1.
The following test is used to differentiate Streptococcus from Staphylococcus:
A. Coagulase test B. Catalase test C. Phosphatase D. Indole test
2. Staphylococcus bacteria secrete all, EXCEPT:
A. Lipase B. Cellulase C. Coagulase D. Lecithinase
3. Gram negative cocci is:
A. Staphylococcus B. Streptococcus C. Neisseria D. Salmonella
4. All of the following are acid fast bacteria EXCEPT:
A. Cryptosporidium B. Mycoplasma C. Mycobacterium D. Nocardia
5. All of the following methods are used for serological diagnosis, EXCEPT:
A. CFT B. PCR C. SRH D. Western blot
6. Which of the following virus is not associated with respiratory infections?
A. Rotavirus B. Adenovirus C. Influenza virus D. RSV
7. HCV belongs to genus:
A. Togavirus B. Flavivirus C. Filovirus D. Retrovirus
8. Aflatoxin is produced by:
A. Candida B. Penicillium C. Aspergillus flavus D. Clostridium
9. Which one is an essential part of life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii is spread by:
A. Dog B. Cat C. Human D. Sheep
10. Cell mediated immunity is mainly carried out by:
A. T cells B. B cells C. Macrophages D. Monocytes
11. Vaccination is based on the principle of:
A. Agglutination B. Phagocytosis C. Immunological memory D. Clonal deletion
12. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is _______.
A. Agglutination B. Precipitation C. Flocculation D. CFT
13. Preliminary screening can be done by:
A. restriction enzyme B. dyes C. antibiotics D. radiation
14. All of these are antigen presenting cells EXCEPT:
A. T cells B. B cells C. Dendritic cells D. Langerhans cells
15. Which of the following is not included in intrinsic determinants of a disease?
A. Specie B. Environment C. Genetics D. Both “A” and “B”
16. Latent infection is seen in viral infections EXCEPT:
A. HIV B. EBV C. Rotavirus D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
17. Endotoxin for Gram-negative organism is:
A. Polysaccharide B. Glycoprotein C. Lipoprotein D. Lipopolysaccharide
18. Which of the following is obligate anaerobe?
A. Clostridium B. Bacillus C. Staphylococcus D. Klebsiella
19. Fungi that possess a capsule is:
A. Candida B. Aspergillus C. Cryptococcus D. Mucor
20. All are used in Gram’s staining, EXCEPT:
A. Methylene blue B. Iodine C. Safranin D. Crystal violet
21. Viruses do not contain:
A. DNA B. RNA C. Enzyme D. Cell wall
22. _______ is chain forming, & round shaped bacteria.
A. Pneumococcus B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus D. Diplococcus
23. Which one of the following is NOT included in innate immune response?
A. phagocytosis B. complement activation C. antibodies production D. NK cells
activation
24. Viruses are:
A. Obligate intracellular parasites B. Have their own metabolism C. Divide by binary
fission D. Have both DNA and RNA
25. Reagent is used to precipitate DNA.
A. Isopropanol B. SDS C. Phenol D. Chloroform
26. Making routine observations on health, productivity & environment is called as:
A. GIS B. Monitoring C. Surveillance D. Cohort studies
27. The coagulase test is used to differentiate between Staphylococcus aureus from:
A. Streptococci B. Micrococci C. Enterococci D. other staphylococci
28. Which one is NOT protective mechanism of body:
A. Fever B. Necrosis C. Phagocytosis D. Inflammation
29. Bioterrorism microbial agents are classified based upon:
A. Pathogenicity B. Spread C. Availability D. Both “A” and “B”
30. Antibiotic penicillin was introduced by:
A. Louise Pasteur B. Alexander Fleming C. Jenner D. Lister
31. Prokaryotic cell lacks:
A. DNA B. Ribosomes C. Mitochondria D. Plasma membrane
32. Immunity against yellow fever in newborn is an example of:
A. Active naturally acquired B. passive artificially acquired C. passive naturally
acquired D. artificial immunity
33. All structures are external to cell wall EXCEPT:
A. Glycocalyx B. Flagella C. Pilli D. Spores
34. A typical bacterial cell has only _____ volume of a typical eukaryotic cell.
A. 1/10 B. 1/100 C. 1/1000 D. 1/10000
35. PCR reaction includes all, EXCEPT:
A. DNA ligase B. four DNTPs C. DNA template D. DNA polymerase
36. All of the following bacteria are members of family Enterobacteriaceae EXCEPT:
A. E. coli B. Shigella C. Staphylococcus D. Salmonella
37. They are facultative anaerobes, fermenting sugars to produce lactic acid
A. Enterobacteriaceae B.
38. A library of DNA fragments results from the use of:
A. Viruses B. Restriction endonucleases C. DNA ligases D. Plasmids
39. O157:H7 is pathogenic type of :
A. Salmonella typhi B. E. coli C. S. aureus D. Streptococcus
40. All of the following bacteria are non-spore forming bacteria EXCEPT:
A. E. coli B. Clostridium C. Streptococcus D. Leptospira
41. The ability of Microscope to distinguish two objects into two separate objects, is called:
A. Magnification power B. Wavelength C. Resolving power D. None of
these
42. Serum is collected from____________ blood.
A. Heparinized B. Unclotted C. Clotted D. All of these
43. GET buffer in plasmid isolation of bacteria contains:
A. Glucose B. EDTA C. Tris D. All of these
44. Majority of the antigens are:
A. Protein B. Nucleic acid C. Lipids D. Carbohydrates
45. RNAi’ stands for which of the following:
A. RNA inducer B. RNA insertion C. RNA interference D. RNA intron
46. The botulism intoxication occurs due to:
A. An enterotoxin B. A neurotoxin C. A mycotoxin D. All of these
47. An animal that only acts as short-term transmitter:
A. Passive carrier B. Mechanical carrier C. Biological carrier D. Asymptomatic carrier
48. Swarming growth is the characteristic of Gram negative bacteria known as:
A. Clostridium B. Proteus C. Pasteurella D. Pseudomonas
49. Mesophilic bacteria CANNOT grow at temperature:
A. 16oC B. 25oC C. 35oC D. 38oC
50. Facultative anaerobic bacteria grow in presence of:
A. only O2 B. O2 and also CO2 C. only CO2 D. N2
51. Mannitol salt agar is an example of:
A. Selective medium B. Differential medium C. Both “A” and “B” D. Enrichment
medium
52. Translation occurs in:
A. Nucleus B. Cytoplasm C. Ribosomes D. Both “A” and “B”
53. An intron is found in: A. DNA B. RNA C. mRNA D. tRNA
54. Signal responsible for the end of transcription is:
A. Stop codon B. RNA polymerase run out C. End of DNA chain D. Terminato
55. Plasmids are inserted in bacterial cell from environment:
A. Transformation B. DNA ligase C. Transfection D. Transduction
56. Which of following could NOT be a portal of entry?
A. Meninges B. Skin C. Placenta D. Small intestine
57. Highly communicable pathogen, especially via direct contact is known as:
A. Zoonotic B. Contagious C. Nosocomial D. Communicable
58. Motility of the bacteria can be observed by:
A. Hanging drop method B. Soft agar method C. Both “A” and “B” D. Pour plate method
59. Adenine and guanine are example of which class of nitrogen base:
A. Large B. Pyrimidines C. Small D. Purines
60. Which of the following is not a function of capsule?
A. Attachment B. Motility C. Biofilm D. Used as nutrition
61. Whiff test is used for the diagnosis of:
A. Entamoeba B. Giardia C. E. coli D. Trichomonas
62. _____is Gram positive rod & spore forming bacteria.
A. Pseudomonas B. Staphylococcus C. Salmonella D. Bacillus
63. Which of the following vaccine is recommended for pregnant women?
A. Tetanus B. Tuberculosis C. AIDS D. Poliomyelitis
63. Natural competence was first time described in:
A. E. coli B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus D. Bacillus
64. In genomic DNA isolation, TE buffer functions as:
A. Block endonucleases B. Maintain pH C. Denature protein D. Both “A” and “B”
65. An example of non-communicable disease is:
A. Measles B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Tetanus
66. E. coli O157:H7 produces ______.
A. Colon toxin B. Neurotoxin C. Exotoxin D. Shiga toxin
67. Lyophilization means:
A. Sterilization B. Burning to ashes C. Exposure to formation D. Freeze-drying
68. ____ is NOT an example of inflammation?
A. Pain B. Sweating C. Heat D. Swelling
69. Clostridium bacillus is:
A. Facultative anaerobe B. Facultative aerobe C. Obligate anaerobe D. Obligate
aerobe
70. α-hemolytic streptococci are also known as_______.
A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Virulence group C. Viridans group D. CoNS
