LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2025-26

MOCK CLAT 05

TR ID.

(In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

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Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader

rs . Maximum Marks : 120

10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for

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(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy response Sheet.
has to be detached and taken by the
candidates.

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2. In case of any discrepancy in the question k 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for
shading the circles. Indicate only the most
appropriate answer by shading from the

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booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. 6P6Q3R6L
Do not use the previous OMR response Sheet tr-5L9L8O
options provided. The answer circle should be
shaded completely without leaving any space.
12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected

To
for a fresh booklet so obtained.
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank
OMR response Sheet under any circumstance.
Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled
carefully.
on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have
to take necessary precautions before marking
the appropriate circle.
13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be to be produced at the time of Admission.
sought on the Questions Paper 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is not fold.
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate the
tr-5H 6E6J3E6Gprovided on the OMR response
9G8Jspace
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shall result in the cancellation his/her Sheet. Candidate should sign in the space
examination. provided on the OMR response Sheet.
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No.,
prosecuted. and sign in the space/column provided in the
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law attendance sheet.
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
multiple Choice Questions. Sheet to the invigilator after the examination.
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks OMR response Sheet other than the details
will be deducted for every wrong answer or required and in the spaces provided for.
where candidates have marked more than one
response.
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CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 8
Legal Reasoning 53-84 14
Logical Reasoning 85-108 24
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 30

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SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): In today’s rapidly globalizing world, the clash between traditional attire and modern fashion
is becoming more visible. Recent incidents highlight a growing issue: a woman was turned away from a pub in
Gurugram for wearing a sari, and a man in Bengaluru was barred from a mall for donning a dhoti. These events
reveal a deeper cultural divide in contemporary India, reflecting how some westernized Indians are disconnected
from their own rich heritage .In urban centres like Gurugram and Bengaluru, where the influence of global
culture is strong, traditional garments such as the sari and dhoti often seem out of place.
For some modern Indians, traditional attire feels out of sync with contemporary lifestyles. As cities rapidly
modernize and global fashion trends dominate, garments like the sari and dhoti are sometimes seen as old-
fashioned or impractical for daily wear. In a world that constantly moves forward, traditional clothing can seem
like an awkward relic of the past.

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This is not just about personal preference but about broader societal attitudes. The sari and dhoti, deeply

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embedded in our culture and history, are often relegated to special occasions or traditional settings. In a world

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where modernity is associated with progress and sophistication, these garments sometimes seem at odds with
the image of a 'global citizen.'

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The term 'woke' often describes a heightened awareness of social issues. Yet, in India, this concept sometimes
overlooks the importance of cultural pride. Being truly woke should involve celebrating and integrating one's

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heritage with a global perspective. Unfortunately, for many Westernized Indians, aligning with international
fashion trends often takes precedence over embracing traditional attire.

history, and the dhoti, representing traditional

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This divide is particularly evident in how traditional garments are perceived. The sari, with its elegance and rich

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tr-5L9L8O6P6Q
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life. This perception reflects a broader issue where Western norms are prioritized, leaving our traditional attire
undervalued.

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Globalization has brought about remarkable opportunities for cultural exchange, but it also presents a paradox:
global influences are often celebrated, while local traditions can be sidelined. This paradox is evident in how
traditional Indian garments are perceived. While Western fashion trends are embraced, traditional attire is
sometimes pushed to the periphery. For those who adopt Western lifestyles, traditional garments might seem
less sophisticated or relevant. This attitude can lead to situations where wearing such attire results in exclusion
or mockery. It’s not just about individual choice but reflects a broader cultural shift that places global trends
above local traditions. tr-5H9G8J6E6J
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Reclaiming cultural identity involves 8O more
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than just acknowledging traditional garments; it requires integrating
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these elements into everyday life. It means appreciating the historical and cultural significance of the sari and
dhoti and celebrating them as vital parts of our heritage.
[Link]
some-indians-struggle-to-embrace-their-cultural-garments/articleshow/[Link]
1. Which literary device is used in the phrase "traditional clothing can seem like an awkward relic of the past" from
the passage?
(a) Metaphor (b) Simile (c) Hyperbole (d) Personification
2. According to the author, the clash between traditional and modern attire in India highlights:
(a) A preference for Western fashion over Indian garments
(b) The impracticality of traditional garments in modern times
(c) A broader cultural divide in contemporary Indian society
(d) The influence of globalization on traditional values
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3. The term 'woke,' as used in the passage, implies:

(a) An awareness of global fashion trends
(b) A deeper understanding of cultural pride alongside global perspectives
(c) A rejection of traditional attire in favor of modernity
(d) An indifference towards societal issues
4. What does the author suggest about traditional Indian garments like the sari and dhoti?
(a) They are unsuitable for modern daily life
(b) They symbolize outdated cultural practices
(c) They are relegated to special occasions and traditional settings
(d) They conflict with the image of a global citizen
5. The passage suggests that reclaiming cultural identity involves:
(a) Wearing traditional attire only on special occasions
(b) Replacing Western fashion trends with Indian garments
(c) Acknowledging and integrating traditional attire into everyday life

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6.
(d) Prioritizing global fashion trends over traditional clothing
According to the author, the influence of globalization has:

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(a) Encouraged the complete abandonment of traditional attire
(b) Provided opportunities for cultural exchange and sidelined local traditions

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(c) Made traditional garments impractical for modern lifestyles
(d) Created an irreparable divide between traditional and modern cultures

things only when they are all over? Let us tr-

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Passage (Q.7-Q.12): I wonder if we really are aware of anger, sadness, happiness? Or are we aware of these

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begin as6Pthough
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Let us not make any assertions, dogmatic or subtle, but let us explore this question which, if one really went into
it very deeply, would reveal an extraordinary state that the mind had probably never touched, a dimension not

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touched by superficial awareness. Let us start from the superficial and work through. We see with our eyes, we
perceive with our senses the things about us - the colour of the flower, the humming bird over the flower the
light of this Californian sun, the thousand sounds of different qualities and subtleties, the depth and the height,
the shadow of the tree and the tree itself. We feel in the same way our own bodies, which are the instruments of
these different kinds of superficial, sensory perceptions. If these perceptions remained at the superficial level
there would be no confusion at all. That flower, that pansy, that rose, are there, and that's all there is to it. There
is no preference, no comparison, no like, and dislike, only the thing 6G before us without any psychological
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involvement. Is all this superficial sensory perception or awareness quite clear? It can be expanded to the stars,
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to the depth of the seas, and totr-the ultimate frontiers of scientific observation, using all the instruments of modern
technology.
7. According to the passage, how does the author describe superficial sensory perceptions?
(a) They are heavily influenced by psychological involvement.
(b) They are clear and involve no preferences or comparisons.
(c) They are confused and unclear without advanced instruments.
(d) They are the only way to understand emotions deeply.
8. What does the passage suggest about psychological involvement in sensory perception?
(a) It enriches our understanding of the world around us.
(b) It creates confusion by adding preferences and comparisons.
(c) It helps us distinguish between sensory and emotional awareness.
(d) It enables the mind to explore extraordinary dimensions.

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9. According to the passage, what would happen if sensory perceptions remained at a superficial level?
(a) There would be no confusion or psychological involvement.
(b) They would reveal extraordinary states of mind.
(c) They would be limited to the boundaries of scientific observation.
(d) They would hinder our ability to understand emotions.
10. What is the antonym for the word “superficial” as used in the passage?
(a) Profound (b) Deep (c) Comprehensive (d) All of the above
11. What is the primary question the author poses about awareness of emotions?
(a) Are we aware of emotions only after they pass?
(b) Can emotions be observed scientifically like sensory perceptions?
(c) Do emotions stem from superficial awareness?

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(d) Is there a universal way to understand emotions?
12. What does the author imply is necessary to explore extraordinary states of the mind?
(a) Ignoring sensory perceptions
(b) Starting from scratch without assumptions

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(c) Relying on modern technology and instruments

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(d) Comparing sensory and emotional awareness

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Passage (Q.13-Q.18): Steve Jobs has built a reputation in the digital world of bits and bytes, but he creates

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stories in the very old world tradition of pen and paper. His presentations are theatrical events intended to
generate maximum publicity, buzz, and awe. They contain all of the elements of great plays or movies: conflict,

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resolution, villains, and heroes. And, in line with all great movie directors, Jobs storyboards the plot before
picking up a “camera” (i.e., opening the presentation software).
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closely involved in every detail of a presentation:
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It‘s marketing theater unlike any other. Jobs is
writing descriptive taglines, creating slides, practicing demos,

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and making sure the lighting is just right. Jobs takes nothing for granted. He does what most top presentation

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designers recommend: he starts on paper. “There‘s just something about paper and pen and sketching out rough
ideas in the ‘analog world’ in the early stages that seems to lead to more clarity and better, more creative results
when we finally get down to representing our ideas digitally,” writes Garr Reynolds in Presentation Zen. Design
experts, including those who create presentations for Apple, recommend that presenters spend the majority of
their time thinking, sketching, and scripting. Nancy Duarte is the genius behind Al Gore’s An Inconvenient
Truth. Duarte suggests that a presenter spend up to ninety hours to create an hour-long presentation that contains
thirty slides. However, only one-third of that time should be dedicated to building the slides, says Duarte. The
first twenty-seven hours are dedicated to researching the topic, 9G8J6E6J3E6Ginput from experts, organizing ideas,
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collaborating with colleagues,tr-5L
and9L sketching the structure of the story.
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13. What is the primary theme of the passage?

(a) The evolution of presentation software over time.
(b) The meticulous process behind Steve Jobs' presentations and its emphasis on storytelling.
(c) The technical aspects of Apple's product designs.
(d) The significance of using digital tools in modern presentations.
14. How does Steve Jobs' presentation style differ from traditional methods?
(a) He focuses solely on digital tools and flashy visuals.
(b) He emphasizes storytelling, theatrical elements, and thorough preparation.
(c) He disregards technical aspects and prioritizes spontaneity.
(d) He spends minimal time practicing and relies on improvisation.

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15. What does Garr Reynolds mean by "analog world"?

(a) A world dominated by digital tools and presentation software.
(b) The use of traditional tools like pen and paper to sketch ideas.
(c) A world without modern presentation methods.
(d) The concept of using retro styles in design.
16. Why does Nancy Duarte emphasize spending the majority of time on preparation?
(a) To create visually appealing slides.
(b) To research, organize ideas, and structure the story effectively.
(c) To reduce the need for collaboration with colleagues.
(d) To avoid spending too much time on slide-building.
17. What is the source from which this passage is likely taken?

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(a) A biography of Steve Jobs. (b) A book on presentation techniques.

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(c) A critique of Apple's marketing strategy. (d) A manual for using presentation software.
18. Vocab in context: What does “storyboard” most likely mean in the passage?
(a) A list of bullet points summarizing a presentation.
(b) A visual outline or sketch of the flow of ideas.

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(c) A software tool used for creating slides.
(d) A step-by-step manual for making presentations.

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Passage (Q.19-Q.24): All complex adaptive systems share common characteristics, irrespective of whether the
complex adaptive system is the economy, the internet, an ant colony or the brain. First of all the system is

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complex, it contains many diverse and specialized agents, components or parts (>3) in an intricate arrangement,
which are the building blocks of the CAS. Second, it is6Ladaptive, it has the capacity to change under influence
of feedback or memory (learn from experience)

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and thus evolve, giving it resilience in the face of trepidation.
CAS are usually open systems, i.o.w. a system which continuously interacts with its environment. This permits

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feedback. The interaction can take the form of information, energy, or material transfers into or out of the system
boundary. Neighboring interactions preponderate in CAS, which can be both positive and or negative feedback,
but some long range interactions exist, which creates a small world topology. CAS have a history or memory:
they evolve and their past is co-responsible for their present behavior. The most important characteristic of
CAS is that they show emergence: the whole is more than the sum of the components and the very specific
connectivity creates an innovative property. CAS are self-organizing, that is, the complexity of the system,
and thus emergence, increases without an external organizer but by making the components competitive. This
results in nonlinear behavior: small causes can have largetr-results, 3E6Gknown as the butterfly effect. Thus
also
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anything can emerge, dependingtr-5L9Lon the feedback, and if you wait long enough it will happen. The emergence
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arises once a lever or tipping point has been reached. CAS have self-similarity, meaning that the whole has the
same shape as one or more of the parts, that is it has a fractal nature, which is similar to structured noise. CAS
operate far from equilibrium: there has to be a constant input of energy to maintain the organization of the system,
and this is essential for emergence.
Typical examples of complex adaptive systems include: climate; cities; firms; markets; governments; industries;
ecosystems; social networks; power grids; animal swarms; traffic flows; social insect (e.g. ant) colonies; the
brain and the immune system; and the cell and the developing embryo.
One prominent example is fluctuations in share and option prices determining the stability of our economy. Other
examples are the changing aspects of dust particles in the exhaust of diesel engines, the changing aspects of
biological or artificial populations, earthquake prediction, and last but not least adaptive learning: the problem
of teaching a robot how to respond to unexpected changes in its environment.
[Source: [Link]
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19. What does the word “trepidation” and “preponderate” mean as used in the context of the passage?
(a) Stability; outweigh. (b) Perturbation, dominate.
(c) Solidity, placate. (d) Malleability, quash.
20. Which of these is an apt elucidation of the concept of butterfly effect as explained in the passage?
(a) There are non-linear vicissitudes in a complex adaptive system much like a butterfly’s flight.
(b) The emergence of a butterfly from its cocoon is indicative of the complex adaptive system to be very
foreseeable.
(c) There can be large vagaries in a complex adaptive system from trifling reasons.
(d) There will be diminutive changes in the complex adaptive system much like a butterfly is unperturbed by
external stimuli.
21. Which of the following is NOT listed as an example of a complex adaptive system in the passage?
(a) A social insect colony.
(b) Earthquake prediction models.
(c) The developing embryo.

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22.
(d) The assembly line of a manufacturing plant.
What can be inferred from the bold text from the passage?

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components.

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(a) The CAS will need to follow a pattern to be emerging in equilibrium much in consonance with its

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(b) The CAS can have a result to be more than the mathematical addition of its components creating something
novel in its properties.

(d) The CAS will need to be based on a sum

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(c) The CAS will need to follow a pattern of mathematical precision with sum total of its components leading
to an equal result with a similar property.
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total of its components which will create an orthodox property in

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consonance with its parts.

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Which of these is not supported by the passage?
(a) The immune system must get constant energy for it to emerge from the organization of the system
(b) CAS will generally interact with the surrounding environment which demonstrates its open nature.
(c) Teaching an automaton to respond to unexpected stimuli will be classified as a complex adaptive system
(d) Dust particles in the exhaust of diesel engines will be stable and unwavering leading to no specificity in the
system.
24. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of complex adaptive systems
tr-5H9G8J6E6J
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(a) CAS have a fractal naturetr-or 8O 6P6Q 3R 6L
self-similarity.
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(b) CAS operate far from equilibrium, requiring constant energy input.
(c) CAS rely entirely on external organizers to maintain order.
(d) CAS exhibit emergence where the whole is more than the sum of its parts.

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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.30): India-Japan Forum
Speaking at the India-Japan Forum in New Delhi, Jaishankar also spoke about rebuilding India’s relationship
with China post the recent disengagement along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh, and how
that is an exercise that still has to be undertaken. After the session, which also had a video message by his
Japanese counterpart Iwaya Takeshi, Jaishankar said in a post on X, “The India-Japan partnership makes a key
contribution to a free and open Indo-Pacific. Discussed its strengthening and expansion.”
At the event, he pointed out that both India and Japan, while revitalising their semiconductor industries, are also
working with [1], paving the way for a transformative partnership in this vital sector. Japan is today revitalising
its semiconductor sector, and India, after a very long period of neglect, has announced a semiconductor mission.

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There are a lot of things happening. It is interesting that both of us also happen to be working with [1]. I am

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seeing the beginnings of something potentially important here, and potentially really significant for both
countries.

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Asked about China, he said, “Our entire relationship with China was predicated on the fact that the border areas
would remain peaceful and stable and we had agreements to ensure that. In 2020, the Chinese chose to bring a

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lot of forces to the border areas and obviously we responded with counter-deployments. Then we had an incident
in which a number of soldiers got killed and obviously this impacted the relationship.”

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Excerpt from India-Japan Forum held in New Delhi [Link]
25.

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India and Japan are collaborating with which key semiconductor hub to mitigate supply chain risks and reduce

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dependence on China in their efforts to enhance global semiconductor supply chain resilience, that will correctly
replace [1] from the above passage?

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26.
(a) South Korea

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(b) Vietnam (c) Taiwan (d) Singapore
Which non-partisan organization, in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India,
convenes the India-Japan Forum to strengthen bilateral and strategic partnerships between the two nations?
(a) Observer Research Foundation (ORF)
(c) Ananta Centre
(b) Vivekananda International Foundation (VIF)
(d) Gateway House
27. Consider the following statements about the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad):
I. The Quad was formally established in 2007 under the initiative of Japan’s Prime Minister Shinzo Abe but
became inactive by 2008.
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II. The Quad was revived in 2017 to6Paddress
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Pacific region, with its first formal summit held in 2021.
III. The Quad operates through leader-level summits, ministerial meetings, joint military exercises, and
collaborative initiatives on critical technologies and maritime security, but it lacks a permanent secretariat
or formal institutional structure like NATO.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II, and III
28. Which of the following countries is NOT a partner of India in the 2+2 Dialogue framework?
(a) United States (b) Russia (c) Germany (d) Japan
29. Which of the following statements correctly describes key geographical and political features of Japan?
(a) Japan is an island nation in East Asia, consisting of seven main islands and approximately 3,000 smaller
islands in the Pacific Ocean.

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(b) Japan's highest peak is Mount Fuji, and the country is situated along the eastern edge of the Ring of Fire,
experiencing frequent earthquakes and volcanic activity.
(c) Japan has a presidential government system, with the Prime Minister serving as the ceremonial head of state
and the Emperor as the head of government.
(d) Japan is bordered by the Sea of Japan to the west, with North Korea, South Korea, and the Philippines as its
immediate neighbors.
30. India and Japan collaborate as partners in numerous international organizations and forums. In which of the
following organizations or initiatives are India and Japan NOT partners together?
(a) Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) (b) International Solar Alliance (ISA)
(c) European Union (EU) (d) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
Passage (Q.31-Q.36): The Constitution 129th Amendment Bill 2024

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India’s democratic framework thrives on the vibrancy of its electoral process, enabling citizens to actively shape

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governance at every level. Since independence, over 400 elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assemblies have showcased the Election Commission of India’s commitment to fairness and transparency.

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However, the fragmented and frequent nature of elections has sparked discussions on the need for a more

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efficient system. This has led to the resurgence of interest in the concept of "One Nation, One Election."

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The idea, also known as simultaneous elections, proposes aligning the election cycles of the Lok Sabha and State
Assemblies. This would allow voters to cast their ballots for both tiers of government on the same day in their

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constituencies, though voting could still occur in phases across the country. By synchronising these electoral

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timelines, the approach aims to address logistical challenges, reduce costs, and minimise disruptions caused by
frequent elections.

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The High-Level Committee Report on Simultaneous
comprehensive roadmap for implementingtr-this

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Elections in India, released in 2024, provided a
vision. Its recommendations were accepted by the Union Cabinet

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on 18th September 2024, marking a significant step towards electoral reform. Proponents argue that such a

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system could enhance administrative efficiency, reduce election-related expenditures, and promote policy
continuity. As India aspires to streamline governance and optimise its democratic processes, the concept of "One
Nation, One Election" has emerged as a key reform requiring thoughtful deliberation and consensus.
Excerpt from New Bill introduced in Lok Sabha ‘One Nation, One Election’ [Link]
31. Which Constitution Amendment Bill was introduced in 2024 to lay the groundwork for implementing the "One
Nation, One Election" system in India?
(a) 128th Amendment Bill (b) 129th Amendment Bill6G
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(c) 130th Amendment Bill 6P6Q3R6L
(d) 131st Amendment
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32. Who chaired the High-Level Committee formed in September 2023 to examine the feasibility of implementing
"One Nation, One Election" in India?
(a) Arun Jaitley (b) Pranab Mukherjee
(c) Ram Nath Kovind (d) Venkaiah Naidu
33. Match the following Articles of the Indian Constitution with their respective provisions:
List I (Articles) List II (Provisions)
(A) Article 324 (i) Elections based on adult suffrage
(B) Article 325 (ii) Term of five years for Legislative Assembly
(C) Article 326 (iii) Single electoral roll for Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
(D) Article 172 (iv) Powers of ECI to supervise and control elections
(a) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(c) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
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34. What does Section 5 of the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 primarily deal with?
(a) Powers of the Lieutenant Governor over legislative matters
(b) Duration of the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories
(c) Financial powers of Union Territory Assemblies
(d) Procedure for dissolving Union Territory Assemblies
35. Which of the following countries does not follow a simultaneous election policy, where national and regional
elections are held together?
(a) South Africa (b) Sweden
(c) Japan (d) United Kingdom
36. When are By-Elections conducted in India?
(a) After the completion of a full five-year term of the legislature

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(b) When a seat becomes vacant due to resignation, death, or disqualification of a sitting member

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(c) Simultaneously with General Elections every five years
(d) During the formation of a new government after a general election
Passage (Q.37-Q.40): Not all Pvt property can be acquired by State: SC

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A Supreme Court Constitution bench, by an 8-1 majority, on Tuesday set limits on the government’s power to

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take over privately owned resources for public distribution, ruling that only certain private resources that meet
specific criteria as “material resources of the community” can be considered for state acquisition. The majority

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ruling, delivered by Chief Justice of India (CJI) Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, delineated boundaries of the State’s

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power to acquire resources. This directive principle encourages the State to manage resources in a way that

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benefits the general public. The bench, however, clarified that the provision does not automatically allow the

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government to acquire or nationalise all private property for the public’s benefit.

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The decision brought clarity to decades of judicial interpretation on Article 39(b), which has historically seen

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varying perspectives on the balance between private property rights and public interest. Article 39(b) states that

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the “State shall direct its policy towards securing that the ownership and control of the material resources of the
community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good”. Previously, different court rulings had both
expanded and restricted the State’s power, sometimes taking divergent economic views on the matter. In practical
terms, the ruling means that not all private assets are open to State acquisition for public distribution. Instead,
each acquisition will depend on factors like the resource’s nature, its scarcity, its impact on community welfare,
and whether it serves public interests better in private or public hands.
Excerpt from Supreme Courts ruling Private Property and its acquisition by Government
[Link] 3E6G
tr-5H9G8J6E6J
6L
tr- 5L9L8O6P6Q3R
37. Which article of the Indian Constitution allows the State to create laws for the takeover of community resources,
including private property, for public benefit?
(a) Article 31A (b) Article 31C (c) Article 39A (d) Article 21
38. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s recent ruling on Article 39(b) of the
Constitution:
I. The Supreme Court ruled that not all privately owned property can be considered 'material resources of the
community' under Article 39(b).
II. The ruling overturned Justice Krishna Iyer's 1978 judgment, which broadly interpreted Article 39(b) to
include all private properties as community resources.
III. The court held that the State automatically has the power to acquire all private resources for public benefit
under Article 39(b).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II, and III
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39. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced Article 31C to protect laws formulated under Articles 39(b) and
39(c), allowing the State to acquire resources essential to the community's welfare?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment (c) 25th Amendment (d) 73rd Amendment
40. Which Supreme Court Justice presented a dissenting opinion in the recent ruling on Article 39(b), emphasizing
a balanced approach that considers both individual property rights and the community's needs?
(a) Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul (b) Justice B.V. Nagarathna
(c) Justice S. Ravindra Bhat (d) Justice Surya Kant
Passage (Q.41-Q.46): Gukesh Shatters Records to Become Youngest World Champion
Till that stage, it looked like the game would end in a draw. But one miscalculated push of the rook (55.Rf2) saw
[1]’s last line of defence leave the board, and an unavoidable checkmate. In short, one mis-timed move cost [1]
the game, the match and the crown. Both players had battled on for over four hours at that point. With three

m
pawns on the board compared to [1]’s two, Gukesh had a slight material advantage. He had also saved up an

o
hour more than his opponent. But besides hope, there was not much that Gukesh was playing for at that point.
The 55th move changed that.

c
rs .
Since the championship began on November 25, [1] would sneak glances at Gukesh’s face, as if trying to get a
read on his emotions. But Gukesh, largely, gave [1] nothing, definitely not any expression that betrayed his

k e
thoughts. “Before I talk about anything else, I want to talk about my opponent. We all know who [1] is. He has
been one of the best players in history for several years, and to see how much pressure he faced, and the kind of
fight he still gave at the world championship, it shows what a true champion he is. I’m really sorry for [1] and

r n
his team, and I would like to thank him for putting on a show,” Gukesh said. [1] has spoken earlier about his

a
troubles with depression away from the board, and not having too much self-confidence on the board.
Excerpt from Gukesh becoming Youngest World Championship [Link]
41.

o p 6L
tr-5L9L8O6P6Q
3R
Which reigning World Chess Champion did Dommaraju Gukesh defeat in a three-week-long contest in
Singapore to become the youngest chess world champion in history, that will correctly replace [1] from the above

42.
passage?
(a) Magnus Carlsen
(c) Viswanathan Anand T (b) Ian Nepomniachtchi
(d) Ding Liren
Consider the following statements about the FIDE (Fédération Internationale des Échecs) World Chess
Championship:
I. FIDE was founded in 1924 in Paris and is currently headquartered in Lausanne, Switzerland.
II. FIDE was recognized as a Global Sporting Organizationtr-by the
5H9G International
8J6E 6J3E6G Olympic Committee (IOC) in
1999. 8O 6P6Q 3R 6L
tr-5L9L
III. FIDE has 190 affiliate National Chess Federations, making it one of the largest international sports
federations in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II, and III
43. Which former World Chess Champion did Garry Kasparov defeat in 1985 to become the youngest-ever
undisputed World Chess Champion at the time?
(a) Bobby Fischer (b) Anatoly Karpov (c) Boris Spassky (d) Vladimir Kramnik
44. Who became the highest-rated Indian female chess player and won the Women’s World Rapid Chess
Championship in 2019, along with the Women’s Grand Prix series in 2019-2020?
(a) Dronavalli Harika (b) Tania Sachdev
(c) Koneru Humpy (d) Bhakti Kulkarni

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45. What was the ancient Indian game from which modern chess originated, symbolizing the four divisions of the
military — infantry, cavalry, elephants, and chariots?
(a) Chaturaji (b) Chaturanga (c) Chaturyuddha (d) Shatranj
46. As of 2025, what is India's rank in the FIDE country rankings, which are based on the average rating of the top
10 players from each country?
(a) 1st (b) 2nd (c) 3rd (d) 4th
Passage (Q.47-Q.52): Cold War Era Contemporary World Politics
The end of the Second World War is a landmark in contemporary world politics. In 1945, the Allied Forces, led
by the US, Soviet Union, Britain and France defeated the Axis Powers led by Germany, Italy and Japan, ending
the Second World War (1939-1945). The war had involved almost all the major powers of the world and spread
out to regions outside Europe including Southeast Asia, China, Burma (now Myanmar) and parts of India’s

m
northeast. The war devastated the world in terms of loss of human lives and civilian property. The First World

o
War had earlier shaken the world between 1914 and 1918.

c
The end of the Second World War was also the beginning of the Cold War. The world war ended when the

.
United States dropped two atomic bombs on the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in August 1945,

rs
causing Japan to surrender. Critics of the US decision to drop the bombs have argued that the US knew that

e
Japan was about to surrender and that it was unnecessary to drop the bombs. They suggest that the US action
was intended to stop the Soviet Union from making military and political gains in Asia and elsewhere and to

k
show Moscow that the United States was supreme. US supporters have argued that the dropping of the atomic

n
bombs was necessary to end the war quickly and to stop further loss of American and Allied lives. Whatever the

a
motives, the consequence of the end of the Second World War was the rise of two new powers on the global

the United States and the Soviet Union became

p r
stage. With the defeat of Germany and Japan, the devastation of Europe and in many other parts of the world,
tr-5L9L8Othe
3R6L
6P6Qgreatest powers in the world with the ability to influence

47.
events anywhere on earth.

o
[Excerpt from Chapter I- Cold War Era Contemporary World Politics, NCERT]

T
Which Cold War confrontation, occurring in 1962, brought the United States and the Soviet Union to the brink
of nuclear war due to the placement of Soviet nuclear missiles in Cuba, ultimately leading to a standoff resolved
through diplomacy?
(a) Korean War (b) Vietnam War
(c) Cuban Missile Crisis (d) Bay of Pigs Invasion
48. Consider the following statements about the North Atlantic Treaty Organization6G
(NATO) and the Warsaw Pact:
tr- 5H9G8J6E6J3E
I. NATO was established in April 1949 as6Lan alliance of twelve states with a commitment that an armed attack
5L9L8O6P6Q3R
on one member would betr-considered an attack on all.
II. The Warsaw Pact, created in 1955, was led by the Soviet Union and primarily aimed at countering NATO's
forces in North America.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I and II
49. Which 1945 conference held in Berlin among the US, UK, and the Soviet Union aimed to discuss the immediate
administration of defeated Germany, demarcation of Poland's boundary, and the role of the Soviet Union in
Eastern Europe, but also led to rising tensions due to disagreements over Poland and secrecy about the atomic
bomb?
(a) Yalta Conference (b) Tehran Conference
(c) Potsdam Conference (d) Geneva Conference

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50. Who was the President of the United States when the Cold War officially began, marked by the announcement
of a Doctrine named after him in 1947?
(a) Franklin D. Roosevelt (b) Dwight D. Eisenhower
(c) John F. Kennedy (d) Harry S. Truman
51. Which day, celebrated on November 9th, commemorates the fall of the Berlin Wall in 1989 and serves as a
symbol of freedom and unity, marking a significant event in the Cold War era?
(a) May Day
(b) International Day for the Total Elimination of Nuclear Weapons
(c) World Freedom Day
(d) Victory Day
52. Who is credited with coining the term 'Cold War', referring to the ideological and political conflict between the

m
American and Soviet blocs following World War II?

o
(a) Winston Churchill (b) George Kennan
(c) Bernard Baruch (d) Harry S. Truman

rs .c
k e
r an
o p tr-5L9L8O6P6Q
3R6L

T
3E6G
tr-5H9G8J6E6J
3R6L
tr-5L9L8O6P6Q

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 1

SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING

Directions (Q.53-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): The Delhi High Court sought a reply from the Bar Council of India, the regulatory body
for the country's legal practice, which last year opened up the legal system for a limited entry for overseas lawyers
on a reciprocal basis.
The Advocates Act, 1961 defines reciprocity as where any country, specified by the Central Government in this
behalf by notification in the Official Gazette, prevents citizens of India from practicing the profession of law or
subjects them to unfair discrimination in that country, no subject of any such country shall be entitled to practice
the profession of law in India.
The Bar Council of India Rules for Registration and Regulation of Foreign Lawyers and Foreign Law Firms in
India, 2022 open entry for foreign lawyers and law firms in India in the legal practice.

m
Section 3 of the Rules state that a foreign lawyer or foreign law firm shall not be entitled to practice law in India

o
unless he/it is registered with the Bar Council of India under these Rules: Provided that this prohibition will not

c
apply to law practice by a foreign lawyer or foreign law firm in case such practice is done on a 'fly in and fly out

rs .
basis' for the purpose of giving legal advice to the client in India regarding foreign law and on diverse
international legal issues and provided further that such expertise/advise of such a foreign lawyer or foreign law
firm had been procured by the client in a foreign country and foreign lawyer or foreign law firm does not maintain

k e
an office in India for the purpose of such practice and lastly such practice in India for one or more periods does
not, in aggregate, exceed 60 days in any period of 12 months. Additionally, foreign lawyers must be registered

n
with the Bar Council of India to provide any legal advice on matters related to Indian law, including intellectual

a
property law.

before any courts, tribunals or other statutory

p r
Other conditions pertaining to practice of foreign lawyers or law firms is that they are restricted from appearing
6Q3R6L
or6Pregulatory
tr-5L9L8O authorities. They shall be allowed to practice on

To
transactional corporate work such as joint ventures, intellectual property matters, mergers and acquisitions,
contract drafting, and other related matters on a reciprocal basis. Foreign lawyers and law firms shall be restricted
from doing any work pertaining to conveyancing of property, title investigation or other similar works. They
shall be entitled to practice law in India in non-litigious matters only (subject to exceptions, conditions and
limitations laid down) and he/it shall be deemed to be an 'advocate' in accordance with the Indian law.
A foreign lawyer or Lawyer associated with foreign Law Firm registered under these rules shall normally be
subject to the same ethical and practice standards laid down under the Advocates Act, 1961. Section 45 of the
Advocates Act states that any person who practises in any court or before any authority or person, in or before
whom he is not entitled to practise under the provisions of this Act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a
3E6G
tr-5H9G8J6E6J
term which may extend to six months. 3R6L
tr-5L9L8O6P6Q
Source: Extracted (with edits and revisions) from an excerpt from an article titled "Foreign Lawyers' Entry in
India Faces Legal Hurdle in Court" published in the Bloomberg.
53. Foreign lawyer X, based in the UK, has been giving legal advice to an Indian client on matters relating to UK
law through video calls and emails for the last 50 days. The advice was initially procured in the UK. However,
lawyer X is planning to visit India for 30 days to continue offering legal advice to the same client. Does the entry
of foreign lawyer X in India, in this scenario, violate any provisions of the Bar Council of India Rules for
Registration and Regulation of Foreign Lawyers and Foreign Law Firms in India, 2022?
(a) No, as the lawyer is visiting on a 'fly in and fly out' basis, and the total time spent in India does not exceed
60 days in a 12-month period.
(b) Yes, because the lawyer has already spent 50 days in India, exceeding the 60-day limit for foreign lawyers
to provide legal advice.
(c) No, because foreign lawyers are allowed to stay in India for more than 60 days if they do not appear in court.
(d) Yes, because foreign lawyers are not allowed to visit India at all for giving legal advice.
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54. Foreign law firm Y, registered with the Bar Council of India, is engaged in advising an Indian multinational
corporation on an international joint venture. During this time, the law firm does not maintain any office in India
and operates purely on transactional corporate work. Is this practice in compliance with the Bar Council of India
Rules?
(a) Yes, as the law firm is engaged in non-litigious corporate matters, which are permitted under the Bar Council
of India Rules.
(b) No, because foreign law firms are prohibited from advising on joint ventures under Indian law.
(c) Yes, as long as the law firm does not exceed 60 days in total in India during the year.
(d) No, because foreign law firms cannot engage in any corporate advisory work in India.
55. Foreign lawyer Z, who is registered with the Bar Council of India, is asked to represent an Indian client in a
commercial dispute before a tribunal in India. Can foreign lawyer Z legally appear before the tribunal?
(a) Yes, since foreign lawyers can represent clients before any tribunal or authority in India.

authorities in India.

c o m
(b) No, foreign lawyers are restricted from appearing before any courts, tribunals, or other statutory or regulatory

.
(c) Yes, as long as the foreign lawyer has been practicing law for more than five years.

rs
(d) Yes, but only if the dispute involves international law.
56. An Indian client seeks legal advice from a foreign lawyer, who is not registered with the Bar Council of India,

Can the foreign lawyer provide the requested advice legally?

k e
on matters related to intellectual property law in India. The foreign lawyer does not maintain any office in India.

n
(a) Yes, as long as the lawyer is not providing advice on matters related to conveyancing of property.

a
(b) No, because the foreign lawyer must be registered with the Bar Council of India to provide legal advice.

being registered.
r
(c) Yes, as foreign lawyers are allowed to provide legal advice on intellectual property matters in India without

p
tr-5L9L8O6P6Q
3R6L
(d) No, because foreign lawyers are prohibited from giving advice on intellectual property matters.
57.

To
Foreign lawyer A, registered with the Bar Council of India, was practicing law on a ‘fly in and fly out’ basis for
a total of 55 days in India, advising clients on foreign law and international issues. Lawyer A now intends to
continue offering legal advice in India for another 10 days in the same 12-month period. Is this action permissible
under the Bar Council of India Rules?
(a) Yes, as the total time spent in India (65 days) is within the limit for foreign lawyers.
(b) No, because the total time exceeds the 60-day limit for foreign lawyers to provide legal advice in India.
(c) Yes, as long as the lawyer does not engage in any court-related matters.
(d) No, because the lawyer has already provided more than 50 days of legal advice in India.
8J6E6J3E6G tr-5H9G
Passage (Q.58-Q.61): Under tr-the 8O6P6Q3R6LNyaya
Bharatiya
5L9L Sanhita (BNS), offences related to causing damage to public
property now carry a graded fine, which means the fine corresponds to the amount of damage caused.
Promise to marry: The BNS introduces Clause 69 that seems to ostensibly tackle the "love jihad" narrative by
criminalising "deceitful" promise to marry. The phrase "sexual intercourse not amounting to the offence of rape"
essentially criminalises consensual sexual activity too. "Whoever, by deceitful means or by making promise to marry
to a woman without any intention of fulfilling the same, has sexual intercourse with her, such sexual intercourse not
amounting to the offence of rape, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine," the provision reads adding that "deceitful means" shall include the
false promise of employment or promotion, inducement, or marrying after suppressing identity.
Mob lynching: The BNS provisions codify offences linked to mob lynching and hate-crime murders, for cases
when a mob of five or more individuals commits murder based on factors such as race, caste, community, or
personal belief. The provision has punishment that extends from life imprisonment to death.

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Organised crime: For the first time, tackling organised crime is brought under the realm of ordinary criminal
law. There are several special state legislations for prevention and control of criminal activity by organised crime
syndicates or gangs, the most popular being the Maharashtra Control of Organised Crime Act, 1999.
Interestingly, in the new legislation, the punishment for attempt to commit organised crime and for committing
organised crime is the same, but a distinction is drawn based on whether a death is caused or not by the alleged
offence.
A separate category of "petty organised crime" has also been brought in, which criminalises "theft, snatching,
cheating, unauthorised selling of tickets, unauthorised betting or gambling, selling of public examination
question papers."
Terrorism: Importing large parts of the language in defining "terror activities" from the stringent Unlawful
Activities Prevention Act, the BNS brings terrorism under the ambit of ordinary criminal law. The definition of

m
"terrorist" borrows from the Philippines Anti-Terrorism Act, 2020. Crucially, the offence involving terror

o
financing is broader in the BNS than in UAPA. It is unclear how both the UAPA and the BNS will operate
concurrently, especially when procedurally the UAPA is more stringent and the cases are heard in special courts.

.c
Attempt to suicide: The BNS introduces a new provision that criminalises "whoever attempts to commit suicide

rs
with the intent to compel or restrain any public servant from discharging his official duty", and prescribes a jail

e
term which may extend to one year with community service. This provision could be invoked to prevent self-
immolations and hunger strikes during protests.

new, what is out, what changes," The Indian Express

an k
Source: Extracted (with edits and revisions) from an article titled "Indian Penal Code to Nyaya Sanhita: What's

r
58. A person, A, promises to marry woman B and convinces her to engage in sexual intercourse under the false
pretense of marriage. However, A does not intend to fulfill the promise and later denies it. Is A liable under

p
5L9L8O6P6Q3R
Clause 69 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhitatr-(BNS)?

o
6L

(a) Yes, A is liable as the promise to marry was deceitful and A’s actions caused harm to B.

T
(b) No, because sexual intercourse without the intention to marry does not fall under the scope of Clause 69.
(c) Yes, but only if the sexual intercourse amounted to the offence of rape.
(d) No, because Clause 69 only applies to rape cases and not to consensual intercourse.
59. A mob of six individuals attacks and kills a person, P, based on their caste. What is the possible punishment for
the mob members under the BNS provisions related to mob lynching?
(a) Life imprisonment to death.
(b) A fine and community service.
8J6E6J3E6G
(c) Only imprisonment for a term not6P6Qexceeding
3R 6L ten years. tr-5H9G
tr-5L9L 8O
(d) Life imprisonment with no possibility of parole.
60. Which of the following statements is accurate based on the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) provisions?
(a) Clause 69 criminalises consensual sexual activity if there is a promise to marry that is made deceitfully, even
if the sexual intercourse does not amount to rape.
(b) Mob lynching is punishable by a fine only, with no imprisonment.
(c) Petty organised crime includes serious violent offences like murder and kidnapping, in addition to theft and
snatching.
(d) None of the above
61. An individual, X, attempts suicide to protest against a government decision. The protest is intended to compel
public servants to alter their course of action. Under the BNS, what legal consequences does X face?
(a) X is liable for a jail term extending to one year with community service, under the provision criminalising
suicide attempts to compel or restrain public servants.

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 1

(b) X faces no legal consequences, as suicide attempts are not punishable under the BNS.
(c) X is liable for a fine and mandatory community service, but not jail time.
(d) X is not liable, as the law only applies to suicide attempts related to crimes, not protests.
Passage (Q.62-Q.65): The CCPA has issued an order against Shankar IAS Academy in what it alleged of
misleading advertisement regarding the UPSC Civil Service Exam 2022. The CCPA has imposed a monetary
penalty of ₹5 lakh for the misleading advertisement.
"The decision was taken to protect and promote the rights of consumers as a class and ensure that no false or
misleading advertisement is made of any goods or services which contravenes the provisions of the Consumer
Protection Act, 2019," Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution said in an official statement
on Sunday.
The CCPA found out that Shankar IAS Academy advertised various types of courses but the information with

o m
respect to the course opted by the advertised successful candidates in above mentioned UPSC Civil Service
exams results was deliberately concealed in the advertisement," the ministry said in the statement.

c
.
It could lead to consumers falsely believing that all the successful candidates so claimed by the institute had

rs
opted for the paid courses advertised by the institute on its website. Coaching institutes often bombard
newspapers with advertisements soon after the announcement of the UPSC Civil Service examination results.

k e
These advertisements prominently feature the names and photographs of successful candidates.
Also, coaching institutes tend to prominently use names and photographs of the same successful candidate in

n
their advertisements to create deception as if the successful candidates were full-time classroom students of

a
coaching institutes. "This fact was not disclosed in their advertisement, thereby deceiving consumers. By

r
concealing this important fact, such false and misleading advertisement creates a huge impact on those
consumers who are UPSC aspirants without
success."

o p
letting them
tr-5L9L8O6P6Q
3R6L know that Shankar IAS Academy's role in candidates'

T
"Thus, the advertisement has violated the consumer's right to be informed to protect itself against unfair trade
practice." Shankar IAS Academy's advertisement was targeted towards a class of consumers -- UPSC aspirants.
"That's why such advertisements shall contain truthful and honest representation of facts by disclosing important
information in such a manner that they are clear, prominent, and extremely hard to miss for consumers," the
Ministry added.
Source- Shankar IAS Academy fined Rs 5 Lakh by CCPA over ‘misleading ads’ - The Hindu
62. As per the passage, Shankar IAS Academy advertised successful UPSC candidates without disclosing whether
they were enrolled in its paid courses. Under tr-5H
the Consumer 9G8J6E6J3E6G
Protection Act, 2019, what constitutes the core
8O 6P6Q 3R 6L
tr-5L9L
violation in this case?
(a) False representation of the academy's role in candidates' success.
(b) Charging excessive fees for their services.
(c) Conducting unethical coaching practices.
(d) Failing to register their courses with a governing authority.
63. If another coaching institute places advertisements prominently featuring a successful candidate's name and
photograph without disclosing their minimal association with the institute, what legal principle under the
Consumer Protection Act is likely violated?
(a) Consumer's right to safety. (b) Consumer's right to be informed.
(c) Consumer's right to choose. (d) Consumer's right to seek redressal.

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64. Shankar IAS Academy was penalized ₹5 lakh for its misleading advertisement. What was the primary rationale
for imposing this penalty under the Consumer Protection Act?
(a) To compensate individual consumers misled by the advertisement.
(b) To discourage other coaching institutes from similar practices.
(c) To ensure compliance with examination regulations.
(d) To impose criminal liability on coaching institutes.
65. Which one of the following is the correct expansion of the term "CCPA" used in the passage?
(a) Central Consumer Protection Authority
(b) Consumer Council for Public Awareness
(c) Council for Consumer Protection and Advocacy
(d) Central Commission for Public Accountability

m
Passage (Q.66-Q.69): The year 2024 saw a significant departure from alleged ‘judicial evasion’. In 2025, the

o
Supreme Court, under three Chief Justices of India, will take up several important issues, impacting the personal

c
lives and religious beliefs of citizens, as well as their relationship with the state and laws. Some very

rs .
consequential new legislation are in the pipeline, even as multiple existing laws face challenges in court.
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, and the Bharatiya Sakshya

e
Adhiniyam, 2023, have replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860, the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, and the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872, respectively as part of the government’s declared intention to “decolonise” the criminal
justice system.

n k
The new laws have several progressive elements — introducing community service as an alternative form of

a
r
punishment, making summary trial mandatory for petty offences, allowing trials by video-conference and
prescribing timelines for speedy trials, including offences for “mob lynching” and child marital rape. However,

p
tr-5L9L8O6P6Q
questions have been raised about several provisions.

o
3R6L

For example, the colonial law on sedition (previously “rajdroh” in Hindi) has simply been rechristened

T
“deshdroh”. There are other aspects — allowing a police officer 14 days for a preliminary investigation before
registering an FIR, the total exclusion of Section 377 of the IPC (which offered protection to men and
LGBTQIA+ individuals from non-consensual sexual intercourse), and extension of the period of detention to up
to 90 days.
These aspects have been challenged before the SC. As the mammoth task of adapting to the new laws progresses,
more issues will likely come to the fore.
66. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the government's intent
tr-5H9G8J6E6J
3E6G in replacing the Indian Penal Code,
Criminal Procedure Code, and Indian
8O 6P6Q 3R 6L
Evidence Act with new laws?
tr-5L9L
(a) To reduce the number of laws in the criminal justice system.
(b) To align the laws with global practices in criminal justice.
(c) To eliminate colonial influence in the legal framework.
(d) To introduce stricter punishments for all criminal offences.
67. What can be inferred about the implementation of summary trials for petty offences under the new laws?
(a) It aims to increase the conviction rate for serious crimes.
(b) It seeks to reduce delays in the judicial system for minor cases.
(c) It reduces the procedural requirements for all types of cases.
(d) It promotes alternative dispute resolution mechanisms.

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68. What can be inferred about the potential impact of the 14-day period for preliminary investigations before filing
an FIR?
(a) It may strengthen the police’s ability to gather evidence before formal registration.
(b) It eliminates the need for FIRs in minor offences.
(c) It guarantees faster registration of cases by the police.
(d) It aligns with international practices in preliminary criminal investigations.
69. Which of the following statements best defines the term "sedition"?
(a) Any act of violence that causes harm to public property.
(b) Conduct or speech inciting rebellion against the authority of the state.
(c) A legal provision to address theft and other property-related crimes.
(d) Any act of defamation that harms an individual's reputation.

m
Passage (Q.70-Q.74): When, at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or

o
abstained from doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or to abstain from doing something, such
act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise. If what is given in exchange for the promise

rs .c
has value in the eyes of the law, the court will not question whether that value is adequate and will not interfere
with the fairness of the bargain made by the parties. The law on this point, regarding the adequacy of
consideration, is simple and clear. The consideration is not required to be of a particular fixed value or an

k e
approximation to the promise for which it is exchanged, but it must have some value in the eyes of the law. It
must change the promisee’s position after the consideration is acted upon or transferred from the promisee to the

n
promisor. Consideration is indispensable for making an agreement enforceable as per Section 10 of the Indian

a
Contract Act (ICA). Section 25(1) provides that when an agreement without consideration is expressed in writing

r
and made on account of natural love and affection between the parties, it is valid. However, the existence of a

p
near relation between the parties is not sufficient to show affection. As natural love and affection cannot be
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presumed in every case, the court considers the relationship between the parties. Section 25(2) states that no

o
consideration is required if a person voluntarily performs an act or gives his service to the promisor without the

T
knowledge of the promisor and the promisor shows willingness to compensate for it by an undertaking. The term
‘voluntarily done’ means performing something based on one’s own will, without any coercion or suggestion
from others.
(Source: [Link] )
70. A person promises to sell their used car to a friend for 50,000 rupees, a sum significantly lower than the market
value of the car. After the friend accepts, the seller later claims that the sale price is insufficient and demands an
additional payment. What is the likely outcome of this claim? 3E6G
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(a) The seller can claim the additional8O 6P6Qamount
3R 6L because the consideration must match the market value of the
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item sold.
(b) The seller is bound by the agreement since the consideration given has legal value, and the court will not
question its adequacy.
(c) The seller can request a higher amount based on the fairness of the bargain.
(d) The seller has no claim to the additional amount since the consideration was not given at market value.
71. Under Section 25(2) of the Indian Contract Act, which scenario validates an agreement without consideration?
(a) A friend offers money to another friend for a past service provided at their request.
(b) A brother voluntarily paints his sister’s house without her knowledge, and she later promises to compensate
him.
(c) A neighbor lends money to another neighbor and demands repayment without signing a formal agreement.
(d) An employer promises to pay an employee for an act performed during working hours.

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72. S promises to give T a gift worth 5,000 rupees because of their close friendship. Later, S changes their mind and
refuses to give the gift. T claims that they are entitled to the gift. Which statement best reflects the validity of
T’s claim?
(a) T is entitled to the gift because it was given as a token of friendship and affection.
(b) T is not entitled to the gift because no legal consideration was provided for the promise.
(c) T is entitled to the gift because Section 25(1) validates agreements made out of love and affection.
(d) T’s claim is valid only if there is evidence of a written agreement between the parties.
73. A and B are siblings. B requested A to lend him ₹50,000 to start a business, and A agreed without documenting
the terms. Later, B refused to return the money, arguing that the loan was out of love and affection. Based on the
passage, what is the likely outcome?
(a) B is correct, as loans between siblings are presumed to be acts of love and affection.
(b) A can claim repayment, as natural love and affection cannot be presumed in monetary transactions.
(c) B is not liable to repay the amount unless a written agreement exists.
(d) The court will presume that the money was a gift unless A proves otherwise.

c o m
74.

rs .
Kiran and Farhan were first cousins yet they did not share a very close bond. Kiran moved to Dubai to complete
his graduation. He was returning to town to celebrate Christmas with his family. On the request of Farhan, Kiran
brought him a tonne of clothing from Dubai. They had a conversation about the same over an Email. He gave

k e
Farhan the garments and requested payment in the same amount. Farhan refused to pay the money, stating that
the clothes were given to him as a gift out of love and affection, so he was not required to make a payment.

n
Decide the validity of his claim.

a
(a) Farhan is absolutely correct when he asserts that an act performed by a promisor out of love and affection

r
does not constitute a requirement for consideration.

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(b) Since Farhan did not specifically request the garments3R6L
that Kiran brought in accordance with his own wishes,
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he is not obligated to pay the price for them.

o
(c) Farhan must pay for the clothes Kiran bought for him because Section 25(1)'s requirements are not being met.

T
(d) If Kiran refuses to provide the garments to Farhan for free, Farhan shall not accept the clothes from Kiran if
he does not wish to pay for them.
Passage (Q.75-Q.80): The privilege of private defence is a significant right, and it is essentially preventive in
nature and not punitive. It is accessible even with hostility when state help isn't accessible. Section 96 of IPC
doesn't characterize the articulation' right of private defence. It simply shows that nothing is an offence, which
was done in the 'right of private defence'. Section 97 is bestowed with the subject matter of private defence,
which contains the right to secure the body or property of the people practising the right or of some other
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individual. The privilege may be9L8O practised
6P6Q3R6L against all offences influencing the human body or endeavour or
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sensible danger of the commission of any such offence or offence of burglary, theft, mischief or criminal trespass
and endeavours to carry out any of such offences in connection to the property. This privilege depends on two
standards: It is accessible against the aggressor just, and the privilege is accessible just when the defender
engages in sensible fear or reasonable apprehension. Section 99 says that the right for no situation reaches out to
the incurring of more damage than it is essential with the end goal of private defence. It is very much settled that
in a free battle, no right of private defence is accessible to either party, and every individual is answerable for
his very own demonstrations.
[Source: [Link]
75. Naresh was a woodcutter, and he used to go to the nearby forest to cut trees. He was walking through a forest
one day, and then he saw something move in the bushes. Since it was quite dark, he could not see anything well.
He, however, saw a big stone near him, and since he was very scared, he decided to throw the stone in the bush
and saw that it was actually a pet dog and not a scary wild animal. The owner of the pet sued Naresh for killing
his dog. Naresh claimed private defence. Can he do so?
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 1

(a) No, because there was no imminent danger or harm for him to exercise his right.
(b) Yes, because he was reasonably scared; there was something there in the bushes.
(c) No, because he could have checked first instead of going ahead with hitting with the stone.
(d) He should have been careful with his conduct instead of recklessly throwing a big rock.
76. Rahul and Viraj worked in the same company. Rahul was very hard-working and honest, and he also was one of
the favourite workers there. His boss gave him a promotion, and Viraj was very jealous of the same. He saw that
Rahul was very drunk at work one day, so he complained to HR. Rahul then got to know about this, and he
started hitting Viraj with his fist, and then Viraj hit Rahul on his head with a baseball bat, which led to the latter
bleeding profusely. Rahul sued Viraj for hitting him. Can Viraj claim private defence for the same?
(a) No, because he was anyways jealous of Rahul and found an opportunity and took the best of it.
(b) No, because the force used was disproportionate to the situation; Rahul was merely hitting him with a fist.
(c) Yes, because Rahul was under the influence, and Viraj was legitimately scared for his life.

77.
(d) Yes, because Rahul started hitting Viraj first, and so he can claim private defence.

o m
Mr Sharma was a very rich businessman. He also used to have a lot of foreign trips, and he owned a lot of acres

c
rs .
and a lot of expensive stuff as well. One time, he had to leave for the airport as he was leaving the Country for
some work again. A thief named Riku wanted to rob his house to get some expensive things. While he was
stealing things, Sharma came back and saw Riku; he immediately took out his revolver and fired at his head.

(a) No, because there was no self-defence available for one's property.

k e
Riku died on the spot. Mr Sharma claimed private defence for his property. Can he do so?

n
(b) No, because the use of a revolver was not necessary for that situation.

a
(c) Yes, because there was a necessity to save his own property, so he could claim private defence.

r
(d) Yes, because there was no other way to protect his property.
78.

o p
Suppose in the previous question, after Mrtr-Sharma
5L9L8O6Phad
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6Q3Rfired at Riku, it hit on his leg, and it rendered him unable
to escape. But instead of calling the police, Sharma decided to teach him a lesson and then he hit him with a
knife as well. Can he claim private defence now?

T
(a) No, because there is a disproportionate force used now, he did not need to stab him with a knife again.
(b) No, he should have called the police instead of stabbing him again with a knife.
(c) The act shows that Mr Sharma wanted to kill the guy and so he cannot claim private defence anymore.
(d) No, there was no immediate danger from a petty thief, so he could not claim private defence.
79. Khanna had a big family plot. They had their house built in the middle of the plot, and it was covered with a lot
of fruit trees. One day, Khanna was roaming around on his balcony as the regular night patrol of his property.
He saw a shadow of a man entering his property with a gun,tr-5H and 6J3E6G not really see who it was because it
he6Ecould
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was a bit foggy. He went in and
tr-5Lgot
9L his rifle really quick and shot at the shadow, and it turned out to be his Child
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who was coming in late after going to a party. Can he claim private defence?
(a) No, because he shot at his Child, who posed no danger to him.
(b) No, because he did not know that there was an actual danger to him; his house was far from the gate, and he
could have called the police first.
(c) Yes, because he reasonably believed someone trespassed into his property.
(d) The son did not trespass on his property, so he cannot claim private defence.
80. Kunal was a very mischievous little boy. He was very notorious for causing a lot of menace for himself and the
people around him. One day, he got his hands on a smoke machine that was weirdly producing smoke like
cigarettes. It was causing irritation to everyone's eyes and throat; the passers-by were very angry at Kunal. One
such Kamal was passing by the same road. He had asthma and had difficulty breathing generally. He was very
irritated because of Kunal, so he caught him and beat him up. Can he claim private defence for the battery on
the Child?
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(a) Yes, as he had a reasonable cause to beat the Child up, and he was only protecting himself.
(b) No, because the battery was completely unnecessary in this situation.
(c) Yes, because Kunal was causing an issue for Kamal, and so, the latter needed to teach him a lesson.
(d) No, because he could have just passed along without having to beat the Child.
Passage (Q.81-Q.84): Read the following passage carefully and in the light of the same answer the questions
that follow.
Generally, a person is liable for his own wrongful acts, and one does not have to incur any liability for the acts
done by others. In certain cases, however, vicarious liability, that is the liability of one person for the act of
another person, may arise. In order that the liability of A for the act done by B can arise, it is necessary that there
should be certain kind of relationship between A and B, and the wrongful act should be, in certain way, connected
with that relationship.

m
So Vicarious Liability deals with cases where one person is liable for the acts of others. In the field of Torts, it

o
is an exception to the general rule that a person is liable for his own acts only. It is based on the principle of qui

c
facit per se per alium facit per se, which means, “He who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it

rs .
himself”. So, in a case of vicarious liability both the person at whose behest the act is done as well as the person
who does the act are liable. Thus, Employers are vicariously liable for the torts of their employees that are

e
committed during employment. A master is liable for the acts of his servant if the act is done in the course of
employment. But where someone employs an independent contractor to do work on his behalf, he is not in the
ordinary way responsible for any tort committed by the contractor.

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[Source: Legal Services India, [Link]
[Link]#:~:text=Conclusion-

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81.

To
Annamalai is a reputed businessman. He owns the brand for luxury apparel named “Zyada”. He also has a partner
who manages the whole design and colours of the apparels they will launch. They were working on a recent
launch named “Tyntra Summer Winter collection”, which was a novel idea that they had been working on for a
while. The partner, Anisuya, had a servant named and he was in-charge of getting them the best fabric. The
servant was charged with stealing the fabric from a local manufacturer. Decide.
(a) Anisuya and the servant will be held responsible as the servant was his, and he was caught stealing in the
course of employment.
(b) Anisuya shall not be held liable as even if the servant was his, he was not responsible for the stealing.
(c) Along with Anisuya even Annamalai shall be held responsible 6G also the owner of the business.
tr-5H9G8Jas he3Ewas
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(d) Only the servant will be liable.
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82. Bhish is a cab driver who rents a car from a company called “Lamesh Car Rental Services.” The company rents
cars to anyone who needs them, for any purpose, without any specific inquiry. One day, Bhish was driving late
at night while intoxicated. He hit a pedestrian and fled the scene in panic. Later, it was discovered that he was
drunk and driving under the influence. Decide the liability of Ramesh Car Rentals.
(a) Lamesh Car Rental Services will not be held responsible.
(b) Lamesh Car Rental Services will be responsible because they rented him the car, making them liable.
(c) Only Bhish should be held responsible since he was drinking and driving, and thus it is solely his
responsibility.
(d) The car rental services will not be held responsible as they were not involved in the incident; Bhish was not
an employee, and thus, it cannot be said that he was acting within the scope of employment.

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83. Let’s say that from the previous question, Bhish worked under a cab company, Samarth India, which exclusively
dealt with employing certain drivers solely for the purpose of proving cabs to the customers. One day, while
working, Bhish was coming back from the airport with a passenger. And he hit another car and the passenger
got hurt, would now the company be liable.
(a) No, now also Samarth India would not be liable as they did not authorize him hitting the car.
(b) Yes, they will be liable along with Bhish as he was working under them.
(c) They will be liable as the passenger got hurt.
(d) Both should be held accountable as the customer’s safety of most important.
84. Mr. Kapoor had only one daughter Dolly. She was about to get married soon and she was a huge fan of this local
band called “Lokopoko”. She wanted the band to come play at her wedding. Mr. Kapoor hired the band to play
at the wedding. Mr. Kapoor also sat with the band and chose the songs they will play as he knew all the favourite

m
songs of his daughter. On the day of the wedding and the performance, the band played a few songs that were

o
not allowed, and it got a copyright complaint. Decide.
(a) Mr. Kapoor will be held liable as he authorized the use of the songs.

rs .
(b) Mr. Kapoor would not be liable as he did not authorize the songs, the band played on their own.

c
(c) Only the band, as independent contractors, would be solely liable for the copyright infringement..
(d) Mr. Kapoor will be held liable as the band was in his course of employment.

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SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): The dozens of Green Deal agendas globally and the UN SDGs reveal that around two-
thirds of their focus is on preserving global commons rather than expanding private goods. This focus reflects
the undeniable truth that our shared resources—air, water, forests, and climate stability—are indispensable for
sustaining economic prosperity and human security. Yet, with 85% of global wealth already privatized and
abundant liquidity in the capital market, the challenge lies in devising ways to generate the required funding
without further compromising our planet.
The damage humanity has caused—species extinction, land degradation, and climate change—has created far-
reaching social and ecological externalities. These deferred costs, often borne by the Global South, future
generations, and nature itself, now manifest as increased risks, adverse events, and systemic shocks. Our past

will continue to destabilize both economic and human security.

c o m
actions have left us grappling with a mounting "debt" to the environment, and unless we act decisively, this debt

.
Managing, funding, and hedging the commons is a complex problem. Properly managed, the commons can yield

rs
extraordinary returns on investment—up to 1:15 or higher. However, with over-indebted public sectors in most
OECD and developing countries, mobilizing the trillions in private sector liquidity required to secure these

shocks, further exacerbate this difficulty.

k e
resources is increasingly challenging. The uncertainties of the Anthropocene era, coupled with asymmetric

n
Despite the promising potential of stress tests, ESG taxonomies, philanthropy, and standardized accounting

a
systems, these traditional approaches are insufficient. They remain too linear, slow, and limited in scale to meet

r
the urgent need for large-scale funding of our global commons. (1) Current financial systems still place profit
motives ahead of preserving shared resources,
rather than being guided by them.

o p perpetuating
tr-5L9L8O6P6Q
3R6L a cycle where finance controls the commons

Ultimately, the path to sustainable human and economic security lies in reimagining this relationship. (2) By

85.
T
ensuring the proper funding and management of our global commons, we safeguard not only ecological
stability but also the foundation of economic security that underpins human well-being. This shift is not
merely a moral imperative—it is an economic necessity.
Which of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
(a) The only way to address the growing environmental crises is by privatizing the remaining global commons,
as existing public-sector mechanisms and global agreements have failed to generate sufficient funding.
6G
(b) Economic security and human security are fundamentallytr-dependent 5H9G8J6E6J3Eon the proper funding and management
6P6Q 3R 6L
of global commons, which tr-5L 9L 8O
requires a shift in prioritizing commons over profit-driven financial systems.
(c) While funding global commons poses significant challenges, stress tests, ESG taxonomies, and philanthropy
are adequate to ensure the sustainable management of shared resources in both developed and developing
countries.
(d) The future of humanity depends on reducing economic reliance on shared resources like air, water, and
climate stability and instead creating a self-sustaining system driven by privatized wealth and technological
innovation.
86. What does the passage imply about the relationship between the public sector’s debt levels and the ability to
fund global commons?
(a) The public sector’s indebtedness significantly limits its capacity to mobilize the large-scale investments
required for funding global commons, making private sector participation essential.
(b) The public sector’s debt burden is a minor issue compared to the lack of effective taxation schemes and ESG
taxonomies to fund global commons.
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(c) Public sector debt levels are irrelevant to the challenge of funding global commons, as the passage
emphasizes that returns on investment from these projects can offset initial costs.
(d) The passage suggests that public sector debt levels are directly responsible for the mismanagement of global
commons and the associated social and ecological externalities.
87. What evidence does the author use to support the claim that current funding mechanisms are insufficient for
addressing the scale of the global commons' needs?
(a) The passage suggests that while global commons have the potential to deliver extraordinary returns, public-
sector debt and private-sector hesitancy limit the effective mobilization of resources.
(b) The author states that funding mechanisms are sufficient but hindered by a lack of proper implementation
and coordination among international agencies and governments.
(c) The passage highlights that taxation systems, ESG taxonomies, and philanthropy are inadequate because
they are too linear, slow, and small in scale to meet the immense funding requirements of global commons.

neglecting the global nature of commons and their unique financial requirements.

c o m
(d) The passage emphasizes that existing funding methods focus primarily on local and national concerns,

88.
global commons and economic systems?

rs .
Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the author’s view on the relationship between

(a) The only solution to securing the global commons is through extensive governmental intervention, regardless
of the financial implications.

k e
(b) Current financial mechanisms, though insufficient, are the best option available, and no radical changes

n
should be made to address the commons.
(c) To address the funding needs of global commons, it is necessary to create new tax schemes focusing
exclusively on private goods and services.

p r a
(d) A shift in the financial system is necessary for 6Q
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global
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commons to receive adequate resources, suggesting
that private sector liquidity should be mobilized differently.
89.

To
Which of the following assumptions is most critical to the author’s argument that global commons need to be
prioritized over profit-driven financial systems?
(a) The financial market's primary motivation of profit is inherently detrimental to the needs of global commons.
(b) Governments worldwide are willing to implement financial systems that adequately fund global commons.
(c) The financial system, if restructured to prioritize global commons, will not lead to the financial success of
commons.
(d) Private sector investments in global commons are currently at a satisfactory level and do not need to be
adjusted. 6J3E6G tr-5H9G8J6E
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90. Which of the following besttr-5L
describes the
relationship between Statement (1) and Statement (2) from the
9L8O6P6Q3R
passage?
(a) Statement (1) presents a solution, claiming that prioritizing profit motives will resolve issues with the
commons, while Statement (2) argues that this approach will ultimately harm economic security.
(b) Statement (1) serves as the premise, highlighting the issue with the current financial system, while Statement
(2) presents a solution based on that premise—prioritizing the funding and management of the global
commons to secure both ecological and economic stability.
(c) Statement (1) criticizes the current financial system, while Statement (2) argues that the commons should be
controlled by profit-driven financial systems for ecological and economic benefits.
(d) Statement (1) discusses the need for finance to be guided by the commons, while Statement (2) argues that
current financial systems are already effective in achieving ecological and economic stability.

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Passage (Q.91-Q.96): For decades, NATO has expanded steadily, incorporating nations once aligned with the
Soviet Union. This expansion, framed as a strategy to promote collective security, has brought NATO’s military
infrastructure closer to Russian borders. While NATO asserts that its policies aim to ensure regional stability, the
implications of this expansion have raised questions about its long-term impact on global peace.
Russia, on the other hand, views NATO's actions as a direct threat to its national security. Moscow argues that
NATO’s growing presence near its borders has forced it to take defensive measures to ensure its sovereignty.
Events such as the annexation of Crimea and military operations in Ukraine are often cited as evidence of Russian
aggression. However, Russia maintains that these actions were responses to NATO's steady encroachment and
the destabilizing effects of its policies.
Contrasting perspectives further complicate the narrative. Western intelligence agencies have repeatedly warned
of a potential Russian military threat to NATO, suggesting that Moscow harbors ambitions of undermining the
current global order. These warnings have fueled NATO’s justification for expanding its presence in Eastern

heightened tensions between Russia and NATO.

c o m
Europe and increasing military aid to Ukraine. Yet, such moves have arguably deepened the divide and

rs .
Historical attempts to bridge this divide, such as the establishment of the NATO-Russia Council in 2002, have
yielded little success. Relations worsened following Russia’s actions in Georgia in 2008 and Ukraine in 2014,
with NATO accusing Moscow of undermining global security. However, Russia counters that it has not advanced

k e
military infrastructure toward NATO, instead pointing to the alliance’s expansion as the true source of instability.
As diplomatic efforts stall and tensions rise, the question remains: what has driven the region into its current

n
state of hostility? While many point to Russia’s actions, a closer look at NATO’s expansion reveals a cycle of

a
mistrust and provocation. These dynamics have shaped a complex geopolitical landscape, where the line between

r
aggressor and defender becomes increasingly blurred.
91.

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Which of the following would be most useful in evaluating the primary argument of the author?

o
(a) Whether NATO’s expansion into Eastern Europe is consequence of its concern about the sovereignty of it

T
member countries.
(b) Whether diplomatic efforts between NATO and Russia have failed primarily due to NATO’s unwillingness
to compromise.
(c) Whether Russia plans a military offence on the NATO and it members countries in the future..
(d) Whether NATO’s expansion near Russian borders is a direct threat to Russia’s sovereignty.
92. What is the primary argument of the passage?
(a) Russia’s defensive actions, such as in Ukraine and Georgia, are a reaction
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to NATO’s provocations and
5H9G8J6E6J3E
encroachments near its borders. 6P6Q3R6L tr-
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(b) The root cause of regional instability is NATO’s expansionist ambitions, not the claim that Russia poses a
military threat to NATO.
(c) While NATO accuses Russia of destabilizing the region, a closer examination reveals that NATO’s policies
have played an equal role in escalating tensions.
(d) The strained relationship between NATO and Russia is the result of mutual distrust and the failure of
diplomatic efforts over decades.
93. The author’s argument “Russia, on the other hand, views NATO's actions as a direct threat to its national security.
Moscow argues that NATO’s growing presence near its borders has forced it to take defensive measures to ensure
its sovereignty” depends on which of the following assumptions?
(a) NATO’s expansion is motivated by a desire to protect the sovereignty of its member states.
(b) The NATO’s proximity to Russian borders is perceived as a threat by Russia.
(c) Regional instability can be the reason for a fitting response to counter the effects regional instability.
(d) A direct confrontation between Russia and the NATO is not in the interests of both the countries.
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94. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument that NATO’s expansion is the primary cause of
regional instability and that Russia’s actions are primarily defensive?
(a) NATO’s expansion has significantly improved the security and economic stability of the countries that joined
the alliance.
(b) Observation shows that Russia's military infrastructure didn’t advance toward NATO’s borders prior to
NATO’s expansions.
(c) The NATO emphasizes the importance of peaceful diplomatic solutions with Russia, but Russia prefers to
pursue military actions.
(d) NATO’s growing presence near Russia’s borders is a result of Russia’s aggressive actions in neighbouring
regions.
95. Each of the following strengthens the author’s argument EXCEPT that
(a) Russia’s military actions are not a reflection of broader strategic ambitions to assert territorial control

m
(b) NATO’s expansion is primarily motivated by a desire to protect the sovereignty of its member states.

o
(c) Russia’s military actions in Ukraine and Georgia were part of a long-term strategy to increase its territorial
control.

c
96. Based on the passage, which of the following can be most reasonably inferred?

rs .
(d) On many previous occasions, the legitimacy of Western warnings about Russia have been questioned.

in the region.

k e
(a) Russia believes that NATO’s expansion is an intentional provocation designed to weaken Russia's influence

n
(b) Russia views NATO’s military presence as a justified response to its own actions in neighbouring countries,
leading to further regional instability.

p r a
(c) Russia is more concerned about NATO’s presence near its borders than about the regional instability resulting
from the expansion.
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(d) Russia perceives NATO’s increasing proximity
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has led to defensive measures.

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Passage (Q.97-Q.102): A study published Monday proposes and puts to the test the theory that longer,
continuous daylight kick-started weird bacteria into producing lots of oxygen, making most of life as we know
it possible. They dredged up gooey purple bacteria from a deep sinkhole in Lake Huron and tinkered with how
much light it got in lab experiments. The more continuous light the smelly microbes got, the more oxygen they
produced. One of the great mysteries in science is just how Earth went from a planet with minimal oxygen
to the breathable air we have now. Scientists long figured microbes called cyanobacteria, were involved, but
couldn't tell what started the great oxygenation event. Researchers in a study in Monday's Nature
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Geoscience theorize that Earth's slowing3R rotation,
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24 hours, was key for the cyanobacteria in making the planet more breathable. About 2.4 billion years ago there
was so little oxygen in Earth's atmosphere that it could barely be measured, so no animal or plant
life like we know could live. Instead, lots of microbes breathed in carbon dioxide, and
in the case of cyanobacteria, produced oxygen in the earliest form of photosynthesis. At first it wasn't much, but
in only about 400 million years Earth's atmosphere went to one tenth the amount of oxygen we have.
That oxygen burst allowed plants and animals to evolve, with other plants now joining in the oxygen-making
party, she said. But why did the bacteria go on the oxygen making binge? That's where University of Michigan
oceanographer Brian Arbic comes in. He studies tidal forces on Earth and how they've slowed Earth's rotation.
Arbic was listening to a colleague's lecture about cyanobacteria and he noticed that the oxygen event coincided
with the timing of Earth's days getting longer. The planet's rotation slows because of the complicated
physics of tidal friction and interaction with the moon. Researchers put their theory to the test with bacteria
similar to what would have been around 2.4 billion years ago. They used purple and white mats of cyanobacteria
living in an eerie world of the sinkhole nearly 79 feet (24 meters) deep in Lake Huron.

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“We actually imagine that the world looked kind of like the Middle Island sinkhole for most of its history,”
said the study's lead author, Judith Klatt, a biogeochemist at the Max Planck Institute in Germany. Divers
brought up the gelatinous carpets of bacteria, which smell like rotten eggs. Klatt and colleagues exposed them
to varying amounts of light, up to 26 straight hours. They found that more continuous light caused the microbes
to produce more oxygen.
97. What specific piece of evidence does the author provide to support the theory about the slowing of Earth's
rotation and cyanobacteria's role in oxygen production?
(a) The fact that more continuous light exposure caused the cyanobacteria to produce more oxygen, suggesting
a link between environmental changes and oxygen production.
(b) The mention of tidal friction and interaction with the moon, explaining how Earth's rotation slowed, leading
to longer days, which may have contributed to oxygen production.
(c) The comparison of the Middle Island sinkhole environment to Earth's early conditions, highlighting
similarities in oxygen-producing processes.

o m
(d) The observation that cyanobacteria produced oxygen in response to volcanic gases, showing a different
mechanism for oxygenation than the one hypothesized by the author.

c
98. Which of the following weakens the author’s primary argument?

rs .
(a) There are other types of bacteria as well which can produce oxygen in the presence of longer continuous
sunlight.

k e
(b) Lab experiments show that cyanobacteria can be stimulated to produce oxygen by no other thing except

n
sunlight.

a
(c) Cyanobacteria can also produce oxygen using SO2 gas which increased in environment through volcanic
eruptions coinciding with great oxygenation.

p r
(d) Studies show that only one type of cyanobacteria
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continuously.

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99. The author has written the passage primarily to argue that
(a) The Earth’s tidal forces kickstarted the oxygenation of the Earth by for slowing the Earth’s spin.
(b) The experiment by the scientist shows promising results that the oxygenation of the Earth started 2.4 billion
years ago.
(c) longer, continuous daylight kick-started weird bacteria into producing lots of oxygen, making most of life
as we know it possible.
(d) To confirm that the oxygenation of the Earth started 2.4 billion years ago, Scientists use cyanobacteria living
deep in Lake Huron. 5H9G8J6E6J3E
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100. The author would agree with tr-each of the following
except that
(a) The speed of the Earth’s rotation has contributed to how oxygen-rich the atmosphere.
(b) Some life forms can exist in absence of Oxygen.
(c) The amount of oxygen produced by Cyanobacteria is proportional to the amount of light received by them.
(d) It took 400 million years to create the atmosphere as we have today.
101. The argument of the passage cannot be true unless which of the following is true?
(a) The bacteria taken from Lake Huron is similar to cyanobacteria responsible for oxygenation 2.4 billion years ago.
(b) The sunlight received by the Earth is directly proportional to the tidal forces exerting pressure on the Earth
to slow its spin.
(c) The environment of the Earth is the same as it was when the oxygenation of the Earth started 2.4 billion
years ago.
(d) In presence of long continuous sunlight, the number of bacteria multiplied quickly to kickstart the
oxygenation of the Earth.
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102. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage?
(a) How Micro-Organisms Alter The Life On Earth?
(b) Earth's Oxygen Levels Can Affect Life On Earth
(c) The Evolution Of Cyanobacteria Caused By Continuous Sunlight.
(d) The Transition Of Earth Supporting Life
Directions (Q.103-Q.108): Seven friends - P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are waiting in queue for voting towards voting
machine in the south direction.
V was standing in a queue immediately behind P. Four persons were waiting in between P and U. One person was
waiting in between R and T. S is waiting in front of T. More than two persons were waiting in between S and V. The
number of persons who wait in front of Q is one more than the number of persons who wait behind R.
103. Who among the following was the second last person to vote?

m
(a) V (b) S (c) P (d) Q
104. How many persons were waiting behind T?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three

c o
(d) Four

.
rs
105. Who among the following votes immediately after Q?
(a) T (b) P (c) R (d) S

(a) Q and V (b) R and U (c) S and V (d) Q and U

e
106. The number of persons waiting between P and T is one less than the number of persons waiting between _____.

k
107. Who among the following is waiting in front of S?
(a) T (b) Q (c) P

r an (d) U

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(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

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SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Passage (Q.109-Q.114): Dr. Anita runs a private clinic in a suburban area. Her monthly income averages Rs.
2,00,000, with 60% coming from regular consultations and 40% from specialized medical tests. She spends 35%
of her income on staff salaries, 20% on clinic maintenance, 15% on equipment upgrades, and 5% on
miscellaneous expenses. Recently, due to a policy change, she reduced the price of specialized tests by 15%,
which reduced her income from that segment by Rs. 12,000.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
109. What was the original income from specialized medical tests before the price reduction?
(a) Rs. 60,000 (b) Rs. 80,000 (c) Rs. 75,000 (d) Rs. 85,000
110. What is the new total monthly income after the reduction in specialized income?
(a) Rs. 1,88,000 (b) Rs. 1,95,000 (c) Rs. 1,92,000 (d) Rs. 1,85,000
111. Which of the following statements is correct about Dr. Anita’s monthly expenses?

c o m
(a) The sum of expenses on staff salaries and clinic maintenance before the price reduction equals Rs. 1,10,000.

rs .
(b) The difference between expenses on staff salaries and equipment upgrades before the price reduction is Rs.
60,000.

e
(c) The sum of expenses on clinic maintenance and miscellaneous items before the price reduction is more than
her expenses on staff salaries.

n
reduction, is smaller than the amount spent on miscellaneous expenses.

a k
(d) The difference between the expenses on clinic maintenance and equipment upgrades, before the price

r
112. Which of the following statements is correct about Dr. Anita’s income distribution?

p
(a) The difference in income between regular consultations
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and specialized medical tests before the price
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reduction is Rs. 40,000.

specialized tests.
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(b) The income from regular consultations before the price reduction is Rs. 60,000 more than that from

T
(c) The income from regular consultations before the price reduction is twice that of specialized tests.
(d) None of these
113. What is the ratio of income from regular consultations to specialized medical tests after the reduction?
(a) 12:7 (b) 13:8 (c) 30:17 (d) 30:19
114. What is the total amount spent on staff salaries and equipment upgrades before the price reduction?
(a) Rs. 1,08,000 (b) Rs. 1,10,000 (c) Rs. 1,00,000 3E6G
tr-5H9G8J6E6J(d) Rs. 1,15,800
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Passage (Q.115-Q.120): As of 2023, India generates 40% of its electricity from renewable sources, including
solar, wind, and hydroelectric power. The solar energy sector has grown rapidly, contributing 25% of total
renewable energy. In states like Rajasthan and Gujarat, solar farms generate an average of 1,000 MW annually,
while Tamil Nadu leads in wind energy, producing 3,500 MW annually. However, challenges such as land
acquisition and storage inefficiencies hinder progress. The government aims to achieve 50% renewable energy
generation by 2030.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
115. What is the percentage contribution of wind energy if solar accounts for 25% of renewable energy?
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) Cannot be determined
116. If Rajasthan's solar farms aim to increase output by 20%, what will be the new generation capacity?
(a) 1,200MW (b) 1,500MW (c) 1,250MW (d) 1,300MW

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117. By what percentage must renewable energy generation increase to meet the 2030 target of 50%, assuming
current generation is 40% ?
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 10% (d) 15%
118. If Tamil Nadu contributes 3,500MW of wind energy, what percentage does this represent of a total 10,000 MW
from all sources?
(a) 35% (b) 25% (c) 40% (d) 30%
119. What is the ratio of solar energy contribution to total renewable energy generation?
(a) 1:4 (b) 2: 3 (c) 3: 4 (d) 1:5
120. If storage inefficiencies reduce output by 15%, how much energy would Rajasthan's solar farms deliver
annually?
(a) 850 MW (b) 800 MW (c) 750 MW (d) 900 MW

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Notes:

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Notes:

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k e
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Notes:

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Notes:

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k e
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Mock Objection Form (MOF) 6G
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SELF-ASSESSMENT PAGE
1. My sequence in today's Mock (write 1-5 in the box):
English Language Logical Reasoning Legal Reasoning

General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quantitative Techniques

2. Approx time devoted to each section:

English Language Logical Reasoning

c o m Legal Reasoning

rs .
General Knowledge and Current Affairs

k e Quantitative Techniques

3. I:

r an
p
◻ was too distracted during the Mock today
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◻
◻

 To
think I used the wrong sequence
wrote today's Mock without any defined strategy around sequence, attempts etc in mind.
spent a lot of time on ____________________________________________ section.
spent insufficient time on _______________________________________ section.
 couldn't understand the passage properly of these genres _______________, ________________, _______________.

Write a quick explanation of your mistakes.

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That's it! Now go through this page before you write your next Mock and ensure we don't repeat the same
mistakes.

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