DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI

Prelims CAMP – 2025
Subject – Polity
Test - PT – 01
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
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THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
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without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
to take this Test Booklet with you.
9. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN ALL THE
QUESTIONS.
i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
iii. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
1. A constitutional government means: 4. Which of the following principles generally apply
(a) a government with limited powers in direct democracy?
(b) a government with multi-party system 1. Inalienability of the sovereignty of the people
(c) a government with parliamentary democracy 2. Representatives can be recalled by the people
(d) a government with federal structure
3. 
People make decisions directly through a
referendum
2. Consider the following statements with reference
to the Constituent Assembly of India: 4. Removal of distinction between State and
1. 
It was constituted as per the scheme civil society
formulated by the Mountbatten Plan. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. It served as India’s Provisional Parliament below:
until the formation of the new Parliament (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
following the first general elections.
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. 
H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari
were Vice Presidents of the Constituent (c) 1 and 3 only
Assembly. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
5. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Statement-I:
(b) 2 and 3 only
A Constitution without constitutionalism is merely
(c) 3 only
a written document.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement-II:
3. With reference to the composition of the Constitutionalism ensures that the Government
Constituent Assembly, consider the following functions within the boundaries set by the
statements: Constitution.
1. Its members were indirectly elected by
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the members of the Provincial Legislative
the above statements?
Assemblies.
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
2. Each province and princely state were
and Statement–II explains Statement–I
allotted seats in proportion to their respective
population. (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
3. Seats in each province were distributed among correct, but Statement–II does not explain
Hindus and Muslims in equal proportion. Statement–I
Which of the statements given above are correct? (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
(a) 1 and 2 only incorrect
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
(c) 1 and 3 only correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
6. With reference to the ‘Objectives Resolution of 9. Which of the following were ‘reserved subjects’
1946’, consider the following statements: under the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. It advocated for adequate safeguards for 1. Health
minorities, backward and tribal areas. 2. Law and order
2. It proclaimed India as an Independent 3. Local government
Sovereign Republic. 4. Land revenue
3. It guaranteed social, economic and political 5. Irrigation
justice to the people. Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above are correct? below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 4 and 5 only

7. Consider the following pairs: 10. Consider the following:

Committee of the Chairperson 1. Adoption of the National Flag
Constituent Assembly 2. Ratification of India’s membership of the
1. Union Constitution Jawaharlal Nehru Commonwealth
Committee 3. Election of Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first
2. Fundamental Rights H.C. Mukherjee President of India
Sub-Committee 4. Adoption of the National Anthem
3. Minorities Sub- J.B. Kripalani How many of the above functions were performed
Committee by the Constituent Assembly of India after
How many of the pairs given above are correctly independence?
matched? (a) Only one
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two
(b) Only two pairs (c) Only three
(c) All three pairs (d) All four
(d) None 11. Consider the following statements regarding the
artworks found in the Constitution of India:
8. With reference to the making of the Constitution
1. The Bull Seal from the Indus Valley region
of India, consider the following statements:
is the first pictorial representation in the
1. The Constituent Assembly adopted ‘Elephant’
Constitution, appearing in ‘Part I: The Union
as its symbol (seal).
and its Territory’.
2. B.N. Rau was appointed as its Constitutional
2. Scenes of Ramayana and Mahabharata have
Advisor.
been used in Part III and Part IV of the
3. S.N. Mukherjee was the chief draftsman of
Constitution respectively.
the Constitution.
3.  Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi is the only
4. Nandalal Bose was the calligrapher of the
historical female personality that has been
Constitution.
illustrated in the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) Only three
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All four
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
12. The Government of India Act of 1919 provided 15. Consider the following statements:
for which of the following? Statement-I:
1. Direct elections for the first time Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as
2. Half the members of the Viceroy’s Executive a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of
Council were to be Indians States’.

3. Appointment of a Statutory Commission Statement-II:

4. Separation of Provincial budgets from the The Indian Federation is not the result of an
Central budget agreement among the States.

Select the correct answer using the code given Statement-III:

below: The States have no right to secede from the Indian
federation.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
the above statements?
(c) 1 and 4 only
(a) Both Statement–II and Statement–III are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only correct and both of them explain Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–II and Statement–III are
13. Which one of the following Acts established a correct, but only one of them explains
system of dual Government in British India? Statement–I
(a) Regulating Act of 1773 (c) Only one of the Statements–II and III is
(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784 correct and that explains Statement–I

(c) Charter Act of 1813 (d) Neither Statement–II nor Statement–III is

correct
(d) Charter Act of 1853

16. Consider the following:

14. Which of the following are included under the
1. Principle of secrecy of procedure followed
First Schedule of the Constitution of India?
by Ministers
1. Names of the States
2. The President is the head of the State and
2. Names of the Union Territories (UTs) head of the Government
3. Allocation of seats to the States and the UTs 3. The doctrine of strict Separation of Powers
in the Rajya Sabha
4. President’s power to dissolve the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given
How many of the above are the features of the
below:
Parliamentary form of Government in India?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
17. Consider the following statements with reference 20. Consider the following statements:
to the Parliamentary system in India and Britain: 1. A Bill altering the boundaries of any State
1. Unlike India, the Ministers are obliged to can only be introduced in the Parliament with
countersign the official Acts of the Head of the prior recommendation of the President.
the State in Britain.
2.  Laws made for the admission of new
2. Both the systems of Government are based
States are considered amendments to the
on the doctrine of the sovereignty of the
Parliament. Constitution of India under Article 368.
3. In Britain, the Prime Minister is a member of 3. Ceding Indian territory to a foreign country
the Lower House by convention, whereas in mandates a Constitutional Amendment.
India, the Prime Minister can be a member of Which of the statements given above are correct?
either House of Parliament. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 21. With reference to the ‘Simon Commission’,
consider the following statements:
18. Consider the following statements:
1. It was set up to assess the functioning of the
1.  Hyderabad was incorporated into India
through means of a referendum. Government of India Act 1919.
2. Junagarh became a part of India by means of 2.  It used the term ‘Scheduled Caste’ in its
police action. report for the first time.
3. Assam was the first State of India to hold an 3. It recommended the abolition of dyarchy in
election based on a universal adult franchise. provinces.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) All three
(d) None of the above
(d) None
19. Consider the following:
22. Consider the following:
1. Kerala
2. Himachal Pradesh 1. Appointment of Governor
3. Andhra Pradesh 2. Integrated Audit Machinery
4. Madhya Pradesh 3. Bicameral legislature
5. Maharashtra 4. Independent judiciary
How many of the above were created by the States How many of the above are unitary features of
Reorganisation Act of 1956? Indian federalism?
(a) Only two (a) Only one
(b) Only three (b) Only two
(c) Only four (c) Only three
(d) All five (d) All four
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
23. Consider the following pairs: 25. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Source Feature of the Constitution
of India The Preamble of the Constitution of India declares
India to be a Republic.
1. Government Office of Governor Statement-II:
of India
In India, political sovereignty is vested with
Act, 1935
the people and there is an absence of privileged
2. British Nomination of members to classes.
Constitution Rajya Sabha Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements?
3. Australian Federation with a strong (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
Constitution Centre and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
4. Canadian Suspension of Fundamental correct, but Statement–II does not explain
Constitution Rights during Emergency
Statement–I
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
How many of the pairs given above are correctly incorrect
matched? (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
correct
(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs 26. The terms ‘Socialist, Secular and Integrity’ were
added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India
(c) Only three pairs
by which one of the following amendments?
(d) All four pairs (a) 24th Amendment Act, 1971
(b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(c) 38th Amendment Act, 1975
24. The ‘Third Schedule’ of the Constitution of India
(d) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
contains provisions relating to which one of the
following? 27. Consider the following:
(a) Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for the Union 1. Political justice
and State Ministers 2. Unity and integrity of the nation
3. Liberty of thought
(b) Provisions relating to the emoluments,
4. Dignity of the individual
allowances and privileges of the President of
How many of the above objectives are stated in
India
the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(c) States and Union Territories and their (a) Only one
corresponding territories (b) Only two
(d) List of recognized languages in India (c) Only three
(d) All four

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
28. Which one of the following statements best 31. Consider the following pairs:
describes the ‘Sovereign’ nature of the Indian Constitutional Important Provision
State? Amendment
(a) India secures to all citizens an equality of Act
status and opportunity.
(b) India has an elected head of the State. 1. T h i r t y - F i f t h Sikkim was made an
Amendment associate State of the
(c) India vests its political sovereignty with the
Act, 1974 Indian Union
Parliament.
(d) India can acquire a foreign territory or cede 2. Forty-Fourth Fundamental Rights
a part of its territory in favour of a foreign A m e n d m e n t under Articles 20 and
state. Act, 1978 21 cannot be suspended
during a National
29. Consider the following statements: Emergency
1. The Constitution of India addresses matters 3. S i x t y - N i n t h Accorded a special status
of citizenship under Articles 5 to 11 within A m e n d m e n t to the Union Territory of
Part II. Act, 1991 Delhi
2.  The Constitution of India empowers the
Parliament to enact any provisions regarding How many of the pairs given above are correctly
citizenship. matched?
3. In India, only a citizen by birth is eligible for
(a) Only one pair
the office of President.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Only two pairs
correct? (c) All three pairs
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 32. Consider the following statements regarding a
Constitutional Amendment Bill:
30. Under which of the following circumstances can
the Central Government compulsorily terminate 1. 
It can be initiated in either House of the
the Indian citizenship? Parliament.
1. If the citizen has acquired citizenship through 2. It can be introduced either by a Minister or
fraudulent means
by a Private Member.
2. If the citizen acts in a manner disloyal to the
Constitution of India 3. All such Bills must be ratified by the
3.  If the citizen engages in unlawful Legislatures of half of the States by a special
communication with the enemy during a war majority.
3.  If the citizen resides outside India
Which of the statements given above are
continuously for two years without a valid
correct?
reason
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1 and 2 only
below: (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
33. With reference to changing the names of districts 35. Consider the following statements:
in India, consider the following statements: Statement-I:
1. The approval of the State Cabinet is first The authority of the Constitution of India is higher
required to change the name of any district. than that of the Parliament of India.
2. 
The proposal to change the name of the Statement-II:
district is sent by the Governor of the State to
The Parliament of India derives its powers and
the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
functions from the Constitution of India.
3. The Union Cabinet is the final authority to
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
decide upon changing the name of the district.
the above statements?
Which of the statements given above are
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
correct?
and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct, but Statement–II does not explain
Statement–I
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
(d) 1, 2 and 3
incorrect
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
34. Consider the following statements: correct
1.  Unlike in India, State Legislatures in the
United States of America (USA) have the 36. Consider the following:
power to initiate a Constitutional Amendment.
1. Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils
2. Unlike the USA, India has no provision for a in States
special body like the Constituent Convention
2. Change in the Fundamental Rights
to amend the Constitution.
3. Change in the Directive Principles of State
3. The amendment of the federal structure of the
Policy
Constitution is easier in India as compared to
the USA. 4.  The extent of the executive power of the
Union and the States
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? How many of the above can be passed only by a
special majority of the Parliament?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(c) 3 only
(c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All four

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
37. Which of the following is/are the common features 40. Consider the following statements with reference
between Federalism in India and the United States to the Indian Councils Act of 1861:
of America? 1. It changed the designation of the Governor-
1. Dual polity General of India to that of the Viceroy of
2. Single citizenship India.
3. Single constitution 2.  It provided for local representation by
associating Indians with the law-making
4. Integrated judiciary
process.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are
below:
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
38. Consider the following statements with reference
41. With reference to the Act of Settlement, 1781,
to the Indian Independence Act of 1947:
consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the creation of two independent
1. It exempted the Governor-General and the
dominions of India and Pakistan with the right Council from the jurisdiction of the Supreme
to secede from the British Commonwealth. Court.
2.  It granted freedom to the Indian Princely 2. It excluded matters related to the collection of
States either to join the Dominion of India or revenue from the jurisdiction of the Supreme
the Dominion of Pakistan. Court.
3. It abolished the office of the Secretary of 3. It allowed appeals from Provincial Courts to
State for India. be heard by the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above statements are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two
(b) 2 only (c) All three
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None
(d) 1, 2 and 3
42. Consider the following statements:
39. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India 1. The Western model of secularism does not
was added to protect certain laws, including intervene in the affairs of religion.
land reform laws, from judicial review. It was 2. The Indian model of secularism deals with
introduced by which one of the Constitutional religious freedom of both individuals and
minority communities.
Amendment?
(a) First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(b) Fourth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1955
(a) 1 only
(c) Twenty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment
(b) 2 only
Act, 1971
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
Act, 1976 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
43. In which one of the following landmark cases 46. Consider the following personalities:
did the Supreme Court of India declare that the 1. Gopinath Bardoloi
Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be 2. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
amended under Article 368? 3. K.M. Munshi
(a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) 4. Kamla Chaudhry
How many of the above were members of the
(b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly
(1973)
of India?
(c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) (a) Only one
(d) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) (b) Only two
(c) Only three
44. Consider the following statements with reference (d) All four
to the ‘Federal system in India’:
47. Consider the following statements:
1. A rigid Constitution is considered to be a
1. The rule of law ensures that laws are applied
federal feature.
equally to all individuals, regardless of their
2.  Single constitution is considered to be a position or status.
unitary feature. 2. The rule by law can allow the authority to use
3.  Federalism forms a part of the ‘Basic the law arbitrarily, crafting and enforcing it
Structure’ of the Constitution. without accountability to uphold their power.
3. Both the rule of law and the rule by law deny
Which of the statements given above is/are
individuals the opportunity to question the
correct?
legitimacy or application of the law.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
45. Consider the following statements:
48. With reference to the National Emblem of India,
1. The Office of the Registrar General under consider the following statements:
Union Ministry of Home Affairs conducts the 1. It was officially adopted on 15th August 1947
decennial Census in India. by the Constituent Assembly.
2.  Unlike the National Population Register 2. It is taken from the Sarnath Lion Capital built
(NPR), the Census includes foreigners during the reign of Ashoka.
staying in India. 3. It includes 4 Asiatic lions, a horse, a bull and
an elephant.
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. The word ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed
correct?
below the emblem is taken from Rigveda.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
49. Consider the following statements regarding the 50. Which of the following organisations were
Constituent Assembly: established under the provisions of the Government
1.  One-third members of the Constituent of India Act, 1935?
Assembly were women. 1. Provincial Public Service Commission
2. Dakshayani Velayudhan was the only Dalit 2. Election Commission
woman in the Assembly. 3. Reserve Bank of India
3. Aruna Asaf Ali was the only Muslim woman Select the correct answer using the code given
member in the Constituent Assembly. below:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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Test - PT - 01 - Polity