5 YEAR LLB

PART I

LAW RELATED MATTERS

1. Which of the following two words were added to the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution by the 42nd Amendment?

(A) Sovereign and Democratic

(B) Socialist and Secular
(C) Secular and Democratic
(D) Democratic and Republic

2. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically mentioned in Article 19 of the

Indian Constitution?

(A) Freedom of speech and expression

(B) Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms
(C) Freedom to move freely
(D) Freedom of the press

3. The phrase 'bicameral legislature' means

(A) a single assembly

(B) an elected legislature
(C) a legislature consisting of a lower and an upper chamber
(D) parliamentary system of government

4. The President of India can be impeached for

(A) violating the Constitution

(B) disregarding the Parliament
(C) for not taking the Prime Minister's advice
(D) All of the above

5. Which of the following best describes the legal phrase amicus curie?

(A) Let the buyer beware

(B) Friend of the court
(C) At one’s own risk
(D) On what authority
6. A person has designed a new type of scissors for cutting of clothes. Under which Act
can he seek protection of his invention?

(A) Patents Act

(B) Copyrights Act
(C) Consumer Protection Act
(D) Arms Act

7. In which year the Supreme Court of India was set up?

(A) 1960
(B) 1952
(C) 1947
(D) 1950

8. Which of the following Articles describe about the provisions for citizenship in India?

(A) Articles 5 and 6 of the Constitution

(B) Articles 7, 8, 9 of the Constitution
(C) Articles 10 and 11 of the Constitution
(D) All of the above

9. Supreme Court and High Courts can issue writs under Articles 32 and 226 of the
Constitution respectively. Match the writ to its meaning:

1. Habeas Corpus A. Command of the court

2. Mandamus B. Stop further action
3. Certiorari C. Produce the body
4. Prohibition D. Explain your jurisdiction
5. Quo Warranto E. Quashing of a decision of a
lower court by a higher court

(A) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A, 5-D

(B) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E
(C) 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-B, 5-D
(D) 1-D, 2-E, 3-A, 4-C, 5-B

10. The Parliament enacted Consumer Protection Act, 2019 after repealing the Consumer
Protection Act of ……………

(A) 1986
(B) 1990
(C) 1996
(D) 1987
11. Match the following Latin maxims with their English meanings:

I. Uberrima Fidei A. Utmost good faith

II. Consensus ad idem B. Meeting of minds
III. Res Ipsa Loquitor C. Facts speak for themselves
IV. Rex non potest peccare D. The king can do no wrong
V. Ultra Vires E. Beyond the power

(A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E

(B) 1-E, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-C
(C) 1-C, 2-D, 3-E, 4-A, 5-B
(D) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B, 5-E

12. …………… is considered the basic document of Fundamental Rights

across the world.

(A) Manusmriti
(B) Magna Carta
(C) The American Constitution
(D) None of the above

13. Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution have been derived from:

(A) German Constitution

(B) British Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) Russian Constitution

14. Which High Court has the jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

(A) Kerala High Court

(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Telangana High Court

15. An agreement to share the gains of fraudulent acts is:

(A) Unlawful
(B) Lawful
(C) Immoral
(D) None of the above
16. Who is the present Chairperson of National Green Tribunal?

(A) Justice A.K. Sikri

(B) Justice Lokeshwar Singh Panta
(C) Justice Swatanter Kumar
(D) Justice A.K. Goel

17. Fundamental Duties as enshrined in Article 51-A include:

I. To Cherish and follow the ideals of national freedom struggle

II. To vote in general elections
III. To pay taxes
IV. To develop scientific temper
V. To safeguard public property

(A) I only
(B) I, IV and V only
(C) I, II and III only
(D) All of the above

18. Name the author of the book, ‘The Republic’:

(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Oppenheim
(D) H.J. Laski

19. Consider the following facts about defamation:

I. It can be both a civil wrong as well as a criminal wrong

II. It can be both law of Tort and Indian Penal Code
III. It can be both spoken and written

(A) I and II are correct

(B) I and III are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I, II and III are correct

20. Who has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence in India?

(A) President of India

(B) Governor
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) All of the above
21. What is the total number of Supreme Court Judges (excluding the CJI) after the
Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019?

(A) 32
(B) 33
(C) 34
(D) 31

22. The right to access internet has been held as part of right to privacy and right to
education by the Kerala High Court in:

(A) Shreya Singhal v. Union Of India

(B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(C) Faheema Shirin v. State of Kerala
(D) None of the above

23. Right to privacy is incorporated within the domain of which right of

the Constitution of India.

(A) Right to Equality

(B) Right to Life
(C) Right to freedoms
(D) Constitutional Remedies

24. In maintaining international peace and security, the Security Council has:

(A) Exclusive responsibility

(B) Primary responsibility
(C) Both primary and exclusive responsibility
(D) Secondary responsibility

25. The Protection of Human Rights Act was enacted in the year

(A) 1993
(B) 1991
(C) 1990
(D) 1989
 PART I

REASONING/LOGICAL THINKING

Directions: In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts.

26. Statement: Since the feeling of superiority is built in wherever there is social
development, there is a little that can be done to arrest it except at the
cost of social development.
Conclusion I: To maintain social development, complex should be allowed to
continue.
Conclusion II: Social development and complex run side by side.

(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows

27. Statement: In a police encounter, 5 terrorist and 2 soldiers were killed and one
injured seriously.
Conclusion I: The clash was not unexpected.
Conclusion II: The only injured was the terrorist.

(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows

28. Statement: Books are like friends who give rich and lasting rewards.
Conclusion I: Always choose rich friends like books.
Conclusion II: Books give us eternal satisfaction.

(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
 29. Statement: Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the production of
indigenous crude oil.
Conclusion I: Deficiency demand will have to be met by import.
Conclusion II: There is no need to cut domestic demand of crude oil.

(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows

30. Statement: The greatest need of India today is not of good researchers but well
trained teachers.
Conclusion I: India does not need researchers today.
Conclusion II: Researchers are least attached with the universalization and
popularization of quality education.

(A) If only conclusion I follows

(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) Both I and II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows

31. Legal Principle: Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any
movable property shall be punishable.

Factual Situation: A and B are joint owners of motor cycle which was kept in the
garage owned and possessed by B. A had access to the garage with a spare key. B did
not have knowledge that A had a spare key to the garage. One day A took the
motorcycle out for a ride without the knowledge of B and met with an accident while
returning home. While A escaped unhurt the motor cycle fell into the lake and was
completely destroyed. B blames A for the loss and lodged an FIR with the local police
station that A has stolen the motor cycle. Decide:

(A) A is not guilty because he is the joint owner of the motor cycle with B and as
such has the right to use the motorcycle at his own discretion
(B) A has committed the offence of theft because he took the motor cycle out of the
possession of B without his knowledge and consent
(C) A has not committed theft but the offence of damaging property belonging to B
(D) A cannot be held liable as it was an inevitable accident which was completely
unintentional and the loss so suffered would be recouped by the insurance
claim
32. Legal Principle: A master will be liable for the wrongful acts of his servants done in
the course of employment.

Factual Situation: M was an old widow who opened an account with the ABC Bank
whereby she would deposit every month a sum of INR 500/-. N a neighbour who
worked as the storekeeper in the Bank would collect the money from M and on
payment of a small commission from M deposit the same with the Bank. One day M
found out that the entire money for the period of 36 months had been appropriated by
N. M filed a suit against the ABC Bank. Decide:

(A) ABC Bank would be liable because N was their employee and was supposed to
be depositing the money on behalf of M
(B) ABC Bank is not responsible as N was a storekeeper and had no connection
with taking and returning of deposits. He was depositing the sum of money in
exercise of a private agreement between himself and M. It was thus beyond the
scope of his job description with the bank
(C) The ABC Bank is morally responsible as an old widow has been duped of her
life’s savings by an employee of the bank
(D) ABC Bank would be liable because N was being paid a commission by M

33. Legal Principle: After a proposal by the promisor has been made to the promisee and
the promisee in return for a consideration accepts the proposal and communicates
such acceptance so as to be out of his control of recall, a contract enforceable by law
is said to have been executed.

Factual Situation: X accesses the website of a furniture seller. He likes certain book
shelf. He then calls up the furniture seller and requests further details. The furniture
seller then offers to sell the bookshelf liked by X. X agrees to pay the price of the book
shelf. For this purpose the furniture seller requests him to send a letter confirming
their telephonic communication pertaining to purchase of bookshelf and promising
payment within 7 days after the delivery of the bookshelf. X sends the letter. X does
not receive the bookshelf. Furniture seller claims to have not received the letter. X
seeks to enforce the agreement. Decide.

(A) Furniture seller is not liable as acceptance was not communicated

(B) Furniture seller is liable as acceptance has been posted and is out the power of
X to rescind or revoke it
(C) Furniture seller is not liable as the money has not been received
(D) None of the above
34. Legal Principle: In India the principle of absolute liability states that if anyone brings
any dangerous object on his land which is an extraordinary use of his land and that
thing escapes, he shall be absolutely liable.

Factual Situation: A is a cinema owner and wishes to reduce his costs so as to increase
his profit margins and also to provide round the clock electricity to his cinema theatre.
He thus installs an electricity transformer within the premises. One day there occurs a
thunder storm and the lightening hits the transformer resulting in an immediate fire
which spreads to the theatre and kills atleast 100 people and grievously injures more
than 100 people including children. The families of the victims file a claim for
damages. Decide.

(A) A is liable because he has brought on his land a dangerous object which has
resulted in injury to various people.
(B) A is not liable because the fire was due to an Act of God, and circumstances
beyond his control, as he could not have known about the thunder storm and
the subsequent fire.
(C) The families of the victims are not entitled to any claim as this is criminal
offence and the State will prosecute and decide on compensation to be given to
the families of the victims
(D) None of the above

35. Legal Principle: Ignorance of Law is no excuse in India. Every person in India should
be acquainted with the law of the land.

Factual Position: Mr. A a foreigner visited Northern India during winters and was
intrigued by the fact that the people burn small fires near the roadside to keep
themselves warm. One evening he came out of the hotel and with the intention of
helping some labourers sitting nearby asked some people to cut down a tree into small
logs and then asked the labourers to light the fire and keep themselves warm. He also
gave INR 150/- to the people who had cut down the tree. The police came and
arrested him for having cut a tree in violation of the Environment Protection laws. He
pleaded ignorance of the law and that the tree was dry and that few men needed it to
keep themselves warm. Decide.

(A) A is not liable as he a foreigner and could not have known about the law of the
land
(B) A is not liable but the people who cut down the tree and the labourers who
enjoyed the fire are liable to be prosecuted
(C) A is liable as he should have known that cutting down of trees is an offence
(D) A is not responsible as he himself has not cut the tree down
Directions: Each of the four questions have a main statement followed by four statements,
labelled A, B, C, D. Choose the ordered pair of the statement where the first statement
implies the second and the two statements are logically consistent with the main statement.

36. If you once visit Kerala, you become addicted to its natural beauty.

(A) I visited Kerala

(B) I did not get addicted to the natural beauty of Kerala
(C) I got addicted to the natural beauty of Kerala
(D) I did not visit Kerala

(A) BD
(B) DB
(C) CA
(D) AB

37. You can find Chinese toys only in China

(A) I didn’t find any Chinese Toys

(B) I found Chinese Toys
(C) I went to the fair
(D) I didn’t go to China

(A) DC
(B) CB
(C) CA
(D) AD

38. Only in Africa, you can find the African Elephant

(A) You went to Africa

(B) You didn’t go to Africa
(C) You saw the African Elephant
(D) You didn’t see the African Elephant

(A) AC
(B) DB
(C) AD
(D) BD
Directions: Look at the information given below and answer.

A commercial building has eight floors from one to eight in such a way that ground floor is
numbered one the floor above it numbered two and so on. The top most floor is numbered 8.
Eight persons G, P, M, R, Q, A, D and C are staying on each floor. No two persons are living
on the same floor. A stays on 6th floor, there is a gap of three floors between G and R. C is
staying on the topmost floor. Neither P nor M is staying on floor five. Q is staying in the
middle of P and M. R is staying on floor one. M is not an immediate neighbour of G.

39. Who is staying on floor 7?

(A) A
(B) P
(C) D
(D) R

40. How many persons are staying between D and P?

(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Two
(D) One

41. Who is staying on second floor?

(A) Q
(B) M
(C) P
(D) A

42. If all persons are arranged in an alphabetical order then who will occupy 5th floor?

(A) G
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) M

43. Immediate neighbours of the person who is staying in floor 3 are:

(A) R and P
(B) A and P
(C) G and M
(D) P and M
44. Introducing a boy, Ralf said, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law”.
How is Ralf related to the boy?

(A) Uncle
(B) Father
(C) Brother
(D) Husband

45. The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing economies of Asia face the risk of
falling into ‘middle income trap’. It means that average income in these countries,
which till now have been growing rapidly, will stop growing beyond a point- a point
that is well short of incomes in the developed west. The IMF identifies a number of
causes of middle income trap- none of which is surprising, ranging from infrastructure
to weak institutions, to less than favourable macroeconomic conditions. But the broad
overall cause, says IMF, is a collapse in the growth of productivity.

Which of the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be
drawn from the above passage?

(A) Once a country reaches middle income stage, it runs the risk of falling
productivity which leads to stagnant incomes
(B) Falling into middle income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing
economies
(C) There is no hope at all for the emerging Asian economies to sustain the growth
momentum
(D) As regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not
satisfactory
46. Climate change is likely to expose a large number of people to increasing
environmental risks forcing them to migrate. The international community is yet to
recognize this new category of migrants. There is no consensus on the definition and
status of climate refugees owing to the distinct meaning the term refugees carry under
the international laws. There are still gaps in the understanding how climate change
will work as the root cause of migration. Even if there is recognition of climate
refugees, who is going to provide protection? More emphasis has been given to
international migration due to climate change. But there is a need to recognize the
migration of such people within the countries also so that their problems can be
addressed properly.

Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?

(A) The world will not be able to cope with large scale migration of climate
refugees
(B) We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change
(C) Climate change will be the most important reason for migration of people in
future
(D) Relations between climate change and migration is not yet understood

47. In a certain Code 256 means red colour chalk, 589 means green colour flower, and
254 means white colour chalk. Which digit indicates ‘White’?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 8

48. Look at this series: VI, 10, V, 11, ……, 12, III

What number should fill the blank?

(A) II
(B) IV
(C) IX
(D) 14

49. Direction : Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one
expressed in the original pair of words.

CONDUCTOR : ORCHESTRA

(A) Jockey : Mount

(B) Thrasher : Hay
(C) Driver : Tractor
(D) Skipper : Crew
50. Direction : Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one
expressed in the original pair of words

JAUNDICE : LIVER

(A) Rash : Skin

(B) Dialysis : Kidney
(C) Smog : Lung
(D) Valentine : Heart

51. Direction : Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one
expressed in the original pair of words

COBBLER : SHOE

(A) Jockey : Horse

(B) Contractor : Building
(C) Mason : Stone
(D) Cowboy : Boot

52. Direction : Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one
expressed in the original pair of words

PHOBIC : FEARFUL

(A) Finicky : Thoughtful

(B) Cautious : Emotional
(C) Envious : Desiring
(D) Asinine : Silly

53. Direction : Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one
expressed in the original pair of words

PROFESSOR : ERUDITE

(A) Aviator : Licensed

(B) Inventor : Imaginative
(C) Procrastinator : Conscientious
(D) Overseer : Wealthy

54. Introducing Neeta, Anil said, ‘She is wife of my mother’s only son. How is Neeta
related to Anil?

(A) Mother
(B) Wife
(C) Sister
(D) Daughter-in-law
55. ‘Ram’ is the father of ‘Kusha’ but ‘Kusha’ is not his son. ‘Mala’ is the daughter of
‘Kusha’.’Shalaka’ is the spouse of ‘Ram’. ‘Gopal’ is the brother of ‘Kusha’. ‘Hari’ is
the son of ‘Gopal’. ‘Meena’ is the spouse of ‘Gopal’. ‘Ganpat’ is the father of
‘Meena’. Who is the grand-daughter of ‘Ram’?

(A) Hari
(B) Mala
(C) Meena
(D) Shalaka
56. Pointing to a gentleman, Dinesh said “His only brother is the father of my daughter’s
father.” How is the gentleman related to Dinesh?

(A) Uncle
(B) Grandfather
(C) Father
(D) Brother- in-law

Direction: In the following series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the
number pattern. Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.

57. In the following series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number
pattern. Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.

B2CD, ……………, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D

(A) B2C2D
(B) BC3D
(C) BC3D3
(D) BCD7

58. In the following series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number
pattern. Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.

ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, ……………, MLNA

(A) OLPA
(B) KLMA
(C) LLMA
(D) KLLA

59. In the following series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number
pattern. Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.

QPO, NML, KJI, ……………, EDC

(A) HGF
(B) CAB
(C) JKL
(D) GHI
60. In the following series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number
pattern. Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.

P5QR, P4QS, P3QT, ……………, P1QV

(A) PQW
(B) PQV2
(C) P2QU
(D) PQ3U

61. In the following series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number
pattern. Fill the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.

QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, ……………

(A) UAV
(B) UAT
(C) TAS
(D) TAT

Direction (Question No. 62 to 64): In each series, look for the degree and direction of change
between the numbers. In other words, do the numbers increase or decrease, and by how much

62. Look at this series: 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ……………
What number should come next?

(A) 52
(B) 56
(C) 96
(D) 128

63. Look at this series: 2, 6, 18, 54, ……………

What number should come next?

(A) 108
(B) 148
(C) 162
(D) 216

64. Look at this series: 544, 509, 474, 439, ……………

What number should come next?

(A) 404
(B) 414
(C) 420
(D) 445
Direction: In each of the following questions, four words have been given out of which three
are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different.

65. Choose the word which is different from the rest?

(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Jowar
(D) Mustard

66. Choose the word which is different from the rest?

(A) Chair
(B) Table
(C) Bench
(D) Stool
67. Choose the word which is different from the rest?

(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Circle
(D) Square

68. Choose the word which is different from the rest?

(A) Iron
(B) Nickel
(C) Cobalt
(D) Aluminium

69. Choose the word which is different from the rest?

(A) Microscope
(B) Microfilm
(C) Microphone
(D) Microbe

Direction: Read each definition and all four choices carefully, and find the answer that
provides the best example of the given definition.

70. Applying for Seasonal Employment occurs when a person requests to be considered
for a job that is dependent on a particular season or time of year. Which situation
below is the best example of Applying for Seasonal Employment?

(A) The ski instructors at Top of the Peak Ski School work from December through
March
(B) Matthew prefers jobs that allow him to work outdoors
(C) Lucinda makes an appointment with the beach resort restaurant manager to
interview for the summer waitressing position that was advertised in the
newspaper
(D) Doug's ice cream shop stays open until 11 p.m. during the summer months

71. Posthumous Publication occurs when a book is published after the author's death.
Which situation below is the best example of Posthumous Publication?

(A) Richard's illness took his life before he was able to enjoy the amazing early
reviews of his novel
(B) Melissa's publisher cancels her book contract after she fails to deliver the
manuscript on time
(C) Clarence never thought he'd live to see the third book in his trilogy published
(D) Elizabeth is honored with a prestigious literary award for her writing career
and her daughter accepts the award on behalf of her deceased mother
72. Guarantee is a promise or assurance that attests to the quality of a product that is
either (1) given in writing by the manufacturer or (2) given verbally by the person
selling the product. Which situation below is the best example of a Guarantee?

(A) Melissa purchases a DVD player with the highest consumer ratings in its
category
(B) The salesperson advises Curt to be sure that he buys an air conditioner with a
guarantee
(C) The local auto body shop specializes in refurbishing and selling used cars
(D) Lori buys a used digital camera from her coworker who says that she will
refund Lori's money if the camera's performance is not of the highest quality

73. Embellishing the Truth occurs when a person adds fictitious details or exaggerates
facts or true stories. Which situation below is the best example of Embellishing the
Truth?

(A) Isabel goes to the theater, and the next day, she tells her coworkers she thought
the play was excellent
(B) The realtor describes the house, which is eleven blocks away from the ocean,
as prime waterfront property
(C) During the job interview, Fred, who has been teaching elementary school for
ten years, describes himself as a very experienced teacher
(D) The basketball coach says it is likely that only the most talented players will
get a college scholarship

74. Establishing a Power of Attorney occurs when a legal document is created that gives
one individual the authority to act for another. Which situation below is the best
example of Establishing a Power of Attorney?

(A) Louise is selling her house and she hires a lawyer to review the contract
(B) Simone's mother can no longer get to the bank to cash her checks and make
deposits, so she has taken legal steps to enable Simone to do these things for
her
(C) Jack’s father is elderly and Jack thinks he is no longer able to make decisions
for himself
(D) At her daughter's urging, Mrs. Lenox opens up a retirement account with the
local bank
75. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
slar means jump
slary means jumping
slarend means jumped
Which word could mean “playing”?

(A) clargslarend
(B) clergy
(C) ellaclarg
(D) slarmont

PART II

GENERAL ENGLISH

Direction : Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

76. Direction : Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

FOSTERING

(A) Nurturing
(B) Safeguarding
(C) Neglecting
(D) Ignoring

77. Direction : Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

DEFER

(A) Differ
(B) Postpone
(C) Defy
(D) Indifferent

78. Direction : Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

DELECTABLE

(A) Enjoyable
(B) Noble
(C) Delicious
(D) Sumptuous
79. Direction : Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

STUPID

(A) Rude
(B) Obstinate
(C) Illiterate
(D) Dull

80. Direction : Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

GOAD

(A) Irritate
(B) Soothe
(C) Save
(D) Worship

81. Direction : Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

AMBIGUOUS

(A) Salvageable
(B) Clear
(C) Responsible
(D) Auxiliary

82. Direction : Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

AMICABLE

(A) Hostile
(B) Friendly
(C) Haughty
(D) Unpleasant

83. Direction : Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

MITIGATE

(A) Abate
(B) Allay
(C) Alleviate
(D) Aggravate
84. Direction : Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

ENORMOUS

(A) Average
(B) Soft
(C) Tiny
(D) Weak

85. Direction : Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

STARTLED

(A) Relaxed
(B) Amused
(C) Endless
(D) Astonished
86. Direction : Choose the word which can be substituted for the given sentence

One who eats everything

(A) Irresistible
(B) Insolvent
(C) Omnivorous
(D) Omniscient

87. Direction : Choose the word which can be substituted for the given sentence

State in which the few govern the many

(A) Plutocracy
(B) Oligarchy
(C) Monarchy
(D) Autocracy

88. Direction : Choose the word which can be substituted for the given sentence

That which cannot be corrected

(A) Unintelligible
(B) Illegible
(C) Incorrigible
(D) Indelible

89. Direction : Choose the word which can be substituted for the given sentence

A person who insists on something

(A) Boaster
(B) Instantaneous
(C) Disciplinarian
(D) Stickler

90. Direction : Choose the word which can be substituted for the given sentence

A person of good understanding, knowledge and reasoning power

(A) Intellectual
(B) Snob
(C) Expert
(D) Literate
Direction

91. Direction: Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below.

(A) He had not been opening his shop for many days.
(B) He had not opening his shop for many days.
(C) He has not opening his shop for many days.
(D) He have not been opening his shop for many days.

92. Direction: Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below.

(A) India attacked on Pakistan in 1965.

(B) India attacks Pakistan in 1965.
(C) India attacked Pakistan in 1965.
(D) India did attacked on Pakistan in 1965.

93. Direction:Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below.

(A) We do not liked his manners.

(B) We did not like his manners.
(C) We did not liked his manners.
(D) We did not likes his manners.

94. Direction:Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below.

(A) Babar had won the battle before rain come.

(B) Babar have won the battle before rain came.
(C) Babar had won the battle before rain came.
(D) Babar has won the battle before rain came.

95. Direction:Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below.

(A) She used to got up early.

(B) She used to get up early.
(C) She was used to get up early.
(D) She use to got up early.

96. Direction: Give the meaning of the idiom

To fight tooth and nail

(A) as best as they could

(B) to fight with weapons
(C) using unfair means
(D) with strength and fury
97. Direction: Give the meaning of the idiom

To take to heart

(A) to be encouraged
(B) to grieve over
(C) to hate
(D) to like

98. Direction: Give the meaning of the idiom

To face the music

(A) to enjoy a musical drama

(B) to live in a pleasant atmosphere
(C) to bear the consequences
(D) to have a difficult time

99. Direction: Give the meaning of the idiom

Dropping like flies

(A) collapsing in large numbers

(B) getting infected with many diseases
(C) taking leave in large numbers
(D) sitting down in the shade

100. Direction: Give the meaning of the idiom

To call a spade a spade

(A) to be frank
(B) to be rude
(C) to be sly
(D) to be diplomatic

101. Direction: Find the most suitable meaning of the phrase

One who is always doubting

(A) Sceptic
(B) Deist
(C) Rationalist
(D) Positivist
102. Direction : Find the most suitable meaning of the phrase

To free anything from germs

(A) cauterize
(B) antiseptic
(C) sterilize
(D) anti-virus
103. Direction : Find the most suitable meaning of the phrase

An assembly of worshippers

(A) congregation
(B) configuration
(C) conflagration
(D) confrontation

104. Direction : Find the most suitable meaning of the phrase

Incapable of making errors

(A) infallible
(B) incorrigible
(C) impervious
(D) inexplicable

105. Direction : Find the most suitable meaning of the phrase

The practice of submitting a proposal to popular vote

(A) Election
(B) Popularity
(C) Reference
(D) Referendum

Directions: The first and the last parts of the sentence/paragraph are numbered. The rest of
the sentence/paragraph is split into parts and named P, Q, R and so on. These parts are not
given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the combination is correct.
Then find the correct answer.

106. 1. A dictionary
P. arranged words
Q. about which information
R. containing alphabetically
S. is a book
6. is given

(A) RPQS
(B) QRPS
(C) SRPQ
(D) SPRQ
107. 1. Today political freedom
P. and the right
Q. however money and all that money
R. assures people equality before law
S. to elect their Government
6. can buy is not fairly distributed

(A) SPRQ
(B) RPSQ
(C) QRSP
(D) PSRQ

108. 1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to retrieve
P. All valuables were smashed or stolen
Q. The curtains and burned books were ripped to shreds
R. Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere.
S. The house had been completely ransacked
6. Mirsada stood in the centre of her bedroom looking at a ruined copy of the
Koran forcing back her tears.

(A) PQRS
(B) PRQS
(C) SPRQ
(D) RSQP

109. 1. Oliver dozed off again and it has been bright day for hours when Oliver opened
his eyes.
P. He belonged to the world again.
Q. In three day’s time, he was able to sit in any easy chair, well propped up with
pillows, and he was still too weak to walk.
R. He felt cheerful and happy
S. The crisis of the disease was safely past
6. Mrs. Beduin had him carried downstairs into the little housekeeper’s room
which belonged to her.

(A) PQRS
(B) RSPQ
(C) QRSP
(D) SPQR
 110. 1. In the recent years, women’s participation has caught up with the average, to
the point that in the last round of elections to state assemblies, women outvoted
men in 17 states.
P. Since 2006, the EC has been closely studying the gender composition of the
electoral rolls.
Q. The Election Commission (EC) has to be credited for a part of that success
since it has improved the conduct of elections in ways that encourage women’s
participation.
R. The improvement of electoral rolls, provision of separate queues for women
voters, and making the polling process secure after 1996 have gone a long way
in making voting easier and safer for women.
5. It prohibits the publication of voters’ photographs in the electoral rolls, barring
a small stamp size photograph in the hard copy distributed to political parties.

(A) PRQ
(B) QRP
(C) RPQ
(D) PQR

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

True, it is the function of the army to maintain law and order in abnormal times. But in
normal times there is another force that compels citizens to obey the laws and to act with due
regard to the rights of others. The force also protects the lives and the properties of law
abiding men. Laws are made to secure the personal safety of its subjects and to prevent
murder and crimes of violence. They are made to secure the property of citizens against theft
and damage to protect the rights of communities and castes to carry out their customs and
ceremonies, so long as they do not conflict with rights of others. Now, the good citizen, of his
own free will, will obey these laws and he takes care that everything he does is done with due
regards to the rights and well being of others. But the bad citizen is only restrained from
breaking these laws by fear of consequence of his actions. And the necessary steps to compel
the bad citizen to act as a good citizen are taken by this force. The Supreme control of law
and order in a state is in the hands of the Minister who is responsible to the State Assembly
and acts through the Inspector General of Police.

111. The expression ‘customs and ceremonies’ means

(A) fairs and festivals

(B) habits and traditions
(C) usual practices and religious rites
(D) superstition and formalities
112. A suitable title for the passage would be:

(A) the function of the army

(B) laws and the people’s rights
(C) the fear of the law and people’s security
(D) the functions of the police

113. Which of the following is not implied in the passage?

(A) Law protects those who respect it

(B) Law ensures that people’s religious and social rights are protected
unconditionally and absolutely
(C) A criminal is deterred from committing crimes only for the fear of the law
(D) The forces of law help to transform irresponsible citizens into responsible ones

114. According to the writer, which one of the following is not the responsibility of the
police?

(A) To protect the privileges of all citizens

(B) To check violent activities of citizens
(C) To ensure peace among citizens by safeguarding individual rights
(D) To maintain peace during abnormal times

115. Which of the following reflects the main thrust of the passage?

(A) It deals with the importance of the army in maintaining law and order
(B) It highlights role of the police as superior to that of the army
(C) It discusses the roles of the army and the police in different circumstances
(D) It points to the responsibility of the Minister and the Inspector General

116. ‘They are made to secure the property of citizens against theft and damage’, implies
that the law

(A) helps in recovering the stolen property of the citizens

(B) assist the citizens whose property has been stolen or destroyed
(C) initiate process against offenders of law
(D) safeguard people’s possessions against being stolen or getting lost

117. Out of the following which one has the opposite meaning to the word ‘restrained’ in
the passage:

(A) annihilated
(B) promoted
(C) intruded
(D) inhibited
118. Which one of the following statement is implied in the passage?

(A) Peaceful citizens seldom violate the law, but bad citizens have to be restrained
by the police
(B) Criminals, who flout the law, are seldom brought to book
(C) The police hardly succeed in converting bad citizens into good citizens
(D) The Police check the citizens, whether they are good or bad, from violating the
law

119. Which of the following statements expresses most accurately the idea contained in the
first paragraph?

(A) It is the job of the army to ensure peace at all times

(B) It is the police that should always enforce law and order in the country
(C) Army and the police ensure people’s security through combined operations
(D) It is in exceptional circumstances that the army has to ensure peace in the
country

120. The last sentence of the passage implies that:

(A) The inspector General of Police is the sole authority in matters of law and
order
(B) In every state maintenance of public peace is under the overall control of the
responsible minister
(C) A Minister and a responsible State Assembly exercise direct authority in
matters pertaining to law and order
(D) The Inspector General of Police is responsible to the State Assembly for
maintaining law and order

121. Items in a published book appear in the following order:

(A) Index, Copyright Page, Bibliography, Footnotes

(B) Copyright Page, Bibliography, Index, Footnotes
(C) Copyright Page, Footnotes, Bibliography, Index
(D) Bibliography, Copyright Page, Index, Footnotes

122. Direction : Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words

Does …………… know that …………… was absent?

(A) she, me
(B) she, I
(C) her, me
(D) her, I
123. Direction : Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words

Please tell ……………, …………… have obtained a degree in Chemistry.

(A) He, I
(B) Him, Me
(C) Him, I
(D) He, Me

124. Direction : Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words

I remember that …………… bought the fruits from ……………

(A) they, we
(B) them, us
(C) them, we
(D) they, us

125. Direction : Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words

Please don't tell …………… about ……………

(A) She, I
(B) She, Me
(C) Her, I
(D) Her, Me

PART II

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

126. Which state has launched the ‘Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income
Augmentation’ (KALIA) scheme.

(A) Odisha
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu

127. Who developed a Light Utility Helicopter which achieves important milestone of
flying at 6 km altitude?

(A) HAL
(B) BHEL
(C) DRDO
(D) BEML
128. World Radio day observed on

(A) 13th February

(B) 14th February
(C) 21st February
(D) 28th February

129. Which of the following is the India's first 'Justice City'?

(A) Patna
(B) Chennai
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Amravati

130. The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019 came into effect on January 14,
2019. It provides what percentage of reservation quota for the economically weaker
sections in the general category?

(A) 7 percent
(B) 8.5 percent
(C) 10 percent
(D) 15 percent

131. Which among the following branches of IIT has first launched a full-fledged
B.Tech course in Artificial Intelligence?

(A) IIT Delhi

(B) IIT Madras
(C) IIT Hyderabad
(D) IIT Roorkee

132. Which of the following is a non metal that remains liquid at room temperature?

(A) Bromine
(B) Chlorine
(C) Helium
(D) Phosphorous

133. ‘.MOV’ extensions refer usually to what kind of file?

(A) Image file

(B) Animation/movie file
(C) MS Office document
(D) Audio file
134. The head quarters of International Energy Agency is at

(A) Washington
(B) Geneva
(C) Copenhagen
(D) Paris

135. Who is known as the Father of White Revolution in India?

(A) Arun Krishnan

(B) Durgesh Patel
(C) Verghese Kurian
(D) M.S. Swaminathan

136. Which is the longest human cell?

(A) Nerve Cell

(B) Ovum
(C) Spleen
(D) Axom

137. Who was the first Indian woman to win the Booker Prize?

(A) Arundhati Roy

(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Kiran Desai

138. Maitree is a joint military exercise between India and ……………

(A) Thailand
(B) Nepal
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bangladesh

139. Who has been named as 2019 person of the year by TIME Magazine?

(A) Narendra Modi

(B) Virat Kohli
(C) Greta Thunberg
(D) Bob Iger
140. Who is the author of the novel “The Testaments”?

(A) Anna Burns

(B) Marlon James
(C) Paul Beatty
(D) Margaret Atwood

141. Who is the President of Sri Lanka?

(A) Gotabaya Rajapaksa

(B) Mahinda Rajapaksa
(C) Ranil Wickremsinghe
(D) Maithripala Sirisena

142. United States has extended the ‘New START Nuclear Treaty’
for five years with which nation?

(A) Japan
(B) Russia
(C) UK
(D) China

143. Match the following International Organisations with their headquarters:

Organisation Headquarters
1.
(A) World trade
1-A, 2-B, Organisation
3-C, 4-D, 5-E A. Brussels
2.
(B) International
1-D, 2-E, 3-C,Monetary
4-A, 5-BFund B. Washington, USA
3.
(C) International
1-B, 2-C, 3-E,Court
4-D,of Justice (ICJ)
5-A C. Paris
4.
(D) Organisation
1-E, 2-B, 3-D,for4-C,
economic
5-A D. The Hague
Cooperation and Development (OECD)
5. European Union E. Geneva
144.
“Olericulture” refers to cultivation of ……………

(A) vegetables
(B) fruits
(C) oil seeds
(D) cash crops
145. National Education Day is observed on:

(A) 5th November

(B) 5th September
(C) 12th January
(D) 11th November

146. Budapest Convention is primarily related to:

(A) Banking Reforms

(B) Public Health Care
(C) Cyber Crime
(D) Nuclear Disarmament

147. The Nobel Prize winner for 2019 in Peace category bagged by Abiy Ahmed Ali is the
Prime Minister of which country?

(A) Ethiopia
(B) Africa
(C) Nigeria
(D) Kenya

148. Which company has launched the "Women Will" Web Platform?

(A) Google
(B) Microsoft
(C) Facebook
(D) Twitter

149. Which is the India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier that is to

be commissioned by 2022?

(A) INS Viraat

(B) INS Arihant
(C) IAF Sukhoi
(D) INS Vikrant

150. Which of the following Indian theatre personality has been selected for French honour
of ‘Knight of the order of Arts and Letters’ in the year 2020?

(A) Rathan Thieyem

(B) K.K.Kapoor
(C) Sanjana Kapoor
(D) Naseeruddin Shah
 ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 201 BBA LLB (HONS)/BCOM LLB (HONS)
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 B 31 A 61 A 91 A 121 C
2 D 32 B 62 B 92 C 122 B
3 C 33 B 63 C 93 B 123 C
4 A 34 A 64 A 94 C 124 D
5 B 35 C 65 D 95 B 125 D
6 A 36 A 66 B 96 D 126 A
7 D 37 D 67 C 97 B 127 A
8 D 38 D 68 D 98 C 128 A
9 C 39 C 69 D 99 A 129 D
10 A 40 C 70 C 100 A 130 C
11 A 41 B 71 A 101 A 131 C
12 B 42 D 72 D 102 C 132 A
13 C 43 D 73 B 103 A 133 B
14 B 44 B 74 B 104 A 134 D
15 A 45 A 75 B 105 D 135 C
16 D 46 C 76 A 106 C 136 A
17 B 47 B 77 B 107 D 137 A
18 A 48 B 78 C 108 C 138 A
19 D 49 D 79 D 109 C 139 C
20 A 50 A 80 A 110 B 140 D
21 B 51 B 81 B 111 C 141 A
22 C 52 D 82 A 112 D 142 B
23 B 53 B 83 D 113 B 143 D
24 B 54 B 84 C 114 D 144 A
25 A 55 B 85 A 115 C 145 D
26 C 56 A 86 C 116 D 146 C
27 D 57 B 87 B 117 B 147 A
28 B 58 D 88 C 118 D 148 A
29 A 59 A 89 D 119 D 149 D
30 B 60 C 90 A 120 B 150 C