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LONG TERM – UNIT TEST– IX – CHEMISTRY & BOTANY (ANSWER KEY) - 27.02.25

Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720

1. The decreasing order of the following Solution :
compounds towards reactivity with alcohol is Alkoxy alcohol intermediate formed by
O aldehyde is called hemiacetal.
Br Gem dialkoxy compound formed by aldehyde
is called acetal and ketone is called ketal.
I) II)
3. The enolic form of acetone contains
CHO 1) 9σ-bonds, 1π-bond and 2 lone pairs
Br 2) 8σ-bonds, 2π-bonds and 2 lone pairs
3) 10σ-bonds, 1π-bond and 1 lone pair
III) IV) 4) 9σ-bonds, 2π-bonds and 1 lone pair
Ans : 1) 9σ-bonds, 1π-bond and 2 lone pairs
1) IV > III > II > I 2) III > IV > I > II
Solution :
3) I > II > III > IV 4) II > I > IV > III
Ans : 1) IV > III > II > I
Solution :
Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones No. of σ-bonds = 9
towards nucleophilic addition electron π-bonds = 1
withdrawing (–I & –R) groups increase the Lone pairs = 2
rate of NA. 4. Match the following
2. Of the following, which sequence indicating Column – I (Reaction)
acetal, ketal, hemiacetal respectively.

1) A)

2) B)

3)
C)

4) D)
Column – II (Reagent)
Ans : i) CH3MgI / H3O+
ii) PCC
2) iii) (CH3)2Cd
iv) H2SO4 + HgSO4/H2O
 2
1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii Ans : 4) CH3 – CH2 – CHCl2 and CH3 – CCl2
2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i – CH3
3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i Solution :
4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii Terminal gem dihalides give aldehydes and
Ans : 3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i non-terminal gem dihalides give ketones with
aqueous KOH.
Solution :
7. .
Where ‘X’ is
– PCC
1) Cyclobutene 2) Cyclobutane
3) Cyclobutyne 4) 1-Butene
– H2SO4+HgSO4/H2O Ans : 1) Cyclobutene
Solution :

– (CH3)2Cd
8. Select the compounds which can undergo
intramolecular Cannizzaro reaction in basic
– CH3MgI / H3O+ medium.
5. The correct order of dipole moment for the CHO
following compounds A) PhCOCHO B) |
CHO
O O
|| || CHO
I) H − C − H II) CH 3 − C −H C) (CH3)3CCOCHO D) |
CH 2 OH
O
|| 1) A, B, D 2) B, C, D
III) CH 3 − C − CH 3 3) A, B, C 4) B, C only
1) II > III > I 2) III > I > II Ans : 3) A, B, C
3) III > II > I 4) I > II > III Solution :
Ans : 3) III > II > I Alcohols cannot involve in intra molecular
Solution : Cannizaro reaction.
9. Assertion (A) : Formaldehyde is a planar
ERG increase the polarity of group
molecule.
6. Two isomeric compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ have Reason (R) : It contains sp2 hybridized carbon
the formula C3H6Cl2. With aq. KOH solution atom.
‘A’ gives propanal and ‘B’ gives acetone, 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
Then ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct explanation of the (A)
1) CH3 – CCl2 – CH3 and CH3 – CH2 – CHCl2 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
2) CH3 – CHCl – CH2Cl and CH3 – CCl2 – CH3 correct explanation of the (A)
3) CH3 – CH2 – CHCl2 and CH3 – CHCl –CHCl2 3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
4) CH3 – CH2 – CHCl2 and CH3 – CCl2 – CH3 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
 3
Ans : 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R)
is a correct explanation of the (A)
Solution : 1) 2)
Formaldehyde is a planar molecule.
It contains sp2 hybridized carbon atom. OH

10.

Where ‘C’ is 3) 4)
O CH3
CHO C
Br
Br
1) 2)

O CH3
COOH C Ans : 2)

3) 4)
Solution :
O CH3
C In basic medium, halide undergo elimination
reaction
Ans : 4) 12. Which of the following statements are wrong?
I) Acetaldehyde does not undergoes aldol
Solution : condensation
NBS is used for allylic bromination II) Secondary alcohols can be easily oxidised
to aldehydes
III) The solubility of aldehydes and ketones in
water decreases with increase of size of the
alkyl group
IV) Methanal is a liquid at room temperature
1) I, II and IV 2) I, II and III
3) II, III and IV 4) All are wrong
Ans : 1) I, II and IV
Solution :
Acetaldehyde undergoes aldol condensation
Secondary alcohols can be easily oxidized to
ketones
11. Where ‘A’ is Methanal is a gas at room temperature.
 4
15. Carboxylic acids do not give the characteristic
13. reaction of “ > C = O” group because of
1) Dimerization
The formation ‘B’ from ‘A’ is 2) Resonance
1) Stephen’s reaction 3) Cyclic structure
2) Etard reaction 4) Attached alkyl radical
3) Gatterman-Koch reaction Ans : 2) Resonance
4) Rosenmund’s reduction Solution :
Carboxylic acids are resonance stabilized
Ans : 2) Etard reaction
Solution :

i)Br /RedP
i)KCN
16. CH3COOH 
ii)H O → Y 
2
ii)H O+
→Z
2 3

Where ‘Z’ is
14. The major organic product formed from the 1) Glycolic acid
following reaction is 2) α-Hydroxypropanic acid
3) Succinic acid
4) Malonic acid
Ans : 4) Malonic acid
Solution :
1)

2)

3) 17. Major product is

OCH3
4)
1) 2)

Ans : 2)
O CH3
Solution : O
OCH3
O C CH3

3) 4)
CH3

O
 5
OCH3 20. Which of the following systematic name(s)
NH2
Ans : 2) C2H5
is/are correct for ?
O CH3

Solution : Br
Friedel-Craft’s acylation A) 4-Bromo-2-ethylaniline
–OCH3 group directs the next incoming B) 4-Bromo-2-ethylbenzenamine
electrophile towards p-position. C) 4-Bromo-2-ethylaminobenzene
18. The decreasing order of ester formation with D) 3-Bromo-1-ethylbenzanamine
acetic acid in presence of H+ is 1) A, B and C only 2) B only
3) A and B only 4) A, B, C and D
I) II) Ans : 3) A and B only
Solution :
IUPAC rules
III) IV) 21. The mixture of primary, secondary and tertiary
amines can be prepared by
1) I > III > II > IV 2) I > II > III > IV 1) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction
2) Ammonolysis of alkyl halides
3) IV > II > III > I 4) IV > III > II > I
3) Reduction of nitroalkanes
Ans : 1) I > III > II > IV 4) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Solution : Ans : 2) Ammonolysis of alkyl halides
1 Solution :
Esterification ∝
steric effect Alkyl halides on reaction with ammonia forms
all primary, secondary and tertiary ammines.
19. Phenol is a weaker acid than acetic acid
because
1) Both phenoxide ion and acetate ion are
equally stable 22. (Major)
2) Phenol is less soluble in water than acetic
acid Where B is
CH3
3) Acetate ion is better stabilized by
NO2
equivalent resonance than phenoxide ion
1) 2)
4) Phenoxide ion is better stabilized by
resonance than acetate ion
Ans : 3) Acetate ion is better stabilized by
equivalent resonance than phenoxide ion CH3
Solution :
Acetate ion is better stabilized by equivalent 3) 4)
resonance than phenoxide ion. NH2
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Ans : 2)

Solution :
1) III > I > IV > II
2) II > IV > I > III
3) I > III > II > IV
4) I > II > IV > III
Ans : 1) III > I > IV > II
Solution :
23. Examine the following two structures for the Electron withdrawing groups decrease the rate
anilinium ion and choose the correct of reaction.
statement from the ones given below
Electron releasing groups increase the rate of
reaction.
25. Assertion (A) : The carbon-nitrogen bond in
aniline is stronger than the carbon-nitrogen
bond is methyl amine.
Reason (R) : The C–N bond in aniline has
1) II is not an acceptable canonical structure partial double bond character.
because carbonium ions are less stable than 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
anilinium ion correct explanation of (A)
2) II is not an acceptable canonical structure 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
because it is non-aromatic. correct explanation of (A)
3) II is not an acceptable canonical structure
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
because nitrogen has 10 valence electrons
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
4) II is an acceptable canonical structure
Ans : 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
Ans : 3) II is not an acceptable canonical
the correct explanation of (A)
structure because nitrogen has 10 valence
electrons Solution :
The carbon-nitrogen bond in aniline is
Solution :
Fact. stronger than the carbon-nitrogen bond is
methyl amine.
24. The rate of Hoffmann’s bromamide
The C–N bond in aniline has partial double
degradation with following amides will follow
the order : bond character.
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26. The amines that release N2 gas upon treatment Ans : 1) IV I III II
with NaNO2/dil.HCl of 0-5°C is/are Solution :
Option (1) is correct match.
A) 28. Statement I : Aniline does not undergo
Friedel Craft’s reaction.
Statement II : –NH2 group of aniline
B) involved in salt formation with AlCl3.
1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
C) 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
Ans : 1) Both statements I and II are correct
Solution :
D)
Aniline does not undergo Friedel craft’s
reaction.
–NH2 group of aniline involved in salt
E) formation with AlCl3.
29. Give the decreasing order of reactivity of
1) A only 2) A and C only diazonium ion coupling with phenol.
3) A, C and D only 4) All the above a) p–NO2–C6H4–N2+
Ans : 2) A and C only b) p–Cl–C6H4N2+
Solution : c) C6H5–N2+
Alkyl amines form unstable diazonium salts, d) p-CH3–C6H4N2+
undergo hydrolysis form alcohol and N2 gas. e) p–MeO–C6H4N2+
27. Match column I with column II and choose the 1) a > b > c > d > e 2) e > d > c > b > a
correct answer. 3) b > a > c > e > d 4) c > d > a > b > e
Column I Column II Ans : 1) a > b > c > d > e
(Conversion) (Reaction) Solution :
Hofmann’s The more EWG in diazonium ion, faster is the
RCHO →
A I bromamide coupling.
RCH2NH2
reaction
30. Assertion (A) : Anilinium hydrogen sulphate
RCONH2 → Stephen on heating forms para amino benzene
B II
RNH2 reaction
sulphonic acid predominantly.
RCONH2 Reduction with Reason (R) : The sulphonic acid group is
C III
→ RCH2NH2 LiAlH4/H2O electron with drawing group.
Reductive 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
D RCN → RCHO IV
amination correct explanation of (A)
A B C D 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
1) IV I III II correct explanation of (A)
2) I IV II III 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
3) II III I IV 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
4) IV II III I
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Ans : 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A) 33.

Solution :
Anilinium hydrogen sulphate on heating forms Cu2Cl2/HCl
(D)
para amino benzene sulphonic acid C2H5OH
predominantly. (C) (E)
The sulphonic acid group is electron with H2O
(F)
drawing group.
31. Statement I : Primary amines on reaction where D, E and F are respectively
with benzene sulphonyl chloride form alkali
soluble compound.
Statement II : Tertiary amines do not react 1)
with benzene sulphonyl chloride.
1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct 2)
Ans : 1) Both statements I and II are correct
Solution :
Primary amines on reaction with benzene
sulphonyl chloride form alkali soluble 3)
compound.
Tertiary amines do not react with benzene
sulphonyl chloride.
32. Assertion (A) : Aniline and N-methyl aniline
4)
both can give carbylamine test.
Reason (R) : All 1° amines can give
carbylamine test.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) Ans : 3)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) Solution :
3) (A) is true but (R) is false NO2 NH2 N2Cl
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
A= , B= ,C= ,
Solution :
Aniline can give carbylamine test but N-
OH
methyl aniline cannot, because 1° amines only
give carbylamine test.
D= ,E= ,F=
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34. Phenol and benzoic acid may be distinguished A B C D
by their reactions with 1) III IV I II
A) Aqueous NaOH 2) IV I III II
B) Aqueous NaHCO3
3) III IV II I
C) Neutral FeCl3
1) A and C only 2) B and C only 4) IV III II I
3) A and B only 4) A, B and C only Ans : 1) III IV I II
Ans : 2) B and C only Solution :
Solution : Option (1) is correct match.
Phenols do not decompose NaHCO3 but 37. Which of the following statements is wrong?
benzoic acid can decompose.
1) All methyl ketones give a positive iodoform
Phenols react with neutral FeCl3 form blue
test
(or) violet colour but benzoic acid produce
2) Acetaldehyde gives iodoform test
buff colour.
3) All secondary alcohols give positive
35. Match column I with column II and choose the
iodoform test
correct answer.
4) Any alcohol that can be oxidized to an
Column I Column II
acetyl group gives a positive iodoform test
(Element detected) (Reagent used)
Ans : 3) All secondary alcohols give positive
A Carbon I Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
iodoform test
B Nitrogen II (NH4)2MoO4
Solution :
C Sulphur III CuO
D Phosphorus IV FeSO4/H2SO4
Compounds and
A B C D
only give iodoform test.
1) III I II IV
38. C6H5CHO and CH3CHO can be distinguished
2) II III IV I
by
3) III IV I II
A) Tollen’s test B) Fehling’s test
4) III IV II I
C) Iodoform test D) 2,4-DNP test
Ans : 3) III IV I II
1) A, B and C only 2) B and C only
Solution :
Option (3) is correct match. 3) C and D only 4) All of these
Ans : 2) B and C only
36. Match column I with column II and choose the
correct answer. Solution :
Column I Column II Aliphatic aldehydes only give Fehling’s test.
(Test) (Functional group)
Bromine water Carbonyl Carbonyl compounds contain only
A I give iodoform test.
test group
Ceric ammonical 39. The compound which does not give a positive
B II Amino group
nitrate test Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen is
C 2,4-DNP test III Unsaturation 1) Urea 2) Hydroxyl amine
Hinsberg reagent Alcoholic 3) Glycine 4) Phenyl hydrazine
D IV Ans : 2) Hydroxyl amine
test group
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Solution : 43. The correct IUPAC name
Hydroxyl amine does not contain any carbon, [CrCl(NO2)(NH3)4]NO3 complex is
hence it does not give positive test in 1) Tetraaminenitrito-N-chloridochromium(III)
Lassaigne’s test. nitrate
40. Which of the following gives red colour in 2) Tetraaminechloridonitrito-N-chromium(II)
Victor Meyer’s test? nitrate
1) n-Propyl alcohol 2) Isopropyl alcohol
3) Tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-chromium(III)
3) 3° butyl alcohol 4) 2° butyl alcohol
nitrate
Ans : 1) n-Propyl alcohol
4) Tetraaminenitrito-N-chloridochromium(II)
Solution :
nitrate
1° alcohols give red colour
Ans : 3) Tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-
2° alcohols give blue colour
chromium(III) nitrate
3° alcohols give colourless solutions in Victor
Meyer’s test. Solution :
Tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-chromium(III)
41. Identify the correct reasons about the
nitrate
transition metal ions form co-ordinate
compounds 44. Which of the following is anionic complex
I) They have small size sphere?
II) They have less nuclear charge 1) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl 2) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3
III) They have vacant d-orbitals 3) [Ni(CO)4] 4) Na[Ag(CN)2]
IV) They can accept lone pair of electrons Ans : 4) Na[Ag(CN)2]
1) I, III only 2) I, III, IV only Solution :
3) I, II, IV only 4) I, II, III and IV Na[Ag(CN)2] → Na+ + [Ag(CN)2]–
Ans : 2) I, III, IV only anionic complex
Solution : 45. Oxidation number of Fe in violet coloured
complex Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] is
The have more nuclear charge 1) 0 2) 2
42. When excess of AgNO3 solution is added to
3) 3 4) 4
aqueous solution containing 0.1 mole
Ans : 2) 2
CoCl3.xNH3, if 43.05g of AgCl is precipitated
then ‘x’ value is Solution :
1) 3 2) 4 4 + x + 5 (–1) + 1 (–1) = 0
3) 5 4) 6 x = +2
Oxidation state of ‘Fe’ is +2
Ans : 4) 6
Solution : 46. Lead poisoning in the body can be primarily
43.05 removed by
n AgCl = = 0.3 1) EDTA in the form of calcium dihydrogen
143.5
0.1 mole of CoCl3.xNH3 gives 0.3 mole of AgCl salt
1 mole of CoCl3.xNH3 gives 3 mole of AgCl 2) Cis-platin
∴ The structure is 3) DMG
CoCl3.6NH3 ⇒ [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 4) All of the above
 11
Ans : 1) EDTA in the form of calcium Solution :
dihydrogen salt [CoF6]–3 ⇒ sp3d2
Solution : [Fe(H2O)6]+3 ⇒ High spin, paramagnetic
Pb+2 forms a water soluble complex with [Co(en)3]+3, [Cr(Co)6] ⇒ d2sp3 and low spin
EDTA and removed complex
47. Which one is an outer orbital complex? 50. Statement – I : [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and
1) [Ni(NH3)6]+2 2) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2. H2O are the examples of
3) [Co(NH3)6]+3 4) [Fe(CN)6]–4 solvated isomers.
Statement – II : Solvate isomers differ by
Ans : 1) [Ni(NH3)6]+2
whether or not a solvent molecule is directly
Solution : bonded to the metal ion (or) merely present as
In [Ni(NH3)6]+2, Ni+2 has 3d8 electronic free solvent molecules in the crystal lattice.
configuration sp3d2 1) Both statements I and II are correct
48. The correct order of their magnetic moment 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(spin only) is 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
P : [FeF6]3– Q : [CoF6]3–, 4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
R : [V(H2O)6]+3 S : [Ti(H2O)6]+3 Ans : 1) Both statements I and II are correct

1) P > Q > R > S 2) P < Q < R < S Solution :

[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2. H2O are
3) P = Q > R = S 4) P > R > Q > S
the examples of solvated isomers.
Ans : 1) P > Q > R > S Solvate isomers differ by whether or not a
Solution : solvent molecule is directly bonded to the
P ⇒ Fe+3 [n = 5] metal ion (or) merely present as free solvent
Q ⇒ Co+3 [n = 4] molecules in the crystal lattice.
R ⇒ V+3 [n = 2] 51. The correct decreasing order of ligands based
S ⇒ Ti+3 [n = 1] on the field strength is
1) CO > CN– > en > NH3 > H2O > OH–
49. Match the following
2) CO > CN– > NH3 > en > H2O > OH–
List – I List – II
3) CO > CN– > NH3 > en > OH– > H2O
I) [CoF6]–3 p) High spin complex
4) CN– > CO > en > NH3 > H2O > OH–
II) [Fe(H2O)6]+3 q) Low spin complex
Ans : 1) CO > CN– > en > NH3 > H2O > OH–
III) [Co(en)3]+3 r) Outer orbital complex
IV) [Cr(CO)6] s) Inner orbital complex Solution :
CO > CN– > en > NH3 > H2O > OH–
t) Paramagnetic
1) I-p,r,t, II-p,r,t, III-q,s, IV-q,s 52. The correct order of ∆o for
[Co(NH3)6]+3, [Rh(NH3)6]+3, [Ir(NH3)6]+3
2) I-p,t, II-p,t, III-q,s, IV-q,s
1) [Co(NH3)6]+3 > [Rh(NH3)6]+3 > [Ir(NH3)6]+3
3) I-p, II-p,r, III-q, IV-q,s 2) [Ir(NH3)6]+3 > [Rh(NH3)6]+3 > [Co(NH3)6]+3
4) I-p,r,t, II-p,r,t, III-q, IV-q,s 3) [Rh(NH3)6]+3 > [Co(NH3)6]+3 > [Ir(NH3)6]+3
Ans : 1) I-p,r,t, II-p,r,t, III-q,s, IV-q,s 4) [Co(NH3)6]+3 > [Ir(NH3)6]+3 > [Rh(NH3)6]+3
 12
Ans : 2) [Ir(NH3)6]+3 > [Rh(NH3)6]+3 > + +2
3) Pt (s) | H 2(g) | H (aq.1M) || Cu (aq) | Cu (s)
[Co(NH3)6]+3 (1bar) (1M)
+ +2
Solution : 4) Pt (s) | H 2(g) | H (aq.0.1M ) || Cu (aq) | Cu (s)
As the quantum number of the d-orbitals of (1bar) (1M)
central atom increases, ∆o value increases +
Ans : 3) Pt (s) | H 2(g) | H (aq.1M) || Cu +(aq)
2
| Cu (s)
53. In I) [V(CO)5]3– II) [Mn(CO)5]– (1bar) (1M)

Which of the following orders is incorrect? Solution :

1) C – O bond order : I < II For a standard electrode potential
2) C – O bond length : I > II [Cu+2] = 1M
3) C – O bond strength : I < II [H+] = 1M
4) Metal – C bond strength : I < II PH 2 = 1 bar
Ans : 4) Metal – C bond strength : I < II 56. E oCr O−2 /Cr +3 = 1.33 V ; E oCl − = 1.36
2 7 2 /Cl

Solution : E oMnO− /Mn +2 = 1.51V ; E Cr

o
= −0.74
+3
/Cr
As the negative charge on the coordination 4

sphere increases, the extent of back bonding Find out the strongest reducing agent
also increases. This in turn, leads to an 1) Cl– 2) Cr
increase in metal – carbon bond order and 3) Cr+3 4) Mn+2
decrease in carbon – oxygen bond order Ans : 2) Cr
M – C bond order I > II Solution :
bond strength I > II SRP α oxidizing power :
54. The orbitals having lower energy in MnO −4 > Cl 2 > Cr2 O 7−2 > Cr +3
tetrahedral complexes according to CFT are
SOP α reducing power :
1) dxy, dyz, d z 2 2) dxy, dyz, d x 2 − y2 Mn+2 < Cl– < Cr+3 < Cr
3) dxy, dyz, dxz 4) d x 2 − y2 , dz2 57. Statement – I : E Ag+ /Ag increases with increase

Ans : 4) d x2 − y2 , dz2 in concentration of Ag+ ion

Statement – II : E Ag+ /Ag has a positive value.
Solution :
Tetrahedral 1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
Ans : 1) Both statements I and II are correct
Solution :
55. Which cell will measure standard electrode Ag+ + e– → Ag
potential of copper electrode? 0.0591 1
E cell = E oAg + /Ag − log
1) Pt (s) | H 2(g) | H +
|| Cu +2
| Cu (s) +
Ag /Ag 1 [Ag + ]
(aq.1M) (aq)
0.1bar (1M) 0.0591
+ +2
log[Ag + ]
E Ag + /Ag = E oAg + / Ag +
2) Pt (s) | H 2(g) | H (aq.1M) || Cu (aq) | Cu (s) 1
(1bar) (2M) Conc. of [Ag+] increases, E Ag + / Ag increases
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58. Eocell = 1.1 V for Daniel cell. Which of the Ans : 1) 130 S cm2 mol–1
following expressions are correct description Solution :
of state of equilibrium in this cell? Λ = λ+ + λ– = 57 + 73 = 130 S cm2 mol–1
1) 1.1 = Kc 61. Choose the correct statement about
2.303RT electrolysis of Aq. AgNO3 by using Ag
2) log Kc = 2.2 electrodes.
2F
1
3) log Kc =
2.2 1) anode – oxidation [H2O → 2H+ + O2 + 2e–]
0.059 2
4) log Kc = 1.1 cathode – reduction [Ag + e → Ag]
+ –

1
2.2 2) anode – oxidation [H2O → 2H+ + O2 + 2e–]
Ans : 3) log Kc = 2
0.059
cathode – reduction [2H+ + 2e– → H2]
Solution :
3) anode – oxidation [Ag → Ag+ + e–]
2.303RT
E cell = E cell
o
− log Kc cathode – reduction [Ag+ + e–→ Ag]
nF
4) anode – oxidation [Ag → Ag+ + e–]
2.303RT
0 = 1.1 – log Kc cathode – reduction [2H+ + 2e– → H2]
nF
0.0591 Ans : 3) anode – oxidation [Ag → Ag+ + e–]
0 = 1.1 – log Kc cathode – reduction [Ag+ + e–→ Ag]
2
2.2 2.2 Solution :
= log Kc ⇒ K C = 10 0.0591 When the electrode of the same material is
0.0591
used, the metal its self gets oxidized and
59. The number of moles of copper will be
reduced
deposited from a solution of NiSO4 by passing
24125 ‘C’ charge Cathode – reduction : Ag+ + e– → Ag
1) 1 mole 2) 0.1 mole Anode – oxidation Ag → Ag+ + e–
62. The correct order of mobility of alkali metal
3) 0.125 mole 4) 0.5 mole
ions in aqueous solution is
Ans : 3) 0.125 mole
1) K+ > Rb+ > Na+ > Li+
Solution : 2) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
Ni+2 + 2e– → Ni 3) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+
2F → 1 mole 4) Na+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
2 x 96500 ‘C’ → 1 mole Ans : 2) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
24125 ‘C’ → ? Solution :
24125 x1 1 Rb+ ion is least hydrated while Li+ ion is
= = 0.125 mole
2 x 96500 8 maximum hydrated. So mobility of Li+ ions is
60. Molar ionic conductivities of bivalent less.
electrolytic ions are 57 and 73 S cm2 mole–1 63. The electrode potentials for
respectively. The molar conductivity of Cu+2(aq) + e– → Cu+(aq) & Cu+(aq) + e– → Cu(s)
solution will be are +0.15V and +0.50 V respectively. The
1) 130 S cm2 mol–1 2) 65 S cm2 mol–1 value of E0Cu +2 /Cu will be
3) 260 S cm2 mol–1 4) 187 S cm2 mol–1
 14
1) 0.5 V 2) 0.325 V Solution :
3) 0.650 V 4) 0.150 V K x1000
Λm =
Ans : 2) 0.325 V M
Solution : 1
Λm ∝
(∆G0)3 = (∆G0)1 + (∆G0)2 M
–nF E 0cell = ( −nFE 0cell ) + ( −nFE 0cell ) 66. The correct order of the wavelengths of
absorption in the visible region for the
E 0
=
( −nFE ) + ( −nFE )
0
cell 1
0
cell 2 following complexes.
− nF
cell
[Ni(NO2)6]–4, [Ni(NH3)6]+2, [Ni(H2O)6]+2

E 0cell =
( −1× F × 0.15) + ( −1× F × 0.50 ) 1) [Ni(NO2)6]–4 < [Ni(H2O)6]+2 < [Ni(NH3)6]+2
−2 × F 2) [Ni(NO2)6]–4 < [Ni(NH3)6]+2 < [Ni(H2O)6]+2
0.15 + 0.50 3) [Ni(H2O)6]+2 < [Ni(NH3)6]+2 < [Ni(NO2)6]–4
E 0cell = = 0.325 V
2 4) [Ni(NH3)6]+2 < [Ni(NO2)6]–4 < [Ni(H2O)6]+2
64. The equilibrium constant for the reaction Ans :
+2
Sr(s) + Mg (aq +2 12 at 2) [Ni(NO2)6]–4 < [Ni(NH3)6]+2 < [Ni(H2O)6]+2
) ⇌ Sr(aq) + Mg(s) is 2.0 x 10

25oC the Eo for a cell made up of Sr/Sr+2 and Solution :

Mg+2/Mg half cells The order of the ligand in spectro chemical
1) 0.36 V 2) 0.73 V series H2O < NH3 < NO −2
3) 0.18 V 4) 0.13 V The energy of observed light will be in the
Ans : 1) 0.36 V order
Solution : [Ni(H2O)6]+2 < [Ni(NH3)6]+2 < [Ni(NO2)6]–4
0.0591 hC 1
E ocell = log K c E= ⇒E∝
n λ λ
0.0591 ∴ The wavelengths of absorption in the
E ocell = log (2.0 x1012 )
2 visible region
0.0591 [Ni(NO2)6]–4 < [Ni(NH3)6]+2 < [Ni(H2O)6]+2
E ocell = [log (2.0) + log (10)12 ]
2 67. A current of 30 amp is passed through the
0.0591 aqueous solution of NaCl for 1 hr. Then the
E ocell = [0.3 + 12] volume of Cl2 evolved at STP is
2
E ocell = 0.36V 1) 12.54 L 2) 10.5 L
3) 11.2 L 4) 9.6 L
65. Match the following
Ans : 1) 12.54 L
Column – I Column – II
Solution :
(Concentration (Molar conductivity of
of KCl) KCl at 25oC (S m2 mole–1) 2NaCl → 2Na+ + 2Cl–
I) 1.000 mol lit–1 p) 141.0 x 10–4 2Cl– → Cl2 + 2e– at anode
II) 0.100 mol lit –1 q) 111.3 x 10–4 Amount of charge (Q) = i x t
III) 0.010 mol lit–1 r) 129.0 x 10–4 = 30 x 60 x 60 = 108000 C
1) I-p, II-q, III-r 2) I-r, II-q, III-p 2 x 96500 C → 22.4 lit Cl2
3) I-p, II-r, III-q 4) I-q, II-r, III-p 108000 C → ?
Ans : 4) I-q, II-r, III-p = 12.5 lit
 15
68. Which of the following process does not 71. Statement – I : It is important to note that in
involve oxidation of iron? the absence of ligand, crystal field splitting
1) Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe does not occurs.
2) Liberation H2 from steam by Fe at high Statement – II : When nickel (II) chloride is
temperature dissolved in water, [Ni(H2O)6]+2 complexes
formed, if the bidentate ligand (en) is
3) Rusting of iron sheets
progressively added to [Ni(H2O)6]+2 solution
4) All of the above
in the molar ratios en : Ni ⇒ 1 : 1, 2 : 1, 3 : 1.
Ans : 1) Formation of Fe(CO)5 from Fe
The colour change occurs.
Solution : 1) Both statements I and II are correct
Oxidation state does not change in Fe(CO)5 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
formed from Fe. 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
69. Identify the incorrect statement from the 4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
following about the complexes? Ans : 1) Both statements I and II are correct
1) According to werners theory 1o valency Solution :
always satisfied by –ve ligands It is important to note that in the absence of
2) According to werners theory 2o valency ligand, crystal field splitting does not occurs.
satisfied by neutral and negative ligands When nickel (II) chloride is dissolved in
3) 1o valency of metal is equal to its oxidation water, if the bidentate ligand (en) is
number progressively added in the molar ratios en : Ni,
4) 2o valency is also called ionisable valency 1 : 1, 2 : 1, 3 : 1. The colour change occurs.
72. The cell reaction,
Ans : 4) 2o valency is also called ionisable
Sn(s) + Pb+2(aq) → Sn+2(aq) + Pb(s)
valency 0
ESn +2
/Sn
= –0.14, E 0Pb+2 / Pb = –0.126V the cell
Solution :
2o valency is also called as Non-ionisable reaction to be reversible find out value of
valency  Pb +2 
 Sn +2  in the cell reaction.
70. Identify the correct statement about splitting  
energy for the given complexes 1) antilog (–0.28) 2) antilog (–0.474)
1) [Ni(NH3)4]+2 = [Ni(NH3)6]+2 3) antilog (–1.52) 4) antilog (–0.68)
2) [Ni(NH3)4]+2 > [Ni(NH3)6]+2 Ans : 2) antilog (–0.474)
3) [Ni(NH3)4]+2 < [Ni(NH3)6]+2 Solution :
4) Can’t predict E 0cell = –0.126 – (–0.14) = 0.014V
Ans : 3) [Ni(NH3)4]+2 < [Ni(NH3)6]+2 0.059  Pb +2 
E = 0.014 + log
Solution : 2 Sn +2 
[Ni(NH3)4]+2 < [Ni(NH3)6]+2 At equilibrium Ecell = 0
∆t ∆o  Pb +2 
4 ∴ log = –0.474
∆t = ∆o ⇒ 9∆t = 4∆o Sn +2 
9
∴ ∆t < ∆ o  Pb +2 
= antilog (–0.474)
Sn +2 
 16
73. Identify the incorrect statement. 76. Assertion (A) : Tetrahedral complexes do not
1) An electrochemical cell works if emf is show geometrical isomerism.
negative Reason (R) : The relative positions of
2) In an electrolytic cell reduction occurs at unidentate ligands attached to the central
cathode metal atom are the same with respect to each
3) Electrolytic conductance generally increase other.
with rise in temperature 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
4) Greater the reduction potential represent correct explanation of (A)
greater oxidizing power of substance 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
Ans : 1) An electrochemical cell works only if correct explanation of (A)
emf is negative 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Solution : 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
An electrochemical cell works only if emf is Ans : 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
positive and Gibb’s free energy is negative.
Solution :
74. Out of HCl and NaCl, Λ ∞m of HCl is Tetrahedral complexes do not show
1) greater than Λ ∞m of NaCl geometrical isomerism.
The relative positions of unidentate ligands
2) less than Λ ∞m of NaCl
attached to the central metal atom are the same
3) same as Λ ∞m of HCl with respect to each other.
4) can’t be predicted 77. Statement – I : E ocell is an intensive property.
Ans : 1) greater than Λ ∞m of NaCl ∆G o
Statement – II : is also intensive property.
Solution : n
Λ ∞m of HCl is higher than Λ ∞m of NaCl. 1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(∵ Λ ∞
m
H+
> Λ m∞
Na +
) 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
75. The resistance of 0.1N solution of CH3COOH
Ans : 1) Both statements I and II are correct
is 250Ω when measured in a cell, the cell
Solution :
constant of cell is 1.15 cm–1. Then Λeq (in
Ecell, E ocell ⇒ Intensive property
ohm–1 cm2 eq–1) of 0.1N CH3COOH is
∆G, ∆Go ⇒ Extensive property
1) 18.4 2) 0.023
∆G o Extensive
3) 46 4) 9.2 = = Intensive property
n Extensive
Ans : 3) 46
78. In which case the reduction potential of
Solution : hydrogen half cell will be positive if
1 l 1 I) PH2 = 1atm and [H+] = 2.0M
K= × = ×1.15
R a 250
II) PH2 = 1atm and [H+] = 1.0M
K ×1000 1 1000
Λeq = = × 1.15 × = 46 III) PH2 = 2atm and [H+] = 1.0M
N 250 0.1
IV) PH 2 = 2atm and [H+] = 2.0M
 17
1) I, III only 2) I, III, IV only Λm 20.9
α= ∞
= = 0.053
3) I, IV only 4) II only Λ m 390.5
Ans : 3) I, IV only
Cα 2
Solution : Ka = = Cα 2
1− α
2H+ + 2e– → H2 ∴ Ka = 0.0142 x (0.053)2 = 4 x 10-–5
−0.0591 PH 80. Represent the cell in which of the following
Ecell = log +2 2
2 [H ] reaction takes place
−0.0591 1 Mg(s) + 2Ag+(0.01 M) → Μg+2(0.1 Μ) + 2Ag(s)
From (I), Ecell = log 2 = +ve
2 [2] Calculate its Ecell if E 0cell = 3.17 V
−0.0591 1 1) 2.5 V 2) 1.964 V
From (II), Ecell = log = 0
2 1 3) 3.964 V 4) 3.08 V
−0.0591 2 Ans : 4) 3.08 V
From (III), Ecell = log = –ve
2 1 Solution :
−0.0591 2  Mg +2 
log 
From (IV), Ecell = log 2 = +ve 0.0591
2 2 Ecell = 3.17 − 2
79. The conductivity of 0.0142 mole lit–1 acetic
2  Ag + 
acid is 2.97 x 10–4 S cm–1. Then the 0.0591 10−1
= 3.17 − log
dissociation constant is [If Λ for acetic acid
(10−2 )
o 2
m 2
is 390.5 S cm2 mol–1]
0.0591
1) 4 x 10–4 2) 4 x 10–5 = 3.17 − log103
2
3) 4 x 10–3 4) 4.5 x 10–3
0.0591
Ans : 2) 4 x 10–5 = 3.17 − (3)
2
Solution : Ecell = 3.17 – 0.08865
K x1000 2.97 x10−4 x103 Ecell = 3.08 V
Λm = =
M 0.0142
2.97 x 0.1
Λm = = 20.9
0.0142
BOTANY
[Test ID : 129]
1. 2) Infection 13. 3) 2968
2. 2) Initiation of transcription 14. 4) Acidic amino acid is replaced by neutral
3. 4) It is expressed as rRNA amino acid
4. 3) Nucleosome 15. 1) V III I II
5. 2) lac o 16. 4) All of these
6. 3) ssRNA 17. 4) 3 start codons and 3 stop codons
7. 4) A, B, C and D 18. 1) Transcriptional level
8. 4) TTP 19. 4) A – mRNA, B – RNA polymerase, C –
9. 1) 20% Template strand
10. 1) Monerans 20. 3) Reverse transcription – 3′ → 5′
11. 3) 5 S rRNA 21. 3) lac o
12. 3) M. Nirenberg
 18
22. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the 62. 3) 4 and 16
correct explanation of A 63. 4) Lysozyme
23. 2) Small nuclear RNA 64. 2) Size
24. 3) B and C only 65. 3) Oligonucleotides
25. 2) H.G. Khorona 66. 4) Plasmid
26. 3) Universality 67. 4) Both (1) and (2)
27. 4) All of these 68. 3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is
28. 1) Both the statements are correct incorrect
29. 3) A purine is replaced by a pyrimidine 69. 1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
30. 4) All the above correct explanation of A
31. 2) A – F – B – C – E – D 70. 2) Phosphate group

32. 3) Protein synthesizing machinery has evolved 71. 3) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
around DNA 72. 4) Energy conservation
33. 4) A, B, C, D and E 73. 1) Both the statements are correct
34. 2) IV II I III 74. 4) All the above
35. 2) Hydrogen bonds 75. 3) Coleopterans – Flies
36. 3) 0.1 to 20 kb 76. 2) cryIAc – Cotton bollworms
37. 2) 9.2 x 106 77. 4) Root
38. 3) C 78. 4) A, B, C and D
39. 4) All 79. 4) Disulphide bridges

40. 2) 5′GGCCUAUA3′ 80. 4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is

41. 4) Heteropolymer, Heteropolymer correct

42. 1) II IV III I 81. 1) II III IV I
43. 1) Adenine 82. 3) Urine analysis

44. 3) 2 : 1 83. 3) ADA deficiency

45. 4) 300 84. 4) Bioremediation

46. 3) A is true but R is false 85. 2) Nematodes

47. 4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is 86. 3) 2,00,000

correct 87. 4) Purification of isolated protein

48. 4) Artificial vector 88. 1) Silencing of a gene

49. 3) Salmonella 89. 1) Both the statements are correct

50. 1) Herbert Boyer and Stanley Cohen 90. 3) A is true but R is false

51. 2) It acts as a vector to transfer foreign DNA 91. 4) Produced for the first time in the year 1995
into plant cells 92. 2) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
52. 1) Both the statements are correct 93. 2) Proinsulin A-peptide B- peptide C-
53. 1) DNA ligase Peptide
54. 2) Stanley Cohen 94. 3) Lymphocytes

55. 1) Ori site 95. 4) I and IV

56. 4) Escherichia coli 96. 1) Both the statements are correct

57. 4) Both (1) and (2) 97. 1) Gene therapy

58. 2) Large size 98. 2) Dedifferentiation

59. 1) Monera 99. 2) Auxins & Cytokinins

60. 2) > 900 100. 4) A, B, C and D

61. 4) CAG