Exam

Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) What is NOT one of the three main parts of a cell? 1)

A) cytoplasm B) plasma membrane
C) extracellular fluid D) nucleus

2) What is NOT a function of the plasma membrane? 2)

A) isolate the cell from its surroundings B) communication with other cells
C) structural support D) catalyze macromolecules into subunits

3) Cytosol is also known as: 3)

A) intracellular fluid (ICF). B) extracellular fluid (ECF).
C) blood plasma. D) the cytoskeleton.

4) The main component of the cytosol is: 4)

A) sugars. B) the nucleus. C) organelles. D) water.

5) Molecular machines that perform specific functions for the cell are: 5)
A) the plasma membrane. B) the cytoskeleton.
C) cytosol. D) organelles.

6) Which of the following best describes the structure of the plasma membrane? 6)
A) The plasma membrane is a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell.
B) The plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell.
C) The plasma membrane is a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma.
D) The plasma membrane is composed of cristae.

7) Which of the following would NOT be a component of the plasma membrane? 7)

A) glycoproteins B) cholesterol C) phospholipids D) cytoskeleton

8) Which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma membrane proteins? 8)

A) acting as enzymes B) stabilizing temperature
C) acting as channels D) acting as carriers

9) Why is cholesterol a critical component of the plasma membrane? 9)

A) Cholesterol transports certain molecules into the cell.
B) Cholesterol serves a role in cell recognition.
C) Cholesterol stabilizes the structure of the plasma membrane when the temperature changes.
D) Cholesterol catalyzes metabolic reactions from its position within the plasma membrane.

10) Which of the following describes the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane structure? 10)
A) Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains.
B) The phospholipid bilayer is embedded with associated proteins, cholesterol and sugars and
has a dynamic arrangement.
C) The lipid bilayer is solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell.
D) The plasma membrane is composed of two layers of proteins embedded with lipids.

1
11) Simple diffusion requires: 11)
A) carrier proteins. B) a concentration gradient.
C) protein channels. D) the use of energy.

12) Carbon dioxide is a small molecule that moves through the phospholipid bilayer with its 12)
concentration gradient by:
A) primary active transport. B) osmosis.
C) simple diffusion. D) facilitated diffusion.

13) Sodium ions are moving with their concentration gradient with the use of a protein channel across 13)
a plasma membrane. Determine the type of membrane transport used to transport these sodium
ions.
A) osmosis B) facilitated diffusion
C) primary active transport D) simple diffusion

14) A substance moves by facilitated diffusion into a cell. What is required for its transport? 14)
A) both ATP and a protein channel
B) either a protein channel or a carrier protein
C) a pump
D) ATP only

15) What is transported across a membrane during osmosis? 15)

A) sugars B) salts C) water D) solutes

16) Aquaporins may be employed during: 16)

A) osmosis. B) endocytosis.
C) simple diffusion. D) active transport.

17) During osmosis, water moves across a selectively permeable membrane toward a solution with: 17)
A) more water molecules. B) the highest solute concentration.
C) the lowest solute concentration. D) the lowest osmotic pressure.

18) A cell is placed into a 3% dextrose solution. At that concentration, the solution is isotonic to the 18)
cell. If the concentration of dextrose in the solution is increased to 5%, the cell is now in a(n):
A) hypertonic solution. B) hypotonic solution.
C) isotonic solution. D) less concentrated solution.

19) Cellular swelling is likely to occur when blood cells are immersed in: 19)
A) hypotonic solutions. B) hypertonic solutions.
C) more concentrated solutions. D) isotonic solutions.

20) Which of the following best describes a cell's response to being placed into an extracellular solution 20)
that is hypertonic to the cytosol?
A) lysis B) crenation
C) no net gain or loss of water D) swelling

2
21) Identify the type of solution into which this cell has been placed. 21)

A) hypertonic
B) hypotonic
C) isotonic
D) a solution with equal solute concentration as the cell

22) The total solute concentration of a red blood cell is about 2%. Sucrose cannot pass through a red 22)
blood cell's plasma membrane, but water and urea can. Which of the following solutions will cause
a red blood cell to shrink?
A) a hypotonic sucrose solution B) a hypertonic urea solution
C) a hypotonic urea solution D) a hypertonic sucrose solution

23) Active transport processes: 23)

A) require cells to expend energy (ATP).
B) move solutes from a higher concentration to a lower concentration.
C) move solutes through the phospholipid bilayer without the use of integral proteins.
D) move solutes with or along their concentration gradients.

24) A process that requires energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called: 24)
A) facilitated transport. B) active transport.
C) passive transport. D) osmosis.

25) The Na+/K + pump transports three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions 25)
moved into the cell. This is an example of:
A) a uniport pump. B) a symport pump.
C) an antiport pump. D) facilitated diffusion.

26) Resting membrane potential is due to unequal concentrations of: 26)

A) water molecules. B) ions.
C) phospholipids and proteins. D) acids and bases.

3
27) Two types of active transport via vesicles are: 27)
A) diffusion and osmosis.
B) primary active transport and secondary active transport.
C) endocytosis and exocytosis.
D) simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion.

28) A white blood cell engulfs a bacterium through a process called: 28)
A) exocytosis. B) primary active transport.
C) facilitated diffusion. D) endocytosis.

29) Which of the following best describes secondary active transport? 29)
A) Secondary active transport involves the movement of a substance into a cell with its
concentration gradient.
B) Secondary active transport occurs when one substance is coupled with the passive transport
of a second substance.
C) Secondary active transport involves the movement of water by osmosis into a cell.
D) Secondary active transport involves the movement of a substance into a cell through a
protein channel with its concentration gradient.

30) Which of the following processes are functionally opposite to one another? 30)
A) osmosis and simple diffusion B) phagocytosis and pinocytosis
C) simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion D) endocytosis and exocytosis

31) Muscle cells require an abundant amount of ATP to function. Therefore, muscle cells have 31)
numerous:
A) ribosomes. B) mitochondria. C) peroxisomes. D) lysosomes.

32) The reactions of oxidative catabolism, or aerobic respiration, can occur in the mitochondrion only 32)
in the presence of:
A) oxygen. B) alkaline pH. C) carbon dioxide. D) hydrogen ions.

33) What is NOT a function of the peroxisome? 33)

A) synthesize certain phospholipids B) oxidize toxic substances
C) break down fatty acids D) protein synthesis

34) Where does protein synthesis occur? 34)

A) lysosomes B) ribosomes C) peroxisomes D) mitochondria

35) You can differentiate the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) from the rough endoplasmic 35)
reticulum (RER) due to the presence of ________ on the RER.
A) bound ribosomes B) bound peroxisomes
C) free ribosomes D) bound lysosomes

36) Which organelle modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for export from the cell? 36)
A) Golgi apparatus B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) mitochondrion D) cytoskeleton

37) What organelle degrades old, worn-out organelles and cell components? 37)
A) lysosome B) rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
C) Golgi apparatus D) peroxisome

4
38) What is NOT part of the endomembrane system? 38)
A) lysosome B) peroxisome
C) Golgi apparatus D) endoplasmic reticulum

39) Place the following steps of endomembrane system function in the correct order. 39)
1. Golgi apparatus receives transport vesicles from the RER.
2. Ribosomes on the RER synthesize proteins.
3. Proteins are packaged into transport vesicles.
4. Modified proteins may be secreted from the cell by exocytosis.
5. Proteins are modified by the Golgi apparatus.
A) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 C) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 D) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

40) Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is FALSE? 40)
A) The cytoskeleton synthesizes proteins.
B) The cytoskeleton provides the characteristic shape and size to a cell.
C) The cytoskeleton supports the plasma and nuclear membranes.
D) The cytoskeleton functions in movement.

41) Microtubules are composed of protein subunits known as: 41)

A) keratin. B) myosin. C) tubulin. D) actin.

42) Human cells that lack centrioles cannot: 42)

A) divide. B) synthesize proteins.
C) metabolize sugars. D) move.

43) Through the microscope, you see cells swimming. Each cell has a long tail that moves in a 43)
whip-like manner. What type of cellular extension have you observed?
A) microvillus B) flagellum C) cilium D) centriole

44) Most of a cell's DNA is located in its: 44)

A) ribosomes. B) Golgi apparatus.
C) nucleus. D) lysosomes.

45) Which of the following components of the nucleus is composed of DNA? 45)
A) chromatin B) nuclear envelope
C) nuclear lamina D) nuclear pores

46) Tightly coiled DNA molecules present during cell division are known as: 46)
A) the nucleosome. B) the nucleoplasm.
C) chromosomes. D) the nuclear envelope.

47) How many homologous chromosome pairs are present in most human cells? 47)
A) 46 B) 23 C) 4 D) 18

48) Within the nucleus, where does ribosome assembly occur? 48)
A) nucleolus B) nuclear pore C) centromere D) nucleoplasm

49) The triplet codes in DNA needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the: 49)
A) cytoplasm. B) anticodon of tRNA.
C) codon of mRNA. D) gene.

5
50) The unit of DNA that specifies a certain amino acid is called a ________, the same unit of mRNA is 50)
called a(n) ________ which, during protein synthesis, is matched by the ________ of tRNA.
A) nucleotide; triplet; gene B) triplet; codon; anticodon
C) gene; triplet; amino acid D) triplet; anticodon; codon

51) Where does transcription of DNA into RNA occur? 51)

A) Golgi apparatus B) peroxisome
C) mitochondrion D) nucleus

52) Place the following steps of protein synthesis in the correct order as they occur. 52)
1. mRNA is produced in the nucleus.
2. Ribosome moves along mRNA.
3. DNA uncoils for transcription.
4. Polypeptide is produced.
5. tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome.
6. mRNA moves to the ribosome.
A) 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4 B) 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4 C) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5 D) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6

6
53) A mutation has changed the sequence in a codon from UGG to UGA. Using the codon chart 53)
provided in this figure, determine the change in the amino acid sequence.

A) from start to stop B) from glycine to glutamine

C) from tryptophan to stop D) from threonine to threonine

54) Transcribe mRNA from this strand of DNA. 54)

TACGGTAGT
A) U A G C C U A C U B) A T G C C A T C A
C) U T G C C U T G U D) A U G C C A U C A

55) How many codons are present in the following strand of mRNA? 55)
UACGGUAGUAUG
A) 3 B) 12 C) 6 D) 4

7
56) Before the mRNA transcribed from a gene can be used for translation into a protein, it must be: 56)
A) folded into its proper three-dimensional configuration.
B) modified to remove exons, introns spliced together, and transported to a tRNA molecule.
C) coated with phospholipids for transport out of the nucleus.
D) modified to remove introns, exons spliced together, and transported into the cytosol.

57) What is the role of RNA polymerase in transcription? 57)

A) RNA polymerase carries the code for the amino acid in a sequence of nucleotides.
B) RNA polymerase signals the end of the mRNA molecule.
C) RNA polymerase binds the DNA promoter and builds an mRNA molecule.
D) RNA polymerase catalyzes the unwinding of the DNA double helix.

58) What are the two steps of protein synthesis that produce a protein from a gene? 58)
A) transcription and translation B) replication and translation
C) replication and transcription D) mitosis and cytokinesis

59) Tetracycline is an antibiotic used to treat infections. It binds with bacterial ribosomes and inhibits 59)
the tRNA molecule from binding to the ribosome. What process is interrupted?
A) transcription B) translation C) replication D) mitosis

60) Provide the tRNA anticodon that is complementary to this mRNA codon: UAC. 60)
A) ATG B) TUG C) AUG D) TAG

61) The tRNA molecule binds a start codon of the mRNA molecule during: 61)
A) transcription. B) elongation. C) termination. D) initiation.

62) Elongation of the polypeptide continues as long as a new tRNA molecule situates in the: 62)
A) E site of the ribosome. B) M site of the ribosome.
C) A site of the ribosome. D) P site of the ribosome.

63) The stage of the cell cycle in which the cell grows and prepares for cell division is called: 63)
A) interphase. B) mitosis. C) metaphase. D) cytokinesis.

64) Cells that stall in a state of the cell cycle known as G 0 are said to be: 64)
A) rapidly dividing cells. B) nondividing cells.
C) dead cells. D) cancerous cells.

65) Cell division occurs during: 65)

A) G2 phase. B) M phase. C) S phase. D) G1 phase.

66) What occurs during the period of interphase known as the S phase? 66)
A) Genetic material is divided between the daughter cells.
B) Proteins, organelles, and cytosol are divided between the daughter cells.
C) DNA replication (synthesis) takes place.
D) The cell is rapidly synthesizing proteins.

8
 67) What is the role of DNA helicase during the S phase of interphase? 67)
A) DNA helicase unwinds the two strands of DNA.
B) DNA helicase builds RNA primers on the existing DNA strands.
C) DNA helicase catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to the new DNA strands.
D) DNA helicase removes the RNA primer and replaces it with DNA.

68) What is the correct order of the phases in the M phase of the cell cycle? 68)
A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B) anaphase, telophase, prophase, metaphase
C) metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase
D) prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

69) If a chemotherapy drug prevents the mitotic spindle from forming during the M phase of the cell 69)
cycle, then what specific phase has been disrupted?
A) prophase B) telophase C) anaphase D) metaphase

70) The completion of cytokinesis accompanies: 70)

A) telophase. B) prophase. C) metaphase. D) anaphase.

71) If a cell has 18 chromosomes and undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes would each 71)
daughter cell have?
A) 72 B) 18 C) 36 D) 9

72) What process divides the cytosol, organelles, and proteins? 72)
A) cytokinesis B) synthesis C) mitosis D) prophase

73) During which phase of mitosis are sister chromatids separated when the mitotic spindle fibers 73)
shorten?
A) prophase B) telophase C) anaphase D) metaphase

74) Programmed cell death is called: 74)

A) apoptosis. B) neoplasia. C) metastasis. D) hydrolysis.

75) Cancer cells: 75)

A) do not spread into other body tissues.
B) are indistinguishable from normal body cells.
C) may exhibit metastasis.
D) have a slower mitotic rate than normal body cells.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

76) Discuss the components of the cytoplasm.

77) Describe the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane.

78) Differentiate between integral proteins and peripheral proteins found associated with the plasma membrane.

79) Predict water movement across a membrane by osmosis when a concentration gradient is present.

9
 80) Explain why humans should avoid drinking salt water.

81) Explain why a cell may use facilitated diffusion rather than simple diffusion for transport.

82) Summarize the process of phagocytosis.

83) Why it is critical that the peroxisome is a membrane-bounded organelle?

84) How are the products of free ribosomes different from bound ribosomes?

85) You are looking at a slide during laboratory using a microscope. How can you tell the difference between cilia
and microvilli?

86) List the three main structures associated with the nucleus.

87) Describe the relationship between genes, triplets, codons, and amino acids.

88) Summarize the two steps of protein synthesis.

89) Explain the roles of messenger and transfer RNA in protein synthesis.

90) Summarize the cell's activities during the G1, S, and G2 phases of the cell cycle.

91) Explain semiconservative replication as it relates to DNA synthesis, or replication.

92) Describe the role of the mitotic spindle during mitosis.

93) Discuss what is accomplished by mitosis and cytokinesis during the M phase.

94) Determine the differences between cell division of normal cells and that of cancer cells.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

95) The cytosol and intracellular fluid (ICF) both refer to the fluid portion of the cytoplasm. 95)

96) The fluid mosaic model defines the plasma membrane as a structure composed of multiple 96)
components, including the phospholipid bilayer, proteins, carbohydrates, and other lipids that
exist in a dynamic arrangement.

97) During osmosis, the solvent moves across a selectively permeable membrane from a solution with 97)
a higher solute concentration to a solution with a lower solute concentration.

98) Cells may lyse when placed into a hypertonic environment. 98)

99) Mr. Weddington was admitted to the hospital with chronic heart failure. His feet and legs were 99)
swollen with fluid. He should be given a hypotonic drip to draw fluid out of his cells.

10
 100) Both cilia and flagella are constructed of a ring of nine pairs of microtubules surrounding two 100)
central microtubules.

101) Nuclear pores connect the cytoplasm with the nucleoplasm and allow substances to move between 101)
the two areas.

102) Sister chromatids of a chromosome are joined at a region called the centrosome. 102)

103) To make a protein, DNA first is replicated into RNA, and then RNA is transcribed into amino 103)
acids.

104) A tRNA molecule carries an anticodon which is complementary to a specific mRNA codon. 104)

105) You determine a cell to lack both centrioles and mitotic spindle fibers and conclude it will not be 105)
able to complete mitosis.

106) Cytokinesis occurs concurrently with telophase of the M phase of the cell cycle. 106)

MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.

Match the following information to the correct osmotic solution.

107) Cells gain water A) isotonic

107)

108) Cells crenate B) hypertonic

108)

109) Solute concentration in extracellular C) hypotonic

109)
fluid is less than the solute
concentration in the cell

110) ECF has about the same solution

110)
concentration as the cytosol

111) ECF has a greater osmotic pressure

111)
than the cytosol

Match the following phases of the cell cycle to the appropriate image or description.

112) Spindle fibers line up the sister A) metaphase

112)
chromatids in the middle of the cell

11
 113) Cleavage furrow forms A) telophase and cytokinesis
113)

114) Daughter chromosomes are pulled to B) prophase

114)
opposite poles of the cell as the
spindle fibers shorten C) anaphase

115) Nuclear envelope begins to break

115)
apart, the mitotic spindle forms, and
chromatin compacts into
chromosomes

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

116) Testosterone, a type of lipid known as a steroid, is moving along its concentration gradient. Determine and
describe the specific type of membrane transport that will move testosterone into the cell.

117) You are thirsty and stranded on an island with two sources of water to drink. You have the option to drink the
salty ocean water or to drink muddy, fresh water. Which water will you choose to drink to quench your thirst?
Explain your selection.

118) Discuss lysosome function and explain why lysosomal storage diseases are fatal.

119) Cyanide interferes with oxidative catabolism. Determine what organelle is affected by cyanide and predict the
effects of cyanide on how the organelle functions.

120) Erythromycin is an antibiotic that prevents the tRNA molecule from moving from the A site to the P site on the
rRNA complex during translation in bacterial ribosomes. Predict the effects of this drug on protein synthesis.

121) Vincristine is a vinca alkaloid used as a cancer treatment. This drug disrupts the formation of the mitotic
spindle fibers. Why do you think vincristine is an effective chemotherapy drug? Explain the effects of this drug
on cell division.

12
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3

1) C
2) D
3) A
4) D
5) D
6) B
7) D
8) B
9) C
10) B
11) B
12) C
13) B
14) B
15) C
16) A
17) B
18) A
19) A
20) B
21) B
22) D
23) A
24) B
25) C
26) B
27) C
28) D
29) B
30) D
31) B
32) A
33) D
34) B
35) A
36) A
37) A
38) B
39) C
40) A
41) C
42) A
43) B
44) C
45) A
46) C
47) B
48) A
49) D
50) B
13
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3

51) D
52) A
53) C
54) D
55) D
56) D
57) C
58) A
59) B
60) C
61) D
62) C
63) A
64) B
65) B
66) C
67) A
68) A
69) A
70) A
71) B
72) A
73) C
74) A
75) C
76) The cytoplasm includes the intracellular fluid component known also as cytosol, the organelles, and the cytoskeleton.
The cytosol, or intracellular fluid, is the fluid portion of the cytoplasm. Organelles are like molecular machines that
perform specific functions within the cell. The cytoskeleton consists of a network of protein filaments that support the
cell, help create and maintain its shape, and hold the organelles in place.
77) The fluid mosaic model defines the plasma membrane as a dynamic structure of multiple components. The plasma
membrane contains many components in addition to the phospholipid bilayer. Proteins, other lipids, and
carbohydrates are scattered throughout the phospholipid bilayer. These components are reminiscent of a mosaic made
of many small pieces. The current membrane model reflects the dynamic state in which the structure of the plasma
membrane changes from moment to moment. Phospholipids and other membrane components shift and move
rapidly to provide fluidity. These components are critical to membrane function.
78) Integral proteins typically span the entire width of the membrane. When they do reach both sides of the membrane
they are known as transmembrane proteins. Peripheral proteins are found only on one side of the membrane. They
are loosely bound to the membrane surface or to integral proteins, and can move horizontally along the membrane
surface.
79) Water moves from a solution with a lower solute concentration (and more water molecules) across a membrane to a
solution with a higher solute concentration (and fewer water molecules). The net movement of water molecules stops
once equilibrium is reached and the concentrations of the two solutions are equal.
80) Salt water is likely to be hypertonic to human cells. Cells exposed to a hypertonic solution will crenate and possibly
die as water flows out of the cell in an attempt to reach equilibrium. Recall that water flows to the hypertonic, or more
highly concentrated, solution.
81) Simple diffusion involves the transport of nonpolar solutes (such as hydrocarbons and lipids, and gases such as O 2
and CO2) that pass through the phospholipid bilayer without assistance from the membrane proteins. Facilitated
diffusion involves the transport of charged or polar substances (such as ions and glucose) that cross the phospholipid
bilayer with the help of a membrane protein.

14
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3

82) Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which a cell ingests large particles such as bacteria, dead body cells, or parts
of cells.
1) Particles, such as a bacterium, bind to a receptor in the phagocyte's plasma membrane.
2) Pseudopods surround the bacterium.
3) The pseudopods form an endocytic vesicle and form a phagosome in the cytosol.
4) The phagosome fuses with a lysosome and the bacterium is digested.
83) Peroxisomes form hydrogen peroxide which accumulates within the peroxisome. An enzyme catalyzes the reaction by
turning the excess hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. Without compartmentalizing excess hydrogen peroxide
in the peroxisome, this toxic chemical would damage the cell.
84) Free ribosomes make proteins that are used in the cytosol while bound ribosomes are associated with the membranes
of other cellular structures. Bound ribosomes typically make proteins that will be exported from the cell, transported
to certain organelles such as lysosomes, or inserted into a membrane.
85) Cilia are much larger than microvilli. Individual cilia are visible with a light microscope. By contrast, microvilli appear
only as a thickened border along a cell's surface and can only be viewed clearly with a more powerful type of
microscope.
86) The nucleus includes:
1) an enclosing membrane, known as the nuclear envelope,
2) DNA and its associated proteins,
3) the nucleolus.
87) Genes are regions of DNA that are arranged in groups of three nucleotides called triplets. Each DNA triplet is
transcribed into an mRNA codon. Each codon is matched with an amino acid during translation using tRNA.
88) Transcription and translation are the two steps of protein synthesis. During transcription, the code specified by a gene
is copied inside the nucleus, creating a molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA). During translation, ribosomes outside
the nucleus read the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA molecule and synthesize a polypeptide chain containing the
correct amino acid sequence.
89) Messenger RNA (mRNA) is built from a template of DNA. Each amino acid is specified by a corresponding mRNA
codon. Transfer RNA (tRNA) acts as a molecular translator which has an anticodon at one end and the corresponding
amino acid at the other end. The anticodon contains a sequence of three nucleotides complementary to a specific
mRNA codon.
90) During the G1 phase of interphase, the cell performs its normal metabolic functions, a period of growth occurs, and
the cell carries out rapid protein synthesis. Proteins are used to make new organelles and components of the
cytoskeleton. During the S phase of interphase, DNA replication (synthesis) occurs. A copy of the DNA is needed for
the process of cell division. Finally, during the G2 phase, another period of growth and rapid protein synthesis occurs.
Proteins necessary for cell division are made and the centrioles are duplicated.
91) During DNA synthesis, or replication, the two strands of DNA separate and serve as templates on which a new
double strand of DNA is built. At the completion of DNA synthesis, two identical double helices result. Each double
helix contains one old strand of DNA and one newly formed strand of DNA. The preservation of one original strand
of DNA is why this replicative process is known as semiconservative replication.
92) The mitotic spindle is a necessary structure of mitosis. The mitotic spindle is composed of microtubules and organized
into spindle fibers by the cell's centrosomes. The spindle fibers attach to each sister chromatid at the centromere and
assist with their separation during anaphase of the M phase.
93) Mitosis and cytokinesis are two parts of the M phase of the cell cycle that overlap. Mitosis occurs when the genetic
material is divided between two daughter cells. Cytokinesis occurs when the cell's proteins, organelles, and cytosol
are divided between the daughter cells.
94) Normal, noncancerous cells pass through checkpoints in which monitoring occurs at specific points in the cell cycle.
Cells that cannot pass the checkpoints and cannot be repaired undergo a process of programmed cell death known as
apoptosis. When changes in the DNA of a cell cause uncontrolled cell division, the resulting cells may form a growth
or a mass known as a tumor. Benign tumors are confined to their original locations while cancerous tumors invade
other tissues, a process called metastasis. Cancer cells are not inhibited by high cellular density or loss of their
anchorage to other cells.
15
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3

95) TRUE
96) TRUE
97) FALSE
98) FALSE
99) FALSE
100) TRUE
101) TRUE
102) FALSE
103) FALSE
104) TRUE
105) TRUE
106) TRUE
107) C
108) B
109) C
110) A
111) B
112) A
113) A
114) C
115) B
116) Simple diffusion, a specific type of passive transport, is the process by which testosterone will move along its
concentration gradient into the cell. Lipids, such as testosterone, are agreeable to the nonpolar fatty acid tail region of
the phospholipid bilayer. No energy is expended by the cell to move testosterone with its concentration gradient.
117) Choose the hypotonic fresh water. Hypotonic solutions are those in which the solution is less concentrated than the
cytosol. Water moves into the cytosol by osmosis, which will rehydrate your cells since you are thirsty. (Your immune
system can help handle contaminants in the muddy fresh water). The salty ocean water is hypertonic to our cells and
will cause our cells to lose water further and crenate.
118) Lysosomes are membrane-bounded sacs that contain water and set of enzymes called acid hydrolases. Acid
hydrolases catalyze hydrolysis reactions in which proteins, carbohydrates, and fatty acids are degraded into smaller
units. Subunits are released into the cytosol for disposal or use in various metabolic reactions. Lysosomal storage
diseases result from a deficiency of one or more of the acid hydrolases of the lysosomes. Certain undigested molecules
accumulate within the lysosomes. Symptoms depend on which specific enzyme or enzymes is/are missing. Death can
often result from organ damage and/or neural dysfunction. Patients with a lysosomal storage disease often die during
early childhood.
119) Oxidative catabolism, or aerobic respiration, is the process of breaking down organic fuels in the presence of oxygen
so that ATP can be synthesized. This process occurs in the mitochondrion, a membrane-bounded organelle. Cyanide
disrupts this process and prevents ATP production. Without ATP, bodily functions cease to work and death occurs.
120) Translation is the process in which the tRNA molecule acts as a translator. The function of tRNA is to pick up a
specific amino acid from the cytosol and transfer it to the growing polypeptide chain at the ribosome. Since
erythromycin prevents tRNA molecule movement from an A site to a P site, the process of elongation is inhibited. The
elongation cycle is when the peptide chain gains an animo acid and the ribosome shifts to the next mRNA codon. As a
result of this drug, the polypeptide chain will not be made by bacterial ribosomes.
121) During prophase of mitosis, or the M phase, a structure called the mitotic spindle forms. The mitotic spindle fibers
from each centriole pair attach to each sister chromatid during prophase. During metaphase, the spindle fibers from
opposite poles tug the sister chromatids so that they are lined up in the middle of the cell. Sister chromatids are pulled
apart by the shortening of the spindle fibers. Since vincristine disrupts the formation of mitotic spindle fibers,
daughter chromosomes will not be separated into two daughter cells. Thus, the formation of new cells is inhibited by
vincristine.

16