio improves by the factor
(8) an odd symmetry
(A) 8/6
(C) no symmetry
(a) 12/7
(D) a conjugate symmetry
(C) 16

(D) 0.5
50. A rectangular pulse of duration W
is applied to a filter matched to the
input. The output of the filter is 54. Identify the modulation scheme
suitable for television
(A) rectangular pulse of duration W communications .

(8) rectangular pulse of duration (A) SSB


2W
(a) PM

(C) triangular pulse (C) VSB

(D) sine function (D) DSB

/36-A
55. A communication channel with 58. In case of data transmission, which
AWGN operating at SNR>>| and one of the following has the highest
bandwidth 8 has a capacity C. If probability of error?
SNR is doubled keeping bandwidth
(A) ASK
constant, then the resulting capacity
will be approximately (a) BPSK
(C) FSK
(A) 2C
(D) QPSK
(a) C+B

(C) C+2B
59. A 500 W carrier signal is amplitude
modulated with a modulation
(D) C + 0.38 percentage of 60%. The total power
in the modulated signal, if the form
of amplitude modulation used is
56. Sigrials, each band limited to 5 kHz, A3E, is
are to be transmitted over a single
channel by frequency division (A) 590W
multiplexing. If AM-SSNB (a) 125W
modulation guard band of 2 kHz is
(C) 234W
used, then the bandwidth of the
multiplexed signal will be (D) 300W

(A) 122kHz 60. Which of the following schemes


suffers from the threshold effect?
(8) 96kHz
(A) AM detection using envelope
(C) 80 kHz detection
(D) 31 kHz (B) AM detection using
synchronous detection
57. Which one of the following (C)FM detection using a
statements about delta modulation discriminator
(DM) is t-e? (D) SSB detection with
synchronous detection
(A) The sum of message signal
sample with its prediction is
61. A 4-GHz carrier is DSBSC
quantized modulated by a low-pass message
signal with maximum frequency of
(8) The message signal sample is
directly quantized, and its 2 MHz. The resultant signal is to
be ideally sampled. The minimum
prediction is not used frequency of the sampling impulse
train in Megahertz is
(C) The difference of message
signal sample and a random (A)8
signal is quantized
(8) 15
(D) The difference of message (C) 17
signal with its prediction is
quantized (D) None of the above

/36-A I P.T.O.
62. A super heterodyne radio receiver 66. In delta modulation, the slope
with an intermediate frequency of overload distortion can be reduced
455 kHz is tuned to a station ky
operating at 1200 kHz. F`ind the
associated image frequency in (A) decreasing the step size
Megahertz.
(8) decreasing the granular noise
(A)2
(C) decreasing the sampling rate
(8) 4.2
(D) increasing the step size
(C) 2.11

(D) None of the above 67. The minimum bandwidth required


in MHz to achieve a Pe of 10-7 for a
63. The bandwidth of an FM signal in 8-PSK system operating at 10 Mbps
kilohertz, produced in a commercial with a carrier-to-noise power ratio
FM broadcast with modulating of 11.7 dB in MHz is (Given that the
signal frequency being in the range minimum Eb/No ratio to achieve Pe
of 10-7 is 14.7 dB.)
of 50 Hz to 15 kHz and maximum
allowable frequency deviation being
(A) 20
75 kHz, is
(a) 40
(A) 200
(C) 15
(8) 210
(D) 10
(C) 450

(D) 460
68. Flat-top sampling of low-pass
signals
64. The impulse response of filter
matched to the signal (A) gives rise to aperture effect
s(a = g/f/ -8(t -2) * g(t) is
(8) implies oversampling
(A) s(1 -t)
(C) leads to aliasing
(8) -s(1 -t)
(D) introduces delay distortion
(C) -s(t)

(D) s(t) 69. Source encoding in a data


communication system is done in
65. If the detection threshold is 1, then order to
the bit error rate (BER) will be
(A) enhance the information
(A) 1/2 transmission rate

(B) 1/4 (a) conserve the transmitted power


(C) 1/8 (C) decrease probability of error
(D) 1/16 (D) None of the above
/36-A 10
70. Increased pulse width in the flat- 74. An air-filled rectangular waveguide
top sampling leads to has inner dimensions of 3 cm x 2 cm.
The wave impedance of the E20
(A) attenuation of high frequencies mode of propagation in the
in reproduction
waveguide at a frequency of 30 GHz
(a) attenuation of low frequencies is (free space impedance ho = 377 f2)
in reproduction
(A) 308 a
(C) greater aliasing errors in (a) 400 a
reproduction
(C) 355 a
(D)no harmful effects in
reproduction (D) 461 a

75. If the reflection coefficient of a


71. The signal-to-quantization-noise
ratio in an 7t-bit PCM system device is 0.1, then the values of
return loss and VSWR are
(A) depends upon the sampling
frequency employed (A) 1.22 and 20
(8) 0.81 and 10
(a) is independent of the value
ofn (C) -0.22 and 10

(C) increases with increasing (D) 0.14 and 12


value of n
76. A transmission line of
(D) decreases with the increasing
value of n characteristic impedance 50 f2 is
terminated in a load impedance ZL.
The VSWR of the line is measured
72. The multiple access technique in as 5 and the first of the voltage
which each earth station is able to maxima in the line is observed at a
access only a small part of the distance of 1/4 from the load. The
transponder bandwidth is value of ZL is
(A) FDMA (A) loo
(a) TDMA (a) 250 a
(C) CDMA (C) (19.23 +j46.15) a
(D) None of the above (D) (ig.23 -j46.15) r2

73. A rectangular waveguide of internal 77. A 75 a transmission line that is a


dimensions (a = 4 cm and b = 3 cm) half wave long is terminated in a
is to be operated in TEll mode. The load resistance of 300 f2. Determine
minimum operating frequency is its input impedance.
(A) 6.25 GHz (A) 50 Q

(a) 6.0 GHz (a) 100 a

(C) 5.0 GHz (C) 300 a

(D) 3.75 GHz (D) 75 f2

/36-A 11 I P.T.O.
78. The depth of penetration of a wave 82. How much phase shift does an
in a lossy dielectric increases with isolator produce in forward
increasing direction?

(A) conductivity (A) 00

(8) permeability
(a) goo
(C) wavelength
(C) 3200
(D) permittivity
(D) 1800

79. The polarization of a wave with


electric field vector 83. Which device minimizes the
reflections?
6=Eoejtcot-Pzl(ax+au)
(A) Gyrator
is
(8) Circulator
(A) linear
(C) Magic Tee
(13) elliptical

(C) left-hand circular (D) Isolator

(D) right-hand circular


84. F`or use as a local oscillator for
frequency measurements, the most
80. F`or an electromagnetic wave suitable microwave source would be
propagating in a conducting medium
having s = 60 ms/in and "r = 1, (A) TWT
attenuation coefficient at 1 GHz
would be equal to (8) magic tee

(A) 48.6 x |o4/in (C) reflex klystron


(a) 38-7 x |o6/in (D) magnetron
(C) 58.7 x |04/in
85. In a circularly polarized uniform
(D) 78.5 x |o4/in
wave travelling in x direction, the
phase difference between E_ and E
81. The outputs of directional couplers is
have a phase difference of
(A) 300
(A) 900

(a) 450
(8) 450

(C) 1800 (C) goo

(D) None of the above (D) 1800

/36-A 12
86. If the frequency of incident wave 90. For 8085 microprocessor, the
increases by a factor 9, then the following program is executed :
depth to which an EM wave MVI A, 05H;
propagates in a conducting material
MVI a, 05H;
(A) increases by a factor of 2 FTR: ADD a;
(8) decreases by a factor of 2 DCR a;

(C) increases by a factor of 3 |JNZ FTR;

ADI 03H;
(D) decreases by a factor of 3
HLT;

87. Addressing of a 32 K x 16 memory At the end of program, accumulator


is realized using a single decoder. contains
The minimum number of AND gates
(A) 17H
required for the decoder is
(a) 20 H
(A) 28
(C) 23 H
(8) 219 (D) 05 H

(c) 215
91. Initially content of accumulator is
(D) 232 00 H and content of memory
location is 20 H. If in addition,
following code exists from 0109 H
88. Determine the minimum number onwards
of address lines needed to map main
memory of the size 64 MB. ORI 40 H
ADDM
(A)6
What will be the result in the
(8) 12 accumulator after the last
instruction is executed?
(C) 16
(A) 40 H
(D) 24
(a) 20 H
(C) 60H
89. Which device requires a refresh
circuitry to maintain the saved (D) 42 H
data?
92. Status register is also called
(A) DRAM
(A) accumulator
(a) ROM
(a) stack
(C) EPROM (C) flag

(D) EEPROM (D) None of the above

/36-A 13 I P.T.O.
93. In a microprocessor, the service 97. In an 8085 microprocessor, the
routine for a certain interrupt instruction CMP 8 has been
starts from a fixed location of executed while the content of the
memory which cannot be extemally accumulator is less than that of
set, but the interrupt can be register 8. As a result
delayed or rejected. Such an
inter-pt is (A) carry flag will be set but zero
flag will be reset
(A) non-maskablc and non-
(a) carry flag will be reset but zero
vectored
flag will be set
(8) maskable and non-vectored (C) both carry flag and zero flag will
(C) non-maskable and vectored be reset
(D) maskable and vectorcd (D) both carry flag and zero flag will
be set
94. Program counter is used to
98. The phenomenon known as `early
(A) store address of the next effect' in a bipolar transistor refers
instruction to be executed
to a reduction of the effective base
(8) store temporary data to be used width caused by
in arithmetic operations
(A) electron-hole recombination at
(C) store the status of the the base
microprocessor
(8) the reverse biasing of the base-
(D) None of the above collector junction
(C) the forward biasing of emitter-
95. The set of commands which give base junction
directions to the assembler during
the assembly process but are not (D) the early removal of stored
translated into machine base charge during saturation
instructions are called to cut-off switching

(A) mnemonics 99. The Ebers-Moll model is applicable


(8) identifiers to

(C) directives (A) bipolar junction transistors


(D) operands (8) NMOS transistors
(C) unipolar junction transistors
96. In an 8085 microprocessor, the shift
registers which store the result of (D) junction field-effect transistors
an addition and the overflow bit are
respectively 100. Which of the following has its units
as watt/m2?
(A) a and F
(A) Transmission coefricient
(a) A and F
(8) Reflection coefficient
(C) H and F
(C) Poynting vector
(D) A and C
(D) None of the above
/36-A 14
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

/36-A 15 I P.T.0.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

***
orE-9/2o23/36-A 16 PPP24/I(082)-213x4

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