Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

SBI CLERK MAINS MODEL TEST - 50

GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Who has launched a national-level mass outreach campaign “Watershed Yatra”,

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in Hybrid mode to generate people’s participation and create awareness about the
Watershed Development activities carried out under the Watershed Development
Component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (WDC-PMKSY 2.0) in project
areas?
1) Narendra Modi 2) Shivraj Singh Chouhan 3) Nitin Gadkari
4) Narendra Singh Tomar 5) Piyush Goyal
2. How much is the minimum ticket size or investment level that the Securities and
ha
Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the market watchdog, has recommended for
originators and unregulated organizations involved in securitization operations
that are supervised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

3.

E
1) Rs.3 crore 2) Rs.4 crore 3) Rs.2 crore 4) Rs.5 crore
Who has recognized as Time Magazine’s 2024 Person of the Year?
1) Elon Musk (CEO of Tesla) 2) Donald Trump (President of US)
5) Rs.1 crore
d
3) Taylor Swift (American singer-Songwriter)
4) Gregory Robinson (Former NASA administrator)
5) Vladimir Vladimirovich Putin (President of Russia)
4. In November 2024, which of the following bank has partnered with Tata Power
ee

Renewable Energy Limited (TPREL) to provide accessible solar financing for Micro
and Small Enterprises (MSEs)?
1) ICICI Bank 2) State Bank of India 3) HDFC Bank
C
4) Axis Bank 5) IndusInd Bank
5. Which of the following committee has recommended the setting up of Special
Tribunals to reduce the time required for settling cases and accepting the
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recommendations, DRTs were established?

1) Narasimham Committee 2) Justice Reddy committee
3) Rangarajan Committee 4) Sivaraman Committee 5) Kelkar committee
6. “Dong” is the currency of which of the following country?
1) Denmark 2) Ethiopia 3) Vanuatu 4) Trinidad 5) Vietnam
7. 'Becoming a High-Income Economy in a Generation' report Released by the World
Bank (WB). The report recognizes that India needs to grow by _______ on average
over the next 22 years to become a High-Income Country (HIC) by 2047.
C
1) 6.5% 2) 7.8% 3) 8.1% 4) 8.5% 5) 9.2%
8. The Government of India's Public Provident Fund (PPF) is a retirement savings
scheme that aims to provide everyone with a secure post-retirement existence.
When was the Public Provident Fund (PPF) scheme launched by the Government
of India (GoI)?
1) 1956 2) 1967 3) 1972 4) 1968 5) 1975
9. Which of the following Ministry has launched the India Graphene Engineering
and Innovation Centre (IGEIC), a key initiative under the vision of Viksit
Bharat@2047?
1) Ministry of Mines 2) Ministry of Heavy Industries
3) Ministry of Science and Technology 4) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
5) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
10. Which of the following Indian states has the highest female participation in stock
markets as per the National Stock Exchange (NSE) report?
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Delhi 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Gujarat 5) Maharashtra
11. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has established internal rules for recording
statements under which section of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA),
with emphasis on procedural improvements and humane working hours?
1) Section 40 2) Section 46 3) Section 50 4) Section 52 5) Section 48
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

12. Which of the following statements is/are “CORRECT” from the book titled “Chhaunk
On Food, Economics, and Society”?
1) It was launched during the curtain raiser of Apeejay Kolkata Literary Festival
(AKLF); India’s only literary festival organized by a bookstore, at the Oxford
Bookstore in Kolkata, West Bengal (WB).
2) The book was authored by Nobel Prize laureate Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee and
co-authored by Cheyenne Olivier.
3) It was published by Rupa Publication.
4) Only (1) & (2) 5) All (1), (2) & (3)
13. What was the theme of the World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) 2025?
1) Green Energy for All 2) Sustainable Living and Innovation
3) Net-Zero Emissions: A Global Commitment

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4) Strengthening Climate Policies for Future Generations
5) Partnerships for Accelerating Sustainable Development and Climate Solutions
14. Recently, who has been announced to return to the Indian football team for FIFA
Window matches by the All India Football Federation?
1) Bhaichung Bhutia 2) Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
3) Jeje Lalpekhlua 4) Sunil Chhetri 5) Sandesh Jhingan
15.
ha
Federal Bank, one of India’s largest private sector banks, has launched FedOne,
a new transaction banking platform powered by Nucleus Software’s FinnAxia
solution. What is the primary objective behind the launch of the FedOne platform
by the Federal Bank?

E
1) Increasing credit card sales
3) Launching a mobile payment app
2) Offering personal loan products
4) Expanding retail banking operations 5) Modernizing corporate banking services
d
16. “Bornadi Wildlife Sanctuary” is located in which state of India?
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) West Bengal 3) Assam 4) Tamil Nadu 5) Karnataka
17. Which fintech platform has launched a fraud protection plan ‘Shield’ to offer
ee

coverage against digital frauds, including protection against fraudulent Unified

Payments Interface (UPI) transactions?
1) GooglePay 2) BharatPe 3) Paytm 4) PhonePe 5) BHIM
18. What is the banking / financial abbreviation of ‘CAGR’?
C
1) Capital Annual Growth Rate 2) Capital Annual Growth Ratio
3) Common Annual Growth Rate
4) Compound Account Growth Rate 5) Compound Annual Growth Rate
Sr

19. ‘Himmat Shah’, a famous Indian artist known for his sculptures and modern art,
passed away on March 2, 2025, at the age of 92. Which of the following is ‘NOT’ an
award received by ‘Himmat Shah’?
1) Padma Shri Award 2) Sahitya Kala Parishad Award
3) Lalit Kala Academy Award
4) Bombay Art Society Award 5) Kalidas Samman Award
20. An MICR code uniquely identifies the bank and branch participating in an Electronic
Clearing System (ECS). Which of the following digits of MICR code indicates ‘branch
C
code’?
1) First 3 digits 2) First 4 digits
3) Last 4 digits 4) Middle 3 digits 5) Last 3 digits
21. India's iconic table tennis star, “Achanta Sharath Kamal”, has announced his
retirement from professional table tennis. His final competition will be the WTT
Star Contender event at the Nehru Indoor Stadium in Chennai, scheduled from
March 25 to 30, 2025. When did he receive the “Khel Ratna Award”?
1) 2007 2) 2015 3) 2012 4) 2020 5) 2022
22. Which of the following organisations regulates the Stock Market?
1) Competition Commission of India (CCI)
2) Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI)
3) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
4) Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
5) Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA)
23. Which two countries have recently strengthened their defence cooperation,
particularly in Su-30 fighter jet maintenance and operations?
1) India and Vietnam 2) India and Thailand
3) India and Malaysia 4) India and Indonesia 5) India and the Philippines

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

24. “World Sleep Day” is observed annually on “March 14” to promote healthy sleep
habits, raise awareness about sleep disorders, and highlight the importance of
quality rest. The theme for 2025 is ‘Make Sleep Health a Priority’. The first World
Sleep Day was observed in________.
1) 2010 2) 2011 3) 2007 4) 2008 5) 2009
25. What is the accounting method that gradually and systematically reduces the
cost value of a limited life intangible asset?
1) Averaging 2) Asset Reconstruction
3) Asset Securitisation 4) Arbitrage 5) Amortisation
26. In January 2025, Alexander Lukashenko has been re-elected for the seventh

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consecutive time as the President of the tiny Eastern European nation of Belarus
for a term of five years. What is the currency of Belarus?
1) Belarusian Ruble 2) Belarusian Euro
3) Belarusian Dollar 4) Belarusian Krone 5) Belarusian Kyat
27. In February 2025, Beacon launched ‘India Bill Pay’, a service that allows Non-
Resident Indians (NRIs) in __________ to pay bills directly in India through the

1) United Kingdom
ha
Beacon Money (Application) app.
2) United States of America
3) Canada 4) Australia 5) Singapore
28.

E
In February 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed monetary penalties
on Federal Bank Ltd and Karur Vysya Bank Ltd for non-compliance with regulatory
d
guidelines. Federal Bank has been fined________, while Karur Vysya Bank faces
a penalty of ________.
1) Rs.12.10 lakh & Rs.7.50 lakh 2) Rs.25.30 lakh & Rs.9.40 lakh
ee

3) Rs.5.60 lakh & Rs.11.70 lakh

4) Rs.27.30 lakh & Rs.8.30 lakh 5) Rs.17.90 lakh & Rs.15.80 lakh
29. The Ministry of Education has launched the third edition of the Prime Minister’s
C
Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors (PM-YUVA 3.0). Which organization is
responsible for implementing PM-YUVA 3.0?
1) Sahitya Akademi (SA) 2) Ministry of Culture (MoC)
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3) National Book Trust, India (NBT)

4) University Grants Commission (UGC)
5) Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR)
30. According to Budget 2024, how much provision has been made this year for long-
term interest-free loans to support states in their resource allocation?
1) Rs. 1.5 lakh crore 2) Rs. 75,000 crore
C
3) Rs. 1 lakh crore 4) Rs. 50,000 crore 5) Rs. 2 lakh crore
31. A system of banking under which big banks undertake a variety of banking services
like commercial banking, investment banking, mutual funds, merchant banking,
insurance etc. is known as _________.
1) Social Banking 2) Universal banking
3) Para Banking 4) Wholesale banking 5) Kiosk Banking
32. Engineering Exports Promotion Council (EEPC) India is the trade and investment
promotion organization for the engineering sector, sponsored by the Ministry of
Commerce & Industry. When was it set up?
1) 1988 2) 1967 3) 1976 4) 1955 5) 1991
33. To promote research quality and innovation in central and state public universities,
particularly those with inadequate research infrastructure, the Indian government
developed the PAIR project under the Anusandhan National Research Foundation
(ANRF).
In PAIR, what does “P” mean?
1) Potential 2) Premium 3) Promote 4) Public 5) Partnership

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

34. What is the new name of the Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF)?
1) Commonwealth Sports 2) Commonwealth Athletics
3) Commonwealth Nations Sports
4) Global Commonwealth Federation 5) Commonwealth Games Association
35. Aluva (Kerala) based Federal Bank Limited, one of India’s leading private sector
banks, has launched a new term deposit product “Annuity Deposit”, and specifically
designed for resident customers offering stable income for a period of 5 to 20
years. What is the maximum investment limit for an ‘Annuity Deposit’?
1) Rs. 3,00,00,000 2) Rs. 1,00,00,000
3) Rs. 5,00,00,000 4) Rs. 10,00,00,000 5) Rs. 2,00,00,000

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36. Who among the following is/are NOT a ‘G-5’ member?
1) Mexico 2) Brazil 3) Canada 4) South Africa 5) India
37. What is the projected Gross domestic product (GDP) growth rate of India for FY26
as per Crisil’s report?

38.
1) 5.8%
ha
2) 6.5% 3) 7.0% 4) 6.9% 5) 6.2%
Name the global initiative that Indian Overseas Bank (IOB) joined to show its
dedication in addressing climate change and promoting responsible banking?

E
1) Global Reporting Initiative 2) Global Compact Network India
3) United Nations Environment Programme
d
4) Partnership for Carbon Accounting Financials
5) World Business Council for Sustainable Development
39. “Bhakra Nangal Dam” is located in which state of India?
ee

1) Tamil Nadu 2) Gujarat 3) Bihar 4) Karnataka 5) Himachal Pradesh

40. The market regulator SEBI has launched a centralized database portal for corporate
bonds to create a single, authentic source of information on such securities.
C
What is the name of the centralized database portal launched by SEBI for corporate
bonds?
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1) Bond Hub 2) Corporate Bonds Exchange

3) SEBI Bonds Platform 4) Bond Central 5) Fixed Income Repository
41. The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is a nationwide plan in India to
provide good all-weather road connectivity to unconnected villages. How many
bridges are among the roughly 3,500 projects that have been successfully finished
in Jammu & Kashmir over the past 20 years under the Pradhan Mantri Gram
C
Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)?
1) 217 Bridges 2) 250 Bridges 3) 189 Bridges 4) 123 Bridges 5) 200 Bridges
42. Which of the following company has partnered with Tata to manufacture India’s
first FAL (Final Assembly Line) H125 helicopter, which is set to roll out by 2026?
1) Lockheed Martin 2) Blue Origin 3) BAE Systems 4) Airbus 5) Boeing
43. In November 2024, what is the anticipated average annual financial requirement
for implementing India’s updated National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan
from FY 2024-2025 to FY 2029-2030?
1) Rs. 81,664.88 crore 2) Rs. 95,123.67 crore
3) Rs. 70,334.45 crore 4) Rs. 78,560.33 crore 5) Rs. 92,345.33 crore
44. Name the scheme that was launched by the National Disaster Management
Authority (NDMA) to train young volunteers across India as the first respondent
to disaster preparedness and response.
1) Sagar Mitra Scheme 2) Yuva Apada Mitra Scheme
3) Sahakar Mitra Scheme 4) Aapda Mitra Scheme 5) Arogya Mitra Scheme

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

45. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is the United Nations agency
that serves the world’s innovators and creators, ensuring that their ideas travel
safely to the market and improve lives everywhere. How many member countries
are there in WIPO?
1) 198 2) 155 3) 193 4) 168 5) 114
46. Which short film has qualified for the 2025 Oscars in the Live Action Short Film
Category?
1) Invisible Border 2) Strange Way of Life
3) The Anne Frank Gift Shop 4) The Wonderful Story of Henry Sugar
5) Sunflowers Were the First Ones to Know

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47. Who has been appointed as the Chief Economist of Canara Bank in January
2025?
1) Raghuram Rajan 2) Viral Acharya
3) Arvind Subramanian 4) Madhavankutty G 5) Shaktikanta Das
48. The joint India-Maldives military exercise 'Ekuverin' is being hosted by the Maldives
ha
from 2-15 February 2025. This biennial exercise, which alternates between India
and the Maldives, is a cornerstone of the defence cooperation between the two
nations. Which edition of the military exercise 'Ekuverin'?

49.
1) 10th 2) 14th

E 3) 12th 4) 15th 5) 13th

What does ‘PKI’ stand for in the context of ‘Cheque Truncation System (CTS)’?
1) Private Key Infrastructure 2) Public Key Infrastructure
d
3) Payment Key Infrastructure
4) Processing Key Infrastructure 5) Protection Key Infrastructure
50. In March 2025, which banknote denominations will be issued in the Mahatma
ee

Gandhi (New) Series with the new Governor’s signature?

1) Rs.500 and Rs.2000 2) Rs.50 and Rs.100
C
3) Rs.200 and Rs.500 4) Rs.100 and Rs.200 5) Rs.10 and Rs.50
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction (51-53): In the following question, a table is given with two columns. In
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column I, three sentences are given with one blank in each of them. In column II,
three phrases / phrasal verbs are given. You’ve to choose the correct pairs of the
statement and the phrase / phrasal verb that will fit in that particular sentence
correctly and make that sentence contextually correct.

COLUMN A COLUMN B
C
A) In the face of corporate D) stand up for
monopolization, visionary entrepreneurs
must _______ technological innovation
that fosters open-source development
and equitable access.
B) Before policymakers can implement E) carry on with
stringent regulations, the impact
assessment of AI-driven surveillance
must have _________ rigorous ethical
51. and legal evaluation.
C) Climate change is _________ F) bringing about
unforeseen ecological disruptions,
compelling scientists to develop
advanced models for evaluating
emerging threats.
1) AE, BF and CD 2) Only BD 3) AF, BD and CE
4) AD and CF 5) None of the above options

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

COLUMN A COLUMN B

A) Studies on global, regional and D) standardised

local scenes acknowledge that digital
resource platforms are _________
instruments for quality teaching,
learning and research.
B) World-class, _______ infrastructure E) premature
will also aid textile exporters in
responding better to changing ESG
requirements in the industry. T

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C) Every human invention should be F) indispensable
52. celebrated, and generative AI is a true
human invention. But too
much optimism and hype may lead to
the ________ use of
technologies that are not yet ready for
prime time.

1) AE, BF and CD
ha 2) Only BD 3) AF, BD and CE
4) AD and CF 5) None of the above options

COLUMN A

E COLUMN B
d
A) In the volatile cryptocurrency market, D) back to the drawing board
astute investors know when to ________
rather than hold onto depreciating
ee

assets driven by speculative hype.

B) The pharmaceutical company was E) cut their losses
forced to go __________ when clinical
trials revealed unforeseen side effects in
53.
C
their much-anticipated cancer drug.
C) As the space agency prepares for the F) keep their fingers crossed
first manned mission to Mars, scientists
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and engineers __________ for a flawless

launch and safe journey.

1) AE, BF and CD 2) Only BD 3) AF, BD and CE

4) AD and CF 5) None of the above options
Directions (54-58): In the given question, two statements and four connectors
are given. Only one of the connectors from the given options can be used to
connect the two sentences without changing the meaning. Choose that connector
C
as your answer. If no connector can be used to connect the sentences, mark
option 5 ‘none of these’ as your answer.
54. I. The recent regulation has notably decreased power usage in the workplace,
which is beneficial for financial savings and ecological sustainability.
II. Certain staff members have voiced apprehensions regarding the alteration in
their regular schedules and professional practices.
1) Additionally 2) At last 3) On the other hand
4) Moreover 5) None of these
55. I. The poll body said these voter turnout figures were accompanied by a disclaimer
that they were based on secondary and provisional data.
II. Some polling stations were situated in far-flung places, and it would take time
to transport EVMs and accounts of votes recorded to the Returning Officer’s base
offices.
1) Consequently 2)Since 3) Besides
4)Despite 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

56. I. He is not only an accomplished painter but also a skilled sculptor,

II. a brilliant art critic, making him a highly respected figure in the creative
world.
1) In other words 2) Despite 3) On the other hand
4) As well as 5) None of these
57. The company’s strategy involves market research, cutting-edge technology, and
seamless customer engagement.
II. They are adopting a forward-thinking and customer-centric approach to drive
growth.
1) But 2) Owing to 3) Despite
4) Infact 5) None of these

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58. I. She not only thrives in her studies but is also a distinguished sportsperson.
II. She devotes a considerable portion of her time to community service, reflecting
her multifaceted personality.
1) To put it differently 2) Furthermore 3) Conversely
4) Albeit 5) None of these
ha
Directions (59-63): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.

E
For generations, America waged a war against the wolf; now with the animals
repopulating the Mountain West, the wolf war has taken on a new shape: pitting
neighbors against neighbors as they fight over how to manage wolves.
d
Environmentalists believe that wolves not only deserve a place in the environment
but also can help repair it, while livestock producers often feel they shoulder too
many costs of living alongside an animal that city dwellers simply want to gawk
ee

at. These disagreements have boiled over into ___(A)______ political battles, most
recently in Colorado, where conservative ranching interests fought a narrowly
passed ballot measure to reintroduce wolves to the Rockies right up until mid-
C
December, when 10 wolves were released into the wilderness. But there’s another
way to see the latest chapter in the story of America’s wolf population: In expanding
pockets of the West, citizens across the political spectrum are finding common
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ground as they adjust to living beside the wolf. It’s a lesson in how even in
extremely polarized times, it’s possible to make heated issues less divisive.
The predominant narrative of the Big Bad Wolf, which has its roots in biblical
stories and Northern European fairy tales, arrived with colonization of America.
Government-funded extermination programs incentivized the killing of wolves,
largely as a way to protect livestock and game animals prized by settlers. By the
C
early 20th century, wolves had been nearly eradicated from the lower 48 states,
surviving only in remote wilderness areas. However, as ecological understanding
grew, scientists recognized wolves’ critical role in maintaining balanced
ecosystems by controlling prey populations and preventing overgrazing. The
reintroduction efforts, beginning with Yellowstone National Park in the 1990s,
marked a turning point, reigniting debates about conservation, property rights,
and rural livelihoods. Today, as wolves reclaim their historic ranges, communities
are learning to navigate coexistence through policy innovations, compensation
programs, and collaborative wildlife management.
59. What is the underlying reason for the long-standing conflict over wolves in
America?
1) Wolves were traditionally considered sacred animals in early American culture.
2) The debate over wolves is fundamentally about differing views on human-wildlife
coexistence.
3) Wolves have always been protected under federal law, leading to disputes.
4) The issue is solely about economic loss suffered by ranchers.
5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

60. How has the perception of wolves evolved over time in America?
1) Wolves were originally seen as beneficial to ecosystems but later became a
threat.
2) The public has consistently viewed wolves as dangerous predators requiring
extermination.
3) From being considered villains, wolves are now recognized for their ecological
importance.
4) Wolves were reintroduced because they had never posed a threat to livestock.
5) All the above
61. What does the passage suggest about the future of wolf conservation efforts?
1) The conflict over wolves will likely never be resolved due to deep political

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divisions.
2) A shift toward cooperation between opposing groups may make conservation
efforts more sustainable.
3) Only rural communities will have to adapt to the presence of wolves.
4) Environmentalists are expected to withdraw from debates as wolves naturally
repopulate.
ha
5) The reintroduction of wolves will end all concerns regarding property rights
and livestock protection.
62.

E
Why do some ranchers oppose the reintroduction of wolves?
1) They believe wolves cause more harm to urban communities than rural areas.
2) Ranchers feel they bear the financial burden of coexisting with wolves while
d
others support their presence from a distance.
3) Wolves are viewed as a greater economic threat than climate change.
4) Both 1 and 3
ee

5) None of these
63. Which of the following word(s) can be contextually fit in the given blank A to the
context given above?
C
a. bristled b. brooded c. lissome
1) Only a 2) Only a and c 3) Both a and b
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4) All a, b and c 5) None of the above

Direction (64-70): Below are some statements, given in a random order. When
these statements are sequenced properly, they’ll form a coherent and meaningful
paragraph.
P. It has the potential to influence how President Trump ultimately views the
value of Taiwan to the United States.
Q. Regardless of the success of TSMC’s investment, the United States will still
C
have a vital interest in Taiwan’s future and in maintaining peace and stability in
the Taiwan Strait.
R. TSMC’s huge investment should at the very least stabilize U.S.-Taiwan relations
and could very well provide momentum for even closer ties.
S. By demonstrating the contribution its companies can make toward
reindustrializing the United States and the indispensable role that they will play
in AI, though, Taiwan could change this narrative.
T. At the same time, the U.S.-Taiwan relationship cannot be reduced to chips.
U. He has previously voiced skepticism about defending Taiwan and reportedly
doubted whether the United States could even do so, while also stating that
Taiwan should pay the United States for protection.
V. The United States has commitments to Taiwan under the 1979 Taiwan Relations
Act that predate the island’s emergence as a major technology power and it has
interests beyond safeguarding access to chips.
64. Which of the following sentences follows sentence T after rearrangement?
1) R 2) T 3) V 4) S 5) Q

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

65. Which is correct position of sentence S in the final arrangement?

1) 1st 2) 4th 3) 2nd 4) 5th 5) 6th
66. Which of the following will be 2nd sentence after rearrangement?
1) S 2) P 3) T 4) U 5) Q
67. Which is the correct position of sentence Q in the final arrangement?
1) 1st 2) 4th 3) 2nd 4) 7th 5) 6th
st
68. Which of the following will be 1 sentence after rearrangement?
1) P 2) Q 3) S 4) Q 5) R
69. Which is the correct position of sentence U in the final arrangement?
1) 3rd 2) 4th 3) 4th 4) 5th 5) 7th
70. Which of the following is the correct order of sentences after rearrangement?
1) UVPQRST 2) STPQRVU 3) RPUSTVQ 4) TUVPSQR 5) None

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Directions (71-72): In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in
bold. Below the sentence, alternatives to the emboldened part are given as (1),
(2), (3) and (4), which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative out of the given five options. In case the given sentence is correct,
your answer will be option (5), i.e., “No correction required”.
71. We shall require tens of thousands of engineers and hundreds of thousands of
industry.
ha
overseers, mechanics and other technicians as our plan to build automobile

1) technicians about plan ours to build 2) technicians for our plan to build
3) technicians at our plan to build 4) technicians in plan to build

72.

E
5) no correction required
The story deals with these plight of underpay child labourers and their struggle
to get better employment.
d
1) those plight of underpaid 2) that plight of underpaid
3) the plight of underpaid 4)the plight of underpaying
5) no correction required
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Directions (73-77): Read the following passage and fill the blanks given by choosing
the correct options given below.
More than other literary genres, poetry demands a special kind of reading, a
willingness to suspend one’s immediate need for comprehension. It demands a
C
kind of faith, and the ____________________________________ (1) the poetry itself,
of course. Craft books try to make the geeky, insider conversation about this
esoteric art form available at any time to anyone. Teenagers and students read
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them as they enter into the murky atmosphere that hangs around poems; I did.
Poets and readers read them to recharge, to rekindle a sleepy poetry habit, or,
sometimes, to urgently__________________________________________ (2). One reads
a book like Hayes’s to feel at home in a strange land, to feel one’s enthusiasm
answered and challenged, to soothe one’s uncertainty, and to excite it, in order
to get more into poetry. I can’t think of a poet from whom I would rather read a
craft book than Hayes. Why? Because of where he goes in modern American
poetry. Critics love to make pronouncements, so indulge
C
_____________________________ ( 3) plainly anyhow: Hayes is one of our major
poets, one with whom today’s poets must reckon as they forge their own sensibilities.
He was one of the first poets of his generation to be decorated with American
literature’s major honors: he was awarded a National Book Award when he was
thirty-nine, around the publication of his breakout book Light head, and a MacArthur
Fellowship in 2014 when he was forty-three. His 2018 collection, American Sonnets
for My Past and Future Assassin, ___________________________________________(4)
killings of young Black men. It also may have kicked off a sonnet craze. From his
position of prominence, Hayes has _____________________________________ (5).
A. seek a path to the truth, and voices that share their urgency
B. taken on the role of critic and populariser of today’s major poets
C. one of the signal poetry books of the Trump era and of the poetic outcry over
the police
D. best craft books work like spiritual texts, when read alongside
E. me in one that will not cause controversy but is worth stating
73. Which of the following phrases can contextually and grammatically fill the place
1?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

74. Which of the following phrases can contextually and grammatically fill the place
2?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
75. Which of the following phrases can contextually and grammatically fill the place
3?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
76. Which of the following phrases can contextually and grammatically fill the place
4?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
77. Which of the following phrases can contextually and grammatically fill the place

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5?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Direction (78): In the following question, a word is given that is followed by three
statements. All these three statements carry the given word. Identify the
sentence(s) in which the word fits to make them grammatically correct and
meaningful.
Pamper
ha
I. All the students pampered violently against the partiality of the teachers towards
some students.

E
II. After long illness at last my friend passed a pampering stage and was completely
out of danger.
d
III. Keep the precious compost for vegetable and special plants you want to pamper.
1) only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
Direction (79-82): In the following question, three sentences (I, II and III) are
ee

divided into four or five parts (A), (B), (C) and (D)/(E) . There is an error in one
part of each of the sentences. Select the option with the parts containing errors
in all three sentences and mark it as your answer. If there is no error in any part
C
of a sentence, select ‘5’ as the answer for that sentence.
79. I. Under one of the task forces,/A/ the DoT has sought recommendation for a
Sr

phased manufacturing programme/B/ since telecom gear manufacturing to boost

domestic component/C/ supply chain ecosystem as well as attract global players/
D/ No error/E/.
II. The public sector lender Bank of Maharashtra said/A/ that it has rised Rs. 880
crore through Additional Tier 1 bonds that/B/ complied with Basel III, which is /
C/an internationally agreed set of measures/D/ developed by the Basel
C
Committee/E/
III. Pey Jal Survekshan Survey will serve/A/ as a monitoring tool and an
accelerating /B/ for the AMRUT Mission/C/ while also fostering healthy/D/
competition among cities/E/.
1) III C, II A, I B 2) I C, II B, III B 3) II D, III A, I E
4) I A, II D, III B 5) All are correct
80. I. While Hagio’s parents discouraged (A)/ her interest in animation, she (B)/ goes
on to receive a Medal of Honor (C)/ for her contributions to the medium. (D) / No
error (E)
II. Paul Cosford and his colleagues (A)/ found that lung cancer (B)/ was more
common in non-smokers (C)/ than was general thought (D) / No error (E)
III. The Syracuse House on (A)/ Clinton Square was described (B)/ by Charles
Dickens as (C)/ “the worst inn that ever was seen” (D)/ No error (E)
1) III E, II D, I C 2) I A, II C, III E 3) II D, III A, I E
4) I A, II D, III B 5) All are correct

10
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

81. I. The double florin, a British coin, (A)/ was criticised both for being (B)/ too close
in size to the crown and (C)/ because the crown on it was too small (D) / No error
(E)
II. When journalist Bill Fleischman (A)/ had surprised by a radio (B)/
advertisement about his next-day article, (C)/ he just sat down and wrote it (D) /
No error (E)
III. Lieutenant-Colonel Colenbrander and two others (A)/ died on camera during
(B)/ the film of the 1918 war (C)/ film Symbol of Sacrifice (D) / No error (E)
1) III C, II A, I B 2) I A, II C, III E 3) II B, III C, I E

r’s
4) I A, II D, III B 5) All are correct
82. I. The country’s tally is now 10.9 millions (A)/ cases and reported fatalities were
(B)/recorded below 100 for the eighth time last year (C), according to the Health
Ministry data.(D) No error (E)
II. An IT firm has stated that it plans(A) / to launch a software next year (B)/
ha
which could make self -driving(C)/ cars a real in 2025(D) / No error (E)
III. The growing success of Yoga is(A)/ contributed not only by increasing
awareness(B)/ of well-being but (C)/ also the increase stress levels.(D) /No error
(E)
1) III C, II C, I B

E 2) I A, II D, III D 3) II D, III A, I A
d
4) I A, II B, III B 5) All are correct
Directions (83-90): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
ee

given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The global economic landscape is undergoing a significant shift, with
C
mounting concerns over a potential recession affecting major industries. Companies
across various sectors are reevaluating their workforce strategies in response to
financial uncertainties. Over the past two months, a slew of U.S. multinational
Sr

companies including tech giants Amazon, Meta, Intel, Twitter and financial
behemoths like Citi and Morgan Stanley, announced massive layoffs. According
to a global placement and coaching firm, the layoffs crossed 60,000 in September
and October. These developments are bound to have an impact, on India’s export
prospects, especially in the information technology (IT) sector.
Alphabet CEO Sundar Pichai had warned of a coming winter in the tech
C
sector earlier this year. In an all-hands meeting in September this year, one of
his responses to staff __________ on budget cuts was: “We don’t get to choose the
macroeconomic conditions always.” A potential economic recession is a big red
flag. With inflation soaring in most parts of the world, central banks have been
scrambling since March this year to rein it in by increasing rates so as to make it
more costly to borrow and consume. This will eventually affect economic growth
and jobs. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has cited forecasts for global
GDP growth in both 2022 and 2023 as gloomy, given the pandemic and ongoing
Russia-Ukraine war. Setting aside the 2008 financial crisis numbers, estimates
for this calendar and the next by the IMF are the weakest since 2001.
The Conference Board measure of CEO confidence showed top honchos in
the West haven’t been this downbeat since the 2007-2009 recession. The survey
asked 136 CEOs what economic conditions they are preparing to face over the
next 12-18 months. An overwhelming majority— 98% — said they were preparing
for a U.S. recession; while 99% said they were preparing for an EU recession.

11
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

The Indian IT services firms are among the largest employers in the organised
sector and any global economic trend is bound to have an impact on their growth
projections. Managements look at headcount numbers critically when they want
to cut costs and protect profit margins as they are accountable to investors. Though
there isn’t a discernible trend yet, there are a few signs which may signal what
is to be expected in the next few months. All top companies except Wipro saw a
rise in revenue and net profit. Wipro’s net profit slid 9% from a year earlier for
the quarter ended September.
The attrition rates, or the number of employees per 100 quitting on their
own, of the top two firms, TCS and Infosys, show that these rates are still high,

r’s
which means that there is enough business for the sector for competitors to draw
away employees with promise of higher salaries. At Infosys, the attrition rate
declined marginally to 27.1% in July-September 2022 from 28.4% in the previous
April to June quarter; at TCS, the attrition rate crept up to 21.5% in the July-
September quarter from 19.7% between April and June. As for operating profit
ha
margins (OPM), Infosys saw its OPM improve to 21.5% in July-September from
20% in April-June, but both 3-month and 6-month OPMs had dipped compared to
a year earlier; TCS saw its OPM rates rise to 24% in the three months ended

E
September compared to the last quarter (23.1%). Media reports have said that
Infosys aims to pay out 65% of the variable pay to employees for the July-September
quarter, compared with 70% in the April-June quarter, because of ‘pressure on
d
margins’.
News of layoffs in the Indian start-up front is predominantly in EDtech, or
ee

the educational technology front. A lesser share of internet users visiting

educational websites since the decline of the pandemic is cited as one reason.
The Indian start-up layoff tracker by Inc42 showed that more than 15,700 employees
C
had been laid off in 2022 given tightening funding conditions. Byju’s, Chargebee,
Cars24, Ola, Innovaccer, Udaan, Unacademy and Vedantu are names that have
Sr

been in the news for layoffs, according to Inc42. The tracker showed that the
edtech sector has laid off the most employees – 14 start-ups had laid off 6,900
employees in 2022.
83. What is one of the major reasons for the recent layoffs in multinational companies,
including tech giants, as highlighted in the passage?
1) Rising global inflation and central banks’ monetary tightening measures.
C
2) The ongoing Russia-Ukraine war and its impact on global oil supply.
3) Decreasing demand for technological advancements in the IT sector.
4) Increasing consumer preference for local rather than multinational companies.
5) None
84. What does the Conference Board measure of CEO confidence indicate about the
sentiment among CEOs in the West?
1) CEOs are optimistic about overcoming economic downturns through innovative
measures.
2) CEOs are more concerned about inflation than an economic recession in their
regions.
3) CEOs are preparing for economic recessions in both the U.S. and the EU.
4) CEOs believe their companies are immune to global economic challenges.
5) All the above

12
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

85. What is a major reason behind the layoffs in Indian start-ups, particularly in the
educational technology sector?
1) Increasing operating costs in the start-up ecosystem due to inflationary
pressures.
2) Reduced internet penetration in rural areas, limiting access to online education
platforms.
3) A decline in user engagement with educational platforms post-pandemic.
4) Regulatory changes impacting the funding structure of start-ups.
5) Both 1 and 2

r’s
86. What does the passage highlight about the attrition rates of leading Indian IT
firms?
1) Attrition rates indicate a lack of business opportunities in the IT sector.
2) Attrition rates remain high, showing that competitors attract employees with
better salaries.
ha
3) Attrition rates have drastically decreased, indicating stability in the IT job
market.
4) Attrition rates suggest that employees are dissatisfied with work culture and
management.

E
5) Attrition rates reflect the need for upskilling within the IT workforce.
d
87. What can be inferred about the potential impact of global economic conditions on
Indian IT companies?
1) Indian IT companies are completely insulated from global economic challenges
ee

and continue to thrive.

2) The global economic slowdown may lead Indian IT firms to focus on domestic
markets to compensate for reduced exports.
C
3) Indian IT companies may face increased scrutiny on costs and headcounts as
global economic uncertainties rise.
Sr

4) Rising inflation globally will have no direct effect on the profitability of Indian
IT companies.
5) The Indian IT sector is likely to see a surge in investments due to declining
attrition rates.
88. Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given word
discernible as given in the passage.
C
1) apparent 2) appreciable 3) dubious 4) obvious 5) clear
89. Choose the word which expresses the same meaning of the given word honchos
as given in the passage.
1) leaders 2) subjects 3) underlining 4) secondary 5) inferior
90. Fill in the blank with appropriate option to make the sentence grammatically and
contextually meaningful.
In an all-hands meeting in September this year, one of his responses to staff
_________ on budget cuts was: “We don’t get to choose the macroeconomic
conditions always.”
A. Queries
B. Questions
C. Beliefs
1) Both A and B 2) Both B and C 3) Both A and C
4) All A, B and C 5) None of the above

13
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
91. A can complete 50% of a work in 4 days. A and C started the work together and
worked for 2 days, then both A and C left. Subsequently, B joined and completed
the remaining work for 3 days. To complete the whole work, if B alone takes 4
days more than the time taken by A alone, how many days does C alone complete
the entire work?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 8 4) 10 5) 4
92. Profit (in Rs) earned while selling 2 diamonds is equal to the cost price of 4

r’s
diamonds. If the respective ratio between the marked price and selling price of
the diamonds is 6:5, what is the respective ratio between the marked price and
cost price of one diamond? (Considering cost price, selling price, and marked
price per diamond is uniform)
ha
1) 5:1 2) 18:5 3) 15:4 4) 9:2 5) 21:2
93. The time taken by the boat to cover 'D' km downstream is 4 hours more than (D-

E
116) km upstream. The respective ratio between the speed of the boat in still
water and the stream is 9:2. The time taken by the boat to cover 176 km
downstream is 8 hours. What is the time taken by the boat to cover 'D-60' km
d
upstream? (in hours).
1) 6 hours 30 min 2) 7 hours 3) 5 hours 45 min
ee

4) 7 hours 30 min 5) 8 hours

C
94. Rs. X is distributed among P, Q, R, S, and T. The total amount received by P and Q
is Rs. 500 more than the amount received by R. The Total amount received by R
and S together is Rs.1600 more than the amount received by T. The amount
Sr

received by S is Rs.600 more than the amount received by T. The respective ratio
between the amounts received by R and T is 5:3. What is the value of X?
1) 4300 2) 4600 3) 4100
4) Can’t be determined 5) 4200
C
95. Mohan invested Rs.5500 for 't' years in scheme A offering SI at 12% p.a. He also
invested a sum which is twice the interest received from scheme A for 5 years
offering SI (scheme B) 15% p.a. If the interest received from Scheme B was Rs.
4950, what was the value of 't'?
1) 6 2) 4 3) 5 4) 8 5) 10
96. The time taken by train A (of length 300m) to cross a vertical pole is equal to the
time taken by train B (of length 200m) to cross a platform (of length 300m). Train
A can cross a platform (of length 600m) in 30 seconds. The distance between the
trains A and B is 300m. If both the trains are moving in the same direction, what
will be the time taken by train B to cross train A? (in seconds)?
1) 20 2) 10 3) 25
4) 40 5) None of those given options

14
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

97. A and B started a business with investments of Rs.520 and Rs. (640+x) respectively.
At the end of six months from the start of the business, B withdraws Rs.(2x-60)
from his initial investment. If out of the total annual profit earned respective
ratio between A's share and B's share is 26:33, what is definite the value of x? (In
Rs)
1) 80 2) 40 3) 50 4) 60 5) Can’t be determined
98. In the 'x' mixture of milk and water, the quantity of water is 40%. 20 litre of the
x
mixture is taken out and subsequently, litre of pure milk is added to the
2

r’s
mixture. In the resultant mixture, the respective ratio between the quantities of
milk and water is 43:12, what is the value of x?
1) 50 2) Can’t be determined 3) None of those given options
4) 100 5) 30
Direction (99-101): Refer the data carefully and answer the questions:
ha
The below data shows the variable number series and answer the given question.
M: x 168 172 145 161 y z
99.

E
Which among the following conditions (I, II, and III) is true?
i) X is a perfect square.
d
ii) Had the series been confirmed further, the eighth element would have been a
positive even number.
iii) The difference between z and the fourth element in the number series is 24.
ee

1) Only ii 2) Both i and ii 3) Only i

4) Both i and iii 5) All i, ii and iii
C
100. What is the value of z?
1) 0 2) 72 3) 54 4) 81 5) -72
Sr

101. What is the value of (y + 14)?

1) 70 2) 80 3) 60 4) 50 5) 65
Direction (102 – 107): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
102. 17.03 × (5.99)2 – 114.02 =? × 1.98
1) 249 2) 252 3) 245 4) 260 5) 240
C
103. 10.96 × (2.03)2 + 88.02 ÷ 5 =?
1) 76 2) 95 3) 88 4) 70 5) 72
104. 16.02  36.01  48.96  ?
1) 40 2) 62 3) 36 4) 54 5) 46
1
105. 3.01 × 4.98 +7.01 × 8.02 –  626  4 =?

1) 74 2) 66 3) 82 4) 51 5) 60
106. 78.01 + 16.03 × (1.99) – 106.03 =?2
2

1) 216 2) 16 3) 4 4) 6 5) 8
107. 81.03 ÷ 9.01 + (4.99)2 – 26.98 = ?
1) 49 2) 25 3) 36 4) 64 5) 81

15
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

Direction (108 – 111): Refer the data carefully and answer the question:
Data regarding the number of pencils, sharpeners, and erasers in three boxes.
Note: The number of pencils in each box (P, Q, and R) > the number of erasers.

Difference
between the
Total
Respective probability
number of
ratio of picking
sharpeners
between the one pencil
and erasers

r’s
Boxes number of and the
together in
pencils: the probability
the
number of of one eraser
respective
sharpeners from the
boxes
ha respective
boxes

E 3:1 5
d
Q 4:3 10

R 6:7 12
ee

108. What is the ratio between the number of pencils in box Q and the number of
C
pencils, erasers, and sharpeners in R?
1) 3:10 2) 2:3 3) 4:9 4) 4:7 5) 4:11
Sr

109. In the box P, the number of pencils is 'M' times the number of erasers. In box R,
the number of pencils is 'N' times the number of erasers. Which of the following
(a, b, c) would have been true regarding the numerical values of 'M' and 'N'?
a) M  N = 10  2.4 b) (M+N) > (M×N) c) N : M = 3 : 5
1) Both a and c 2) Both b and c 3) Only c
4) All a, b, and c 5) Only a
110. What is the total number of sharpeners in all boxes?
C
1) 20 2) 25 3) 10 4) 18 5) 15
111. The average number of pens, sharpeners, and erasers in box Q is denoted by ‘Z’.
Which among the following options is correct to ‘Z’?
1) 1.5Z – 3 =Z 2) 0.8Z + 1.3 = Z 3) 0.5Z + 6 = Z
4) 2Z – 4 = Z 5) 1.4Z – 2 = Z
Direction (112-114): Refer the data carefully and answer the question:
The below data shows the variable number series and answer the given question.
(A): 3 4 7 22 87 (7p+16) (q)
112. Which among the following statement is true with regards to the value of (p)?
i) p is exactly divisible by only the 3rd elements of number series (A).
ii) The value of p  20 is 20.
iii) (q-p) = 2555.
1) Both i and iii 2) Both ii and iii 3) Both i and ii
4) All i, ii, and iii 5) Only iii

16
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

113. What is the value of q?

1) 2515 2) 2615 3) 2300 4) 2665 5) 2715
114. If elements in another number series (B), follow the same logic as followed between
elements in number series (A), and the first element in number series (B) is 2,
2nd element is 3, then what will be the 4th number in number series (B)?
1) 1895 2) 316 3) 63 4) 16 5) 5
Direction (115-120): In the given question two equations numbered I and II are
given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
115. I: 5x2 + 6x + 1 = 0 II: 100y2 + 25y + 1 = 0
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x  y 4) x  y
5) x = y or Relation cannot be established

r’s
116. I: 2x2 - 17x + 21 = 0 II: y2 - 16y + 64 = 0
1) x = y or Relation cannot be established 2) x > y 3) x  y
4) x  y 5) x < y

2 2401
117. I: x2 - 3x + 2 =0 II: y =

1) x > y
9
ha 625
2) x = y or Relation cannot be established
3) x  y 4) x < y 5) x  y
118. I: x2 - 12x + 36 = 0
1) x > y 2) x  y

E 2
II: 2y - 17y + 36 = 0
3) x = y or Relation cannot be established
d
4) x  y 5) x < y
3 21 4 4
119. I: x2 – 1 x+ =0 II: y2 – 1 y+ =0
ee

10 50 5 5
1) x  y 2) x  y 3) x < y
4) x = y or Relation cannot be established 5) x > y
C
2 2 2
120. I: 4x - 81 = (4×2-5)x II: y + 11y + 14 + 9y = - 86
1) x = y or Relation cannot be established 2) x > y 3) x  y
Sr

4) x  y 5) x < y
Direction (121 – 125): Refer the data carefully and answer the question:
Data regarding the plastic and metallurgic items produced by A, B, C, and D
companies. And the difference between the number of items sold in plastic and
those sold in metallurgic plastic sold in more than metallurgic sold.
The pie chart shows the number of items unsold in both plastic and metallurgic.
C
The total number Difference
of items produced between the
Companies
both plastic and plastic sold –
metallurgic metallurgic sold

A 20 6

B 35 7

C 25 4

D 20 1

17
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

The number of items unsold in both plastic

and metallurgic is 30

A
D 20% A
30%

r’s
B
C
C B D
ha 10% 40%

E
121. What is the respective ratio between the number of plastic items sold in ‘B’ and
the total number of unsold items in ‘C’?
d
1) 3:1 2) 2:1 3) 3:2 4) 5:2 5) 5:1
122. What is the average number of plastic items sold in A, B, C, and D?
1) 22 2) 8 3) 11 4) 15 5) 12
ee

123. The number of metallurgic items sold in ‘D’ is what percentage of plastic items
sold in ‘A’?
1) 50% 2) 25% 3) 75% 4) 100% 5) 30%
C
124. The selling price of each plastic item is Rs. 75 and the selling price of each
metallurgic item is Rs. 50. What is the total revenue generated by company C
Sr

selling plastic items and company B selling metallurgic items?

1) 1725 2) 1500 3) 1250 4) 1375
5) None of those given options
125. If in company F, the number of plastic items sold had been the average of the
plastic items sold in companies B and D, along with the metallurgic items sold in
company C, and the number of unsold plastic and metallurgic items in F was
C
1
83 % of the number of unsold plastic and metallurgic items in A, what would be
3
the total value of the plastic items sold and the unsold plastic and metallurgic
items together?
1) 15 2) 20 3) 12 4) 30 5) 18
Direction (126 – 127): Study the data carefully and answer the question:
Data regarding the number of students (boys and girls) in different classes A
and B in 2021 and 2022.
The number of students in class A in 2022 will increase by 20% compared to
class A in 2021. The number of students in class B in 2022 will increase by 25%
compared to class B in 2021. The number of students in class A in 2022 is 50 less
than that in class B in 2022. The total number of students in class A in 2021 and
class B in 2022 is 2250.
126. What is the difference between the number of students in 2021 classes A and B?
1) 25 2) 10 3) 60 4) 0 5) 20

18
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

127. In 2023, if the number of students in class B becomes twice that of 2022, what
will be the total number of students of class B in 2023?
1) 3000 2) 2500 3) 2000 4) 2400
5) None of those given options
Direction (128-130): Each question below is followed by two statements I and II.
You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for
answering the question.
128. What is the share of P in the profit?
Statement I: P and Q entered into partnership with investment in the ratio x:y. After
one year, P made her investment 2 times and after 1 year, Q raised his investment

r’s
twice. At the end of three years, they earned a total profit of Rs. x + y +500.
Statement II: P and R entered into partnership with investment in the ratio 6:7.
After one year, P made her investment 1.5 times and after one more year, R doubled
her investment. At the end of three years, they earned a total profit of Rs.9100.
1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
ha
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
2) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question

answer the question

E
3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to

4) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
d
5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
129. What is the value of z?
ee

Statement I: X is 6 years younger than Y and the sum of the present ages of X, Y,
and K is z years and the present age of K is 1.5 times the present age of Y.
Statement II: Ratio of the age of Y and K is 5:6 (after 12 years).
C
1) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question
Sr

2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
4) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
C
5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
130. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?
Statement I: Area of the circle is 154 m2 and the length of the rectangle is twice
the radius of the circle.
Statement II: Perimeter of the rectangle is 8 m more than the circumference of
the circle.
1) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
2) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question
4) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
5) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

19
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

Direction (131-136): Study the graph and answer the given question:
The given bar graph depicts the total number of votes casted (Valid and Invalid) in
four different villages in two years: 2013 and 2018.

700
650
600
550

r’s
2013
500
2018
450
400
350
ha
300
A

E B C D
131. In another village, E, the total votes cast in 2018 were double the number of votes
d
cast in village D in 2013. The number of valid votes cast in village E in 2018 was
equal to the average of the votes cast in villages B and C together in 2018. What
is the ratio of the number of invalid votes cast in village E in 2018 to the total
ee

number of votes cast in village B in 2013?

1) 41:91 2) 43:89 3) 55:92 4) 46:85 5) 43:84
132. In 2018, village D, out of the total votes cast, the number of valid votes was three
C
times the number of invalid votes. The valid votes were distributed among three
parties : P, Q, and R. Party R won by securing 60% of the valid votes, while there
Sr

was a tie between P and Q. A re-election was held to break the tie between P and
Q, where only the invalid votes were allowed to vote again, and all these votes
were valid this time. At the end of the re-election, Party P ended up with a total of
138 votes. Determine the number of votes Party Q received in the re-election.
1) 48 2) 62 3) 138 4) 54 5) 126
133. If in 2013 in village A, total casted votes is 30% of the total population and out of
C
casted votes 20% was invalid. In 2018, out of the total votes casted from village A,
1
valid votes were 133 % more than the invalid votes in 2013 from the same
3
village. If the number of invalid votes casted was 50% of the total population in
village A in 2018, then the total number of people in village A in 2018 who didn't
casted their votes is how much less than that in 2013?
1) 986 2) 1124 3) 1024 4) 1464 5) 1214
134. If in 2018, in village B, two parties were contested between them i.e. X and Y. If
the ratio between invalid votes casted in village B in 2013 and 2018 is 4:5 and the
2 rd
number of valid votes casted in village B in 2013 is of the total votes casted in
3
that year. In 2018 party X won the election by 55 votes, then find the number of
votes got by party Y in village B in 2018.
1) 155 2) 170 3) 145 4) 185 5) 120

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

135. In village C, in 2013, the total population that did not cast their votes was 420.
The total population of village C increased by 25% from 2013 to 2018. In 2018, the
ratio of males to females in the total population (considering all are eligible to
vote) of village C was 5:6. If 40% of the total males cast their votes, and 10% of the
total votes cast were declared invalid (60% of which were male votes), what is the
difference between the number of valid female votes and invalid female votes
cast in village C in 2018?
1) 172 2) 180 3) 192 4) 164 5) 202
136. In 2018, if the minimum number of invalid votes in village A was a three-digit
number that is a multiple of 15, what would be the difference between the

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maximum number of valid votes and the minimum number of invalid votes in that
village?
1) 540 2) 430 3) 510 4) 480 5) 620
Direction (137-140): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question:
ha
The given data is regarding the number of visitors (male + female) on three
different days. The total number of visitors on Monday is 70. Number of female
visitors on Monday is 40% less than that on Tuesday. Number of male visitors on

E
Tuesday is 1.5 times the number of female visitors on Monday. Number of male
visitors on Monday is 8 more than the number of female visitors on Wednesday.
Number of male visitors on Wednesday is 10 less than that on Tuesday. Total
d
number of female visitors on all three days is 112.
137. What is the average number of male visitors on all three given days?
1) 50 2) 30 3) 40 4) 45 5) 37
ee

138. What is the difference the number of male visitors on Monday and Wednesday?
1) 15 2) 5 3) 10 4) 18
5) None of those given as options
C
139. If the number of female visitors on Thursday is 2 times the number of female
visitors on Wednesday and the number of male visitors on Thursday is 20% less
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than the number of male visitors on Tuesday, then find the number of visitors on
Thursday.
1) 150 2) 80 3) 120 4) 180 5) 100
140. The female visitors on Wednesday are approximately what percentage of the
total number of visitors on Tuesday?
1) 34 2) 28 3) 42 4) 54 5) 21
C
REASONING
Direction (141-145): Read the given information to answer the given questions:
Ten people viz. Ayan, Fairy, Eman, Lokesh, Mery, Mike, Ukase, Ram, Xelio
and Zim are placed their boxes one above the other in a stack. The lowermost box
is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost
box is numbered ten. One person having only one box and each person positioned
their box at only one place.
Conditions:
(1) People having odd number of letters in their name are placing their box on
even numbered position.
(2) People having even number of letters in their name are placing their box on
odd numbered position.
(3) People whose name starts as well as ends with a vowel necessarily place their
box at a perfect square or cube of any number necessarily fulfilling condition 1.
(4) People placing their boxes on an even numbered position kept different materials
in boxes viz. Ball, Mobile, Cloth, Papers and Cup.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

The person having highest number of letters in his name is placing the box
on topmost position as per condition-2. Ukase doesn’t keep Cup and places two
boxes above the one who kept Ball in his box. As many material boxes places
above Lokesh’s box same as below Mery’s box. Ukase kept the material, having the
number of consonants is same as the number of vowels in its name. The number
of boxes placed between Ram’s and Ayan’s boxes is one more than the number
boxes placed between Ayan’s and Eman’s boxes. The one who kept cloth is places
above Lokesh’s box. Xelio places his box below Fairy’s box and both are places on
two consecutive odd/even number positions. Only two material boxes are kept
below Eman’s box. The one who kept Cup in the box is placed immediately above
the box of immediately above Zim’s box.

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141. As many boxes place above Fairy’s box as below ______’s box.
1) Ayan 2) Eman 3) Lokesh 4) Zim 5) Ram
142. How many material boxes are placed above the Mike’s box?
1) One 2) three 3) five 4) two 5) four
143. Who amongst the following person’s material box is placed at fourth from the
bottom?

144.
1) Mery 2) Zim
ha 3) Xeleo 4) Fairy 5) Ukase
Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE as per the given arrangement?
1) Ayan’s box is placed at eighth position from the bottom
2) As many boxes placed above lokesh’s boxes as below mery’s boxes

E
3) No material box is placed between Fairy and Ukase
4) No box is placed above the Mike’s box
d
5) Three boxes are placed between Ayan’s box and Zim’s box
145. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
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not belong to that group?

1) Eman-Mery 2) Zim-Cup 3) Ram-Mobile 4) Lokesh-Ball 5) Ukase-Cloth
Direction (146-147): The given question is based on the following arrangement of
letters, symbols and numbers:
C
D @ 5 N F $ 2 U © 9 4 % P D & V O 3 # W 8 Q ! 7 F B
Conditions:
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Step I: If an element is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately

followed by a letter, then that element is to be changed to the next letter as per
the English alphabetical order (if it is a letter) or to the next number an per the
arithmetic numerical order (if it is a number). After completion of Step I, consider
the arrangement obtained for applying the second step.
Step II: All the elements that appear more than once in the new arrangement
are deleted. After completion of Step II, consider the arrangement obtained for
applying the third step.
C
Step III: If an element (which is either a letter or a number) is immediately
preceded by a letter that appears after letter M as per the English alphabetical
order or is immediately preceded by a number that is smaller than 10 as per the
arithmetic numerals, then that element is replaced with the previous letter as
per the English alphabetical order (if it is a letter) or the previous number as per
the arithmetic numerical order (If it is a number). After completion of Step III
consider the arrangement obtained for applying the fourth step.
Step IV: All the odd numbers are replaced with T in the given arrangement thus
formed. After completion of Step IV, consider the arrangement obtained for applying
the fifth step.
Step V: All the letters that are immediately preceded as well as immediately
followed by a symbol are arranged in alphabetical order at same positions in the
given arrangement. And Step V is the final step for the above rearrangement as
the intended output of arrangement is obtained.
146. How many consonants (not same) are there after ‘N’ according to the alphabetical
order in the step-V?
1) One 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) five

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

147. How many elements are deleted as per Step-II in the given arrangement?
1) fourteen 2) thirteen 3) twelve 4) eleven 5) less than eleven
Direction (148-152): Study the following information and answer the given
questions:
Eight people viz. K, J, I, H, G, F, E and D graduated in either of the four
months viz. September, October, November and December of the same year. In
each month the given people graduated on either 11th or 16th of that month.
Thus only one person graduated on each date and only two people graduated in
each month. It is assumed that no other person graduated in the given year. Also,
each one of them likes a different flower such that the ones graduated on an odd

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numbered date like flowers in Red (viz. Rose, Poppy, Protea and Zinnia) while the
ones graduated on an even numbered date like flowers in White (viz. Daisy, Tulip,
Peony and Orchid).
H graduated on an odd numbered date in a month having odd number of
days. The one who likes Orchid graduated in a month having even number of
ha
days, but not in the month immediately preceding the month in which H graduated.
Only three people graduated between F and the one who likes Orchid. Neither F

E
nor I like Tulip. Both I and the one who likes Tulip graduated in the same month.
The one who likes Zinnia graduated in a month having even number of days. As
many people graduated before the one who likes Zinnia as after the one who likes
d
Peony. The number of people who graduated before the one who likes Protea is
two less than the number of people who graduated after G. G and the one who
likes Protea did not graduate in the same month. J likes an White flower but not
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Peony. The one who likes Poppy graduated on one of the dates before D but after
K. K was not the first one to graduate.
C
148. Which of the following pairs represent/s the people who graduated in the same
month?
(i) D - the one who likes Orchid
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(ii) J - the one who likes Rose

(iii) K – the one who likes Daisy
1) Only (iii) 2) Only (i) 3) Only (i) and (ii)
4) Only (ii) and (iii) 5) None i, ii and iii
149. On which date did E graduate?
C
1) 16th September 2) 11th September 3) 11th October
4) 16th October 5) 11th December
150. The number of people who graduated between H and the one who likes Zinnia is
one more than the number of people who graduated before______.
1) G 2) H 3) K 4) D 5) E
151. Amongst the given people, _____ was the first one to graduate.
1) I 2) F 3) H 4) E 5) G
152. Which of the following statement is TRUE as per the given arrangement?
1) No one graduated between F and the one who likes Poppy
2) The one who likes Tulip graduated in December
3) Only two people graduated before G
4) No one graduated between K and the one who likes Peony
5) J graduated immediately before D

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

153. Read the following statements carefully and answer the given question:
Online education is a boon for both students and teachers. It facilitates a
wide range of knowledge and that too at ease.
Which of the following statements weakens the above argument ?
(A) Digital classrooms and online notes have led to lighter school bags and even
reduced the burden of notebook/homework checking for teachers.
(B) Practical learning is interesting and hence, more effective than rote learning.
(C) The in-text reading through books gives comparatively more in-depth knowledge
than online learning.
(D) Few of the books are now available on the internet as e-books but are difficult

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to read.
(E) There is nothing today you cannot find on the internet.From alphabetical
practice sheets to guidance on thesis writing, all is just a click away.
1) Only D 2) Only C 3) Both D and E
4) Both A and C 5) None of the given statements.
ha
154. In each of the words AFFLUENT and ADHERING, all the letters are arranged as
per the English alphabetical order from left to right within the words. If only one
meaningful six letter English word can be formed using the second, fifth and

E
seventh letters from the left of the word formed after performing the mentioned
operation on the word AFFLUENT and the fourth, fifth and seventh letters from
d
the left of the word formed after performing the mentioned operation on the word
ADHERING, which of the following is the fourth letter from the left of the word so
formed? If no such word can be formed, mark X as the answer and if more than
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one such words can be formed, mark Y as the answer.

1) T 2) G 3) N 4) X 5) Y
155. Twenty students, who were blacklisted on account of low attendance, were asked
C
to bring their parents to meet the Principal of the college. Three out of them said
that their parents were not in the city so they brought some other people posing
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to be their relatives. The college authorities later found out that the three students
were lying and that their parents were in the city unaware of their children
being blacklisted.
Which of the following can be an assumption according to the given information?
(An assumption is something that is supposed or taken for granted)
1) Last year also the college followed the same procedure and met the parents of
C
the blacklisted students.
2) Attending college every day is not compulsory.
3) No serious action was taken against the blacklisted students apart from these
three.
4) Colleges keep records of students’ attendance.
5) All the colleges follow the same procedure in case of blacklisted students.
156. Read the following information and the statements (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F)
given below carefully and answer the question.
The education minister of State X said that his State is the best in education as
it has the maximum number of schools as compared to other states.
(A) The Population of State X is nearly 45% more than the population of the
second- largest State in the country.
(B) Other parameters such as quality of education and availability of teachers
were completely ignored in the report.
(C) In State X, higher education is not focused on as much as school education.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

(D) The CEOs and top executives who belonged to State X had completed their
education in State X.
(E) Number of schools per child in the school-going age group is highest in State X
in the whole country.
(F) Those who study in State X have a higher chance of becoming CEOs and top
executives.
“Many CEOs and top executives belong to State X. This proves the fact that State
X is the best in education”. Which of the given statements represents an
assumption implicit in this quote?
1) C 2) F 3) B 4) A 5) D

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157. Given below are three combinations (i), (ii) and (iii) of five letters. In each
combination you have to arrange all the letters as per the English alphabetical
order from left to right. Then, in each combination the first letter from the left
end will be numbered I, the second letter from the left end will be numbered II,
the third letter from the left end will be numbered III and so on. Hence in each
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combination I, II, III, IV and V will denote the position of the letter from the left
end.
(i) S R B P H
(ii) O D V C G
(iii) K T X U L

E
From each of the given combinations, the letters that same position are clubbed
d
together. The letters at which of the position/s (I, II, III, IV and/or V) will appear
as per the English alphabetical order if taken in order of combination (I), (ii) and
(iii) respectively?
ee

1) Both IV and V 2) Only I 3) Only I and IV

4) Both II and IV 5) Both I and V
Direction (158-162): In this question a group of numbers symbols followed by five
C
combinations of letter codes are given. You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of number/ symbol based on the
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given coding system and conditions and mark that combination as your answer:

Number/Symbol 5 * 2 7 & 1 ! 3 # @ 9 $ 8 % ^ 4

Letter code S C U W N A Y Q D E K M P L X F
C
1) If the first element is a symbol then the fourth element is to be coded as the
code for that symbol.
2) If the first element is an even number and the last element is an odd number
then their codes have to be interchanged.
3) If an odd number is immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by a
symbol then that odd number is to be coded as 'a'.
4) If an even number is immediately preceded by a symbol then that even number
is to be coded as the code for fifth element.
5) If the third element is a prime number then that prime number is to be coded
as the code for the last element.
6) More than one coding conditions may be applicable.
7) The elements are to be counted from left to right.
158. 2%89*5
1) ULPKCU 2) ULPKCU 3) SLCKCS 4) SLCKCU 5) ULCKCU
159. 4$71@%
1) FMWAEL 2) FMWAEW 3) FMLAEL 4) AMLAEK 5) MFLAEL

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

160. 8#4*$1
1) PDFCMA 2) ADFCMP 3) PDMCMA 4) ADFCFP 5) ADMCMP
161. %3795^
1) LQWLSX 2) LQXLSX 3) LQWKSX 4) LQXLWX 5) LQXLXS
162. 35@7&!
1) QSEaNY 2) QSEWNY 3) QSEWYN 4) QESaNY 5) QSEaYN
Direction (163-165): In this question, the symbols  , ©, €,  , and ¥ are used
with meanings as illustrated below:
‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’
‘A  B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’

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‘A  B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’
‘A ¥ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’
‘A € B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’
163. Statements: Q © Z ¥ X  L € Y; I  X; N © X
Conclusions I: I  Y
Conclusions II: Q © N
ha
1) Either conclusion I or II is true 2) Only conclusion I is true

E
3) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
5) Only conclusion II is true
4) Both conclusions I and II are true
d
164. Statements: X  E  Y € M ¥ N; P ¥ Y  O
Conclusions I: O © X
Conclusion II: N  P
ee

1) Both conclusions I and II are true 2) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

3) Only conclusion I is true 4) Only conclusion II is true
5) Either conclusion I or II is true
C
165. Statements: F € W  U € T © S; G ¥ D € T
Conclusions I: F  G
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Conclusion II: G € F
1) Either conclusion I or II is true 2) Only conclusion II is true
3) Only conclusion I is true 4) Both conclusions I and II are true
5) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
166. During the festive season in City B, there are many areas where people play loud
music beyond the deadline of 11 pm. Residents from many such areas have
C
complained to authorities that police forces are deployed only after a complaint is
registered. Some have even reported that they were threatened and beaten up by
the organizers of such programs when they protested against these disturbances.
Which of the following can be a course of action on the part of authorities?
1) The authorities should put up notices and distribute flyers in such problematic
areas creating awareness about the 11pm deadline and reminding citizens of
their civic duties.
2) The authorities must collate all the data based on the complaints in the past
and find out which areas are most problematic in the city.
3) Only those cases in which the person who complained was beaten up should be
focused on and action should be taken against the attackers.
4) Policemen should be deployed in advance to such areas in the city during the
festive season so that it is ensured that people follow the 11 pm deadline.
5) Playing loud music at public gatherings during the festive season should be
completely banned.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

167. In a safety drive, conducted by the railways, last week around 100 passengers
were caught crossing the railway tracks at different local stations in the city.
Such irresponsible behavior on the part of the passengers is one of the main
reasons for the increasing number of railway accidents.
(A) It takes a really long time for the passengers to come out of the railway
stations via foot-over bridges and subways as they are usually very crowded so
they take a shortcut and cross tracks.
(B) The railway authorities must build fences and walls along the railway tracks
in order to discourage such crossing.
(C) Most of the passengers who cross the railway tracks are usually the ones who

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are hurrying to their offices and do not have the time to climb the foot-over
bridges situated far away.
(D) Such offenders should be fined and the guards should be more vigilant.
(E) A majority of these offenders were men.
ha
(F) Around 30% of railway-related deaths can be attributed to the crossing of
railway tracks.
Which of the following statements out of (B), (C), (D) and (E) can be a logical

1) Both (D) and (E)

E
course/s of action for the railway authorities?
2) Both (C) and (E) 3) Only (D)
d
4) Both (B) and (D) 5) Only (C)
168. Read the given information and answer the question:
“After the great success of the FUMJI car launched by company X, its new launch
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CAMPER is getting a tremendous response but only a single counter for inquiry
and bookings at its showroom has left the long queues of people complaining.”
Which of the following can be a viable course of action in the given situation?
C
I. People should be warned to come prepared to wait for long hours and make
their own food arrangements.
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II. The showroom should set up a few temporary canopies just for inquiries and
bookings.
III. Arrangements should be made to send representatives of the showroom to
places of all those who come for inquiry.
1) Only I 2) None of the given options
3) Both II and III 4) Both I and II 5) Only II
C
Direction (169-171): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions:
Q is the spouse of the only son of P. P is the father of M. P has only one
grandchild. M has only one sibling. M is the mother of F. D is the grandmother of
F. O is the only son of D. O is the spouse of the only daughter of C. C is the father
of H. H is the father of K and L.
169. If ‘M’ is married to ‘X’, how is ‘X’ related to C’s daughter?
1) Brother 2) sister 3) Cousin
4) brother in law 5) sister in law
170. How is ‘O’ related to sibling of ‘L’?
1) Father 2) nephew 3) niece 4) aunt 5) uncle
171. If each parent has one son, how is ‘K’ related to ‘C’?
1) Grand-father 2) Grand-mother 3) Grand-son
4) Grand-daughter 5) Grand-child

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

172. Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in square table. People sit at
middle of the sides are facing away from the centre and people sit at corners face
towards the centre. Q and P are facing opposite directions (e.g.: if one person
faces centre other person faces away from the centre) and both are not sitting
adjacent to each other. Q sits at one of the corners of the table. P sits immediate
right of S. S and V are facing opposite directions and both are not sitting adjacent
to each other. V doesn’t sit adjacent to Q. T and W are facing opposite directions
and both are not sitting adjacent to each other. Neither T nor W sits adjacent to
S. R doesn’t sit adjacent to both T and Q. What is the position of U with respect to
the one (doesn’t sit adjacent to T) who faces away from the centre?

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1) Second to the right 2) second to the left 3) Third to the right
4) third to the left 5) fourth to the right
173. Read the given information and answer the question:
A recent study in country Y indicates that the number of animals and bird
species, which are known to migrate to those places of the country which are a
ha
little warmer during winter, is reducing each year. Rather they seem more inclined
towards staying near their home and over the years the migration of birds has
reduced drastically. Which of the following may be a reason for the change in the

E
instinctive behavior of the bird and animal species?
1) Due to adequate rainfall in country Y this year, the food requirements of all
d
bird and animal species in the country have been fulfilled.
2) As most species of birds and animals migrate to the same place during winters
their space requirements are not fulfilled during this period.
ee

3) As the migrating pattern of these bird and animal species is well known, many
tourists are attracted to these regions during winter and in turn disturbing the
C
birds and animals.
4) Although the government of country Y has built artificial ponds and sanctuaries
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for migrating birds, in the warmer areas of the country, it has not been maintained
properly.
5) Due to the occurrence of global warming, the temperature all over the country
has increased severely over the years making it difficult for these bird and animal
species to withstand the temperature of warmer areas.
Direction (174-176): The given question consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
C
the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the both statements
and mark the appropriate option.
174. Seven people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V bought seven different things consecutively
one after the other on different occasions. No person other than the given people
bought any other thing on the given occasions or on any other occasion. How
many people bought things between Q and T?
Statement-I: Two people bought things between Q and P. S bought a thing after T
but not after U. P bought a thing two people after R. The number of people bought
items after U is one less than the people bought items before T. Q doesn’t sit
adjacent to T.
Statement-II: The number of people bought items between T and U is twice the
people bought items between T and S where U bought an item after S. The number
of people bought items between S and U is one less than the number of people
bought items between S and T. Q bought an item between S and U.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(3) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to
answer the question
(4) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question
(5) The data in both statements I and statement II together are not sufficient to

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answer the question
175. Six people – A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in triangular table. People sit at
corners of the table are face away from the centre and the people sit at sides face
towards the centre. What is the position of B with respect to F?
Statement-I: Only two people sit between A and B. Only two people sit between C
ha
and D. Only two people sit between E and F.
Statement-II: B sits immediate right of C and doesn’t sit adjacent to E.

E
(1) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
d
(2) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(3) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to
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answer the question

(4) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
C
to answer the question
(5) The data in both statements I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question
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176. In which direction is point ‘H’ with respect to point ‘X’?

Statement-I: Point H is 5m towards west of point M. Point E is 4m towards south
of point S. Point X is 10m towards east of point S. Point C is 6m towards east of
point P. Point R is 7m towards south of point P. Point X is 3m towards north of
point C. Point A is 3m south of point M. Point R is 4m east of point A.
C
Statement-II: Point T is 5m south of point X. Point T is 8m west of point U. Point U
is 3m north of point O. Point O is 10m east of point D. Point D is 3m south of point
Q. Point Q is 2.5m east of point S. Point S is 6m south of point C. Point C is 4.5m
west of point H.
(1) The data in both statements I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question
(2) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question
(3) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(4) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(5) The data in both statement I and statement II are together necessary to
answer the question

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

177. Read the given information to answer the given question :

The exclusive apparel brand “Lima”, in Country X, had collaborated with the
online portal “Zoyo”, for promotion of which it offered discounts.
Which of the following can be a possible reason for “Lima” to collaborate with
online portal and provide discounts?
(A) Lima stores are not present across all the cities in the country.
(B) The sales of “Lima” had gone down by 35% in the past two years because many
competitive brands had started online portals with high discount prices and product
ranges.
(C) Lima also plans to collaborate with “Myra” another online portal in the coming year.
1) Only (A) & (B) 2) Only (C) 3) Only (B)
4) Only (B) & (C) 5) Only (A)

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Direction (178-182): Study the following information to answer the given question:
A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words rearranges
them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.
(Note: All the words given as input are seven letter words only. The words formed
after performing the mentioned operations may or may not be meaningful English
words.)
ha
Input: overcome children mountain building sunshine notebook elephant
discover
Step-I: nudqdpnf bghkesfo lntmubjo athkejoh rtmrijof mnsdcppl dkdoibou
chrbpwfs
Step-II: qpf bghksf lntmbj
Step-III: q gks

E lm
tkj
k
tmjf mnsdcl
m mscl
kb
k
chrbpwfs
crws
d
Step-IV: q gks lm k m clms k crsw
Step-V: clms crsw gks k k lm m q
And Step V is the last step of the above rearrangement as the intended output of
ee

the arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find
out the appropriate steps for the given input.
INPUT: combined sprinkle complete together stronger birthday
selected umbrella
C
178. How many elements having even number of letters in final step?
1) Three 2) four 3) five 4) six 5) seven
179. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical order between the second
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letter (from the left) of the third word from the left end of Step V of the given input
and the third letter (from the left) of the third word from the right end of Step III
of the give input?
1) Ten 2) twelve 3) nine 4) eleven 5) thirteen
180. Which of the following is the shortest word in Step V of the given input?
1) L 2) K 3) M 4) J 5) T
181. What is the difference between the total number of letters in the first three
words of step II (from the left) and the first three words of step IV (from the right)
C
of the given input?
1) 12 2) 11 3) 9 4) 10 5) 8
182. As per the given input one of the words is completely deleted from which of the
following step?
1) Second 2) third 3) fourth 4) fifth 5) None
183. Read the following information carefully to answer the given question:
“If I get my children admitted to a school with a small student population,
only then I can expect a versatile development in them.” - Said Mr. Chopra.
Which of the following can be inferred from Mr. Chopra’s statement ?
1) A child studying in a low-populated school has a better IQ than any other child
of his age.
2) A smaller student population at school gives the children a wider scope of development.
3) The student population is the one and only factor on which the all-round
development of a student depends.
4) The teachers at overpopulated schools are not as qualified as the ones at low
populated schools.
5) Versatile development completely depends on the school curriculum and not
on the home-environment.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

184. Read the given information and answer the question.

The M.B, Road near the highway has an average of one pothole or patched
piece of asphalt for every 40 yards of the road. The primary reason for the condition
of the road isn’t age, weather or rush hour traffic. It’s 18-wheeler trucks. These
heavy trucks roar down this route that was never meant to carry weights above
40 tonnes. While regular traffic on the road averages 2 tonnes in terms of weight
per vehicle, the average weight per 18-wheeler truck is 35 times this weight.
Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement ?
(A) The highway close to the MB. Road can definitely carry atleast 35 times more

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number of vehicles than that possible on M.B. Road.
(B) 18-wheeler trucks which are 30 tonnes lighter will not cause harm to the
mentioned road
(C) Restricting small vehicles while permitting only 18-wheeler trucks may reduce
the harm caused to the road

1) Both (B) and (D)

ha
(D) A road is constructed considering the type of vehicles plying on it
2) Both (A) and (C) 3) Only (A)
4) Both (A) and (D)

E 5) Only (C)
185. If the number ‘34628957’, ‘1’ is subtracted from each odd digit and ‘1’ is added to
each even digit. In the new number thus formed first, third, fifth and seventh
d
positions from the left of the number are arranged in ascending order. Then, the
remaining digits are arranged in descending order following the first four digits.
ee

What will be the sum of the third prime digit from the right end and the third
even digit from the left end of the new number thus formed?
1) 19 2) 15 3) 18 4) 16 5) 17
C
Direction (186-190): Study the following information and answer the given
question:
Sr

Eight people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight line facing

north. Also, each one of them visits a different number of countries. The total
number of countries visited by all the given people together is 190. None of the
given people visited more than 40 and less than 10 countries.
The one who visits 21 countries sits sixth from an extreme end of the line.
Only two people sit between P and the one who visits 21 countries. The number of
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countries visited by P is a perfect square. S sits second to the left of P. The
difference between the number of countries visited by P and S is 12. P visits more
countries than S. As many people sit to the left of T as to the right of S. The
number of countries visited by T is 11 less than the number of countries visited by
S. Only one person sits between T and R. The number of countries visited by the
one who sits fourth to the left of R is visited three countries less than the number
of countries visited by R. V sits to the immediate left of the one who visits 22
countries. The number of countries visited by Q and the person sits immediate
left of Q is a multiple of 11. Q does not sit at the extreme right end of the line.
Both the immediate neighbours of U visit odd number of countries and they visited
less number of countries than U. T doesn’t visit more than 25 countries
186. Four of the following live are alike in a certain way based on the number of
countries they visit and thus form a group. Identify the one which does not belong
to the group.
1) R, 33 2) T, 21 3) S, 36 4) Q, 23 5) T, 24

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 50

187. As many people sit between W and the one who visits 22 countries as to the right
of _______.
1) The one who visits 24 countries
2) U
3) R
4) P
5) The one who visits 36 countries

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188. What is the difference between the number of countries visited by R and T?
1) 8 2) 9 3) 11 4) 12 5) 13
189. Who sits second to the left of the one who visits 23 countries?
1) W
ha
2) The one who visits 22 countries
3) S

E
4) The one who visits 21 countries
d
5) V
190. Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the given arrangement?
ee

1) S sits third to the left of the one who visits 36 countries.

2) V sits at the extreme left end of the line.
C
3) U sits second to the left of Q
4) W sits second to the left of the one who visits 33 countries
Sr

5) Both 3 and 4

KEY
1.2 2.5 3.2 4.5 5.1 6.5 7.2 8.4 9.5 10.2
11.3 12.4 13.5 14.4 15.5 16.3 17.2 18.5 19.1 20.5
21.5 22.3 23.3 24.4 25.5 26.1 27.3 28.4 29.3 30.1
C
31.2 32.4 33.5 34.1 35.5 36.3 37.2 38.4 39.5 40.4
41.1 42.4 43.1 44.2 45.3 46.5 47.4 48.5 49.2 50.4 SCAN QR FOR
51.4 52.3 53.2 54.3 55.2 56.4 57.4 58.2 59.2 60.3 OUR RESULTS
61.2 62.2 63.1 64.3 65.2 66.2 67.4 68.5 69.1 70.3
71.2 72.3 73.4 74.1 75.5 76.3 77.2 78.3 79.2 80.1
81.3 82.2 83.1 84.3 85.3 86.2 87.3 88.3 89.1 90.1
91.5 92.2 93.4 94.1 95.3 96.4 97.5 98.1 99.3 100.2
101.4 102.1 103.3 104.5 105.2 106.4 107.1 108.3 109.2 110.5
111.1 112.5 113.2 114.4 115.4 116.5 117.2 118.1 119.3 120.2
121.5 122.3 123.1 124.4 125.1 126.4 127.2 128.5 129.3 130.1
131.5 132.4 133.2 134.3 135.4 136.2 137.3 138.2 139.5 140.1
141.2 142.3 143.5 144.3 145.4 146.1 147.3 148.4 149.2 150.3
151.4 152.1 153.2 154.2 155.4 156.2 157.5 158.4 159.3 160.5
161.2 162.1 163.2 164.1 165.1 166.4 167.4 168.3 169.4 170.5
171.5 172.2 173.5 174.2 175.3 176.2 177.1 178.3 179.2 180.1
181.5 182.2 183.2 184.4 185.2 186.5 187.3 188.1 189.2 190.4

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