INSTIL ACADEMY

FULL TEST-9
1. A small stone is dropped from top of a long 2. −3i^ N
tower. The ratio of distance travelled by the 3. −2.4i^ N
particle between t = 5 s to t = 10 s and t = 15 s 4. −1.8i^ N
to t = 20 s is 7. A bullet of mass 10 gm is fired from gun of mass
1. 1 : 4 1 kg with recoil velocity of gun 5 m/s. The velocity
2. 3 : 7 of the bullet is
3. 1 : 3 1. 100 m/s
4. 5 : 7 2. 1000 m/s
2. If in vernier callipers 4 VSD coincides with 2 3. 500 m/s
MSD, then least count of vernier calliper is [given 4. 700 m/s
1 MSD = 1 mm] 8. Find minimum value of m so that system does
1. 0.2 mm not accelerate.
2. 0.1 mm
3. 0.3 mm
4. 0.5 mm
3. A ring of radius R carries a charge Q uniformly
distributed as shown in figure. The electric field 1. (M2 – M1)μ
due to the ring on the x- axis will be maximum at 2. M2μ−M1
3. M2−M1μ
4. M2−M1μ
9. Find the current through 10 Ω resistor shown in
figure

1. Zero
2. x = R
3. x=R/2
4. x=R/√2
4. In the given circuit shown in the figure, the ratio 1. Zero
of charge on 1 μF capacitor to charge on 2 μF 2. 1 A
capacitor is 3. 2 A
4. 5 A
10. In the circuit given below, for no deflection in
galvanometer, the value of R will be

1. 2:1
2. 1:1
3. 4:1
4. Data insufficient
1. 2 Ω
2. 3 Ω
3. 6 Ω
5. 4. 8 Ω
Charge q is placed at the centre of a conducting 11. A charged particle enters a magnetic field at
isolated shell, as shown in the figure. Distribution right angle to the magnetic field. The field exists
of charge on inner and outer surface of shell is for a length equal to 1.5 times the radius of circular
1. Uniform on inner and non uniform on outer path of the particle. The particle will be deviated
2. Uniform on both surfaces from its path by an angle
3. Non uniform on inner surface and uniform on
outer
4. Non uniform on both inner and outer surface
6. A force F⃗ =(2i^+4j^) N acts on the block as
shown. The force of friction acting on the block is

1. 90°
2. sin−1(23)
3. 30°
1. −2i^ N 4. 180°

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 INSTIL ACADEMY
FULL TEST-9
12. Magnetic field induction at the centre of the Work done by the force when rubber is stretched
circular loop of radius a carrying current I as from x = 0 to x = 1 m is
shown in the figure is 1. 4 J
2. 8 J
3. Zero
4. 10 J
18. A body of mass 5 kg at rest is acted upon by
two mutually perpendicular forces 6 N and 8 N
1. 5μ0I/8πa simultaneously. Its kinetic energy after 10 s is
2. 3μ0I/8πa 1. 100 J
3. μ0I/4πa 2. 200 J
4. Zero 3. 500 J
13. A charged particle moves in a magnetic 4. 1000 J
field B⃗ =10i^ with initial velocity u⃗ =5i^+4j^. The 19. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (χ)
path of particle will be with temperature for a diamagnetic substance is
1. Straight line best represented by figure.
2. Circle
3. Helical
4. None
14. The distance of centre of mass of a semi-
circular uniform wire from centre of curvature is 1.

1.

2. 2.

3.
3.
4.
15. A particle of mass m is projected with
velocity v at an angle θ with the horizontal. The
4.
moment of linear momentum of particle at highest
20. Two coils of turns 5 and 10 respectively are
point of its trajectory about point of projection is
kept close to each other. Current passing through
1. mv3 sin3 θ cos θ/2 g
the first is reduced at rate r, and emf 6 mV is
2. mv3 sin2 θ cos θ/2 g
developed across the other coil. If second coil
3. mv3 sin θ cos3 θ/2 g
carries current which is reduced at the rate 2r, the
4. 2 mv3 sin2 θ cos θ/g
emf induced across the first coil will be
16. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is
1. 6 mV
rolling with angular velocity ω. Velocity of centre
2. 3 mV
of mass v = ωR. The angular momentum of disc
3. 9 mV
about centre is
4. 12 mV
21. In a series LCR a.c. circuit, the voltage
across L, C and R is 20 V each. The voltage of
source would be
1. 20/√2 V
2. 20/√3 V
3. 10/√2 V
1. 4. 20 V
22. The power factor of a series RL circuit is 1212.
2. If R = 100 Ω, , then L is (f = 50 Hz)
1. π H
2. √3π H
3. 3. π/√3 H
4. Zero 4. 2π H
17. A rubber develops a force F = (–2x + 1) N, 23. The average value of the given current
(where x is the extension in its natural length in m). waveform from t = 0 to t = 2T is

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 INSTIL ACADEMY
FULL TEST-9
28. An astronomical telescope, in normal setting
has magnifying power 12. If length of tube is 39
cm, then focal lengths of eyepiece and objective is
1. 3 cm, 36 cm
2. 4 cm, 35 cm
1. I0/T
3. 5 cm, 34 cm
2. I0/2T
4. 6 cm, 33 cm
3. I0
29. Two thin prisms A and B are made of glass of
4. 0
refractive index 1.4 and 1.5. They are combined
24. A series LCR circuit is connected across a
with each other so that this combination produces
source of emf E=10sin(100πt−π6). The current from
dispersion without deviation. If refracting angle of
the supply is I=2sin(100πt+π12). The impedance
prism A is 5° then the refracting angle of second
triangle is as
prism will be
1. 5°
2. 3°
3. 2°
4. 4°
1.
30. If we are observing 5 th dark fringe then path
difference between the two rays will be
1. 7λ/2
2. 5λ/2
3. 9λ/2
2. 4. 11λ/2
31. The momentum of the photon of de-broglie
wavelength 6000 Å will be
1. 1.1 × 10–27 kg m/s
2. 6.6 × 10–27 kg m/s
3. 3. 1.1 × 10–30 kg m/s
4. 6.6 × 10–30 kg m/s
[Link] angular momentum of an electron in
hydrogen atom is 5h/2π. The kinetic energy of this
electron is
1. 10.2 eV
4. 2. 12.09 eV
25. A bar is subjected to axial force as shown. 3. 3.4 eV
If E is the modulus of elasticity of the bar and A is 4. 0.544 eV
its cross-section area. Its elongation will be 33. The ionisation energy of electron (E) in second
orbit of hydrogen atom is
1. – 13.6 eV
1. Fl/3AE 2. – 3.4 eV
2. 2Fl/AE 3. + 3.4 eV
3. Fl/5AE 4. Zero
4. Fl/AE 34. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage of 6
26. Magnifying power of a compound microscope V is used as a voltage regulator in a circuit as
is 36. If the linear magnification of objective lens is shown in figure. The currents through diode, 1 kΩ
4, then the magnifying power of eye piece will be and 2 kΩ resistors are respectively
1. 40
2. 32
3. 144
4. 9
27. A lens behaves as a converging lens in air but a
diverging lens in water (μ w = 4/3), then the
refractive index of the material of lens will be
1. Greater than 4/3
2. 4/3 1. 7 mA, 3 mA, 10 mA
3. Less than 4/3 2. 7 mA, 10 mA, 3 mA
4. 3/2 3. 10 mA, 3 mA, 7 mA
4. 3 mA, 10 mA, 7 mA
35. What is current in given circuit, assume both p-
n junction diodes as ideal?
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 INSTIL ACADEMY
FULL TEST-9
4. 3/5
43. 5 moles of a monatomic gas is heated from (P 0,
1. 1 mA
2V0) to (3P 0, 4V 0). The change in its internal
2. Zero
energy is
3. 2 mA
1. 10 P0V0
4. 1 μA
2. 12 P0V0
36. In a hydraulic lift, used at car service station,
3. 14 P0V0
the radius of the large and small piston are in the
4. 15 P0V0
ratio of 10 : 1. What weight placed on small piston
44. A simple harmonic oscillator has time period of
will be sufficient to lift a car of mass 1000 kg?
4 s. The change in phase 34s after leaving the mean
1. 10 kg
position is (in radian)
2. 20 kg
1. 3π/4
3. 50 kg
2. 3π/8
4. 100 kg
3. π/4
37. Continuity equation for a fluid is based on the
4. 2π/3
principle of the
45. Acceleration displacement (a-x) graph of a
1. Conservation of mass
particle executing S.H.M. is shown in the figure. If
2. Conservation of energy
tanθ = 8, the frequency of oscillation is
3. Conservation of momentum
4. Conservation of angular momentum
38. A satellite which is geostationary in a particular
orbit is taken to another orbit. Its distance from the
centre of earth in new orbit is 2 times that of earlier
orbit. The time period in new orbit is

2. ⎷2π Hz
1. 48 H 1. 2π Hz
2. 24 H
3. 48/√2 3. 2⎷2π Hz
4. 24/√2 4. 1/π Hz
39. If the change in the value of g at a 46. The position (x) of a particle varies with time
height h above the surface of the earth is same as at (t) as X = 6sin100πt + 8sin (100πt+π/2). The motion
depth ‘X’ below the surface of the earth, then (h < of the particle is
< R) 1. Not simple harmonic
1. X = h 2. Simple harmonic with amplitude 10 unit
2. X = h2 3. Simple harmonic with amplitude 14 unit
3. X = 2h 4. Simple harmonic with amplitude 7 unit
4. X=h/2 47. Ten tuning forks are arranged in increasing
40. A copper rod 3 m long has a circular cross order of frequency in such a way that any two
section of radius 1 cm. One end is kept at 100°C consecutive tuning forks produces 8 beats/s. The
and the other at 25°C and the surface is insulated so highest frequency is four times that of the lowest.
that negligible heat is lost through the surface and Possible highest and lowest frequencies (in Hz) are
thermal conductivity of copper is 400 Wm –1K–1. 1. 160 and 40
The temperature of the rod 1 m from the hot end 2. 200 and 50
will be 3. 96 and 24
1. 50°C 4. 144 and 36
2. 75°C 48. A string fixed at both ends, is vibrating in a
3. 25°C particular mode of vibration. Vibration is such that
4. 90°C a point on string is at maximum displacement and it
41. A body cools from 50°C to 40°C in 5 minutes is at a distance of one fourth of length of string
and from 40°C to 36°C in next 5 minutes. The from one end. The frequency of vibration in this
temperature of surrounding is mode is 200 Hz. What will be the frequency of
1. 36°C vibration when it vibrates in next mode such that
2. 20°C the same point is at maximum displacement?
3. 33.3°C 1. 200 Hz
4. 15°C 2. 400 Hz
42. When a monatomic gas is heated at constant 3. 500 Hz
pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied 4. 600 Hz
which does work on the atmosphere is 49. Interference pattern is obtained with two
1. 1 coherent light sources of intensity ratio ‘4’. In the
2. 1/2 interference pattern, the ratio
3. 2/5 of (Imax−Imin/Imax+Imin) will be

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 INSTIL ACADEMY
FULL TEST-9
4/5 2. Ga
2/5 3. Sr
2/25 4. Sc
4/25 59. Periodic position of the element with atomic
50. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic number 28 is
wave is given by 1. 3rd period, 10th group
By=2×10–7sin(0.5×103x+1.5×1011t)T (jˆ) 2. 4th period, 7th group
where x, t are in m and second respectively. The 3. 3rd Period, 7th group
expression for the electric field is 4. 4th Period, 10th group
1. Ex=60sin(0.5×103y+1.5×1011t) V/m 60. The correct energy order of orbitals for a
2. Ex=2×10–7sin(0.5×103x+1.5×1011t) V/m multielectronic system is
3. Ez=60sin(0.5×103x+1.5×1011t) V/m
1. 4f > 5p > 4d > 4p
4. Ez=2×10–7sin(0.5×103y+1.5×1011t) V/m 2. 4f > 4d > 5p > 4p
51. All of given options have same empirical 3. 5p > 4d > 4p > 4f
formula except 4. 5p > 4p > 4d > 4f
1. CH3COOH 61. Assertion (A) : Mercury cell gives a constant
2. CH3COCH3 cell potential of 1.35 V.
3. HCHO Reason (R) : Electrolyte used in mercury cell is
4. HCOOCH3 paste of HgO and KOH.
52. The molecular mass of CaSO 4.2H 2O is (At. In light of the above statements, choose the correct
mass of Ca = 40, S = 32) answer from the options given below.
1. 190 u 1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
2. 240 u the correct explanation of the assertion
3. 172 u 2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
4. 120 u not the correct explanation of the assertion
53. A solution is prepared by adding 5 g of a solute 3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
in 15 g of water. The mass percent of the solute in 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
the solution is 62. Starch is converted to maltose by the enzyme
1. 25% 1. Invertase
2. 33.3% 2. Diastase
3. 50% 3. Maltase
4. 10% 4. Pepsin
54. Which of the following aqueous solutions has 63. The molecule which has 4 bond pairs and 1
the highest freezing point at 1 atm? lone pair of electron around central atom is
1. 0.1 m urea 1. XeF6
2. 0.1 m acetic acid 2. SF4
3. 0.1 m NaCl 3. NF3
4. 0.1 m BaCl2 4. NH4+
55. Incorrect thermodynamic relation for ideal 64. Number of C–C σ, C–C π and C–H σ bonds in
solution is Hexa-1, 3-dien-5-yne respectively are
1. ΔmixH = 0 1. 5, 5, 5
2. ΔmixV = 0 2. 5, 4, 6
3. ΔG < 0 3. 5, 3, 6
4. ΔS < 0 4. 6, 3, 5
56. Select the correct statement. 65. Species which has the minimum X-X distance
1. For association of a solute, i = 1 is
2. For complete dissociation of K2SO4, i = 2 1. I2
3. For urea solution, i = 1 2. Br2
4. For dissociation of solute, i = 1 3. Cl2
57. Which of the following transitions in hydrogen 4. F2
spectrum produces spectral line in UV region? 66. If 2 mol of an ideal gas undergoes free
1. 4→2
expansion at constant temperature (27°C), then heat
2. 5→3 absorbed in the process will be
3. 3→1 1. –600 R
4. 7→3 2. Zero
58. Which among the following is not a 3. –1200 R
4. –300 R
representative element?
1. Sn
67. In which of the following reaction ΔH = ΔU?

5
 INSTIL ACADEMY
FULL TEST-9
1. N2(g)+3H2(g)⇌2NH3(g)N2(g)
+3H2(g)⇌2NH3(g)
2. H2(g)+I2(g)⇌2HI(g)H2(g)+I2(g)⇌2HI(g)
3. CaCO3(s)⇌CaO(s)+CO2(g)CaCO3(s)⇌CaO(s) the product (X) is
+CO2(g)
4. PCl5(g)⇌PCl3(g)+Cl2(g)PCl5(g)⇌PCl3(g)
+Cl2(g) 1.
68. Select the correct option in the following.
1. Phosphonic acid has two P – H bonds
2. Orthophosphoric acid has two P = O bonds
3. Hypophosphoric acid has no P – O – P bond 2.
4. Pyrophosphoric acid has two P – OH bonds
69. Correct order of HEH bond angle is (E = N, P,
As, Sb)
1. SbH3> AsH3> PH3> NH3 3.
2. NH3> PH3> AsH3> SbH3
3. NH3> PH3> SbH3> AsH3
4. PH3> NH3> AsH3> SbH3 4.
70. The ion which is coloured not due to d-d
transition, is 76. Among the following compounds, which one is
the major product of the following reaction?
1. [Cu(NH3)4]2+
2. [Ni(H2O)6]2+
3. [Fe(H2O)6]3+
4. MnO-4
71. Consider the given table. 1. CH3–CH=CH−CH3CH3–CH=CH−CH3
2. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
Substance pH
A 2
3.
B 3 4. CH3–CH2–CH2−CH3CH3–CH2–CH2−CH3
C 4 77. Which of the following will be most easily
dehydrated
The correct order of increasing H + ion
concentration is
1. B<A<C
2. B<C<A
3. C<B<A 1.
4. A<B<C
72. The most suitable reagent for the following 2.
conversion is

3.
1. Na/liq. NH3
2. H2, Pd/C, quinoline
3. Zn/HCl
4. H2/Ni 4.
73. The only o, p-directing group which is 78. Strongest acidic compound among the
deactivating in nature following is
1. –OH 1. CH3OH
2. –NH2 2. CH3COOH
3. –F 3. HCOOH
4. –CH3
74. Mg 2C3 + H 2O → (X) an organic compound, (X)
is
1. Ethyne 4.
2. Ethane 79. The compound which will react fastest with
3. Propyne NaHSO 3 is?
4. Benzene
1. CH3CHO
75. Consider the following reaction 2. CH3COCH3
3. PhCHO

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 INSTIL ACADEMY
FULL TEST-9
4. PhCOCH3 87. Which among the following is an essential
80. Reagent used in Etard's reaction is amino acid?
1. K2Cr2O7
2. Cr2O3 1. Histidine
3. CrO2Cl2 2. Alanine
4. KMnO4 3. Proline
4. Serine
81. .
Here A and B respectively are 88. Which among the following is purine base?
1. 1. Cytosine
2. Adenine
3. Thymine
2. 4. Uracil
89. CH4+O2----ΔMo2O3-A+H2O Product A is
1. CH3OH
2. HCHO
3. HCOOH
3.
4. CO2
90. A : Vicinal dihalides on heating with zinc dust
forms an alkene.
4. R : Dihalides in which two halogen atoms are
attached to two adjacent carbon atoms are known as
vicinal dihalides.
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
82. 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
Major product B is
91. Which of the following d-block elements has
1. Ether the least enthalpy of atomisation?
2. Ester
3. Acetal 1. Cr
4. Anhydride 2. Zn
3. Mn
83. Correct order of K a of carboxylic acid 4. V
derivatives among the following is
92. Mean bond enthalpy of C–H bond is 416 kJ
1. CF3COOH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2COOH mol–1. Δ aHº for CH 4 is
2. CF3COOH > CH3CH2COOH > CH3COOH
3. CCl3COOH > CF3COOH > HCCl2COOH 1. 416 kJ mol–1
4. CCl3COOH > HCCl2COOH > CF3COOH 2. –416 kJ mol–1
3. 1664 kJ mol–1
84. Number of chiral carbon present in open chain
4. –1664 kJ mol–1
structure of fructose are
93. The bond dissociation energies of A 2, B 2 and
1. 2 AB are in the ratio of 2 : 1.5 : 2. ΔH for the
2. 3 formation of AB is –300 kJ mol –1, then the bond
3. 4 dissociation energy of B 2 will be
4. 5
1. 1200 kJ mol–1
85. Water soluble vitamin is 2. 1800 kJ mol–1
1. Retinol 3. 2400 kJ mol–1
2. Calciferol 4. 800 kJ mol–1
3. Riboflavin 94. If the rate constant of a reaction is 6.93 × 10 –
4. Tocopherol 2 –1
s then the half life of the reaction will be
86. During ‘Denaturation of protein’ 1. 20 s
1. The hydrogen bonds get disturbed and protein is 2. 15 s
called native protein 3. 10 s
2. 1°, 2°, and 3° structures of proteins are destroyed 4. 100 s
hence pH of protein changes 95. Which of the following metal has the highest
3. The protein is subjected to physical or chemical reducing power?
change and converted into its native form EoCa2+/Ca=−2.87 VECa2+/Cao=−2.87 V
4. The globules unfold, helix get uncoiled and protein
EoAl3+/Al=−1.66 VEAl3+/Alo=−1.66 V
loses its biological activity
EoZn2+/Zn=−0.76 VEZn2+/Zno=−0.76 V
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 INSTIL ACADEMY
FULL TEST-9
EoSn2+/Sn=−0.14 VESn2+/Sno=−0.14 V 3. Prokaryotes have ribosomes in cytoplasm
1. Ca while eukaryotes have ribosomes only inside
2. Al organelles
3. Zn 4. Cell wall is absent in prokaryotes but present
4. Sn in all eukaryotes
96. Element with largest atomic radius among the [Link] the mismatch.
following is 1. Nucleus – Robert Brown
2. Cell theory – Matthias Schleiden and
1. B
2. Be Theodore Schwann
3. Li 3. Mesosomes – George Palade
4. F 4. Cell membrane – Singer and Nicolson
104.A polyribosome is
97. Arrange Si, Be, Mg, Na and P in the increasing
1. Association of larger and smaller subunit of
order of metallic character
ribosome
1. P < Si < Be < Mg < Na 2. Chain of ribosomes attached to ER
2. Na < Mg < Be < Si < P 3. Inclusion bodies of prokaryotes
3. P < Si < Na < Mg < Be
4. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
4. Si < P < Mg < Na < Be
[Link] is not considered as part of the
98. A : Cu + has zero unpaired electron. endomembrane system because
R : In Cu, the electron is removed from 3d but not 1. It is double membrane bound structure
from 4s. 2. It is not involved in oxidation of fats
1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is 3. Its functions are not co-ordinated with the
the correct explanation of the assertion functions of cell organelles of endomembrane
2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is system
not the correct explanation of the assertion 4. It stores starch
3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false [Link] layer of the cell envelope prevents the
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
bacterium from bursting or collapsing?
99. Which has maximum osmotic pressure? 1. Plasma membrane
1. 200 mL of 0.2 M NaCl solution 2. Glycocalyx
2. 200 mL of 0.1 M glucose solution 3. Cell wall
3. 200 mL of 0.2 M sucrose solution 4. Capsule
4. 200 mL of 0.2 M urea solution [Link] bound minute vesicles that contain
100. The concentration term which depends on various enzymes, present in both plants and
temperature is animals are called
1. Mole fraction Options:
2. Molality 1. Vacuoles
3. (ww)%ww% 2. Macrobodies
4. Molarity 3. Microbodies
[Link] the correct statements w.r.t. plasma 4. Centrosomes
membrane. [Link] one exerts the greatest control over the
(a) Tail of lipid is polar whereas head is non-polar body’s responsiveness to changing conditions?
(b) Integral proteins are totally or partially buried 1. Epithelial tissue
in the membrane 2. Muscular tissue
(c) In human, the membrane of the RBC has 3. Neural tissue
approximately 40 percent protein and 52 percent 4. Connective tissue
lipids [Link] most abundant protein in the whole of
(d) Proteins move laterally within overall bilayer of biosphere, is
lipid 1. RuBisCO
(a) and (b) 2. Collagen
(b) and (c) 3. Keratin
(a) and (c) 4. Myoglobin
(b) and (d) [Link] epithelium which is made of a single thin
[Link] of the given is correct difference layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries is
between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? found in
1. Prokaryotes have RNA while eukaryotes have 1. PCT of nephron
DNA only 2. Walls of blood vessels
2. Prokaryotes have nucleoid, eukaryotes have 3. Inner surface of hollow organs like
nucleus bronchioles
4. Stomach and intestine

8
 INSTIL ACADEMY
FULL TEST-9
[Link] that is not obtained in acid 4. Alveoli → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Trachea
soluble fraction is → Larynx → Pharynx → Nasal cavity
[Link] a membrane that is not a part of the
1. Glucose diffusion membrane.
2. Alanine 1. Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli
3. Cholesterol 2. Endothelium of alveolar capillaries
4. Ribose 3. Cellular basement membrane between
[Link] walls are lined by squamous epithelium of alveoli and capillaries
1. Simple squamous epithelium 4. Acellular basement substance between
2. Stratified squamous epithelium squamous epithelium of alveoli & capillaries
3. Compound cuboidal epithelium [Link] partial pressure of O 2 in the vessel
4. Ciliated squamous epithelium carrying blood directly from heart to lungs is
[Link] family Felidae 1. 95 mmHg
(a) Includes lion, tiger, cat and dogs 2. 40 mmHg
(b) Is included in order Carnivora 3. 45 mmHg
(c) Has some features common to Canidae 4. 104 mmHg
Choose the incorrect one(s). [Link] the following statements regarding
(a) only DNA fingerprinting and select the right option
(b) and (c) a. The technique was initially developed by Alec
(a) and (c) Jeffreys
(b) only b. It includes hybridisation using labelled VNTR
[Link] is different from taxonomy as the probe
former c. Sensitivity of the technique has been increased
1. Does not include identification of organisms by the use of PCR
2. Includes evolutionary study of organisms d. Sequences used for DNA fingerprinting
3. Is based only on characterisation of organisms generally code for many proteins
4. Includes characterisation, identification and e. It is used in criminal identification and forensics
nomenclature of organisms 1. All statements are correct
[Link] animals, centriole duplication occurs in 2. Only d is incorrect
1. S phase 3. d & e are incorrect
2. G1 phase 4. Only b is incorrect
3. M phase [Link] the following four statements (A – D).
4. G2 phase A. During DNA replication, adenosine pairs with
[Link] one of the following phases is not the uridine.
part of interphase of cell cycle? B. In the process of translation there is transfer of
1. G1 phase genetic information from a polymer of nucleotides
2. M phase to synthesize a polypeptide.
3. S phase C. Sigma factor is involved in chain termination in
4. G2 phase transcription.
[Link] ______, bivalent chromosomes are D. Human genome has 30,000 genes.
formed. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
1. Pachytene 1. Three
2. Leptotene 2. Two
3. Diplotene 3. Four
4. Zygotene 4. One
[Link] of the following condition [Link] expressed sequences in processed RNA are
does not favour the formation of oxyhemoglobin at called
alveolar site? 1. hnRNA
1. High partial pressure of O2 2. snRNA
2. High pH of blood 3. Sense strand
3. Low partial pressure of CO2 4. Exons
4. Higher temperature [Link] frequencies can be utilized in
[Link] humans, route passage of air from lungs to predicting the sequence of genes on the
atmosphere is chromosome was suggested by
1. Alveoli → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Trachea 1. T.H. Morgan
→ Larynx → Pharynx → Nasal cavity 2. Mendel
2. Alveoli → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Trachea 3. A.H. Sturtevant
→ Pharynx → Larynx → Nasal cavity 4. Sutton and Boveri
3. Alveoli → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Trachea [Link] cell anaemia is due to mutation of
→ Pharynx → Larynx → Nasal cavity 1. CTC to CAC
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 INSTIL ACADEMY
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2. CTG to CAG 2. IUT
3. CAG to CTC 3. ZIFT
4. CGC to CAC 4. GIFT
[Link] the correct match [Link] (A) : Lack of menstruation may be
1. F1 progeny : Always resembles both the indicative of pregnancy.
parents Reason (R) : Menstruation occurs only if the
2. Pure line : Produced by continuous cross- released ovum is not fertilised.
pollination In the light of above statements, select
3. Gregor Mendel : Conducted artificial the correct option.
pollination experiments on true breeding pea 1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and reason
lines is the correct explanation of assertion
4. Test cross : Determines the phenotype of 2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is
F2 plants not the correct explanation of assertion
[Link] the column I with column II and choose 3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
the correct option. 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false
Column I Column II statements
[Link] (A) : All venereal diseases are
A single gene exhibiting more than completely curable.
a. Alleles (i)
one phenotypic expression. Reason (R) : If detected at any stage and treated
[Link] (ii) The units of inheritance properly.
In the light of above statements, select
Forms of a gene which codes for a the correct option.
c. Pleiotropy (iii)
pair of contrasting traits. 1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and reason
Multiple Presence of more than two alleles for is the correct explanation of assertion
d. (iv) 2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is
allelism a gene
not the correct explanation of assertion
1. a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
2. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false
3. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) statements
4. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) [Link] the incorrect statement w.r.t. mutation
[Link] to 2011 census report, the theory.
population growth rate in India was ______ 1. Mutations may occur in any direction
percent. Choose the option which fills the 2. Mutations are inheritable in nature
blank correctly. 3. They are slow and gradual changes that are
1. Less than 2 always induced by pollution
2. More than 2 4. Mutations are the raw material of evolution
3. More than 3 [Link] loop is an example of
4. More than 4 1. Medicated IUD
[Link] of the following is a component of oral 2. Non-medicated IUD
contraceptive pills? 3. Copper releasing IUD
1. Oxytocin 4. Implant
2. Relaxin [Link] most significant change in human
3. Progesterone evolution is regarded as
4. Cortisol 1. Evolution of language
[Link] the odd one w.r.t. adaptive radiation in 2. Erect posture
Australia 3. Increase in cranial capacity
1. Wombat 4. Bipedal gait and binocular vision
2. Bandicoot [Link]-A : Lactational amenorrhoea has
3. Sugar glider been reported to be effective upto a period of six
4. Flying squirrel months following parturition.
[Link] Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium will not be Statement-B : Side effects are almost nil and failure
affected by rate is high in case of natural methods of
1. Natural selection contraception.
2. Genetic drift 1. Both statements are correct
3. Random mating in a large population 2. Both statements are incorrect
4. Mutations 3. Only statement A is correct
[Link] of ART in which a sperm is directly 4. Only statement B is correct
injected into ovum is [Link] the following statements and select
1. ICSI the correct option.

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 INSTIL ACADEMY
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Statement A: Euglenoids have pigments identical to play a significant role in this process through
those in higher plants. counter current mechanism?
Statement B: Euglenoids behave as heterotrophs 1. Henle’s loop, Bowman’s capsule
when deprived of sunlight. 2. Malpighian corpuscle, vasa recta
1. Only statement A is incorrect 3. Henle’s loop, vasa recta
2. Only statement B is incorrect 4. Bowman’s capsule
3. Both statements are correct [Link] of cortex in between renal
4. Both statements are incorrect medullary pyramids are known as
[Link] a flower cannot be divided into two 1. Columns of Bertini
similar halves by any vertical plane passing 2. Ducts of Bellini
through the centre, it is called 3. Collecting ducts
1. Ebracteate flower 4. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
2. Zygomorphic flower [Link] →A→A Angiotensin I
3. Actinomorphic flower →B→B Angiotensin II.
4. Asymmetric flower Identify A and B respectively in the above reaction.
[Link] containing cavities are seen inside 1. Aldosterone and Angiotensin converting
vascular bundles of enzyme
1. Dicot root 2. Aldosterone and Renin
2. Monocot stem 3. Renin and Angiotensin converting enzyme
3. Dicot stem 4. ADH and Renin
4. Monocot root 152.A disorder of skeletal system where bone loses
[Link] comprises of minerals and fibres from its matrix and which may
1. Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm be associated with decrease in sex hormones such
2. Pericycle, vascular bundles and pith as estrogen is
3. Cortex, endodermis and pith 1. Myasthenia gravis
4. Cambium, cork cambium and cortex 2. Gout
[Link] is present in the cell wall of 3. Osteoarthritis
1. Chara 4. Osteoporosis
2. Polysiphonia [Link] is
3. Volvox 1. The ability of an individual to tolerate extreme
4. Laminaria conditions
[Link] the following statements and select 2. The ability of plant to reduce the alkalinity of
the correct option. the soil
Statement A: All protozoans are heterotrophs. 3. The capacity of an explant or a cell to generate
Statement B: Protozoans are believed to be a whole plant
primitive relatives of animals. 4. The tendency of fusion of protoplasts, belong
1. Only statement A is correct to two different plants
2. Only statement B is correct [Link] the odd one for sewage treatment plant.
3. Both statements are incorrect 1. Primary treatment is a physical process
4. Both statements are correct 2. Secondary treatment involves usage of
[Link] many cells are present in egg apparatus of heterotrophic microbes
embryo sac of a typical angiosperm? 3. Flocs contain masses of bacteria and fungi
1. 6 4. BOD of waste water is greatly reduced during
2. 4 primary treatment
3. 2 [Link] of the given is used as an
4. 3 immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant
[Link] cells are divided into palisade and patients?
spongy parenchyma in 1. Statins
1. Grass leaf 2. Streptokinase
2. Monocot leaf 3. Cyclosporin-A
3. Isobilateral leaf 4. Lipase
4. Dicot leaf [Link] greater the BOD of waste water,
[Link] foetalis can be prevented by 1. Lesser the amount of organic matter
administering anti-Rh antibodies to 2. More is its polluting potential
1. Rh –ve mother post partum Rh +ve baby 3. More the number of anaerobic bacteria are
2. Rh +ve mother post partum Rh +ve baby required to reduce BOD
3. Rh –ve mother post partum Rh –ve baby 4. More it is suitable for drinking
4. Rh +ve mother post partum Rh –ve baby [Link] of the following factors increases
[Link] have the ability to produce population density more significantly if new habitat
concentrated urine. Which regions of the nephron is colonised?
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 INSTIL ACADEMY
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1. Immigration 2. Symbiosis
2. Natality 3. Commensalism
3. Mortality 4. Parasitism
4. Emigration [Link] cells primarily responsible for CMI are
[Link] of the following statements 1. Erythrocytes
is correct w.r.t. temperature? 2. Monocytes
1. Average temperature on land is constant in 3. T-lymphocytes
every season always 4. Thrombocytes
2. It decreases progressively from the poles 165.A large bean-shaped organ which has a large
towards the equator reservoir of erythrocytes is
3. It increases from plains to the mountain tops 1. Liver
4. Level of thermal tolerance of different species 2. Spleen
determine their geographical distribution 3. Pancreas
[Link] the following biomes, mean annual 4. Thymus
rainfall will be maximum in [Link] conducts various awareness
1. Temperate forest programmes to educate people about
2. Coniferous forest 1. Cancer
3. Grassland 2. Drug abuse
4. Tropical rain forest 3. AIDS
[Link] which of the given conditions age pyramid 4. Alcohol addiction
of human population becomes urn shaped? [Link] addictive compound obtained
1. Pre reproductive individuals are more than from Cannabis sativa which is known to affect
reproductive and post reproductive individuals cardiovascular system is
2. Pre reproductive individuals are equal in 1. Heroin
number with the reproductive individuals 2. Hashish
3. Pre reproductive individuals are lesser in 3. Cocaine
number than the reproductive individuals 4. Caffeine
4. Pre reproductive individuals are only [Link] the following columns and select
marginally more than the reproductive the correct option.
individuals
Column-I Column-II
[Link] dough, which is used to make bread is
fermented by ___ Primary CO2 acceptor in
a. Phosphoglycolate (i)
1. Lactobacillus acidophilus C3 plants
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae Phosphoenol
3. Leuconostoc b. (ii) 2 carbon compound
pyruvate
4. Propionibacterium sharmanii
[Link] the statements as True (T) or False (F) Primary CO2 acceptor in
c. RuBisCO (iii)
C4 plants
A – Antibiotic means against life in reference to Most abundant enzyme on
human beings. [Link] (iv)
earth
B – Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are
produced by some microbes and can kill or retard 1. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
the growth of other microbes 2. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
C – Antibiotic was extensively used to treat 3. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
American soldiers wounded in world war I 4. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
D – The first antibiotic discovered was penicillin. [Link],
A B C D 1. Protons are accumulated in stroma by the
(1) F F T T splitting of water
(2) T F F F 2. H+ carrier molecule removes a proton from
(3) F T F T lumen and transfer it to stroma while
(4) T T T T transporting an electron
3. Breakdown of proton gradient provides energy
1. (1) to cause a conformational change in only
2. (2) F0 part of ATPase
3. (3) 4. Proton gradient is broken down due to the
4. (4) movement of protons to stroma through
[Link] growing on hedge plant is an example transmembrane channel of ATPase
of [Link] the incorrect statement.
1. Predation

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 INSTIL ACADEMY
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1. Light duration does not affect the rate of 1. Redifferentiation
photosynthesis 2. Differentiation
2. Dark reactions are temperature controlled 3. Stratification
3. Water is rarely a limiting factor in 4. Dedifferentiation
photosynthesis [Link] of the following PGRs delays the
4. Water stress, does not affect CO2 availability ripening of fruits?
in plants 1. Ethylene
[Link] I is 2. Zeatin
1. Found in both grana and stroma lamellae 3. Dormin
2. Associated with splitting of water 4. GA3
3. Involved only in non-cyclic flow of electrons [Link] the following columns and select
4. A complex formed of LHC only the correct option.
[Link] enzyme responsible for the initial fixation
a. 2, 4-D (i) Gibberellin
of CO 2 in C 4 plants is
1. PGA Adenine
b. (ii) Kinetin
2. PEP carboxylase derivative
3. RuBisCo
Precursor acetyl-
4. PEP synthetase c. (iii) Synthetic auxin
CoA
[Link] molluscs, mouth contains a file-like rasping
organ for feeding called Derivative of
d. (iv) Abscisic acid
1. Maxilla carotenoid
2. Statocyst
3. Mandible 1. a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
4. Radula 2. a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
[Link] the group of animals among given below 3. a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
where the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, 4. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
instead, mesoderm is present as scattered pouches [Link] mitochondria, ATP synthesis takes place
in between ectoderm and endoderm. 1. In the lumen of thylakoid
1. Tapeworm, Liver fluke and Hookworm 2. Towards the matrix
2. Roundworm, Filarial worm and Hookworm 3. In the intermembrane space
3. Earthworm, Roundworm and Tapeworm 4. In the outer membrane
4. Hookworm, Roundworm and Earthworm [Link] does dark reaction of photosynthesis
[Link] mellitus is primarily caused due to take place?
1. Hypersecretion of vasopressin 1. Thylakoid lumen
2. Hyposecretion of adrenocorticoids 2. Thylakoid membrane
3. Hypersecretion of insulin 3. Stroma of the chloroplast
4. Hyposecretion of insulin 4. Matrix of the mitochondria
176.A feature not exhibited by platyhelminths is [Link] joint is present between
1. True metamerism 1. Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
2. Dorso-ventrally flattened body 2. Atlas and axis
3. Hooks and suckers 3. Phalanges
4. Organ level of organisation 4. Tarsals
[Link] saving hormones are secreted by [Link] glomerular filtrate is called urine for the
1. Pituitary gland first time when
2. Pineal gland 1. It becomes concentrated in loop of Henle
3. Adrenals 2. Tubular secretion occurs in DCT
4. Thymus 3. Reabsorption of water occurs in collecting
[Link] number of FAD molecules reduced duct
through Krebs’ cycle for one glucose molecule is 4. The filtrate enters the major calyces
1. 6 [Link] spasms in muscle due to low Ca ++ in
2. 4 body fluid leads to
3. 2 1. Myasthenia gravis
4. 1 2. Muscular dystrophy
[Link] phytohormone can induce stem 3. Tetany
elongation in cabbage? 4. Gout
1. Auxin 189.‘Rosie’ is a transgenic cow which produces
2. Gibberellins milk rich in _____ than normal cow. Select the
3. Abscisic acid option which fills the blank correctly.
4. Cytokinin 1. α1-antitrypsin
[Link] of cork from cork cambium is 2. Streptokinase
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 INSTIL ACADEMY
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3. Human α-lactalbumin [Link] that have had their DNA manipulated
4. Hirudin to possess and express an extra gene are known as
[Link] gel electrophoresis 1. Genetically adapted organisms
1. Smaller fragments travel slower than larger 2. Transgenic animals
fragments 3. Resistant animals
2. Larger DNA fragments stay closer to cathode 4. Alien animals
as compared to smaller fragments [Link] disease malaria is spread by a vector
3. Ethidium bromide is used to visualise DNA which belongs to class
bands in visible light 1. Crustacea
4. DNA is extracted from gel by spooling 2. Perissodactyla
[Link] amplification of gene of interest using 3. Insecta
PCR, which of the following is most likely to occur 4. Arthropoda
when the mixture is heated to a temperature greater [Link] genetic defect of adenosine deaminase
than 90°C? (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by
1. Primers anneal to the template DNA 1. Introducing ADA gene into bone marrow stem
2. DNA polymerase activity increases cells at an early embryonic stage
3. DNA molecule denatures 2. Enzyme replacement therapy
4. Primer extension occurs to synthesise new 3. Periodic infusion of genetically engineered
DNA lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
[Link] is used for 4. Administering adenosine deaminase activators
1. Reverse transcribing RNA into DNA
2. Amplifying DNA
3. Digesting DNA
4. Separation of DNA fragments
[Link] the following statements
Statement-A : Restriction enzymes are obtained
only from eukaryotes.
Statement-B : The first discovered restriction
endonuclease was EcoRI.
Choose the correct option.
1. Both statements are correct
2. Both statements are incorrect
3. Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
4. Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
[Link] of syngamy and triple fusion in the
flowering plant is
1. Chalaza
2. Anther
3. Endosperm
4. Embryo sac
[Link] of which part of ovule have abundant
reserve food materials and are enclosed within the
integuments?
1. Micropyle
2. Chalaza
3. Nucellus
4. Funicle
[Link] initiation codon for translation is
1. AUG
2. UAA
3. UAG
4. UGA
[Link] the incorrect match.
1. Testicular lobules in each testis – 250
2. Mammary lobes in each breast – 15-20
3. Sperm count in a healthy human male per
ejaculate – 200-300 million
4. Number of primary follicles in each ovary at
puberty in a healthy human female – 6000-
8000
14