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JMI Mock Test

The document is a mock test for the JAMIA Law Entrance Exam, consisting of various questions covering English grammar, vocabulary, legal principles, and general knowledge. It includes multiple-choice questions on topics such as synonyms, antonyms, sentence structure, legal concepts, and historical facts. The test aims to assess the candidate's understanding and knowledge in preparation for the entrance exam.

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guptaananya0612
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© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Topics covered

  • mathematics,
  • human rights,
  • Indian Constitution,
  • infrastructure,
  • youth engagement,
  • current affairs,
  • wildlife conservation,
  • torts,
  • vocabulary,
  • science
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
418 views30 pages

JMI Mock Test

The document is a mock test for the JAMIA Law Entrance Exam, consisting of various questions covering English grammar, vocabulary, legal principles, and general knowledge. It includes multiple-choice questions on topics such as synonyms, antonyms, sentence structure, legal concepts, and historical facts. The test aims to assess the candidate's understanding and knowledge in preparation for the entrance exam.

Uploaded by

guptaananya0612
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Topics covered

  • mathematics,
  • human rights,
  • Indian Constitution,
  • infrastructure,
  • youth engagement,
  • current affairs,
  • wildlife conservation,
  • torts,
  • vocabulary,
  • science

JAMIA LAW ENTRANCE MOCK TEST

1.​ Choose the correct synonym for "Ephemeral"


a) Eternal
b) Temporary
c) Significant
d) Tedious

2.​ Identify the grammatically correct sentence


a) The book which I bought yesterday is interesting.
b) The book, that I bought yesterday, is interesting.
c) The book whom I bought yesterday is interesting.
d) The book which I had bought yesterday are interesting.

3.​ Fill in the blank: "He was so tired that he could ___ keep his eyes open."
a) Nearly
b) Barely
c) Hardly
d) Rarely

4.​ Choose the correct antonym for "Auspicious":


a) Fortunate
b) Ominous
c) Prosperous
d) Favorable

5.​ Identify the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement:


a) The team are playing well this season.
b) The team is playing well this season.
c) The team play well this season.
d) The team was play well this season.

6.​ Choose the correct word for the given definition: "A person who believes in
fate"
a) Atheist
b) Fatalist
c) Agnostic
d) Optimist

7.​ Fill in the blank: "She is ____ her brother in intelligence."


a) Superior to
b) Superior than
c) More superior than
d) Most superior to

8.​ Select the word that best completes the sentence: "His comments were so
___ that nobody took him seriously."
a) Trivial
b) Significant
c) Important
d) Critical

9.​ Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:


a) My sister who lives in Mumbai is a doctor.
b) My sister, who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor.
c) My sister who lives in Mumbai, is a doctor.
d) My sister, who lives in Mumbai is a doctor.

10.​Find the correctly spelled word:


a) Accommodate
b) Accomodate
c) Acommodate
d) Accomadate

11.​Choose the appropriate word to complete the idiom: "Bite the ___"
a) Rock
b) Bullet
c) Stone
d) Grass
12.​Identify the sentence in active voice:
a) The cake was baked by my mother.
b) My mother baked the cake.
c) The cake is being baked by my mother.
d) The cake had been baked by my mother.

13.​Choose the correct form of the word: "She ___ the letter before leaving."
a) Writes
b) Had written
c) Write
d) Writing

14.​What is the correct plural of "goose"?


a) Gooses
b) Geeses
c) Geese
d) Goose

15.​Choose the word that means "A place for storing wine":
a) Attic
b) Cellar
c) Basement
d) Pantry

16.​Select the correct word to complete the sentence: "The committee ___
agreed on the proposal."
a) Has
b) Have
c) Was
d) Were

17.​Choose the word that best expresses the meaning of "Obsolete":


a) Modern
b) Outdated
c) Useful
d) Essential

18.​Choose the correct conjunction: "She stayed at home ___ it was raining."
a) And
b) Because
c) So
d) But

19.​Select the word that is opposite in meaning to "Ambiguous":


a) Vague
b) Unclear
c) Definite
d) Doubtful

20.​Identify the correct indirect speech: "He said, 'I am happy.'"


a) He said that he is happy.
b) He said that he was happy.
c) He said that I am happy.
d) He said that he will be happy.

21.​Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: "She is good ___
mathematics."
a) At
b) In
c) With
d) For

22.​Select the correct phrase to replace the underlined part: "She insisted to go to
the party."
a) Insisted in going
b) Insisted on going
c) Insisted at going
d) No change
23.​Identify the word with correct usage: "He gave a ___ account of the event."
a) Breathe
b) Breath
c) Brief
d) Brevity

24.​Choose the correct order of adjectives: "She bought a ___ dress."


a) Cotton red beautiful
b) Beautiful red cotton
c) Red cotton beautiful
d) Cotton beautiful red

25.​Select the word that fits the analogy: "Doctor is to hospital as teacher is to
___"
a) Office
b) School
c) Market
d) Library

26.​Identify the sentence with correct usage of "its" or "it’s":


a) The cat licked it’s paw.
b) It’s raining outside.
c) Its been a long day.
d) The dog wagged it’s tail.

27.​Fill in the blank: "She was ___ tired to continue."


a) So
b) Very
c) Too
d) Much

28.​Choose the correct passive voice: "She is writing a novel."


a) A novel is being written by her.
b) A novel was written by her.
c) A novel is written by her.
d) A novel has been written by her.

29.​Choose the best option to replace the underlined part: "She is interested for
painting."
a) Interested in painting
b) Interested by painting
c) Interested painting
d) No change

30.​Identify the correct use of the article: "I saw ___ elephant at the zoo."
a) A
b) An
c) The
d) No article needed

31. A party suffering from a mental disorder cannot:

a) Be held liable for criminal offenses


b) Enter into a contract
c) Be sued for torts
d) All of the above

32. Which of the following is true regarding a "breach of contract"?

a) It requires a valid contract to be formed


b) It may lead to an award of damages
c) It always results in a criminal penalty
d) It can never be remedied by specific performance

33. Under Article 15 of the Indian Constitution, no citizen shall be discriminated


against on grounds of:

a) Religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth


b) Religion, education, language, or caste
c) Gender, ethnicity, language, or economic status
d) None of the above

34. A "voidable contract" means:

a) The contract is valid until declared void by the court


b) The contract cannot be enforced
c) The contract is invalid from the outset
d) The contract is enforceable by both parties

35. Under Section 28 of the Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita, a person who is compelled by
threats to commit an offense is considered:

a) Not liable for punishment


b) Liable only for non-serious offenses
c) Liable if the threat is immediate
d) Liable only if they were willing to commit the offense

36. Under the law of torts, a "nuisance" is a:

a) Criminal offense
b) Civil wrong causing harm or inconvenience
c) Breach of contract
d) Form of misrepresentation

37. In tort law, "vicarious liability" holds:

a) The defendant liable for their own actions only


b) An employer liable for the actions of employees within the scope of
employment
c) Only government bodies liable for damages
d) A third party responsible for a tort

38. Under the Bhartiya Nyay Sanhita, "dowry death" is punishable under:

a) Section 80
b) Section 87
c) Section 14
d) Section 75

39. In the case of a minor’s contract, the minor's agreement is:

a) Voidable
b) Void
c) Enforceable by the minor
d) Enforceable by both parties

40. Which of the following is a defense to defamation?

a) Truth
b) Malice
c) Ill will
d) Negligence

41. A minor cannot be a party to a contract except for:

a) Necessities
b) Goods that are approved by a parent
c) Contracts that are ratified by a guardian
d) None of the above

42. Deeds executed under undue influence are:

a) Voidable
b) Void
c) Enforceable
d) Voidable only with the consent of both parties

43. Private nuisance involves interference with:

a) The public
b) An individual's right to property or enjoyment
c) The defendant’s property only
d) Only commercial interests

44. Which of the following is true regarding defamation?

a) A defamation case must always be filed within one year


b) A defamatory statement does not need to be false
c) Defamation can be committed through written, spoken, or visual means
d) The defendant cannot raise the truth of the statement as a defense

45. In a contract, if consent was obtained by fraud, the contract is:

a) Voidable at the option of the deceived party


b) Automatically void
c) Enforceable after the fraud is rectified
d) Voidable at the option of the fraudster

46. The law of torts deals with:

a) Criminal wrongs and penalties


b) Civil wrongs for which damages can be claimed
c) Breach of contracts
d) All of the above

47. The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is dealt with under:

a) Article 368
b) Article 13
c) Article 356
d) Article 32

48. A contract obtained by coercion is:

a) Voidable
b) Void
c) Valid
d) Enforceable only with permission

49. "Murder" is defined under Section 100 of the Bhartiya Nyay Sanhita as:

a) A death caused in the heat of passion


b) The intentional killing of another person
c) Death caused by negligence
d) A death caused during the commission of a crime

50. A contract made without consideration is:

a) Void
b) Voidable
c) Valid
d) Enforceable by law

51. Unilateral contracts are enforceable under:

a) Indian Contract Act


b) English Law only
c) Indian Penal Code
d) No circumstances

52. Tort liability arises from:

a) Breach of criminal law


b) Breach of duty owed to another person
c) Breach of contract
d) None of the above

53. The "Right to Freedom of Religion" is under:

a) Article 25
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 29

54. A tort action for "recklessness" occurs when:

a) The defendant was aware of the potential risk and acted anyway
b) The defendant acted without thinking about the consequences
c) The defendant had no knowledge of the risk involved
d) The defendant acted in good faith

55. A tort of "negligence" is based on:

a) The defendant’s deliberate actions


b) The failure of the defendant to exercise reasonable care
c) The plaintiff’s own actions
d) The defendant’s failure to comply with a contract

56. A deed is valid only when:

a) Signed by both parties


b) It is executed under seal
c) It is written by a lawyer
d) The contract is validated by the court

57. Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, that has been repealed from the
Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita, used to deal with:

a) Rape and sexual offenses


b) Offenses against the public decency
c) Unnatural offenses
d) Offenses related to adultery

58. A contract for illegal purposes is:


a) Voidable
b) Void
c) Enforceable
d) Valid

59. A minor’s contract is:

a) Voidable at the minor’s discretion


b) Voidable at the discretion of the adult party
c) Void
d) Enforceable only if ratified by a parent

60. A void contract is:

a) Valid under certain conditions


b) Voidable by the parties
c) Unenforceable by law
d) Always enforceable in court

61. Which of the following persons is considered doli incapax?

a) Child under 7 years of age


b) Person of unsound mind
c) Person intoxicated against his will
d) All of the above

62. In tort law, "vicarious liability" means:

a) Liability for one’s own actions


b) Employers being liable for employee actions within the scope of employment
c) A third party responsible for tortious conduct
d) Liability of government officials for torts committed by others

63. A contract induced by fraudulent misrepresentation is:


a) Voidable at the option of the party deceived
b) Valid and binding
c) Void
d) Enforceable only with modifications

64. A "condition precedent" is an event that must occur before:

a) A contract becomes effective


b) The parties can file a lawsuit
c) A contract is legally enforceable
d) Performance can be demanded

65. There is no tort of "false imprisonment" without:

a) Consent of the victim


b) Confinement of liberty
c) Written documentation
d) A defendant

66. A tort action involves:

a) Violation of private rights


b) Breach of criminal law
c) A contract dispute
d) Personal injury lawsuits only

67. Intellectual property rights are protected under Articles:

a) 19 and 21
b) 13 and 15
c) 14 and 19
d) None of the above

68. Who was the first Viceroy of India after the revolt of 1857?
a) Lord Canning
b) Lord Curzon
c) Lord Mountbatten
d) Lord Lytton

69. Which of the following is true about the Treaty of Versailles (1919)?

a) It concluded the Second World War


b) It ended the First World War
c) It was signed by the Axis Powers and Allies
d) It established the United Nations

70. The article in the Indian Constitution that deals with the amendment process is:

a) Article 368
b) Article 360
c) Article 20
d) Article 21

71. Which is the largest desert in the world by area?

a) Kalahari
b) Sahara
c) Gobi
d) Arctic

72. Who was the first Governor-General of India after independence?

a) C. Rajagopalachari
b) Lord Mountbatten
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Rajendra Prasad

73. The constituent assembly of India met for the first time in:
a) 1946
b) 1947
c) 1948
d) 1950

74. The Indian Constitution consists of how many articles originally?

a) 380
b) 395
c) 450
d) 300

75. The longest serving Prime Minister of India was:

a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Indira Gandhi
c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
d) Manmohan Singh

76. Who was the founder of the Gupta Empire?

a) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Samudragupta
c) Chandra Gupta I
d) Harsha

77. The National Income Accounting system in India was introduced in:

a) 1947
b) 1950
c) 1954
d) 1960

78. In which year was the Indian National Congress founded?


a) 1885
b) 1890
c) 1900
d) 1905

79. Which of the following is the largest island in the world?

a) Greenland
b) Australia
c) Borneo
d) Madagascar

80. The Headquarters of the World Bank is located in:

a) New York
b) London
c) Paris
d) Washington D.C.

81. Who among the following is known as the "Father of Modern Economics"?

a) Karl Marx
b) John Maynard Keynes
c) Adam Smith
d) David Ricardo

82. Which of the following is not a member of the "G7"?

a) United States
b) Japan
c) China
d) Germany

83. The "Kashi Vidyapeeth" was established by:


a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
c) Lala Lajpat Rai
d) Jawaharlal Nehru

84. Which state of India was the first to implement the Panchayati Raj system?

a) Rajasthan
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Bihar

85. The 'Father of Indian Renaissance' is:

a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy


b) Swami Vivekananda
c) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
d) Dayanand Saraswati

86. The largest producer of tea in the world is:

a) Sri Lanka
b) India
c) China
d) Kenya

87. The highest civilian award in India, the Bharat Ratna, was first awarded in
which year?

a) 1950
b) 1965
c) 1971
d) 1980

88. Which of the following is known as the "Gateway to the West"?


a) Kolkata
b) Mumbai
c) Chennai
d) Kochi

89. The first census in India was conducted in:

a) 1841
b) 1871
c) 1881
d) 1951

90. The First Battle of Panipat took place in:

a) 1526
b) 1556
c) 1600
d) 1700

91. The "Mango Tree" of India is a symbol of which dynasty?

a) Maurya
b) Gupta
c) Mughal
d) Chola

92. Who was the first President of the Indian National Congress?

a) Dadabhai Naoroji
b) A.O. Hume
c) Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee
d) Lala Lajpat Rai

93. The Indus Valley Civilization is mainly located in which present-day country?
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) Bangladesh
d) Afghanistan

94. Which of the following is the most populous country in the world?

a) India
b) United States
c) China
d) Indonesia

95. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in which year?

a) 1949
b) 1950
c) 1956
d) 1960

96. Which of the following countries is landlocked?

a) Nepal
b) Australia
c) Japan
d) South Africa

97. Which of the following is the oldest active stock exchange in the world?

a) London Stock Exchange


b) Tokyo Stock Exchange
c) New York Stock Exchange
d) Amsterdam Stock Exchange

98. The Niti Aayog was formed in India in which year?


a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017

99. The Suez Canal connects which two seas?

a) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea


b) Mediterranean Sea and Arabian Sea
c) Black Sea and Red Sea
d) Red Sea and Arabian Sea

100. The first World Trade Organization (WTO) ministerial conference was held
in:

a) 1994
b) 1997
c) 2000
d) 2003

101. The Indian National Congress was divided into two factions in the year:

a) 1907
b) 1906
c) 1911
d) 1919

102. The capital of the Maurya Empire was:

a) Pataliputra
b) Ujjain
c) Magadha
d) Kannauj
103. Who is known as the "Napoleon of India"?

a) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Ashoka
c) Samudragupta
d) Shivaji

104. The Indian Constitution is:

a) Unwritten
b) Partly written and partly unwritten
c) Written
d) Flexible and unwritten

105. Which is the highest point in India?

a) Kanchenjunga
b) Mount Everest
c) Nanda Devi
d) Anamudi

106. The First Indian to receive the Nobel Prize for Peace was:

a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Rabindranath Tagore
d) Subhas Chandra Bose

107. The "Salt March" led by Mahatma Gandhi was to protest against:

a) Tax on salt
b) Land reforms
c) Untouchability
d) Caste discrimination
108. The capital of the Maurya Empire was:

a) Pataliputra
b) Ujjain
c) Magadha
d) Kannauj

109. Which country has the largest area of land under forest cover in the world?

a) Russia
b) Canada
c) Brazil
d) United States

110. The longest serving British monarch was:

a) Queen Elizabeth I
b) Queen Victoria
c) Queen Elizabeth II
d) King George III

111. What is the least common multiple (LCM) of 36 and 54?

a) 108
b) 162
c) 72
d) 144

112. A train travels 360 km at a speed of 60 km/h. How much time will it take to
cover the same distance at a speed of 72 km/h?

a) 4 hours
b) 4.5 hours
c) 5 hours
d) 6 hours
113. A person sells an item for ₹1200 and makes a profit of 20%. What was the
cost price of the item?

a) ₹1000
b) ₹950
c) ₹1100
d) ₹1150

114. A sum of ₹8000 is invested at a rate of 8% per annum simple interest. What
will be the total amount after 3 years?

a) ₹10000
b) ₹10400
c) ₹10640
d) ₹10800

115. A shopkeeper bought a product at ₹500 and sold it for ₹625. What is the
percentage profit he made on the cost price?

a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 30%
d) 35%

116. A tank can be filled by one pipe in 12 hours and emptied by another pipe in 18
hours. If both pipes are opened together, how much time will it take to fill the
tank?

a) 10 hours
b) 9 hours
c) 8 hours
d) 12 hours
117. A cyclist covers a distance of 120 km in 6 hours. How much time will he take
to cover 200 km at the same speed?

a) 10 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 14 hours
d) 15 hours

118. The average of 8 consecutive numbers is 55. What is the sum of the largest
and smallest of these numbers?

a) 108
b) 110
c) 112
d) 114

119. A person invested ₹6000 at 12% simple interest for 4 years. What will be the
total interest earned?

a) ₹2880
b) ₹2400
c) ₹1440
d) ₹1200

120. The simple interest on a sum of money for 5 years at the rate of 6% per
annum is ₹1800. What is the principal amount?

a) ₹3000
b) ₹2500
c) ₹2000
d) ₹3500

121. Which day is observed as Mahaparinirvan Diwas every year?


a) December 4
b) December 5
c) December 6
d) December 7

122. Punatsangchhu II hydroelectric project, which was seen in the news, is located
in which country?
a) Myanmar
b) Bhutan
c) Nepal
d) India

123. What is the name of the Public Distribution System (PDS) Supply Chain
optimization tool launched by the government of India?
a) FoodNet
b) Anna Chakra
c) GrainFlow
d) GrainOptimizer

124. What is the primary objective of the Global Strategy for Resilient Drylands
(GSRD) initiative launched at UNCCD COP16?
a) Promote industrial development in dryland regions
b) Enhance food security, conserve biodiversity, and build resilient livelihoods in
drylands
c) Develop new irrigation technologies
d) None of the above

125. Sonai-Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?


a) Assam
b) Manipur
c) Mizoram
d) Nagaland

126. The Uttar Pradesh government inaugurated the ‘Atal Yuva Maha Kumbh’ in
which city?
a) Lucknow
b) Agra
c) Gorakhpur
d) Ayodhya

127. Who chaired the 45th edition of PRAGATI meeting in New Delhi?
a) Home Minister Amit Shah
b) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
c) Defence Minister Rajnath Singh
d) External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar

128. Kanha, Pench, and Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserves are located in which state?
a) Rajasthan
b) Odisha
c) Kerala
d) Madhya Pradesh

129. United Nations Disengagement Observer Force (UNDOF) mission was


established to maintain peace between which forces?
a) Israel and Syria
b) India and Pakistan
c) Russia and Ukraine
d) Iran and Israel

130. Kaveri Engine was developed by which organization?


a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
b) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
d) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)

131. Bart De Wever has been elected as the prime minister of which country?
a) Belgium
b) France
c) Italy
d) Germany

132. Which state is home to India’s first white tiger breeding centre?
a) Maharashtra
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan

133. Which institution has launched India’s largest metal 3D printing machine for
rocket components?
a) IIT Madras
b) IIT Delhi
c) IIT Kanpur
d) IIT Hyderabad

134. Kolleru Lake, which was seen in news, is located in which state?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Odisha
c) Kerala
d) Tamil Nadu

135. The Extra-Long Staple (ELS) cotton is mainly grown in which countries?
a) Russia, Algeria, and Vietnam
b) China, Egypt, Australia, and Peru
c) Indonesia, Malaysia, and Singapore
d) Japan, Germany, France, and Vietnam

136. What is the name of the joint airborne exercise conducted by the Indian Army
and the Indian Air Force in February 2025?
a) Exercise Winged Raiders
b) Exercise Gagan Shakti
c) Exercise Yudh Abhyas
d) Exercise Vayu Shakti

137. Which city is the host of IIAS-DARPG India Conference 2025?


a) New Delhi
b) Chennai
c) Hyderabad
d) Kolkata

138. Satkosia Tiger Reserve is located in which state?


a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Rajasthan
c) Gujarat
d) Odisha

139. Who won the 2025 Chennai Open Tennis men’s single title?
a) Kyrian Jacquet
b) Elias Ymer
c) Dalibor Svrcina
d) Billy Harris

140. Exercise Cyclone 2025 is conducted between India and which country?
a) Maldives
b) Australia
c) Indonesia
d) Egypt

141. Which ministry has launched a campaign titled “Shatavari – For Better
Health”?
a) Ministry of Women and Child Development
b) Ministry of AYUSH
c) Ministry of Health
d) Ministry of Home Affairs

142. Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?


a) Himachal Pradesh
b) Uttarakhand
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Maharashtra

143. The NSDC International Academy has been inaugurated in which city
recently?
a) Kolkata
b) Hyderabad
c) Greater Noida
d) Bengaluru

144. Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch Systems (MRLS) was developed by which
organization?
a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
b) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
d) Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)

145. The ISRO has developed FEAST (Finite Element Analysis of Structures)
software at which institute?
a) IIT Kanpur
b) IIT Bombay
c) IIT Hyderabad
d) IIT Roorkee

146. Diego Garcia Island, that was recently seen in news, is located in which
ocean?
a) Indian Ocean
b) Atlantic Ocean
c) Pacific Ocean
d) Arctic Ocean

147. What is the name of the second multi-purpose vessel (MPV) recently
launched for the Indian Navy?
a) INS Utkarsh
b) INS Vikrant
c) INS Sangam
d) INS Karanj

148. Prime Minister Ilza Amado Vaz, who recently announced her resignation,
belongs to which country?
a) Cameroon
b) Sao Tome and Principe
c) Chad
d) Democratic Republic of the Congo

149. Ranthambore Tiger Reserve lies at the junction of which two mountain
ranges?
a) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
b) Satpura and Vindhyas
c) Aravallis and Vindhyas
d) Himalayas and Shivaliks

150. Nag Mk 2 Missile is developed by which organization?


a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
b) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
c) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
d) Bharat Dynamics Limited

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