Pi C3T) 251cf (P%-t

1'
I.
L!J
t!I
After removing the Potythene bag, without opening the Paper seal
take out Answer Sheet from this side. Seria' No.
iT T 2019 515181
sJU
M'1J 4151tq iiii 1 gç.fl

A
t1I1I'4 t ffi GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & LAW
: 3.00 Time: 3.00 Hours
uu q,' 200 Maximum Marks 200
_____
q9,u1 1
____ ____
1. _9 ft I
2.
T9 T9T iiliii i
3.
4. i1%L41 j i Tf-1iqt tflU'i T OMR Sheet 11 T-Tt ,
J1 ri jq.i rt im iui ak t T1t I
5.
9t '3IIl I I41 cc 5 i4 ft r i
__
6. 200 I f Fr-I 50 ii'ii( T FT-II 150
fZT I (a), (b), (c) t (d) f
if * t1 3fT iii , ( 3i.31.

7. ft I
8. 3W1 RT 3ii4'II'ici t ttii3it * vIici -4cfrf (Negative Marking)
I RT f Tt Icid 3{ i(

ii i,''it çu *'4 3T 1iHi * 1tI4 'iiit

9. 3T 3W MT 1T 1L3fl. * 3i1 c ij'iq flft ,t.3flt
I 3Lt.31R. 3ifil.m iizn r
10. 3t.3TT. s1t— i4 f 3T I 3T?.3TT. 9—
* if9cf W113 3T 1 * 1 fl9T I14 I
11. ttT1 i-f L3TT. t—T9 (Invigilator) ctHf 1I , 3T1 31TTt T1
I4'II1K qj4gi 't wrrft I
12. Zf 3TN 39W f ,
t , t,
T "iicii I
13. (O.M.R. Answer Sheet) T ejIf 3U 3rf 1TT
'R 't 14I "itif I
14. -I1ctl (Question Booklet)* * TT.3TR. (O.M.R. Answer Sheet) i1cti 'iic
t -1ii (A, B, C & D) T f1frI 3T * I
Cl5 ift , (Invigilator) * ft3I q
t 3?LTL3R. tt -Iicii * I zrF iii. 'ticf ,
rllN. Tfl

* I V-i t:
ft *i

I Ii II III 11111111 II sju

 'S . ) cis CY
Part - I
1. Who is the current Chairman of Union Public Service Commission?
(a) Arvind Saxena (b) Dr. Pradeep Joshi
(c) Ashok Kumar Gupta (d) Anirudha Yadav
2. Which of the following case has been decided by the International Permanent Court of
Justice ?
(a) Corfu Channel Case (b) Paquete Habana Case
(c) S.S. Lotus Case (d) Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case
3. 'Ex Acqua et bono' maxim is related to
(a) Source of International Law (b) Law of Extradition
(c) Law of Recognition (d) Law of State Succession
4. In which year World Health Organisation had been constituted?
(a) 1942 (b) 1944 (c) 1945 (d) 1946

S. Who is the writer of the book 'Theory of Justice' ?

(a) John Rawls (b) Stammier (c) Kalson (d) Dwarkin
6. The Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018 came into effect from
(a) 1St July, 2018 (b) 1St October, 2018
(c) 26th July, 2018 (d) 26 October, 201 8
7. The decision of the International Court of Justice is signed by whom?
(a) The Chairman (b) The Registrar
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
8. For word 'Uttaranchal', the word 'Uttarakhand' was substituted by Uttaranchal (Alteration
of Name) Act in the year
(a) 2001 (b) 2003 (c) 2005 (d) 2006
9. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (Act 17 of 2018) shall be deemed to have
come into force on
(a) 20th March, 2018 (b) 20th April, 2018
(c) 2l April, 2018 (d) 22 April, 2018
10. 'The Indian Constitution Corner Stone of a Nation' book was authored by
(a) John Austin (b) Granville Austin
(c) A.L. Good Heart (d) H.L.A. Hart
11. Which one of the Chief Justice of India was Vice President of India from 1979 to 1984?
(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) S.M. Sikri
Cc) A.N. Ray (d) K. Subba Rao
12. Which one of the following is a Neutralized State?
(a) India (b) Pakistan
(c) Japan (d) Switzerland
13. What is the width of the excluded economic zone in International Law?
(a) 12 nautical miles (b) 24 nautical miles
(c) 100 nautical miles (d) 200 nautical miles
'Series-A sJU
1.
(a) i-wt.ii (b) T. 43i1f (c) 31ki1 (d) 3144Ic1
2. Hfifti U 4Hc1I 11 Q1Tf ii Pwfli fi TT?
(a) 4 -sc1HH1I (b) HI 4-II1.11I
(c) iTs -iiir (d)
3
(a) 3k1J f1f 5 (b) ici4ui ff
(c) iiitM (d)
4. 1 ?
(a) 1942 (b) 1944 (c) 1945 (d) 1946
5.
(a) (b) 1-M (c) '*i.i (d) c4I1,.1
6. iii PicRu! (?t.T) 31 TiZr, 2018*tIl3Ti ?
(a) 1 'eii, 2018 (b) 1 , 2018 (c) 26 2018 (d) 26 4i4., 2018
7. -u4 -u4M1 T1VT PT 1Tft lii ?
(a) WT (b)
(c) iR (d)
8. 'iui' tR 'itus' 3iIii (r 1kici) 31fr m
?
(a) 2001 (b) 2003 (c) 2005 (d) 2006
9. w?r 3Tf aR1wft 3T1fZ 2018(2018 T 3f1P 1. 17) 3TT 3T 1RT
'MIVII:
(a) 20i,2018t (b) 203 r,2018
(c) 21 3Rt, 2018t (d) 22 2018 t
10. 't T1.i ai r 1i Iid) T1 4?
(a) 3iT1 'm (b) PM iT1 m
(c) TT (d)
11.
(a) 11. 1iii (b) flc
(c) tL1 . (d) . .iti
12.
(a) RT (b) u1ctI-f (c) 1I'1I4 (d) 1<c 14.U5
13. 3 -ct4J1 11T 314r.d 31T1 t t1 r-n cft*?
(a) 12 kf fli (b) 24 (c) l00 4ki (d) 200 Tjt1
sJU 3 SerIes-A
14. A person born not in the country of his parents, would be the national of the country where
he is born on the basis of the principle of
(a) Jus Soli (b) Jus Sanguinis (c) Jus Jury (d) Jus Terti

15. "Asylum stops where extradition begins". Above statement was made by
(a) Kelsen (b) Starke
(c) Schwarzenberger (d) Cobbett

16. Declaring a diplomat "persona non-grata" is a right of the

(a) Sending State (b) Receiving State
(c) Both sending and receiving State (d) None of these

17. The term 'United Nations' was suggested by

(a) Roosevelt (b) Churchill (c) T.V. Soong (d) M. Litinov

18. The Principal organs of the United Nations are those whose names are mentioned in
(a) Article 5 of the United Nations Charter
(b) Article 6 of the United Nations Charter
(c) Article 7 of the United Nations Charter
(d) Article 8 of the United Nations Charter

19. In which Supreme Court case it was held that preamble is the basic structure of the
Constitution?
(a) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India (b) Keshvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala
(c) Chandra Bhavan Vs. State of Mysore (d) Nakara Vs. Union of India

20. Out of the following who has not been elected as Judge of International Court of Justice?
(a) Dr. Nagendra Singh (b) Dalveer Bhandari
(c) R.S. Pathak (d) Ranganath Misra

21. Which one of the following is known as "Earth Summit?

(a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate change.
(b) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development.
(c) Convention on Biological Diversity
(d) None of these

22. Which is not a peaceful means of settlement of dispute under International Law?
(a) Retortion (b) Conciliation
(c) Negotiation (d) Good Offices

23. How many members are in Security council?

(a) 5 Permanent (b) 10 Permanent
(c) 5 Permanent and 10 Temporary (d) None of these

24. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) The concept of citizenship is relevant to International Law.
(b) The concept of citizenship is irrelevant to Municipal Law.
(c) The concept of citizenship is relevant to both International Law as well as Municipal Law.
(d) The concept of citizenship is irrelevant to International Law.
Series-A 4 SJU
14. ' oqi 3 Hill , 1 ir T &i1c 1fl j
I" j3tTTft?
(a) (b) ifl1i (c) (d) Zt

15. "iT 1c1uI R'.T )li iti i 'R Ri 1n TRIT TT ?

(a) *i.i (b) i4 (c) i'.ii'k (d) 'ii

16. i T 33IT 1i 'r-ilRi c 31U.n'-cf*:

(a) ct kl' (b) flT ii
(c) bflkl4 (d)

17. 'ict i' i'T iic

(a) 1c-. m (b) c4Re1 iU (c) t.t. Tt RI (d) WL 1if~.i) RI

18. T11bF TT1

(a) 1cc1 U 'Hc! 5 ' (b) ctl ik 6
(c) ic*i U '4lk ' 7 (d) 1cp1 tr 3iijg 8

19. iii Hli 1uffi fn TR11 *c11ci-tt FTNN ?

(a) R.ic Th iii-i '.1T TET (b) iiii.-q HiH kI'
(c) 11 i-w-i (d) 1q)Ri 11i-1 T11

20. f -i3t&1
(a) . 'kfi (b) (c) 3lT.1T. lcb (d) 1RT%11T1T

21. 1Hffi i lIcil?

(a) ietci U ii '-ic'1 k*1l f1itr
(b) 1jctii U 1&ui TT 1icfI1 14
(c) 1bT3
(d) tRf

22. f.i cl{ -iSk rftT 3iT l fi I!P11T -iT?

(a) lIcblk (b) (c) c1k1 (d) 14c'.1

23.
(a) sii4t (b) ioizfi
(c) 5 Tft 10 3TPft (d) 1ctci

24. Ti?
(a)
(b) ilkcbdI3 3iTId I
(c) iFcbcii m:tjri trlftT -i41 Rr, 1- Iit.
(d) .iIliF4,dl c a uai1q 31Ic I
sJT_J 5 Series-A
25. Criminal procedure code has been included in which of the following lists?
(a) Union list (b) State list
(c) Concurrent list (d) All of these

26. Total number of Fundamental Duties provided under the Constitution of India are
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11

27. When a new State is formed through revolt, recognition usually granted is
(a) Dc Jure (b) De Facto
(c) Precipitate recognition (d) None of these

28. Which of the following Amendment to the Constitution is related with reservation of seats
in Educational Institutions for the economically weaker section of citizens?
(b) lOPt (c) 103rd (d) 102nd
(a) 123w

29. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has discussed the Constitutional
Validity of Triple Talaq?
(a) Shayara Bano Vs. Union of India (b) Naz Foundation Vs. Union of India
(c) Daniel Latifi Vs. Union of India (d) Shabnam Hashmi Vs. Union of India

30. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats for women in
Panchayats?
(a) Article 243A (b) Article 243B (c) Article 243C (d) Article 243D

31. 'Right in rem' is available against

(a) Particular person only (b) Every one
(c) Government only (d) None of these

32. Who among the following put the International Law as positive morality?
(a) Bentharn (b) Austin (c) Savigny (d) Holland

33. As per Indian Patents Act, 1970, criteria of Patentability in India are
(a) Novelty (b) Inventive step
(c) Capable of industrial application (d) All of these

34. Who is not member of 'SAARC' in the following?

(a) Singapore (b) India (c) Pakistan (d) Bhutan

35. How many Articles are in Indian Constitution?

(a) 365 (b) 394 (c) 395 (d) 379

36. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution is related to

(a) Literacy (b) Health
(c) Untouchability removal (d) Food Guarantee
37. Which State of India has made rain water harvesting compulsory for every houses?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
Series-A 6 sJU
25.
(a) *ifli 1) (b) kI' (c) wi11 jfl (d) lcxi

26. c+r t i+su 1ifl ?

(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11
27. iki I'4 11144UI ki1 thHI-c1-1I ' iil 4I41 .u-cii
(a) 1T: (b) r%zrr
(c) 3cçj1.4(.-jI (d)

28.
3TTWd?
(a) 123 (b) ioii (c) 103i (d) 1O2t

29. 1iRi ci iu c{li c1cI fl 1i

(a) INkI (b) R .1Is1

(c) f-ci idRl ii TP TET (d) w.fl il.f rrr

30. Rcfl-1 #TT 1i ii i3 3TTT T?

(a) 3ç 243A (b) 3q 243B (c) 1tç 243C (d) 243D

31. Ift ii-i cii , 1.i f* Ift?

(a) 1~W 11c1 (b) Mcct ofj
(c) i 1cbI (ci) q)i1

32. 1{ rc 3-cij 1Th bcH*- t1T

(a) iI11 (b) 3ii1..i (c) 11-I1 (d) kIe

33. id) '~- 3T1f1m 1970 31I 4'kii rT 1.INqus' ?

(a) iiii (b) c ç4
(c) thu1f?[ '1'ii (d) 3'ctd

34. 14i
(a) fti (b) 1Tt (c) II1H (d)
35.
(a) 365 (b) 394 (c) 395 (d) 379
36. itcfli 11t%TTT 17 Iic1 ?
(a) 1TtT (b) TWT
(c) 3TiTlI(ut (d)

37. it E4T1,Tr.?
(a) tl1i (b) 1-iRI (c) IZ1311 (d) ciRi.ii
sJU 7 Series-A
38. The sixth schedule of the Constitution of India does not provide for the administration of
the Tribal Areas in
(a) Assam (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Mizoram

39. Which is the 25th High Court of India?

(a) Shillong High Court (b) Imphal High Court
(c) Agartala High Court (d) Amravati High Court

40. 'Procedure established by law', the terminology is taken from the Constitution of which
country?
(a) America (b) Japan (c) Canada (d) Australia

41. Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the proclamation of emergency?
(a) Article 366(16) (b) Article 366(17)
(c) Article 366(18) (d) Article 366(19)

42. Union Public Service Commission Members have tenure of office for
(a) Two years (b) Three years (c) Five years (d) Six years

43. Neuremberg Trial, Tokyo Trial, Peleus Trial and Eichmann Trial related to whom?
(a) Laws of Aerial Warfare (b) War Crimes
(c) Laws of Land Warfare (d) Laws of Maritime Warfare

44. Which one of the following principles are not related to recognition?
(a) Trobar Doctrine (b) Munro Doctrine
(c) Stimpson Doctrine (d) Estrada Doctrine

45. Justice Dalveer Bhandarl has a re-elected term as Justice in the International Court of
Justice for a term of
(a) 2017-2026 (b) 2018-2027
(c) 2019-2028 (d) 2020-2029

46. Which city of India received the cleanest city award on March 6, 2019?
(a) Ambikapur (b) Mysore (c) Indore (d) Chandigarh

47. Which Justice has been appointed as the first Ombudsman of India?
(a) Justice Pradeep Kumar Mohanti (b) Justice D.B. Bhosle
(c) Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghosh (d) Justice Ajay Kumar Tripathi

48. Which is the 43Id member of the Australia group?

(a) China (b) Pakistan (c) India (d) Brazil

49. Which of the following State Legislatures has one house?

(a) Bihar (b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra

50. In which case it was decided that the preamble is not a part of the Constitution?
(a) In re Berubari case (b) Keshavanand Bharti case
(c) Maneka Gandhi case (d) S.R. Bommai case
Series-A 8 sJU
 38. k13ifl Ii it±u1i
(a) 31 (b) (c) 1k1I (d) 1'1k.l
39.
(a) (b)
(c) 31RlII (d) 311.widl

40.
(a) 3Tft4I (b) 'iii.i (c) i-iii (d) T*fiii

41. icfl TT I13zçit 3iicici uit

(a) 39. 366(16) (b) 39. 366 (17) (c) 39. 366(18) (d) 39. 366 (19)
42.
(a) (b) fk (c) (d) :4

43. TfIkuI, 11WT*?

(a) (b) 31'T
(c) fii (d)

44.
(a) R r1.l-1 (b) It rthI..l (c) lii.i ri.i- (d) t.ii rthI.
45. .ucii TT 11 r1rd I4e,lc1 :
(a) 2O17-2O26 (b) 2O18-2O27
(c) 2O19-2O28 (d) 2O2O-2O29

46. 1 I61lT, 2019

(a) 3if,t (b) 1kj (c) -ql (d)
47. I11iTFT?
(a) 141iJI M41Y 'HR 1.ilF. (b) ii'iL. 1Tk
(c) iiij[ fic (d)

48. 3i!T43T ?
(a) (b) 1cii4 (c) W (d) f{li
49.
(a) i'i (b) cb-skcb (c) dIM1I (d)
50. Ik1
(a) If (b) ii± fti lI11
(c) iiii (d) i • i-i-i 4-II1.Mr
sJU 9 Series-A
 Part - II
51. Exchange under Transfer of Property Act, is equal to
(a) partition (b) gift (c) sale (d) None of these
52. In case of gift if the donor dies before acceptance of the gift. The gift will be:
(a) valid (b) void
(c) voidable (d) subject to decision of the court
53. Within the meaning of Section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act, a charge:
(a) requires attestation and proved in the same way as a mortgage.
(b) requires attestation and does not prove as a mortgage.
(c) does not require to be attested and proves in the same way as a mortgage.
(d) does not prove as a mortgage.
54. In the following three cases, which lease of immovable property can be made only by a
registered instrument?
(a) only a lease from year to year (b) only a lease for a term exceeding one year
(c) only a lease reserving a yearly rent (d) All of these
55. The provisions regarding transfer of actionable claims are mention under Transfer of
Property Act in
(a) Section 130 (b) Section 122 (c) Section 127 (d) Section 128
56. In which one of the following cases it was held that surrender by tenant is not transfer?
(a) Bachchu Vs. Harbansh (b) Makhanlal Saha Vs. N.N. Adhikari
(c) Sharada Devi Vs. Chandwala (d) None of these
57. 'A' makes an absolute gift of a house to 'B' with a direction that 'B' shall reside in it. The
gift
(a) is not valid and direction is void (b) is valid and direction is also valid
(c) is valid but direction is void (d) None of these
58. 'Double possibility rule' was laid down in which one of the following cases?
(a) Whitby Vs. Mitchell (b) Indu Kakkar Vs. Haryana State
(c) Chamaru Sahu Vs. Soma Kuer (d) None of these
59. Doctrine of acceleration is given under which Section of the Transfer of Property Act?
(a) Section 25 (b) Section 24 (c) Section 27 (d) Section 30
60. The provision regarding 'apportionment by time' is given under which of the following
Sections of the T.P. Act?
(a) Section 35 (b) Section 36 (c) Section 37 (d) Section 38
61. A co-owner of immovable property under Transfer of Property may make a
(a) valid transfer of property
(b) only can give possession
(c) only can give right to use for a short period
(d) cannot make transfer of that property
62. Right of redemption can be exercised
(a) only by paying the mortgage money to the mortgagee.
(b) only by depositing the mortgage money in court.
(c) only by a regular suit for redemption.
(d) All of these
Series-A 10 SJU
 -II
51. 4"lRI 3ciuI 3MP '11' -
(a) fTT (b) TRi (c) ici (d)
52. iTR Tf aiIçiii tr tid1 1i:
(a) fIfWFI (b)
(c) (d)
53.
(a) 31JvI.T 31! t iifci ci*ii
(b) 31s 1.nul.1 t 311 1ctctI 1lId .i1 h1l 1ii I
(c) 3iut. t 31iit R 3 iifi li ii.ii
(d) iii ffci*itij
54. iiRci +fii iu Iu i 1cc11

(a) 11i (b) 13flftTi

(c) (d)
55. 314 3s-vvj ii UT 3rftTfP T TT -
(a) RT13O (b) .Ut1122 (c) %TRT127 (d) tTRT128.
56. -iIiftci fhl cigRj TTrT4kIJI TR9?
(a) (b) 4i-i'iii iii *iIi tLT1. 3FT
(c) IRI 1 ii (d)
57.
(a) (b) ai1
(c) àbijii (d) mcti
58. 1' 1ftci ii Ihi T?1 ft1 TTT?
(a) Hi (I) 9
(c) it 'iii (d) c iT
59.
(a) TU25 (b) .TTU24 (c) -WT27 (d) RT3O
60. ' lki' ii*iTh WT r?
(a) .1TU 35 (b) .TP1 36 (c) -tRT 37 (d) TT1 38
61. *i1è 31cIuI -
(a) 1I I
(b) , nIci,1I*1
(c)
(d) rrfET31kul 1cI,cII I
62. 1*i3T 11i 1Tiii
(a) 1 tTTtm 3T c
(b) I
(c) 4c141'i.i f41Z1 ii g,Ri I
(d) 4lTh%fI
SJU 11 Series-A
63. 'He who seeks equity must do equity' is the juristic basis of which one of the following
Sections of the T.P. Act?
(a) Section 49 (b) Section 50 (c) Section 51 (d) Section 53

64. The case of Anf Vs. Yadunath is related which of the following?
.(a) Apportionment (b) Fraudulent transfer
(c) Part performance (d) None of these

65. How many types of mortgage are given in Section 58 of the T.P. Act?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

66. 'Once a mortgage always a mortgage' was laid down in which one of the following cases?
(a) In Nokes & Co. Vs. Rice (b) In Alderson Vs. White
(c) In Hunter Vs. Abdul Au (d) None of these

67. A lease can be determined by:

(a) By Efflux of time (b) By Implied surrender
(c) By Forfeiture (d) All of these

68. Dhulabhai Vs. State of M.P. is related to which of the following under CPC?
(a) Jurisdiction of Civil Court (b) Pleadings
(c) Interim Orders (d) First Appeal

69. Which of the following judgements of the Supreme Court deals with the applicability of
Resjudicata in writ petitions?
(a) L.I.C, Vs. India Automobiles & Company
(b) Daryao Vs. State of U.P.
(c) Bhula Bhai Vs. State of MP.
(d) Premier Automobile Vs. Kamlakar
70. The object of oral examination under Order X Rule 2 of Civil Procedure Code, is
(a) to record evidence.
(b) to secure admissions.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) to elucidate the matter in controversy in the suit.
71. Which of the following remedies may be sought against ex-parte decree?
(a) only application under Order IX Rule 13 CPC
(b) only appeal under Section 96(2) CPC
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
72. If the order to amend the pleadings does not contain time limit to amend, party can made
the amendment within
(a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 14 days (d) 7 days
73'--jeiod of detention in civil imprisonment as a consequence of disobedience or breach of
any injunction, shall not exceed
(a) 1 month (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 year

74. The principle of 'feeding the grant by estoppel' is given in which one Section of the T.P.
Act?
(a) Sectiod 40 (b) Section 42 (c) Section 43 (d) Section 44
SedeA
_____ 12 SJU
63. 'k1Iu u1t iicci IuI ct.ii it' i fffi 3TTR 14.-lf?1 3iii

(a) %1E149 (b) -&15O (c) TR151 (d) R153

64. 3RTftrl u1 j1d?
(a) (b) cb 4311kut (c) 11'ic4 ii -s (d)
65. W4r 1T 58 f*,cil
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
66.
(a) .1'1ci*i HI44Jk1 (b) - lT?
(c) (d)
67.
(a) (b)
(c) -t ui (d)
68. 91T 'ii 1T i i ftffi 4Ib4 ifii --v1i
3 1iftcci 14
(a) (b)
(c) 33TT (ci)
69. 1ci1 -qiii 1.1riRd 1iu4i fic,i i-i
(a) 'sflci 14I f11 *1Il ITIT 3fl )i*i -s
(b) gic *1l-1 i'
(c) 9NT i ITtZt
(d) fP4k 3i lii i'iiJ-i c1

70.
(a) 1T 344f9I1 *ii (b) -ii i
(c) )-i't (a) (b) (ci) 11Irl 1i i
71. 1ThT 3iiiiPi 1 i1iftci 1 i'.i f151T ii1 ?
(a)
(b)
(c) (a) t (b) 1'1
(d) 4'1.11
72.

(a) 3O1-) (b) i51.i (c) 1411 (d) 71

73. 1It W1'T a Tfku,i* f1T cRI'1I IT 3TfT 3TftTh .lJ1Tft —
(a) 1 '1T (b) 3 ii (c) 6 ii (d) 1
74. 3qi.i 3TftT1m t 1iRci Pr qm
f4ITR1?
(a) &1 40 (b) flt1 42 (c) flU 43 (d) T1U 44
SJU 13 Series-A
75. Where a suit is wholly or partly dismissed under Orders IX rule 8 of CPC, the plantiff
(a) may bring a fresh suit.
(b) shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit.
(c) may bring fresh suit with the permission of court.
(d) None of these
76. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with which one of the followings?
(a) Appointment of receiver
(b) Interpleader suit
(c) Settlement of disputes outside the court
(d) Execution of decree
77. 'Judgement' means
(a) Part of the decree
(b) Statement of judges on the grounds of a decree or order
(c) Adjudication of rights
(d) None of these
78. Under which of the following provisions of C.P.C., a plaint is rejected by the court in
absence of cause of action?
(a) Order VII rule 11(f) (b) Order VII rule 11(b)
(c) Order VII rule 11(e) (d) Order VII iule 11(a)
79. Which one of the following statement is not true in relation to power of appellate court
under Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) It can determine a case finally. (b) It can remand a case.
(c) It cannot take additional evidence. (d) It can frame issue and refer them for trial.

80. An appeal shall not lie from which of the following order under the Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) Section 35 A (b) Section 35 B (c) Section 95 (d) Section 91

81. Who amongst the following may sue for public nuisance and other wrongful acts affecting
the public ?
(a) The Advocate General only.
(b) With the leave of the court by two or more persons only.
(c) Anybody who is affected by it.
(d) (a) and (b) both
82. "A bundle of facts which taken with th. law applicable to them gives the plaintiff the right
to relief against the defendant." It is called as
(a) Plaint (b) Written statement
(c) Cause of action (d) None of these
83. What shall be status a suit on party's death?
(a) The death of plaintiff will abate the suit.
(b) The death of the defendant will abate the suit.
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) The death of plaintiff or defendant will not cause the suit to abate if the right to sue
survives.
84. Place of suing is mentioned in which part of Civil Procedure Code?
(a) Part I (b) Part II (c) Part III (d) Part IV

Series-A 14 SJU
75. ii ii1i 1Ib4l i* 3TTIXf{ 8* 31Ic1 q1i: i 3jfq k#1

(a)
(b) F I
(c)
(d)
76. rr1 Ii tii t flU 89 ftiI 1ii w-d?
(a) (b) 3iii'flT
(c) .-.w4I1f* * (d) 3i1i1t *
77 'fuj4'3
(a) 3Il1iT1T1
(b) T4RI
(c) 3T11f*
(d)
78. 1rc1MrfdI*3 III

(a) 3TTTVH ii 11 () (b) 3TTT VII 1ui41 11 ()

(c) 11VII1i4 11 () (d) TTVH1i1.1 11 (.)
79. 1i1i 4ii *ifii * t

(a) 11tH iui t

(b)
(c)
(d) 1iui *f 1ifii Hc1'11' I
80.
(a) .TTt35 (b) RT35 (c) U95 (d) ttrt91
81.

(a) TftTU
(b)
(c)
(d) (a)t(b)t
82. "'.t T wf-T 1f * w- iPii * i dcr çi
q,.c11* IT\'IR1i*
(a) (b) RiR (c) (d)
83. tT t t T li.Tff 4?
(a) itii'ii I
(b) I
(c) a)T(b)tI
(d)
84. fff ft fir 1)1d ?
(a) TPTI (b) W1H (C) W1llI (d) TPTIV
SJU 15 Series-A
85. A situation where a person who is either a necessary party or proper party has not been
joined in the suit, is called
(a) Non-joinder (b) Mis-joinder (c) Adjoinder (d) None of these
86. 'A' deposits a box of jewels with 'B', who is a well reputed person of his area. 'C' alleges
that the jewels were wrongfully obtained from him by 'A', and claims them from 'B'.
Legally 'B' has which of the following options?
(a) to return the jewels to 'A'
(b) to deposit the jewels with police
(c) to institute an interpleader suit against 'A' and 'C'
(d) None of these
87. Which one of the following is not a dispute settlement procedure referred under Section 89
of the Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) Arbitration (b) Negotiation
(c) Conciliation (d) Mediation
88. Which of the following is/are the fundamental rules of pleading as set forth under order 6,
Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) Every pleading must state facts and not law only.
(b) It must state material facts only.
(c) It must state such facts in a concise form only.
(d) All of these
89. A suit for partition contains which of the following decree?
(a) Only preliminary decree (b) Only Intermediate decree
(c) Final decree (d) Both (a) and (c)
90. Which of the following deals with the exemption of members of legislative bodies from
arrest and detention under the Code of Civil Procedure:
(a) Section 139 B (b) Section 132 A (c) Section 135 A (d) Section 140 A
91. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with stay of suit?
(a) Section 16 (b) Section 10 (c) Section 13 (d) Section 12
92. Which of the following deals with service of process on pleader in the Code of Civil
Procedure?
(a) Order 3, Rule 5 (b) Order 2, Rule 2
(c) Order 7, Rule 3 (d) Order 4, Rule 8
93. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that, "where the witness became
confused in the course of his examination, the court could put questions to him to elicit the
truth?
(a) State of Rajasthan Vs. Eni (b) D.C. Wadhwa Vs. State of Bihar
(c) Shankari Pradad Vs. Union of India (d) Lila Dhar Vs. State of Rajasthan
94. Which of the following grounds is not a appropriate ground for temporary injunction under
the Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) That any property in dispute is in danger of being wasted.
(b) That the defendant threatens to dispose of his property.
(c) That the property in dispute is likely to be acquired by the government.
(d) None of these
Series-A 16 SJU
85. irT

(a) 3i —i4'*i (b) -ii.i

(c) (3Tfrft) (d)
86.
3TTT '' 3Tf1tT f '' T 1 I
T 4i '' T
(a)
(b)
(c) '' t 'IT' *f4 3iRiciifl iii I
(d) I
87. iiRci fiç fj 1i riri 3fi 1i 1RT 89 *

(a) TT%P (b) cnciI (c) r (d) rnI

88. f{rc1i M1J rii3UT6, 1
(a) 1rcb 3:rfT;T ?rfT iF lfi
(b) TIj'.fliI
(c) t1kT \'IHT
(d) 4Lcti I
89. H4 fri?
__
(a) (b) ,c41 ticffj
(c) 3Ttf (d) (a)1 (c)t4t
90. fM I1Ifti 4 tui tut igi

(a) %&1139B (b) RT132A (c) t1R1135A (d) %UU14OA

91. f1fi ifi ffii t i1ifti 1d?
(a) t&1 16 (b) .11U 10 (c) %RT 13 (d) t11 12
92. ififtci * ii i1r 1fii ntr ftiii cti4k 1i:
(a) 3TtT3,P45 (b) TT2,Iii.12
(c) TTT7,f4l.f 3 (d) 3TT4,8
93.
iiii
a) ___
(b) 1&tr
c) ic4O (d) rj1i.(t1z
94. iP 1 f
a)
b) Ict
c) rf15 I RI I
d)

sJU 17 S.r4
95. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act makes relevant the
opinion of the certifying authority which issued the electronic signature?
(a) Section 45-A (b) Section 47-A
(c) Section 53-A (d) Section 73-A
96. Confession of one accused person is relevant against another co-accused person under
which following sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Section 26 (b) Section 27 (c) Section 30 (d) Section 29
97. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act deals with secondary evidence?
(a) Section 60 (b) Section 62 (c) Section 63 (d) Section 65
98. Dying declaration to be admissible in evidence which one of the following is not necessary?
(a) That it should relate to the cause of death of the person making such statement.
(b) That the person making of the statement was under the expectation of death.
(c) That it relates to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death.
(d) All of these
99. In respect of digital signature, which of the following is a relevant fact?
(a) The court may direct that person or authority to produce the digital signature
certificate.
(b) That he himself recognizes his signature before the court.
(c) Any other person recognizes his signature before the court.
(d) Such digital signature is not admissible in any proceeding before the court,
100. When can prosecution be allowed to ask leading question to its own witness?
(a) In examination in chief
U
(b) In re-examination -I..

(c) When the witness is declared hostile

(d) In all circumstances
101. The principle that 'possession is prima facie proof of ownership' is contained under which
Section of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Section 106 (b) Section 109 (c) Section III (d) Section 110
102. Which one of the following term is not inclusive in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Intention (b) Preparation (c) Motive (d) Conduct
103. Contents of electronic records are proved in accordance of which the provisions of the
Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Section 65-A (b) Section 65-B (c) Section 67-A (d) Section 73-A
104. Evidence given by a witness, unable to communicate verbally in the court by writing or
sign, shall be deemed to be
(a) Circumstantial evidence (b) Documentary evidence
(c) Oral evidence (d) None of these
105. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Section 113 B — Presumption as to dowry death
(b) Section 137 — Examination in Chief
(c) Section 151 — Indecent and scandalous questions
(d) Section 154 — Impeaching credit of witness
Series-A 18 SJU
95. .iicfli 3Tftrfr t ififti ctl-i im 'i1 it' iuickci

(a) tiru 45-A (b) Tm 47-A (c) tim 53-A (d) tuu 73-A
96. 3fT R1 Tf flr4 d1
wT?
(a) 1J 26 (b) tTTt 27 (c) tUU 30 (d) tittt 29
97. id)i 1TT f1'ifti UU Fdkcb 1 ?
(a) &1 60 (b) 1TT 62 (c) tIRI 63 (d) tiTU 65
98.
(a) f fr 1r .ir if I
(b) ii ijq,i p-ft I
(c) __cp1
(d)
99. t1 fiftci ct.1 wii ?
(a) .-iiii ir iift,i1 tr -cii II ct 1u
(b) iiiiq 3T I
(c) 3 orm iT( n{ -iici
(d) *1I3 I 4IM wri4i iif I
100.
(a) (b)
(c) tt 1F1 fT 'i (d) Th Iftff
101. r1 lI I

(a) tflU 106k (b) tim 109k (c) %11T111 (d) tir1iio
102. Ikcfl W TU 8 iic'fl iii

(a) 3TTT (b) kTt (c) (d)

103. ctT1 iftr a.-cick Ikdli aTPifr iii. ifici
'.1Rfl ?
(a) tiRT 65-A (b) tiRT 65-B (c) tiTU 67-A (d) tim 73-A
104. T
TRT iRu
(a) (b) ctifl
(c) Ef1t (d)
105.
(a) T(T 113 B -
(b) tRT137_11
(c) tiTU 151 - 3R1i 3 iici 'i
(d) tIRT 154 - -rft
SJU 19 Series-A
106. In which Section of the Indian Evidence Act the words 'to form part of the same
transaction' are provided?
(a) Section 12 (b) Section 9 (c) Section 11 (d) Section 6
107. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched under Indian Evidence Act?
(a) Section 45 — Opinions of experts
(b) Section 67-A — Proof as to electronic signature
(c) Section 74 — Public documents
(d) Section 124 — Professional communication
108. Which one of the following sections of Indian Evidence has been substituted by the
Information Technology Act, 2000?
(a) Section 29 (b) Section 35 (c) Section 39 (d) Section 40
109. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, makes the provision that there shall be no new
trial on the ground of improper admission or rejection of evidence?
(a) Section 167 (b) Section 161 (c) Section 165 (d) Section 147
110. Which of the following documents is 'Public Document'?
(a) only the documents forming records of the acts of sovereign authority.
(b) only the documents forming records of the acts of official bodies.
(c) only the public records kept in any state of private documents.
(d) All of these
111. Which of the following questions shall not be asked in examining a witness?
(a) only that which is intended to insult.
(b) only that which is intended to annoy. o".cI
(c) only that which appears to the court needlessly offensive.
(d) All of these
112. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, provisions for presumption as to gazettes
in Electronic form has been made?
(a) Section 85 C (b) Section 81 A (c) Section 88 A (d) Section 90 A
113. All facts, except the contents of documents may be proved by
(a) Primary evidence (b) Secondary evidence
(c) Oral evidence (d) Circumstantial evidence
114. Which one of the following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay under the law of
evidence?
(a) Expert's opinion (b) Dying declaration
(c) Confession (d) Res gestae
115. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act deals only with civil matters?
(a) Section 19 (b) Section 20 (c) Section 21 (d) Section 23
116. Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act is founded upon the doctrine laid down in which
one of the following case?
(a) Banwari Lal Vs. Sukhdarshan (b) Pikard Vs. Sears
(c) B. Coleman Vs. P.P. Das Gupta (d) Vishnu Datt Sharma Vs. Dayasharan
117. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, a judge is
empowered to ask any question relevant or irrelevant to a witness or a party to a suit?
(a) Section 164 (b) Section 165 (c) Section 166 (d) Section 167
Series-A 20 SJU
106.
(a) .1RT12 (b) %TU9 (c) %11t111 (d) T1U6

107. Id) 1 11c1 1?

(a) .1TT45 -
(b) 1TU67A -
(c) -&174 -
(d) 1t1124 -
108. Ikdi-1 f HI1IIc1 1{ 1U 2000 JT 5ffifkT
11lT1T?
(a) %1R1 29 (b) %1T1 35 (c) TRT 39 (d) TtT 40

109. itft ni ui u
wrui cI fl-1 riui .ifl ti ?
(a) -RT 167 (b) TU 161 (c) %RI 165 (d) %IRI 147

110. f l Tgii ')ctg*1I'*?

(a) c11 i4i T1Tt c41 Tf
(b) cci it iii' 3Tf I
(c) l I
(d)
111.
(a) I
(b) t %T I
(c) 1dIt1IU I
(d)
112.
(a) .TTT85C (b) TRi81 A (c) tiTti88A (d) Ti90A

113. t 11I nft *iii 1 ii

(a) 1%T W (b) f çfle, wi
(c) (d) q-T
114. 3icR9?
(a) ri (b) cid1.iR
(c) cfli (d) k1.1d ( ')
115. 1Ikd 3TM 1m t tIRT f1i iiil *iRci
(a) %UU19 (b) tTTT20 (c) .TRT21 (d) TRT23

116. *.itcfli %IRT 115 1rr1 fh

31i4 i1lfl Ri-r 3Tr%UftI ?
(a) iiO (b) 1rrtifl4
(c) .k411 T1 'ft.. W ii (d)
117. Rd) f4-1Rslcf TT 3ic4ci t
I ci 3T1TT 3Tff ?
(a) TU 164 (b) %Utr 165 (c) %TTtI 166 (d) tllti 167
SJU 21 Series-A
118. Muslim Law does not apply to which of the following?
(a) Gifts (b) Maintenance
(c) Just and Trust Properties (d) Succession to agricultural land
119. Who delivered the dissenting (minority) judgment in the Triple Talak case?
(a) Justice Kurian Joseph (b) Justice Khehar Singh
(c) Justice Fali S. Nariman (d) Justice U.U. Lalit
120. Under the Waqf Act, 1995 the power of Tribunal to determine disputes regarding Auqof is
given in which of the following sentence?
(a) Section 6 (b) Section 9 (c) Section 7 (d) Section 10
121. Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 option of puberty is available to
(a) The husband only
(b) The wife only
(c) Husband and wife both
(d) Husband and wife both with approval of guardian
122. Which one is not a recognized branch of Sunni School of Muslim Law?
(a) Ithana Ashari (b) Hanafi (c) Maliki (d) Shafei
123. Which one of the following is not correct with reference to Legal incidence of Wakf?
(a) The wakif ceases to have any interest in it. (b) The property ceases to be heritable.
(c) The wakif becomes irrevocable. (d) The wakif has right to alter the Wakf.
124. Govind Dayal V. Inayatullah is a leading case on which of the followings?
(a) Wakf (b) Pre-emption (c) Wills (d) Guardianship
125. Jurisdiction of Family Court applies to which of the following community?
(a) Lingayat (b) Muslims (c) Buddhists (d) All of these
126. Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 a Muslim marriage may be
dissolved in which of the followings?
(a) By the husband alone by pronouncing talak.
(b) By the wife pronouncing reverence of relationship.
(c) By the court on the ground of mutual consent.
(d) By the court in a petition filed by the wife.
127. Muta Marriage is permitted under which of the following?
(a) In all branches of Hanafi School
(b) In only Ithana Asharia branch of Shia School
(c) In only Maliki branch of Hanafi School
(d) In all the branches of Shia School
128. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act has been amended by the
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018. Select the correct answer with the help of code
given below:
(1) Section 53 A (2) Section 119 (3) Section 146
Code:
(a) Only (1) is correct. (b) Only (2) and (3) are correct.
(c) Only (1) and (3) are correct. (d) Only (3) is correct.
Series-A 22 SJU
118.
____
(a) 'TT (b) uilui

(c) -4It-1R1 iPT (d)

119.
(a) kH (b) ' 1I
(c) (d)

120. 3f-T1, 1995 31-d41 1l ii T RT cM 3fT

(a) RT6 (b) .11T19 (c) WT7 (d) tflh10

121. I1H 11cu i-i 3RT4, 1939 3.i -i4i 1I1 I4T Icbc ft iti ?
(a)
(b) 1c-flt
(c) c-fl
(d)
122. i1Ri rr 41 iit 1TPT ii1R9?
(a) %1RT 3TTt (b) (c) si,t1 (d)

123. 114 ir&uii ' 4t

(a) If9T I
(b) i1-4fI rkl1R Icn I
(c) I
(d)
124. inr ic'1 R1
(a) (b) (c) flici (d) wTm

125. ifkifkc' -i1i14 t 3If.TTftT1 -l1ll 1{ iii iiii ?

(a) i1iiiR (b) i1iT
(c) i 1 (d)

126. 1ii.i 1I' 1939 i 3i-i4i t m

(a) iii k1c1R I (b) i c-fl Tu -fi'g ii.i ct& I

(c) 3rPf 11fli -II1l TtT (d) ftiti t1ici 'tII 1T -4ti'I.4 I1

127. ___ ____

(a) .II1 I1k91t (b) fiir iii t in
(c) .ii'11 TR1t ci iFi (d) IIRiT IR1ft Ft9t3t

128. 2018

(1) .11T53A (2) Tr119 (3) UtT146

(a) c1(1) I (b) I

(c) 1)t(3)k1 I (d) I
sJU 23 Series-A
129. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provision has been made for
permanent alimony and maintenance?
(a) Section 24 (b) Section 26 (c) Section 25 (d) Section 27

130. Limitation of filing appeal against decrees under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is from date of
decree is
(a) 30 days (b) 45 days (c) 60 days (d) 90 days

131. Dastane V. Dastane related to which of the following matter in Hindu Law?
(a) Restitution of conjugal rights (b) Cruelty
(c) Adultery (d) Spinda

132. Which one of the followings is not the ground of Judicial separation u/s 10 of the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955?
(a) Adultery (b) Cruelty
(c) Leprosy (d) Missing of less than seven years

133. "No petition of divorce can be presented within one year of marriage." It is provided in
which following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act?
0
(a) Under Section 14 (b) Under Section 12
1 .
(c) Under Section 13 (d) Under Section 11

134. Right of a child in womb is given under which one of the following Sections of the Hindu
Succession Act?
(a) Section 24 (b) Section 22 (c) Section 20 (d) Section 25

135. Which of the following is not the heir of class II of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
(a) Father (b) Father's father, father's mother
(c) Mother's father, mother's mother (d) Brother and sister by uterine blood

136. No person shall be entitled to dispose of or deal with the property of a Hindu minor merely
because on the ground of his or her being the defacto guardian of the minor is provided
under which of the following Sections of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act?
(a) Section 10 (b) Section 11
(c) Section 12 (d) Section 13

137. The adoption is to be proved as fact and the burden is on the person who asserts, is held in
which of the following case?
(a) Sitabai Vs. Ramchandra
(b) Kishori Lal Vs. Chaltibai
(c) Jasveer Kaur Vs. District Judge, Deharadun
(d) Smt. Vijaya Manohar Vs. Kashi Rao Rajaram

138. Under Sunni Law in the matter of inheritance, what is share of son in his father's property
except land after death of father?
(a) 1/3 of the property (b) 1/2 of the property
(c) 3/4 of the property (d) There is no specific share.
SerIes-A 24 SJU
129. jt 1955 P.0 T 1i

(a) %TIU 24 (b) flt1 26 (c) TU 25 (d) %lltt 27

130. 3d, 1955 aii t a4t, ftt

'11VII —
(a) 30 1~i (b) 45 ii (c) 60 (d) 90 fr '

131. fJ1I çii 1i

(a) (b)
(c) 1R44 (d) itU,st

132. j i3TRT, 1955RT

(a) RT31NuI (b)

(c) (d) 1l'-1di 1 I

133.
1i1ifi lR 31If) ?
(a) T143+1R (b) 1U1231R
(c) 11334iR (d) 111311ik

134. TTjf a 3RfFR 1i 1TT *, ufi 1fi t 1ift f .mi

(a) TR1 24 (b) WT 22 (c) TR1 20 (d) -U1 25

135. -irRi * 41 11Ict a,1956 vft-ii rwrfTR?

(a) Iii (b)
(c) (d)

136. fd 31NR 1R 3Id T c1: W I'-<1c1

44m ctT tR MI14dt
i1ifti Ik1
(a) TU10 (b) RT11 (c) TU 12 (d) 1T 13
137. qi iii 1ir iiii ii T 1R 1cb1 ii1

(a) fldI st1.I usi'vi (b) 11 1Icf HI44 id1i

(c) i1Ik ct1k Hii4 (d) ftft fii .il& *ii I'31I&I1

138.
?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
4
SJU 25 Series-A
139. Under Hindu Succession Act, one person is said to be 'agnate' of another if the two are related
(a) by blood or adoption wholly through males.
(b) by blood or adoption but not wholly through males
(c) by half blood through males
(d) None of these
140. Who is the natural guardian of a married girl?
(a) Her Mother (b) Her Father
(c) Her Husband (d) Her Father-in-law
141. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act relates to voidable marriage?
(a) Section 10 (b) Section 13 (c) Section 8 (d) Section 12
142. Tagore Vs. Tagore laid down which one of the following rule of law?
(a) A Hindu cannot dispose of his property by gift intervene in favour of an unborn child.
(b) Karta of a Joint Hindu Family has power to intervene into family matters.
(c) A partition of joint family property can be reopened.
(d) Adoption of an orphan is not valid.
143. Which one of the following Sections of the Cr. P.C. deals with 'evidence for defence' ?
(a) Section 264 (b) Section 243 (c) Section 237 (d) Section 242
144. Power of the court to convert summons cases into warrant cases is provided under which
one of the following Sections of the Cr. P.C.?
(a) Section 302 (b) Section 259 (c) Section 301 (d) Section 322
145. Claims and objections to attachment of property is provided under which one of the
following Sections of the Cr. P.C.?
(a) Section 84 (b) Section 85 (c) Section 86 (d) Section 87
146. The validity of an order made under Section 144 of Cr. P.C. is
(a) three months (b) four months (c) two months (d) five months
147. The power to postpone the execution of death sentence is conferred on
(a) the Court of Session (b) the Court of Judicial Magistrate
(c) the High Court (d) the Court of District Magistrate
148. An accused person shall be a competent witness according to which one of the Sections of
Cr. P.C.?
(a) Section 3 14 (b) Section 316 (c) Section 317 (d) Section 315
149. Which 'form' mentioned in the Second Schedule of Cr. P.C. is related with 'Charge'?
(a) Form 31 (b) Form 32 (c) Form 33 (d) Form 34
150. According to Section 97 of the Cr. P.C., who is not competent to issue a search warrant?
(a) The District Magistrate (b) The Sub-divisional Magistrate
(c) The Magistrate of First Class (d) The Court of Session
151. Which case is related to the power of the court to examine the accused?
(a) Baba Vs. Maharashtra State only (b) Durbal Singh Vs. State only
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
152. If an intestate has left no heir qualified to succeed to his or her property, such property
shall devolve on which of the following?
(a) State Government (b) Brothers
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
SerIes-A 26 SJU
139. f (If3TT1zr 'iñ*' i 41kT i itii1i
(a) H%qNi Tbw (b) 31IITc1tT
(c) (d)
140. 1h 1t1 __

(a) i4l Icti (b) icbl 1?fl (c) ci (d) 1ctI c4

141. j' 3rfPTh Rcii 1t1 ciufl4 1*?

(a) 1RT 10 (b) R1 13 (c) 1T1 8 (d) %WT 12

142. ~i'k MtH ~I If1Rd TftTT 14 31fr93T1 T?

(a)tfft -i1i i o
(b) *1ctd f4fke4R T iifk Thc?i i1i &ii
(c) Wclf '.4I'e1Ik T kRI t : 1I T1 Hc4c11 I
(d) 3IR1 r ui frfIThi ;rff I
143. i1i fi r'-iriRd TPT3 ft 1T '1f11 T T' wf ?
(a) TRT 264 (b) 1T1 243 (c) -TTtr 237 (d) .1T1 242
144. WFT 1l1ft1l c4 j J{ 1ldI
1T34-ci4?
(a) TU 302 (b) %TWI 259 (c) 1T 301 (d) R1 322
145. ii1tifi 1
141TTH?
(a) -1TU 84 (b) TtT 85 (c) %T 86 (d) Tm 87

146. i1ti f dlI-1T1 1443t-14d 3 tt:

(a) 34I (b) (c) 2i (d) 5P

147. 1c c4, 1f
(a) ?.w4114 ct) (b) ifq
(c) (d) fTHrt1
148. ti 3TfT of çu ifcti tTirifi 1 ib1i
(a) 13t43iR (b) T316311R
(c) t131731R (d) r3153iR

149. rT irci i * ff1i 311ft r i &e frr ?

(a) M4Th 31 (b) i4Th 32 (c) 33 (d) 34

150. __ 1clI t %11t197 3iiit* 1rRd 4i c1flfl 4RU. 1IclI ?

(a) (b) T—u1ffR (c) (d) Ift1

151.
(a) TiI IU'kI', c1 (b) 11(.il4-I I'1,
(c) -s (a) 1 (b) (d) 1T

152.
w1 Rwtcf'Tft?
(a) i'4 (b)
(c) (a)T(b) i (d)
SJU 27 Series-A
153. A Magistrate empowered under Section 190 of Cr. P.C. may order an investigation by
police in a cognizable offence.
This is provided under which of the following sections of Cr. P.C. ?
(a) Section 154 (3) (b) Section 155 (3)
(c) Section 156 (3) (d) Section 157 (4)
154. Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code are covered under Section 95
of the Cr. P.C. ?
(a) Section 124 A only (b) Section 153 A and S. 153 B only
(c) Section 292, 293 and 295 A only (d) All of these
155. The High Court may exercise its inherent power under Section 482 on which of the
following grounds?
(a) in rarest of rate case
(b) in ex debito justice
(c) to prevent abuse of process of any court
(d) All of these
156. If a judge dies after writing his judgment but before delivering in open court, then the
judgment shall be considered as
(a) Judgment of the court (b) Opinion of the judge
(c) Only a dying declaration (d) None of these
157. Who may record confession under S. 164 of the Cr. P.C.?
.................
(a) Any Judicial Magistrate having junsdiction only.
(b) Any Judicial Magistrate not having jurisdiction only.
(c) Any Metropolitan Magistrate not having jurisdiction only.
(d) All of these.
158. In which of the following case it was held that the function of the police and judiciary is
complementary to each other?
(a) King Emperor Vs. Najir Ahmad
(b) Anand Chintamani Dighe Vs. State of Maharashtra
(c) Manisi Jam Vs. State of Gujarat
(d) None of these
159. Under the Criminal Procedure Code, which of the followings is not correctly matched?
(a) Medical Examination of the Victim of rape — S. 164A
(b) Letter of request to competent authority for — S. 166A
investigation in a country or place outside India
(c) Release of accused when evidence deficient — 5. 167
(d) Diary of proceedings in investigation — S. 172
160. Which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code provides 'Victim
Compensation Scheme'?
(a) Section 357 (b) Section 357 A (c) Section 357 C (d) Section 357 B
161. "Name of the victim of sexual offence shall not be mentioned."
It was held in which of the following cases?
(a) S. Ranikrishna Vs. State (b) Balwant Rai Vs. Changi Ram
(c) Gulzari Lal Vs. State of U.P. (d) Ramapati Vs. State of Bihar
Series-A 28 SJU
153. 1fi ifii TI 190 c1c1 1Ictd 1 i1c *T 3Tq1%TI i
3Ti1c1L I

(a) TU 154(3) (b) TRT 155(3) (c) .TIT1 156(3) (d) 1TT 157(4)

154. icfl çç 3ftT 95

(a) -1TU 124A (b) TJ 153A t .TTT 153B pcl1

(c) TU 292, 293 t 295A 41 (d) it

155. -iI1K14 -Tm482 atTh 1Ifci i1i R9cf 1,.i 3T1flT icii
(a)
(b)
(c) -in1 T 'iii fIc1 ct %
(d)

156. 3 fu1 ti iici tcfl

VTT'jII1I:
(a) (b) EftTtWT
(c) cI11e1, (d)

157. MIl sIcii tUU 164' 3i4d cfl1i 1'i iidi

(a)
(b) .nf~cb H ri 3T1Tft91
(c) 1I.i 1 iO Hr1 1i*i1 31 Tft11 11
(d) ih

158. i 1i1i 1i ii t i

(a) f4:;r 3T 11 (b)

(c) iPI1 'ii iici ii (d)

159. Iu cn ' 3iI'. fiRcici c1i il 1c1 i?

(a) ii 1it iftn - 11T 164 A
(b) 3uIf'1L - RT166A

(c) T3 Td TT'H1 - tIRT 167

(d) - -1TT 172

160. i1r ii I i1iRci ft RT "fI iI ' T

(a) 1tt 357 (b) -11t1 357 A (c) .UU 357 C (d) .Tm 357 B

161. 'iici& '-nrdI -r r

(a) . HIH (b) ir*ii- iflkti

(c) iiI) ii'i .1i1 1k ui (d) i-nd) i.ii IIk u

sJU 29 Series-A
162. Which one of the following is not correctly matched in the Criminal Procedure code?
(a) Section 2(d) — Complaint
(b) Section 2(h) — Investigation
(c) Section 2(r) — Police report
(d) Section 2(w) — Victim

163. Discharge of the accused before trial has been provided under which of the following
Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code?
Choose the correct answer with the help of code given below:
(1) Section 227 (2) Section 239 (3) Section 255
Code:
(a) Only (1) is correct. (b) Only (2) is correct.
(c) Both (1) and (2) are correct. (d) Both (1) and (3) are correct.

164. Consider the following statements to summary trial under the Criminal Procedure Code
and choose the correct answer with the help of the code given below
(1) Offences under Sections 454 and 456 of the Indian Penal Code may be tried by
summary trial.
(2) Sentence under summary trial shall not be passed less than three months.
(3) Procedure of trial of summon case shall be followed in summary trial. f
Code:
(a) Only (1) and (2) 'are correct. (b) Only (2) and (3) are correct.
(c) Only (1) and (3) are correct. (d) All (1), (2) and (3) are correct.

165. Section 41-B was inserted in the Criminal Procedure Code by the Criminal Procedure
Code (Amendment) Act in which of the following year?
(a) in 2008 (b) in 2010 (c) in 2005 (d) None of these

166. No court shall take cognizance of an offence under the Criminal Procedure Code after the
expiry of the period of limitation under Section 468. Which one of the following is not
correct?
(a) Six months, if the offence is punishable with fine only.
(b) One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceedifig
one year.
(c) Two years in respect of economic offences.
(d) Three years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding one
year but not exceeding three years.

167. "Irregularities which do not vitiate proceedings" is provided in which of the following
Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code?
(a) Section 461 (b) Section 460 (c) Section 462 (d) Section 458

168. Power of High Court to confirm sentence is provided under which of the following
Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code?
(a) Section 366 (b) Section 367 (c) Section 369 (d) Section 368
Series-A 30 SJU
162. 111R9c1 4 çu., M1
(a) Tr 2(d) -

(b) TT 2(h) - 3lUI

(c) TU 2(r) - ft
(d) v-mi 2(w) - nr
163. fiu 9 3Tf i ffç 44 ,.j 4
1iTT?

(1) %IT{T 227

(2) -1TU 239
(3) TJT255

(a) if(1) I (b) c1t(2)t% I

(c) (1)(2)ghi1 I (d) (1)t(3)t I

164. .i1ikqi MIbI 1c1l 3cI1Tc1 fci iui 4 I

-ft
Rcfl4 qus k1Idi 3i-i4i .1Eti 454 t 456
____ ____

(1) 3TftT 311 IRU I1RUI

#TT1cl,lI I
(2) cfl'i i43 cbIlc1tkt, 1fI
(3) T1Tf Rui t-ii) Iiiui 3i1uI fbu 'iiti1

(a) 1(1)l(2)t*I (b) i(2)1 (3)I

(c) (1)t(3)l I (d) t(1),(2),(3)' I
165. -TRT 41-B çu *ifii 4 i'rft r11 jj I rRgi 4

(a) 20084 (b) 20104 (c) 20054 (d) 3Mf4

166. fi~t m-i i ii uqufti iiifcii tkfln cJç

41
(a) ____

(b) 1Ii, 31T 4 3F[1 iITc4RIc1If4 gu4I4 ' I

(c)
(d) cfl.1i1, 3I
4 çu.fl I

167. " d1I&t I4I ii us 1I tii i iIiftci Ii

RT#11I 1TT?
(a) RT 461 4 (b) UU 4604 (c) tIRT 4624 (d) TRT 4584

168. gusI~l T rii qu -iiRgcc 44

1ini4' F11?
(a) TTU 366 (b) .tFU 367 (c) %1Tt1 369 (d) .UU 368
SJU 31 Series-A
169. Section 195-A of Indian Penal Code is related to:
(a) Punishment for false evidence (b) Threat to give false evidence
(c) Using evidence known to be false (d) Issuing or signing false certificate
170. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched under Indian Penal Code?
(a) Section 93 — Communication made in good faith
(b) Section 95 — Act causing slight harm
(c) Section 54 — Commutation of sentence of imprisonment for life
(d) Section 54-A — Definition of 'appropriate government'
171. A man who monitors the use by a woman of internet, e-mail or any other form of
electronic communication, commit the offence of
(a) Trafficking of woman (b) Sexual harassment
(c) Voyeurism (d) Stalking
172. The punishment for attempting to commit offence punishable with imprisonment for life or
other imprisonment is provided in
(a) under Section 511 IPC (b) under Section 509 IPC
(c) under Section 510 IPC (d) under Section 507 IPC
173. The offence of 'attempt to commit culpable homicide' is punishable under which of the
following Section of IPC?
(a) Section 304 (b) Section 308 (c) Section 310 (d) Section 301
174. 'A' puts jewels into a box belonging to 'B' with the intention that they may be found in
that box, and this circumstances may cause 'B' to be convicted of theft.
'A' has committed the offence under which Section of IPC given below?
(a) Section 191 (b) Section 193 (c) Section 194 (d) Section 192
175. 'A' a carrier, is entrusted by 'Z' with property to be carried by land or by water. 'A'
dishonestly misappropriates of property.
A has committed the offence of:
(a) Criminal misappropriation of property (b) Cheating
(c) Criminal breach of trust (d) Criminal breach of trust by carrier, etc.
176. When a person tries to escape from lawful custody while taken to a Magistrate to furnish
security for good behaviour could be punished under the provision of:
(a) Section 224 IPC (b) Section 225 IPC
(c) Section 225-A IPC (d) Section 225-B IPC
177. A young man waves a currency note of rupees two thousands in front of a woman as if he
offers the money for an indecent favour from the woman, he may be criminally booked
under:
(a) Section 509 IPC (b) Section 489-B IPC
(c) Section 508 IPC (d) Section 354-B IPC
178. Under which one of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code the offence of
'Voyeurism' has been defined?
(a) Section 354-A (b) Section 354-B (c) Section 354-C (d) Section 354-D

SerIes-A 32 SJU
169. i{1i *i1cti t thU 195— PfRT
(a)
(b) itTI
(c) 1 iiii iici fT%hT .it 1Ic1* I
(d) 1IuI-11I I

170. tiRf1 s *ifcit 31-c14i — f.i 1Rcf c.i rici Rf?

(a)
(b) t1TT 95 i1 )itkd tk iiii I4 I
(c) thlti 54— 3mif*i qc4J{ 14&Ul I
(d) thTU 54—A 'TIc1 Wc,R' I

171. T Orm {h4l _;:ki T 3T cifcb NR 11k m

1fiR I3 i?
__
(a) 31T O.1IIRT (b) 1Ic4 T

(c) I?Ict)c1I T (d) tfg c

172. 3ii'fl'i RI4R1 TT +,RtclR1 çu -fl 3mft ct)k ' us

(a) 4T..th1U 511 (b) T.TthTT 5O9

(c) tITU 51O (d) 1Th. t thTU 507

173. 'aiuf i-ni i' 13R'TUtT fi wu ?

(a) th1U304 (b) thTU308 (c) tTRt31O (d) thTU3O1

174.
1Tftft1 '' 1 &ii
'3T' c1t 1ft 1ITt 14 -hRT 3rfT?
(a) thTU191t (b) %hIU193T (c) thTU194T (d) thRE192T

175. iJ{ I lc1 iiI ' fiV '' '' 1 c4It , w.-i1i .-i , ''
i ii-1 çF1 1 I(c1r
3TTTh41:
(a) (b) c'1T
(c) aiIU1 - ii WI I (d) T# 31T1 4J 3U13-T RI WI T

176. 3o Rf'I I.1l Mc1

___ ___
4T'T T M1fti CMlI Ik1t1TT 3ITR 31cI1 Ic1 g1d fm n

(a) thR1224 (b) thRT225 (c) thIU225—A (d) tTTU225—B

177. ' i o1 1fl ii 't ii r- r -i-i) i1i

3TfI i -c fi
\1I1hIt ?
(a) %UU 509 (b) -hRT 489-B (c) -I1T1 508 (d) thIU 354-B
178. 1Rdk qus -ififtci 1i tItU '1Scbc1T'
(a) thRF354 —(b) thTU354— (c) ttRT354_T1 (d) tflT354—

sJU 33 Series-A
179. Dishonest misappropriation of property possessed by deceased person at the time of his
death, is an offence punishable under the Indian Penal Code in:
(a) Section 404 (b) Section 406 (c) Section 407 (d) Section 409
180. When two or more persons indulge in fighting at a public place and thereby commit breach
of peace, they commit the offence of:
(a) Robbery (b) Riot (c) Public nuisance (d) Affray
181. A' signs his own name to a Bill of Exchange, intending that it may be believed that the
bill was drawn by another person of same name. 'A' has committed the offence of
(a) Cheating (b) Mischief
(c) Forgery (d) Fabricating false evidence
182. Where a woman is gang raped, each of those persons shall be deemed to have committed
the offence of rape and shall be punished with:
(a) Death
(b) Imprisonment for life
(c) Imprisonment for life with fine
(d) Rigorous imprisonment not less than twenty years
183. Which one of the following is not an essential element of the offence of acid attack
mentioned under Section 326-A of the IPC?
(a) Partial damage, deformity or burn (b) Maiming, disfigurement or disablement
(c) Damage, disfigurement or grievous hurt (d) only bodily pain
184. 'A' causes cattle to enter upon the field belonging to 'Z', intending to cause damage to Z's
crops. 'A' committed the offence of
(a) Cheating (b) Mischief
(c) Dishonest misappropriation of property (d) None of these
185. Right to private defence is available to all irrespective of gender and age of persons except:
(a) Police officers (b) Officers of armed forces
(c) Aggressors (d) Officers of B.S.F.
186. The minimum punishment in term of imprisonment provided under the Indian Penal Code is:
(a) 24 hours (b) 7 days (c) two days (d) one month
187. The word illegal as defined in the Indian Penal Code means:
(a) everything which is an offence only.
(b) everything which is prohibited by law only.
(c) everything which furnishes ground for a civil action only.
(d) All of these
188. 'A' a private doctor running his own clinic, refuses to provide medical treatment to 'B', a
victim of acid attack.
'A' is liable under which one of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code?
(a) Section 166 (b) Section 166-A (c) Section 166-B (d) Section 167
189. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go from any
place, commit the offence of:
(a) wrongful restraint (b) abduction
(c) kidnapping (d) abetment
Series-A 34 SJU
179. Wt cf i ft, ii.fl f4lii ', %iicfl

(a) TU 404 (b) RE 406 (c) 1T1 407 (d) F1U 409
180. c, J-.I si WT'T

(a) (b) i4IT (c) --qk1T (d) 'TiT

181. '' r 3 31T

(a) 1T (b) I'ST (c) ct-1tT (d) friiii

182. tiP.b4l EU-T 4ilcIk 1I ''1Idi , c11 c4 3PRTU

1irr ni i'ii 1i1rr iiin -

(a)
(b) 3lisflcH
(c) 3iNficH q,RI41
(d) RtlR1 ?t20 'T-I1 ii I

183. 11H11ftd H 1i WU 326-A c T1 11 3T%T T t5

tctci4 -i ?
(a) 31I Iii i ii (b) 3P1 Wi, fu fl Icbc1IlIdI
(c) (d)
184. '' i 3TTT 4T ' H '' 4 1T H I d *
Id I '' T 3T -

(a) 9iT (b) flST

(c) iifi i HIfl {1I T (d) L1Th * Rf

18. It Tf 34TT r1t i*,of firi Tt ficni:

(a) (b) *i.iI*3TTft
(c) 3IIdt (d)
186. Rcfl 'icii eiIuc1I1 iiii iii:
(a) 1fli'J~ (b) 71 (c) tfi (d)
187. '3-T'
(a)
(b)
(c)
bc4l
c1' Id
l fft,t ifiTia
3?tf 1I-fl cbi4c
*1iv. 3TTT'
I

(d) 1mf i
188. '3' lt ii fc*1cI, I1Icb HcH ' '' t Z 3T-31tHUI (ks 3T) 1
'.fl1dL
'3' RcIl çu. I1iI '1 1Hr1d 1i Pft?
(a) TJ 166 * (b) -1TU 166-A (c) 1f 166-B * (d) iU 167 *
189. fft 1fl 1.-T ci4Ij4 i4i iu i , cc1 it
,3mtIi*:
(a) -T3t1T (b)
(c) kuIT (d)
sJU 35 Series-A
190. Which one is not a theory of attempt for Section 511 of Indian Penal Code?
(a) Proximity rule (b) Theory of impossibility
(c) Object theory (d) Durhum rule
191. Section 497 of Indian Penal Code is struck down by the Supreme Court in which of the
following case?
(a) Navtejsingh Johar Vs. Union of India
(b) Joseph Shine Vs. Union of India
(c) Tahsean S. Poonawala Vs. Union of India
(d) Naz Foundation Trust Vs. Suresh Kumar Kaushal
192. Which one of the following is not the ingredients of the Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code?
(a) Criminal act done by several person
(b) In the furtherance of common intention
(c) Meeting of the minds of those who involved in crime
(d) Similar intention of those who involved in the crime
193. The principle of Section '17 of the Transfer of Property Act is based on which one of the
following cases?
(a) Girijesh Vs. Dattadin (b) Chamaru Sahu Vs. Sona Kuer
(c) Theluson Vs. Woodford (d) None of these
194. 'A' transfers property to 'B' in trust for 'C' and directs 'B' to give possession of the
property to 'C' when he attains the age of 25. 'C' has:
(a) contingent interest (b) vested interest
(c) both contingent and vested interest (d) No interest
195. The object of the principle of Lis-pendens is to:
(a) only maintaining the status-quo.
(b) only restraining further litigation.
(c) only restraining creation of new facts during litigation.
(d) All of these
196. Which one of the following is not a constructive notice?
(a) Gross negligence regarding to a fact (b) Registration
(c) Actual possession (d) Definite knowledge
197. A lessee is not entitled to the right of marshalling under which one of the following
Sections of the T.P. Act?
(a) Section 55 (b) Section 56 (c) Section 57 (d) Section 81
198. Which one of the following Sections provides statutory duties of a mortgagee in
possession under the Transfer of Property Act?
(a) Section 78 (b) Section 76 (c) Section 77 (d) Section 79
199. Who among the following can not sale and purchase an actionable claim?
(a) only judge (b) only legal practitioner
(c) only any judicial officer (d) All of these
200. Which one is not an exception of defamation under Section 499 of Indian Penal Code?
(a) Public conduct of public servant
(b) Malicious statements
(c) Conduct of any person touching any public question
(d) Publication of reports of proceedings of court

Series-A 36 sJU
190. 511
(a) ilTI (b) 31tII
(c) (d) i.ifit

191. RT 497 t ii 1-.ifiRci 1h-{ 1*i (struck down) 141

(a) (b) 1l1tHW1(t

(c) 1lT1 (d)

192. 11RRi t c41.1 341 3icbZf?

(a)
(b)
(c) I
(d)
193.
(a) f'iiiiitIi (b) 1if1
(c) -qii i4s't1 (d)
194. '' 'i' ' 1i' w-qf 34-1Fd tiii 1i i '' ifi 1 c4fl
'TI t 25 'W I 'TI T Id :
(a) T1XT (b) 1 fi 1i
(c) (d) tfi.T
195. tii*i:
(a) tifftfi ilQ.1I I
(b) I
(c)
(d) 4Thft

196.
(a) (b)
(c) (d) iii.i
197. 1i ui 3TftTfT1 1 t ii)ii
1IL, 'R 1 ii ?
(a) %TTT55 (b) R156 (c) RT57 (d) TU81
198. i-ifi 31kuI 3RTh1T iR c cb c1I *%1T r1 T

(a) tIU 78 (b) 1TT 76 (c) RT 77 (d) TTtI 79

199. i—fc
(a) i 1T11'fT (b) ,'ei M oqcfl
(c) i1,3TfTT (d) lm4
200. 1r r 499 3i4ci i 3NIç R
(a) ci (b) 'r
(c) 1+1l olt, i ('llq, '13iivi (d) 3TR1T cbl 1lkJ1

SJU 37 Series-A
 Space For Rough Work /

38 sJU
Series-A
 Space For Rough Work I 3PT

SJU 39 SerIes-A
 Space For Rough Work / i4

Series-A 40 sJU