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1. Non-nutrient agar inoculated with E. coli is used in d. Acanthamoeba

recovering ____ from ocular specimens

a. Chlamydia
b. Fusarium spp.
c. Microsporidia
d. Acanthamoeba

2. What is the most common gram-positive ocular d. S. aureus

pathogen?

a. Corynebacterium spp.
b. Coagulase negative staphylococci
c. P. acnes
d. S. aureus

3. What is the main symptom for primary syphilis? c. Chancre

a. Purulent discharge
b. Genital warts
c. Chancre
d. Asymptomatic

4. Infections caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii most of- d. Lower respirato-

ten affect the ____ ry tract

a. Urinary tract
b. Upper respiratory tract
c. Gastrointestinal tract
d. Lower respiratory tract

5. In the Kirby-Bauer test, what is used to grow strepto- d. Mueller-Hinton

cocci that do not grow adequately on unsupplement- agar with 5%
ed Mueller-Hinton agar? sheep blood

a. Mueller-Hinton agar with 5% rabbit blood

b. Chocolate agar
c. PEA agar
d. Mueller-Hinton agar with 5% sheep blood
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6. What is the causative agent of black piedra? d. Piedraia hortae

a. Microsporum canis
b. Trichosporon beigelii
c. Sporothrix schenckii
d. Piedraia hortae

7. An enrichment broth is: d. A liquid medi-

um designed to
a. A broth that has growth enhancers to allow fastid- encourage the
ious organisms to flourish b. A broth that allows the growth of small
grouping of microbes based on different characteris- numbers of a par-
tics demonstrated in the medium ticular organism
c. Used as a supplement to agar plates to detect while suppressing
small numbers of most aerobes, anaerobes, and mi- other florae
croaerophiles
d. A liquid medium designed to encourage the growth
of small numbers of a particular organism while sup-
pressing other florae

8. Differential media: b. Support the

grouping of mi-
a. Support the growth of one type or group of mi- crobes based on
crobes, but not another different charac-
b. Support the grouping of microbes based on differ- teristics demon-
ent characteristics demonstrated in the media strated in the me-
c. Support the growth of most nonfastidious mi- dia
crobes
d. Allow the growth of fastidious microbes through
the addition of certain growth enhancers

9. The purpose of transport media is to: b. Not promote

the multiplication
a. Take the place of plating a routine culture with the of microorganisms
specimen but ensure their
b. Not promote the multiplication of microorganisms preservation
but ensure their preservation
c. Keep the swab moist so that the microorganisms
do not dry out
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d. Make sure the microorganisms can multiply and
live as though they were still in the hos

10. Colonies of Bacillus anthracis are described as: d. Medusa's

heads
a. Curschmann's spiral
b. Mickey Mouse ears
c. Flower like
d. Medusa's heads

11. On a breakpoint panel, when two concentrations are d. Susceptible

tested and no growth is present in either well, the
isolate is:

a. Intermediate
b. None of the above
c. Resistant
d. Susceptible

12. All the following colors are commonly used to de- a. Orange
scribe bacteria EXCEPT:

a. Orange
b. White
c. Buff
d. Gray

13. What group has more urinary tract infections (UTIs) b. Symptomatic
caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus? sexually active
young women
a. Symptomatic middle-age men
b. Symptomatic sexually active young women
c. Asymptomatic elderly men
d. Elderly women

14. What is required for culturing Chlamydia? b. Embryonated

chicks
a. Thayer-Martin, modified (MTM) media
b. Embryonated chicks

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c. Cell cultures
d. Martin-Lewis (ML) media

15. Specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovi- b. become bound
um are mixed with anticoagulants right after collec- up in the clotted
tion. Why should this occur? material and are
difficult to isolate.
a. Anticoagulants often dissolve part of the bacteria's
cell wall and congeal many bacteria into groups.
b. become bound up in the clotted material and are
difficult to isolate.
c. It ensures the specimen will work when using an
automated spreader device.
d. It kills off the normal florae and only leaves the
pathogens in the specimen.

16. All of the following terms are used to describe the d. Smooth
consistency of a bacterial colony EXCEPT:

a. Brittle
b. Creamy
c. Dry
d. Smooth

17. Two types of specimens can use preservatives to a. Urine, stool

maintain them until they can be delivered to the lab-
oratory. They are:

a. Urine, stool
b. Pus from a wound, vaginal secretions
c. vaginal secretions
d. throat cultures

18. In what staining procedure does carbolfuchsin pene- a. Acid-fast stain

trate the bacterial cell wall through heat or detergent
treatment?

a. Acid-fast stain
b. Gram stain

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c. Endospore stain
d. Acridine orange stain

19. When bacteria are growing, they go through a log c. The bacteria
phase when: numbers usually
double with each
a. They are preparing to divide. generation time
b. The number of nonviable bacterial cells exceeds
the number of viable cells.
c. The bacteria numbers usually double with each
generation time
d. Nutrients are becoming limited and the numbers of
bacteria remain constant.

20. Some Clostridium sp. are examples of this class b. Aerotolerant

of organism because they can live in the presence anaerobe
of oxygen but do not use oxygen in its metabolic
processes.

a. Microaerophilic
b. Aerotolerant anaerobe
c. Facultative anaerobe
d. Obligate anaerobe

21. A microbiology technologist performs a traditional b. Spores

bacterial stain on a colony from a wound culture
that is suspected to contain bacteria from the genus
Clostridium. The unstained areas in the bacterial cell
observed by the technologist are called:

a. Mitochondria
b. Spores
c. Cilia
d. Ribosomes

22. Three types of specimens can be batch processed, c. Specimens for

including all the following EXCEPT: Neisseria gonor-
rhea (GC) cultures
a. Stool specimens for ova and parasite tests that are
collected in preservatives
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b. Specimens for viral culture collected in viral trans-
port media
c. Specimens for Neisseria gonorrhea (GC) cultures
d. Specimens for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) cultures

23. To quantitate the number of bacteria for a routine a. 0.01 mL

urine culture, what size is the calibrated loop that is
used?

a. 0.01 mL
b. 0.001 mL
c. 1 mL
d. 0.1 mL

24. To survive, microbial inhabitants have learned to b. Bacterial shape

adapt by varying all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Growth rate
b. Bacterial shape
c. Growth at particular temperatures
d. Growth in all atmospheric conditions

25. Capnophiles are bacteria that grow: c. In increased

carbon dioxide
a. Where little or no oxygen is present concentrations
b. In low oxygen concentrations
c. In increased carbon dioxide concentrations
d. In reduced oxygen concentrations but increased
carbon dioxide concentrations

26. What specimen reduces the risk of contamination c. Catheterized

with urethral florae? specimen

a. Suprapubic aspirate
b. Voided midstream specimen
c. Catheterized specimen
d. First morning specimen

27. All the following environmental factors influence the b. Moisture

growth of bacteria EXCEPT:
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a. Gaseous composition of the atmosphere

b. Moisture
c. pH
d. Temperature

28. A Gram stain of organisms on Loeffier agar showed b. potassium tellu-

pleomorphic gram-positive bacilli. The organism rite
should be subcultured to:

a. blood
b. potassium tellurite
c. MacConkey
d. chocolate

29. Nonselective media supports: c. The growth of

most nonfastidi-
a. The growth of one type or group of microbes, but ous microbes
not another
b. The growth of fastidious microbes through the ad-
dition of certain growth enhancers
c. The growth of most nonfastidious microbes
d. The grouping of microbes based on different char-
acteristics demonstrated in the media

30. All of the following organisms cause cutaneous my- c. Sporothrix

coses EXCEPT: schenckii

a. Trichophyton beigelii
b. Microsporum canis
c. Sporothrix schenckii
d. Epidermophyton floccosum

31. The density of the bacterial colony can be described d. Ground glass
by all the following EXCEPT:

a. Transparent
b. Translucent
c. Opaque
d. Ground glass
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32. A Gram stain performed on a sputum specimen re- a. Moraxella ca-

vealed gram-negative diplococci within PMNs. Oxi- tarrhalis
dase testing is positive and carbohydrate degrada-
tion tests are inert. The organism is:

a. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Neisseria sicca
c. Neisseria meningitidis
d. Neisseria lactamica

33. The process by which bacterial genes are transferred c. Transduction

to new bacteria by the bacteriophage is called:

a. Transformation
b. Conjugation
c. Transduction
d. Replication

34. What of the following methods is considered the c. Viral isolation

"gold standard" for diagnosing genital herpes?

a. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

b. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c. Viral isolation
d. GenProbe

35. The specimen of choice for detecting gastrointestinal a. A stool speci-

pathogens is: men

a. A stool specimen
b. Vomit
c. A Urine specimen
d. A swab of the anal area with no feces on it

36. Notations from the macroscopic (gross) examination a. What type

of a specimen should include all the following EX- of container the
CEPT: specimen was col-
lected in
a. What type of container the specimen was collected
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in
b. Swab or aspirate
c. Blood or mucus present
d. Stool consistency

37. The greatest risk of infections to patients after a spe- c. Sepsis

lenctory is ____

a. Penumonia
b. Gastrointestinal infection
c. Sepsis
d. Skin infection

38. What is the advantage of performing NAAT for cases a. You can also
of gonococcal urethritis? find Chlamydia.

a. You can also find Chlamydia.

b. You can also find Cryptosporidium.
c. There is no advantage.
d. You can also find syphilis.

39. What type of anthrax is most deadly and most likely d. Inhalation
to be seen in a bioterrorism attack?

a. Gastrointestinal
b. Spinal
c. Cutaneous
d. Inhalation

40. Enriched media: d. Allow the growth

of fastidious mi-
a. Support the growth of one type or group of mi- crobes through
crobes, but not another the addition of cer-
b. Support the grouping of microbes based on differ- tain growth en-
ent characteristics demonstrated in the media hancers
c. Support the growth of most nonfastidious mi-
crobes
d. Allow the growth of fastidious microbes through
the addition of certain growth enhancers

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41. What method is used to concentrate specimens to d. Centrifugation
increase recovery of pathogens in the microbiology
laboratory?

a. Homogenization
b. Mixing
c. Anticoagulation
d. Centrifugation

42. What is the cause of most uncomplicated urinary a. Escherichia coli

tract infections (UTIs)?

a. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

43. A clinical laboratory scientist is working on the c. Fungi

bench, reading plates, and notices that a culture has
both a unicellular form and a filamentous form. What
type of organism exhibits these forms?

a. Virus
b. Parasite
c. Fungi
d. Bacteria

44. Swabs are appropriate for specimens collected from b. Urine

all the following sites EXCEPT:

a. Genital tract
b. Urine
c. Upper respiratory tract
d. External ear

45. A medical technologist is reading plates from a cere- a. Haemophilus in-

brospinal fluid (CSF) culture. She notices that there is fluenzae
growth on chocolate agar (CHOC), but no growth on
sheep blood agar (SBA) or MacConkey (MAC) agar.
The Gram stain showed a gram-negative bacillus.
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What organism should be suspected?

a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

46. A medical technologist is reading a vaginal culture. d. Yeast

She sees the very white colonies that are g-hemolytic
on a blood agar plate but appear to have feet. What
organism could this possibly be?

a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Gram-negative rods
c. Gram-positive cocci
d. Yeast

47. The edge of the colonies is described as all the fol- b. Glasslike
lowing EXCEPT:

a. Irregular
b. Glasslike
c. Smooth
d. Filamentous

48. What broth is recommended in the tube dilution min- b. Mueller-Hinton

imal inhibitory concentration (MIC) tests?

a. Columbia
b. Mueller-Hinton
c. Trypticase soy
d. Cooked meat

49. What enables the microbiologist to select the correct d. Understanding

media for primary culture and optimize the chance of the growth re-
isolating a pathogenic organism? quirements of a
particular bacteri-
a. Understanding the cell structure and biochemical um
pathways of an organism
b. Knowing the differences in cell walls of particular
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bacteria.
c. Determining staining characteristics
d. Understanding the growth requirements of a par-
ticular bacterium

50. Aerobes are bacteria that grow: c. In ambient air

a. In high carbon dioxide concentrations

b. In high nitrogen concentrations
c. In ambient air
d. In low oxygen tension

51. What structure is a phospholipid bilayer embed- c. Plasma mem-

ded with proteins and cholesterol that regulates the brane
amount of chemicals that pass in and out of a cell?

a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Mitochondria
c. Plasma membrane
d. Cell wall

52. The function of a cell wall is to: b. Provide rigidity

and strength to the
a. Regulate the transport of macromolecules in and exterior of the cell.
out of the cell.
b. Provide rigidity and strength to the exterior of the
cell.
c. Protect the eukaryote from predators.
d. Provide reserve energy to the eukaryotic cell.

53. Propionibacterium acnes is most often associated d. blood culture

with: contamination

a. post-antibiotic diarrhea
b. normal oral flora
c. tooth decay
d. blood culture contamination

54. Guidance for the development of a selective-report- b. Clinical Labo-

ing or cascade-reporting protocol for antibiotics is ratory and Stan-
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available from the: dards Institute
(CLSI)
a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
b. Clinical Laboratory and Standards Institute (CLSI)
c. United States Army Medical Research Institute (US-
AMRIID)
d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

55. What two tests have been mainstays in identification c. Bile esculin and
schemes for the non-b-hemolytic, catalase-negative, salt tolerance
gram-positive cocci?

a. Bacitracin and PYR

b. Hippurate hydrolysis and Optochin
c. Bile esculin and salt tolerance
d. Nitrate and PYR

56. When reading broth microdilution minimal inhibitory c. The lowest con-
concentration (MIC) testing, the MIC for a particular centration show-
drug is: ing no obvious
growth
a. The lowest concentration showing confluent
growth
b. The highest concentration showing no obvious
growth
c. The lowest concentration showing no obvious
growth
d. The highest concentration showing confluent
growth

57. The goal of the specimen collector when collecting d. Maintain the vi-
specimens for culture should be to: ability of the living
organisms at the
a. Get the specimen quickly to get the doctor off the site with minimal
collector's back. contamination.
b. Make sure the specimen gets to the lab.
c. Avoid hurting the patient when collecting the spec-
imen.

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d. Maintain the viability of the living organisms at the
site with minimal contamination.

58. What is the specimen of choice for gastrointestinal c. Blood

and inhalation anthrax?

a. Sputum
b. Spinal fluid
c. Blood
d. Vesicular fluid from lesions

59. Acceptable specimens for culture of anaerobic bac- b. abscesses

teria that cause disease include:

a. vaginal swabs
b. abscesses
c. gingival swabs
d. skin swabs

60. When is the best time to collect a specimen from a a. Less than 3
patient suspected of having a viral disease? days after onset of
symptoms
a. Less than 3 days after onset of symptoms
b. 5 days after onset of symptoms
c. 2 weeks after onset of symptoms
d. 1 week after onset of symptoms

61. Genes that code for antibiotic resistance are often a. Plasmids
found on extracellular, small, circular pieces of DNA.
These DNA pieces are called:

a. Plasmids
b. Genomes
c. Phenotypes
d. Chromosomes

62. What McFarland standard provides turbidity compa- d. 0.5

rable to that of a bacterial suspension containing
approximately 1.5 ´ 108 CFU/mL?

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a. 1.0
b. 2.0
c. 1.5
d. 0.5

63. Cultures for anaerobes and broth cultures may be c. 5 to 7 days

incubated for:

a. 12 to 24 hours
b. 7 to 9 days
c. 5 to 7 days
d. 48 to 72 hours

64. A medical technologist is reading stool culture b. Klebsiella/En-

plates. She sees an organism that has a large, mucoid terobacter-like or-
pink colony on MacConkey (MAC). What is a good ganism
presumptive identification of this organism?

a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Klebsiella/Enterobacter-like organism
c. Escherichia/Citrobacter-like organism
d. Enteric pathogen

65. Direct microscopic examinations are not recom- d. Urethral dis-

mended for all the following specimen sources EX- charge from a
CEPT: male

a. Throat specimens
b. Vagina specimens
c. Nasopharyngeal specimens
d. Urethral discharge from a male

66. What is the composition of viral transport media? a. Isotonic

buffered saline
a. Isotonic buffered saline with protein with protein
b. Cooked meat broth
c. Amies media with charcoal
d. Cary-Blair

67.
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In certain instances, it is desirable for specimens to b. Neisseria gon-
be inoculated directly onto culture media. Specimens orrhea
for this pathogen can be placed onto a commer-
cial transport system called a JEMBEC system. What
pathogen is this?

a. Francisella tularensis
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Bordetella pertussis

68. Many women who have bacterial vaginosis (BV) com- d. Amines
plain of a fishy odor from vaginal secretions. What
causes the odor?

a. Carbolic acid
b. Urea
c. Alcohols
d. Amines

69. A microorganism that is a unicellular organism and b. Virus

lacks a nuclear membrane and true nucleus is classi-
fied as:

a. Parasite
b. Virus
c. Algae
d. Fungi

70. What is the most critical step in any susceptibility c. Inoculum prepa-
test? ration

a. Organism isolation
b. Plate streaking
c. Inoculum preparation
d. Gram stain identification

71. The increased risk of herpes zoster in patients with d. Systemic

tumors is generally caused by: chemotherapy

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a. Immune suppression caused by the tumor
b. All of the choices
c. Neutropenia caused by the tumor
d. Systemic chemotherapy

72. Bacterial species that exhibit phenotypic differences b. Subspecies

are considered:

a. Biovarieties
b. Subspecies
c. Phagevarieties
d. Serovarieties

73. When performing a Gram stain on a gram-negative d. Lipopolysac-

organism, the crystal violet is absorbed into this out- charide
er cell wall layer then washed away with the acid
alcohol. What is the main component of the outer
layer of the cell wall?

a. Peptidoglycan
b. Mycolic acid
c. N-acetyl-d-muramic acid
d. Lipopolysaccharide

74. In the laboratory, the clinical microbiologist is re- c. Selecting treat-

sponsible for all the following EXCEPT: ment for patients

a. Isolating microorganisms
b. Identifying microorganisms
c. Selecting treatment for patients
d. Analyzing bacteria that cause disease

75. A medical technologist is reading a sputum culture a. Streptococcus

on the bench. There is growth on the BAP and CHOC pneumoniae
plates, but no growth on the MAC plate. The colonies
growing on the BAP have discolored the media to
a green color around and under the colonies. What
organism could this be?

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
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b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Escherichia coli
d. Haemophilus influenzae

76. Which of the following is the most frequent group of a. Adenoviruses

viruses involved in ocular disease?

a. Adenoviruses
b. Poxviruses
c. Herpesviruses
d. Enteroviruses

77. What is the specimen of choice for cutaneous an- a. Vesicular fluid
thrax? from lesions

a. Vesicular fluid from lesions

b. Sputum
c. Spinal fluid
d. Blood

78. What organisms growing in a urine culture can be c. Bacillus spp.

considered contaminants?

a. Streptococcus spp.
b. Fungus
c. Bacillus spp.
d. Enterobacteriaceae

79. Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma spp. must have media c. They lack cell
supplemented with serum or sugar as nutrients and walls.
because:

a. The sterols in their cell walls are soluble in normal

bacterial media.
b. Their cell walls contain only peptidoglycan.
c. They lack cell walls.
d. Their cell walls contain detoxifying enzymes.

80. Mycobacteria have a gram-positive cell wall structure c. Glycolipids and

with a waxy layer containing these two compounds. mycolic acid
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a. Glycolipids and phospholipids

b. Mycolic acid and lipopolysaccharides
c. Glycolipids and mycolic acid
d. Lipopolysaccharides and phospholipids

81. When using the isolation streaking technique, the a. First

greatest concentration of organisms (if present) will
be in which quadrant?

a. First
b. Third
c. Fourth
d. Second

82. If transport of the specimen is delayed, the specimen b. Saltwater

can be maintained by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Preservatives
b. Saltwater
c. Anticoagulants
d. Transport or holding medium

83. If bacteria utilize various carbohydrates for growth, it c. Acid production

is usually detected by: and change of col-
or from the pH in-
a. Alkaline production and change of color from the dicator
pH indicator
b. Production of carbon dioxide
c. Acid production and change of color from the pH
indicator
d. Production of keto acids

84. The best way to minimize the amount of upper respi- c. Have the patient
ratory florae in a sputum specimen is to follow these rinse their mouth
procedures: with water and ex-
pectorate with the
a. Cough up the specimen, then when the specimen aid of a really deep
gets to the lab, digest it with enzymes that will kill the cough directly into
normal florae. a sterile container.
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b. Have a respiratory tech decontaminate a patient's
mouth and throat before the specimen is collected.
c. Have the patient rinse their mouth with water and
expectorate with the aid of a really deep cough direct-
ly into a sterile container.
d. When plating the specimen, ensure that the swab
goes deep into the sample to get only bacteria pre-
sent in the lower lung.

85. What requirements do viruses have for replication? a. They must be in-
side a living cell.
a. They must be inside a living cell.
b. They must be in an environment where all the nec-
essary amino acids are present.
c. They can use a dead cell to replicate.
d. They need to be around dead, decaying flesh so
that all the amino acids and enzymes are present

86. Colonies of Staphylococcus aureus are usually de- c. Opaque

scribed as:

a. Ground glass
b. Transparent
c. Opaque
d. Translucent

87. What characteristic of urine inhibits growth of many d. Low pH

pathogens?

a. High glucose level

b. High protein level
c. High pH
d. Low pH

88. A man has sex with a woman on Saturday night. On d. Gonorrhea

Wednesday he notices dysuria, pyuria, and a urethral
discharge. He goes to his doctor who orders a Gram
stain of the discharge. The results of the Gram stain
show > 25 wbc/hpf, moderate gram-negative intra-
cellular diplococci, and 3+ gram-negative diplococci.
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What is the mostly likely diagnosis?

a. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Syphilis
c. Chlamydia
d. Gonorrhea

89. What test is sufficient for a diagnosis of Neisseria d. Gram stain

gonorrhea in men?

a. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

b. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
c. Culture
d. Gram stain

90. What is the name of the organism that causes tu- c. Francisella tu-
laremia that can be contracted from rabbits? larensis

a. hareis
b. Brucella tularensis
c. Francisella tularensis
d. philomiragia

91. Generally, microbiologists observe the colonial mor- d. 18 to 24 hours

phology of organisms on primary culture after how
many hours of incubation?

a. 72 hours
b. 6 to 12 hours
c. 24 to 48 hours
d. 18 to 24 hours

92. All of the following statements are true about viruses a. Viruses do not
EXCEPT: need host cells to
survive.
a. Viruses do not need host cells to survive.
b. Viruses consist of DNA or RNA but not both.
c. Viruses can infect bacteria, plants, and animals.
d. Viruses are acellular but are surrounded by a pro-
tein coat.
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93. The elevation of bacterial colonies is described by all c. Pointed

the following EXCEPT:

a. Umbilicate
b. Convex
c. Pointed
d. Raised

94. What is the inexpensive test used to presumptively c. Bacitracin

identify Streptococcus pyogenes?

a. Citrate
b. Nitrate
c. Bacitracin
d. Optochin

95. The laboratory receives a specimen in which the c. Capnophilic

doctor suspects that the infecting organism is
Haemophilus influenzae. This organism grows best
in an atmosphere that contains 5% to 10% carbon
dioxide. It is classified as what type of bacteria?

a. Facultative anaerobe
b. Obligate aerobe
c. Capnophilic
d. Obligate anaerobe

96. MacConkey agar is used to: b. Differentiate

between lactose
a. Differentiate between hemolytic and nonhemolytic fermenters and
gram-negative rods. lactose nonfer-
b. Differentiate between lactose fermenters and lac- menters.
tose nonfermenters.
c. Show the clear, pinpoint colonies of Haemophilus
influenzae.
d. Demonstrate the large, pink colonies of Neisseria
meningitidis

97.
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When looking at a tube of thioglycollate broth, b. Streptococcus
streamers or vines and puffballs are visible. What spp.
organism grows like this in thioglycollate?

a. Yeast
b. Streptococcus spp.
c. Gram-negative rods (Enterobacteriaceae)
d. Pseudomonas spp

98. A safe method of transporting aspirated material c. An anaerobic

would be in: transport system

a. A tube of broth
b. A leak-proof bag
c. An anaerobic transport system
d. A plastic container

99. Which of the following is an uncommon pathogen a. Acanthamoeba

associated with contact lens wearers that can invade
compromise cornea tissue?

a. Acanthamoeba
b. Penicillin spp.
c. Fusarium spp.
d. H. influenzae

100. Oxacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is called: a. Methicillin-re-

sistant S. aureus
a. Methicillin-resistant S. aureus
b. Penicillinase-resistant S. aureus
c. Penicillin-resistant S. aureus
d. Oxacillin-resistant S. aureus

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