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Financial and Economic Concepts Quiz

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to various aspects of the Indian economy, polity, and governance. Each question presents statements regarding specific topics, asking the reader to determine the correctness of the statements and select the appropriate answer. Topics include financial councils, pulses, inflation, RBI functions, NBFCs, tax collection, public goods, and constitutional amendments.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
80 views38 pages

Financial and Economic Concepts Quiz

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to various aspects of the Indian economy, polity, and governance. Each question presents statements regarding specific topics, asking the reader to determine the correctness of the statements and select the appropriate answer. Topics include financial councils, pulses, inflation, RBI functions, NBFCs, tax collection, public goods, and constitutional amendments.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

[Q] Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Stability and Development Council

(FSDC):

1. The Governor of the RBI is the ex-officio Chairman of the FSDC.

2. The Council meets once every six months.

3. The Council is responsible for coordinating India’s international interface with the Financial Action
Task Force (FATF).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to pulses, consider the following statements:

1. Being leguminous in nature, all pulses help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air.

2. The Kharif season contributes a higher share in pulses production than the Rabi season.

3. Gram is the most dominant pulse, having a 60 percent share in the total production in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following benchmarks:

1. Repo Rate

2. Consumer Price Index

3. Three-Month Treasury Bill yield

4. Six-Month Treasury Bill yield

How many of the above is/are used by the banks to link their retail lending rates under the External
Benchmark Lending Rate system?
(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

[Q] With reference to food inflation in India, consider the following statements:

1. Food and beverages have the highest weightage in the Consumer Price Index (CPI).

2. The weightage of food in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is higher than that in the CPI.

3. The Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) shows inflation on every food item covered by the CPI.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consider the following statements:

1. The RBI transfers the dividend to the Government only after making provisions for its operational
expenditures.

2. A fixed amount of dividend is transferred to the Government every year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] With reference to the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), consider the following
statements:

1. Unlike the banks, the NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.


2. All the categories of the NBFCs are presently regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

3. Unlike the banks, the loans given by the NBFCs are treated as Non-Performing Assets (NPAs)
only after they are due for more than 180 days.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to tax collection, consider the following statements:

1. The tax revenue, as a percent of the GDP of India, has steadily increased in the last five years.

2. The collection of the direct taxes has continuously surpassed the indirect taxes in the last five
years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Which of the following best describes the concept of “Smile Curve”, sometimes seen in the news?

(a) Change in the wages of the workers

with increase in the company’s profits.

(b) Increase in consumer satisfaction with decrease in the prices.

(c) Change in levels of value addition at different stages of value chains.

(d) Increase in the profits of the companies with increase in the demand of its products.

[Q] With reference to the classification of economies, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: As per the World Bank, India belongs to the "Lower Middle" group.

Statement-II: The World Bank classifies the world's economies based on the estimates of the GNI per
capita at nominal exchange rate.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct

[Q] Consider the following economic activities:

1. Venture capitalists investing in Indian start-ups.

2. Automobile companies converting sheets of steel into cars.

3. Customer services offered by a business process outsourcing unit.

4. Food processor converting farm produce into packaged food.

How many of the above constitutes/constitute activity/activities under the real sector in the
economy?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

[Q] Consider the following drivers of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India:

1. Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE)

2. Gross Capital Formation (GCF)

3. Government Final Consumption Expenditure (GFCE)

4. Net Exports
Which of the following correctly denotes the descending order of the contribution of these components to
India’s GDP?

(a) 2-3-1-4

(b) 1-2-3-4

(c) 4-3-2-1

(d) 3-4-2-1

[Q] During an election year, the Finance Minister presents an ‘Interim Budget’. The aforesaid
document is presented because this is mandated by

(a) Long-standing Parliamentary Convention.

(b) Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of India.

(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India.

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.

[Q] With reference to oilseeds production in India, consider the following statements:

1. India is the world’s largest producer of

oilseeds.

2. Amongst different categories of oilseeds, mustard accounts for the highest share.

3. The production of oilseeds in the Rabi season is more than the production in the Kharif season.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. The rate of growth of the Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last five
years.

2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last five
years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Consider the following:

1. Police services

2. Street lighting

3. Government subsidies

4. Unified Payments Interface (UPI)

How many of the above is/are the example(s) of public goods?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

[Q] With reference to the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City), consider the following
statements:

1. All financial transactions undertaken in the GIFT City are denominated in foreign currency.

2. GIFT-SEZ is the only place in India which allows offshore transactions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


[Q] In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate
definition of ‘freedom’?

(a) The ability to express opinions and beliefs without any fear of censorship or persecution.

(b) Equal opportunity and access to resources for all citizens.

(c) The capacity to exercise rights and make choices without any external constraint.

(d) Permits the exercise of the individual’s powers of reason and judgement.

[Q] Which one of the following best defines the

term ‘equality’?

(a) Treating the people with equal respect and consideration in an identical way.

(b) It implies the elimination of all forms of differences among the people.

(c) All should be entitled to the same rights and opportunities to develop their skills and talents.

(d) Equal distribution of resources among different sections of the society.

[Q] Consider the following statements regarding the Charter Act of 1833:

1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal, the Governor-General of India, and vested in him all
civil and military powers.

2. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.

3. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which, henceforth,
became a purely administrative body.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble to the Constitution of India:

1. The Supreme Court of India declared the ‘Preamble’ as a part of the Constitution in the Berubari
Union case (1960).
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) added three new words to the Preamble – ‘Socialist’,
‘Secular’ and ‘Unity’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Which of the following is/are included under the Fundamental Duties?

1. To promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between
nations.

2. To provide opportunities for education to one’s child or ward between the age of six and sixteen
years.

3. To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Q] Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Rights are inherent to all individuals and do not require validation from the State.

(b) Rights are the entitlements or justified claims by the citizens against the fellow citizens.

(c) Rights place an obligation upon the State to act in certain kinds of ways.

(d) Rights are the privileges granted by the State, subject to the societal approval.

[Q] With reference to the Council of Ministers, consider the following statements:

1. The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the President can be inquired into the court of
law.
2. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.

3. It is required that an order of the President for a public act should be countersigned by a Minister.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to ‘judicial review’, consider the following statements:

1. The term ‘judicial review’ has nowhere been mentioned in the Constitution of India.

2. It is applicable to the legislative enactments, but not on the executive orders.

3. The Acts and Regulations included in the Ninth Schedule are immune from being challenged on
the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the office of the Governor, consider the following statements:

1. The executive power of the state shall be vested in the Governor.

2. Like the President, the Governor has both constitutional and situational discretion.

3. The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers is binding on the Governor.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three


(d) None

[Q] Consider the following:

1. Introduction and passage of Ordinary Bills.

2. Approval of Ordinances issued by the Governor.

3. Participation in the election of the President of India and representatives of the state in the Rajya
Sabha.

4. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the State Public Service Commission.

In how many of the above instances the powers and status of the State Legislative Council are equal to
that of the State Legislative Assembly?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

[Q] With reference to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, consider the following
statements:

1. The Act provides for a Gram Panchayat as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj System.

2. All the members of the Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected
directly by the people.

3. It provides for the reservation of seats for the backward classes in every Panchayat in proportion
to their population.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution:

1. Protection against arrest under Article 22 of the Constitution is applicable both in the civil and the
criminal cases.
2. Article 19 is available to the companies and the corporations, but Article 20 is not available to the
companies and the corporations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the idea of the Directive Principles of State Policy from the
Irish Constitution.

2. The 93rd Constitutional Amendment, 2005 added a new Directive Principle related to the
cooperative societies.

3. The Directive Principles of State Policy are listed under Part V of the Indian Constitution.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements regarding the Committee of Privileges of the Parliament:

1. The Lok Sabha Committee has 10 members, while the Rajya Sabha Committee has 15
members.

2. The Presiding Officer of the House refers the issue of defection to the Committee of Privileges.

3. In the Rajya Sabha, it is headed by the Deputy Chairperson, while in the Lok Sabha, there is no
such rule.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two


(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements:

1. The posts of the Deputy Prime Minister and the Deputy Chief Minister are mentioned in the
Constitution of India.

2. The Deputy Prime Minister and the Deputy Chief Minister have the same powers, as that of the
Union Cabinet Ministers and the State Cabinet Ministers, respectively.

3. In the official table of precedence, the Deputy Prime Minister is ranked the same as the Union
Cabinet Minister.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India provides for customary address by the President of India in the
Parliament.

2. The President of India has discretionary power in reading out the text of the address.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts and their judges:

1. The Chief Justice of India can transfer a judge from one High Court to another.

2. The tenure of the High Court judges is fixed by the Constitution to maintain judicial independence
of the Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Recently, more than 140 Members of the Parliament (MPs) were suspended from the Parliament.
In this context, consider the following statements regarding the suspension of the MPs:

1. The procedure for suspension of the MPs is provided in the Constitution of India.

2. The MPs can be suspended for a maximum of one year.

3. The power of suspension of the MPs lies with the Presiding Officer of the House.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), consider the following
statements:

1. It is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

2. The Index evaluates the climate mitigation efforts of all the member states of the United Nations.

3. India's performance in the CCPI ranking has steadily increased over the years.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to ‘microalgae’, consider the following statements:


1. They serve as a primary source of nutrition of the aquatic organisms.

2. They are rich in lipid content, which can be converted into biofuel.

3. Rhodopsin is a protein activated by microalgae in response to nutrient unavailability in the ocean


to generate energy.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the 28th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) of the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), consider the following statements:

1. The Global Methane Pledge was launched during this summit.

2. The COP 28 Declaration on climate change and health was signed by India.

3. ALTÉRRA, an investment initiative aimed at mobilizing $250 billion by 2030, was introduced
during this COP.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Green Energy Corridor, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to synchronize the electricity produced from renewable resources with the conventional
power stations in the grid.

2. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA) is the implementing agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] With reference to the Gulf Stream, consider the following statements:

1. It is a warm current that raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America.

2. It is formed by the convergence of warm waters from the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico.

3. It is the Atlantic branch of the thermohaline circulation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following:

1. Tree squirrels

2. Bees

3. Lemurs

How many of the above are invertebrate pollinators?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements:

1. Among the states in India, the highest elephant population is in Karnataka.

2. West Bengal has the maximum number of elephant corridors across the country at present.

3. The Sigur Elephant Corridor connects the Western Ghats to the Eastern Ghats.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to microplastics, consider the following statements:

1. These are small plastic pieces, less than 10 millimetres in diameter.

2. Bags and fishing nets are the examples of secondary microplastics.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] With reference to the Western Tragopan, consider the following statements:

1. It is endemic to the north-west Himalayas.

2. It is the state bird of Himachal Pradesh.

3. It is listed as ‘critically endangered’ on the IUCN Red List of species.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With respect to the “Ecological Adaptation in Hydrophytes”, consider the following conditions:

1. The roots are poorly developed, and they are very thin and short.
2. They require too many stomatato regulate the water loss.

3. Highly developed vascular system and mechanical tissues.

How many of the above conditions is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following pairs:

S.N. Type (Behavioural strategies of adaptations in the animals) Example(s)

1. Hibernation Northern ground squirrels.

2. Aestivation Ground squirrels in the south-west deserts.

3. Mullerian mimicry Wasp beetle and hoverfly.

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With respect to the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, consider the following
statements:

1. Only the Chief Conservators of Forests (CCF) of the state can permit hunting or killing of the wild
animals specified in Schedule I (Mammals).

2. Under the Act, the breeders of Appendix I scheduled species must apply for a license within 180
days of the Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] With respect to the “Atmospheric River”,

consider the following statements:

1. It is a plume of moisture that helps to carry saturated air from higher latitudes to the tropics.

2. Pineapple Express is an atmospheric river which transports moisture from the tropical Pacific
around Hawaii to the US and the Canadian West Coasts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] With respect to the “Trees Outside Forests in India (TOFI)”, consider the following statements:

1. It is a five-year programme launched by NITI Aayog.

2. The initiative seeks to leverage the potential of trees outside the forests to contribute to
environmental sustainability, livelihood enhancement and ecosystem services.

3. It has been launched in all Indian states.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With respect to the “Action for Climate Empowerment (ACE)”, consider the following statements:

1. It is a term used by the UNDP.

2. Its goal is to empower individuals and communities to contribute to climate change mitigation and
adaptation efforts.
3. Public access to information is one of the six elements of the Action for Climate Empowerment.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With respect to “Lake Titicaca”, consider

the following statements:

1. It is a brackish water lake.

2. It is located in the Alps mountains between Peru and Bolivia.

3. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements:

1. Acid rain is produced when sulphur oxides (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) reach the
stratosphere and react with ozone (O3).

2. Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) are produced due to the combustion of fossil
fuels and have no natural origin.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


[Q] With respect to the “State of the World’s Migratory Species Report”, consider the following
statements:

1. It is a Biennial Report, compiled and published by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).

2. As per the Report, nearly half of the listed migratory species are showing improvement in their
population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] The 'Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana' is a scheme to

(a) provide subsidised solar panels to the MSMEs for the generation of solar power for their in-house
consumption.

(b) provide solar submersible water pumps to the farmers having more than one acre of irrigated
land.

(c) make the electricity bills of the poor and the middle-class citizens 'zero', while helping them make
substantial gains from the rooftops solar panels.

(d) provide aid to the municipal corporations to create charging infrastructure for the EVs, using self-
produced solar power.

[Q] With reference to the BRICS-led New Development Bank (NDB), consider the following
statements:

1. No member can increase its share of capital in the NDB without the consent from others.

2. The countries outside the BRICS grouping cannot join the New Development Bank.

3. It supports only the private projects through loans, guarantees, equity participation and other
financial instruments.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three


(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), consider the following
statements:

1. It is the second largest intergovernmental body after the United Nations.

2. It aims to preserve the Islamic values, safeguard and defend the national sovereignty and to
contribute to international peace and security.

3. It holds an Islamic Summit every year to make policy decisions that concern its member states.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA), consider the following
statements:

1. It makes recommendations for the peaceful settlement of any situation among the countries.

2. It is responsible for appointing the non- permanent members to the Security Council.

3. It is the only United Nations organ where all member states have equal representation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following countries:

1. Romania

2. Greece
3. Russia

4. Poland

5. Ukraine

6. Turkey

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a boundary with the Black Sea?

(a) Only three

(b) Only four

(c) Only five

(d) All six

[Q] With reference to the Global South, consider the following statements:

1. It refers to the countries characterized as developing, less developed or underdeveloped.

2. The term ‘Global South’ was first coined at the 18th G20 Summit hosted by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] With reference to the Atlantic Declaration, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) It was signed between the member states of NATO to boost military partnership.

(b) It is a legally binding international declaration to combat wildlife trafficking.

(c) It focuses on strengthening the supply chain of critical minerals across the globe.

(d) It was signed between the United States and the United Kingdom to promote a “new type of
innovative partnership”, which includes technology, economy and trade.

[Q] With reference to the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF), consider the
following statements:

1. It was jointly launched by the member countries of the Group of Twenty (G20).
2. Unlike the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), the IPEF is not a traditional
free trade agreement.

3. India agreed to all the four pillars of the IPEF.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT), consider the following statements:

1. It creates the Permanent Indus Commission to resolve questions about the implementation of the
Treaty.

2. It allows India to use the western river waters for irrigation use and unlimited consumptive use.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Consider the following pairs:

S.N. Region often in the news Country

1. Tigray Egypt

2. Aceh Province Armenia

3. KermanIran

4. Brazzaville Congo

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one


(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

[Q] Consider the following statements with reference to Electrochemical Cells:

1. Most Lithium-ion batteries require rare elements for their cathode materials which are non-
renewable.

2. Sodium-ion batteries have higher energy density than Lithium-ion batteries.

3. Sodium-ion batteries are generally cheaper than Lithium-ion batteries.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Chandrayaan-3 mission, consider the following statements:

1. Chandrayaan-3 successfully showcased its ability to land on the near side of the Moon.

2. The mission consisted of an orbiter, rover, and lander.

3. The rover aims to collect lunar regolith and bring the samples back to the Earth.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements with reference to human brain:

1. Spinal Cord acts as a two-way pathway for transmitting information between the brain and rest of
the body.
2. Forebrain forms the largest part of the brain and consists of cerebrum and cerebellum.

3. Medulla oblongata is responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to Chromosomes, consider the following statements:

1. Chromosomes are the thread-like structures that are present in the cytoplasm.

2. Humans have 23 pairs of autosomes which determine non-sex-linked traits.

3. Chromosomal disorders may occur due to absence or excess of one or more chromosomes.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following applications:

1. Barrier material remedy for waste sites

2. Filter and remove contaminants from water

3. Liming agent in agriculture

4. Making mineral wool for insulation purposes

How many of the above are the applications of steel slag?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four


[Q] Consider the following statements with reference to Human papillomavirus (HPV):

1. Human papillomavirus is a single- stranded RNA virus.

2. The virus infects the reproductive tract of women and is not able to infect men.

3. HPV vaccines presently offer up to 90% cure of cancer.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements with reference to Trans Fat:

1. Trans fats are unsaturated fatty acids with no known natural source of origin.

2. Their high melting point and stability make them ideal for food processing.

3. Trans fat can clog arteries and trigger inflammation in the body.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following pairs:

1. Ossification test Measures DNA methylation levels to estimate the chronological age of the
subject.

2. Epigenetic clock technique Determines age based on the degree of fusion of bones by
taking the X-ray of bones.

3. Carbon-14 dating Measures the ratio of Carbon-

14 to Carbon-12 to determine how many years have passed since an organism died.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?


(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements with reference to end-to-end encryption (E2EE):

1. E2EE ensures that exchanged information is only decrypted by the sender, receiver and the
messaging service provider, in general.

2. E2EE primarily uses symmetric encryption to protect privacy of exchanged information.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Consider the following states:

1. Assam

2. Sikkim

3. West Bengal

4. Tripura

5. Manipur

6. Mizoram

How many of the above-mentioned Indian states share a land border with Bangladesh?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five


[Q] Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Srinagar?

(a) Ujjain

(b) Hyderabad

(c) Mumbai

(d) Raipur

[Q] With reference to river Indus, consider the following statements:

1. The source of river Indus is the same as that of Chandra River.

2. It cuts across the Ladakh range, creates a gorge near Gilgit in Jammu and Kashmir.

3. Shigar, Gasting and the Dras river are the tributaries of Indus River.

4. The Indus flows in India only through Jammu and Kashmir.

How many of the above statements is/ are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

[Q] With reference to the natural vegetation of India, consider the following statements:

1. Tendu, palas, and axlewood are the common trees of dry deciduous forests.

2. White cedar and kail are species of semi evergreen forests.

3. Tropical thorn forests are found in Haryana and Madhya Pradesh.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the northern plains, consider the following statements:
1. The plains are formed by the alluvial deposits brought by the rivers the Indus and the
Brahmaputra.

2. Bhangar and Khadar plains have characteristic features of mature stage of fluvial erosional and
depositional landforms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Consider the following statements:

Statement–I: The summer months witness a drop in air pressure in the northern India.

Statement-II: In July, the Inter-tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) shifts to the Indo- Gangetic Plain,
located around 25°N latitude.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct.

[Q] Consider the following statements regarding Seagrasses:

1. Seagrasses are found in salty and brackish waters at a shallow depth.

2. It is called the foundational plant species or ecosystem engineers.

3. The largest seagrass bed in the country is Gulf of Khambhat.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three


(d) None.

[Q] Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike the Suez Canal, Panama Canal is a freshwater canal.

2. Unlike the Suez Canal, Panama Canal is located above the sea level.

3. Panama Canal can accommodate ships with larger size as compared to Suez Canal.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only one

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Silver Iodide particles are used for inducing cloud seeding.

Statement-II: Silver iodide particles have crystalline structure similar to ice crystals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct.

[Q] With reference to the urban conditions of the Indus valley civilization, consider the following
statements:

1. Citadel construction was limited to the large towns.

2. Urban settlements were based on the economic conditions of the towns.

3. Special places were created for the craftsmen in the cities.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Gana or Sangha system of political development in ancient India, consider
the following statements:

1. Ganas were the earliest form of democratic systems where actual power lies with the people.

2. There was no hereditary rule under Gana republics.

3. Kshatriya families were the ruling elites under Gana system.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the marriage system in ancient India, consider the following statements:

1. Marriage in one’s own sapinda was restricted only to top three varnas.

2. Stree-dhan could be given to a woman once in lifetime during her marriage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] This stone pillar in Vidisha was constructed by a Greek ambassador from Taxila. The pillar is one
of the earliest examples of Vaishnavite pillar of India. This pillar is

(a) Topra Pillar

(b) Sarnath Pillar


(c) Garuda Pillar

(d) Rummindei Pillar

[Q] With reference to Medieval India, consider the following statements:

1. The slave trade was common and the slaves were exchanged as gifts.

2. Acquiring female slaves for domestic labour was expensive and difficult.

3. Women did not participate in production market and were confined to the private spaces of their
home.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Bhakti Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It included the tradition of worshiping specific deities, as well as abstract forms of the God.

2. The earliest Bhakti Movements were led by the Alvars, who were the devotees of Shiva.

3. Women who joined this tradition renounced their social obligations by joining alternative orders
and becoming nuns.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Amara-Nayaka system, consider the following statements:

1. The system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara empire.

2. The Amara–Nayakas were given the territories from where they collected taxes and other dues.

3. The kings asserted their control over the Nayakas by transferring them from one place to another.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Medieval Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The term ‘Pahi–Kashta’ was used for the peasants who were residents of the village in which they
held their lands.

2. ‘Muzarian’ was the term used for the military commanders in the Indo– Persian sources of the
Mughal period.

3. The term ‘Jins-i Kamil’ was used for the basic staple crops grown for the royal houses.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Panchayats in the 16th and the 17th century medieval India, consider the
following statements:

1. The post of headman of the Village Panchayat was hereditary, who was selected by the local
Zamindar.

2. The Panchayat derived its funds from the contributions made by the individuals to a common
financial pool.

3. One of the key functions of the Panchayat was to uphold the cast boundaries among the
residents of the village.

How many of the above statements is/are

incorrect?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three


(d) None

[Q] With reference to Medieval India, consider the following statements:

1. ‘Gopurams’ in the temple architecture were the mark of imperial authority, as they often became
taller than the central shrine.

2. The Virupaksha temple was commissioned and completed during the reign of
Krishnadeva Raya.

3. The principal deity of the Vitthala temple (Hampi) is a form of Shiva generally worshipped in
Maharashtra.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. Shivaji, the founder of the Maratha kingdom, acknowledged the supremacy of the Mughal
emperor.

2. By the Sangola Agreement, the office of the Peshwa emerged as the real head of the Maratha
kingdom.

3. In the Maratha administrative system, the ‘Sarsubahdars’ were the officers superintending the big
provinces.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements:

1. The Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829 to declare ‘Sati’ as punishable was issued under William
Bentinck.
2. Female infanticide was declared illegal in India for the first time by William Bentinck.

3. William Bentinck regularized and licensed the opium trade.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements with reference to the history of India:

1. Ranjit Singh established his control over the territory from the Sutlej to the Jhelum rivers.

2. For governance in the provinces, Ranjit

Singh appointed ‘Nazims’.

3. Ranjit Singh followed the ‘Mahadari system’ for the payment of salaries to the officers.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] With reference to the Ryotwari system for land revenue during the colonial rule in India, which
one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Elphinstone extended the Ryotwari land tenure in Malabar and Dindugal regions of Madras.

(b) The Rule of 1864 in Madras fixed state demand to 30% of the gross produce as revenue.

(c) Compared to the Permanent and the Mahalwari systems, it was the predominant land tenure
system in British India.

(d) The registered holder of land was not allowed to sub-let holdings, or transfer or sell it.

[Q] Regarding the development of education under the British rule in India, consider the following
statements:
1. The Sadler Commission assessed the entire education system, spanning from schools to
universities.

2. Recommendation for the establishment of a ‘Board of Women Education’ was made by the
Saddler Commission.

3. The Hartog Commission recommended on selective system for admission in the universities.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements about ‘Act IX of 1878 for Better Control of Publications in
Oriental Languages’:

1. The Act empowered the magistrate to forfeit the publication of a newspaper, in case of any
seditious writings.

2. The provision for appeal against the magistrate's action in a court of law was mentioned in the
Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Consider the following statements:

1. He began the publication of the weekly ‘Mooknayak’ in Bombay.

2. He launched the Kalaram Temple Movement in Nashik.

3. He established the ‘Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha’ for the welfare of the depressed classes.

The above given statements relate to which of the following personalities associated with the social
reform movement in India?

(a) Atmaram Pandurang

(b) Jyotirao Phule


(c) B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Chimanlal Harilal Setalvad

[Q] With reference to the Indian freedom struggle movement, consider the following statements:

1. The primary goal of the Civil Disobedience Movement was to bring the working of the government
to a stand-still by not cooperating.

2. The Civil Disobedience Movement was provisionally suspended after the Second Round Table
Conference.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Q] Consider the following statements:

1. Philip Spratt organized the Workers’ and Peasants’ Party in Bengal, Bombay and the Punjab.

2. The thesis, ‘Anti-Imperialist People’s Front in India’, was published by R.P. Dutt and Ben Bradley.

3. The Dutt-Bradley thesis emphasised that the communists should organize separate anti-
imperialist movement from the Congress.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

[Q] Consider the following statements with reference to the agrarian movement during the colonial
rule in India:

1. The Santhal Rebellion of 1855-56 was a non-violent movement against the Government in
Bengal.

2. The Kaira Movement, led by Mahatma Gandhi, was against the unjust land revenue collection by
the British.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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