1

SATISH SCIENCE ACADEMY

DHANORI PUNE - 411015

Mhtcet pcb 3
ENTRANCE EXAM - MHT - CET

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks : 200

General Instructions:
• All questions are compulsory.
• There are two sections.
• Section A has 100 questions from Physics and Chemistry.
• Section B has 100 questions from Biology.

Section - A (Physics) shaded half of the prism is knocked off, the ray will

1) The v - t graph of an athlete is shown below. The

distance travelled by him between t = 0 and t = 12s is

[1]

a) Not come out of the prism

b) Suffer a deviation of 34°
c) Suffer a deviation of 68°
[1]
d) Suffer a deviation of 17°
a) 36 m b) 66 m
c) 46 m d) 78 m 8) The distance travelled by a ray of light in two media,
2) Force acting on a particle moving in a straight line varies in the same time are in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of
with the velocity of the particle v as F = K refractive index of the first medium to second medium is
v , where K is
a constant. The work done by this force in time t is [1] [1]
a) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2
a) 2Kt c) 4 : 9 d) 9 : 8
b) vK2 t
c) 2v2K t 9) A particle having a charge +e and mass 18× 10 - 21 g
d) Kt enters midway between two parallel plates separated by
4 cm and having a potential difference of 400 V. Length
3) The rotational period of a satellite close to the surface of of each plate is 10 cm and the initial velocity of the
the earth is 83 minutes. The time period of another earth particle is parallel to the plates. The least initial velocity
satellite in an orbit at a distance four times the radius of for which the particle will be able to come out of the
earth from its surface will be [1] plates is [1]
a) 4.7√ km/s b) 9.8 km/s
a) 664 minutes
√ c) 5 2 km/s d) 13.3 km/s
b) 83× 8 minutes
c) 83 minutes 10) A disc rotates horizontally at the rate of 100 r.p.m. Mo-
d) 249 minutes ment of inertia of the disc about the axis of rotation is 1
kg - m2 . A lump of molten wax weighing 50 gm drops
4) Real gases obey ideal gas laws more closely at [1]
gently at the distance of 20 cm from the axis of rotation
a) Low pressure and high temperature. of the disc and remains stuck to it. Then increase in
b) High pressure and low temperature. moment of inertia of the system is [1]
c) Low pressure and low temperature. a) 20% b) 0.2%
d) High pressure and high temperature. c) 2% d) 0.02%
5) In the formation of transverse wave, 1st particle will 11) What is the maximum acceleration of the particle [perform-]
transfer the disturbance to 6th particle in terms of time ing the S.H.M given by the equation y = 2 sin πt 2 +α
T(periodic time) [1] where 2 is in cm? [1]
a) 5T b) 7T
c) 8
8
3T
d) T8
8
a) π
2 cm/s2
b) π2
cm/s2
6) A double convex lens has focal length 25 cm. The radius 4

of curvature of one of the surfaces is double of the other. c) π2

2 cm/s2
Find the radii if the refractive index of the material of d) π
4 cm/s2
the lens is 1.5. [1] 12) A man having a wrist watch and a pendulum clock rises
a) 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm b) 100 cm, 50 cm
on a TV tower. The wrist watch and pendulum clock by
c) 25 cm, 50 cm d) 50 cm, 100 cm
chance fall from the top of the tower. Then
7) A light ray is incident upon a prism in minimum de- i. Both will keep correct time during the fall.
viation position and suffers a deviation of 34°. If the ii. Both will keep incorrect time during the fall.
 2

iii. Wrist watch will keep correct time and clock will separation between the slits is 10 - 3
m, the wavelength
become fast. of light used is [1]
iv. Clock will stop but wrist watch will function nor- a) 5000A
◦
b) 3000A
◦

mally. ◦ ◦
[1] c) 4500A d) 6000A
a) Option (a) b) Option (b) 21) Sensitivity of a particular potentiometer can be increased
c) Option (c) d) Option (d) by
13) Which of the following functions represents a simple i. Increasing the potential gradient along the wire.
harmonic oscillation? [1] ii. Decreasing the potential gradient along the wire.
iii. Increasing the current through the wire.
a) sin ωt + sin 2ωt iv. Decreasing the current through the wire.
b) sin ωt − cos ωt [1]
c) sin ωt − sin 2ωt a) Option (c) b) Option (d)
d) sin2 ωt c) Option (b) d) Option (a)

14) A LCR circuit behaves like a damped harmonic oscillator. 22) If the slider of a potentiometer is connected to the moving
Comparing it with a physical spring - mass damped oscil- part of a machine, it can work as a . [1]
lator having damping constant ’b’, the correct equivalence a) Motion sensor b) Voltage divider
would be: [1] c) Galvanometer d) Strain gauge

a) L↔ k, C ↔ k1 , R ↔ b 23) In the network shown in the figure, each of the resistance

b) L ↔ 1b , C ↔ 1m , R ↔ 1k is equal to 2Ω . The resistance between the points A
c) L↔ k, C ↔ b, R ↔ m and B is
d) L↔ m, C ↔ k, R ↔ b
15) A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and
water rises in it to a height h. The mass of water in the
capillary tube is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r
is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise [1]
in this tube is [1] a) 3Ω b) 1Ω
a) 20 g b) 10 g c) 4Ω d) 2Ω
c) 5.0 g d) 2.5 g 24) With resistances P and Q in the left and right gaps of
16) The equation y = a sin 2π (vt - x) is the equation of a metrebridge, the balance point divides the wire in the
ratio 31 . When P and Q are increased by 40 Ω , the
λ
i. Stationary wave of single frequency along x - axis.
ii. A simple harmonic motion. balance point divides the wire in the ratio 35 . The values
iii. A progressive wave of single frequency along x - of P and Q will be respectively [1]
axis. a) 30Ω , 10 Ω b) 20Ω , 60 Ω
iv. The resultant of two S.H.M’s of slightly different c) 10Ω , 30 Ω d) 60Ω , 40 Ω
frequencies. 25) A proton and an alpha particle enter in a uniform mag-
[1] netic field with the same velocity. The period of rotation
a) Option (a) b) Option (d)
of the alpha particle will be [1]
c) Option (b) d) Option (c)
17) In stationary waves, all particles in between two nodes a) Three times that of the proton.
pass through the mean position [1] b) Two times that of the proton.
c) Same as that of the proton.
a) Simultaneously but with different velocities. d) Four times that of the proton.
b) Simultaneously with equal velocity.
c) At different times but with equal velocity. 26) An electron is moving in a circle of radius ’r’ in a
d) At different times with different velocities. uniform magnetic field ’B’. Suddenly the field is reduced
to B2 . The radius of the circular path now becomes [1]
′ ′

18) Transverse waves of same frequency are generated in two a) 4r b) 2r

steel wires A and B. The diameter of A is twice of c) 2r d) 4r
B and the tension in A is half that in B. The ratio of
velocities of√wave in A and B is [1] 27) A wire of cross - sectional area A forms 3 sides of a
a) 1 : 3√2 b) 1√ : 2 square and is free to turn about axis XX’. If the structure
c) 1 : 2 2 d) 2 : 1 is deflected byθ from vertical when current I is passed
through it, in a magnetic field B acting vertically upward
19) A gas is not an ideal gas [1] and density of wire is ρ , the value of B is given by
a) Whose molecules interact each other.
b) In which there is impurity.
c) Which does not obey Boyle’s law and Charles’ law.
d) Whose molecules are not point masses.
[1]
20) In a two slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes Aρg
are obtained on a screen placed at some distance from a) I sin θ
the sits. If the screen is moved by 5× 10 - 2 m towards b) I tan θ
2Aρg
Aρg
the slits, the change in fringe width is 3 × 10 - 5 m. If c) I cos θ
 3

d) 2Aρg
I cot θ b) 1
(2x−a)2
28) The ratio of the magnetic field at the centre of a current c) 1
(2x+a)2
carrying circular wire and the magnetic field at the centre d) 1
(2x−a)(2x+a)
of a semi - circular coil made from the same length of
36) Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal with
wire will be [1]
a) 4 : 1 b) 1 : 2 work function 2.28 eV. The de Broglie wavelength of the
c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 4 emitted electron is: [1]

29) The hard ferromagnetic material is characterised by [1] a) ≥ 2.8 × 10 - 9 m

b) < 2.8× 10 - 9 m
a) Mechanically hard surface. c) < 2.8× 10 - 10 m
b) Narrow hysteresis loop. d) ≤ 2.8 × 10 - 12 m
c) High mechanical hardness, all over.
d) Fat hysteresis loop. 37) The photoelectric work function of a surface is 2.2 eV.
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted
30) Of the following, paramagnetic substance is [1] o
when light of wavelength 6200A is incident on the sur-
a) Aluminium b) Nickel
face, is [1]
c) Iron d) Copper
a) 1.2 eV
31) A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the
b) 1.6 eV
poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the elec-
c) 0.4 eV
tromagnet is switched ON, then the diamagnetic rod is
d) Photoelectrons are not emitted
pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence
the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work 38) A helium atom at 300 K is moving with a velocity of
required to do this comes from [1] 2.40× 102 ms - 1 . The de - Broglie wavelength is about
[At. wt. of He = 4.0][1]
a) The magnetic field o
b) The induced electric field due to the changing mag- a) 0.83 nm b) 8000A
netic field
o
c) 803A d) 0.416 nm
c) The lattice structure of the material of the rod
39) If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of
d) The current source o
hydrogen is 6561A , the wavelength of the second line
32) A susceptibility of a certain magnetic material is 400.
of the series should be [1]
What is the class of the magnetic material? [1] o o
a) Ferroelectric b) Paramagnetic a) 2187A b) 4860A
c) Ferromagnetic d) Diamagnetic
o o
c) 13122A d) 3280A
33) A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A 40) Kinetic energy of the electron in the first Bohr orbit of
flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn the hydrogen atom is [1]
of the solenoid is 4× 10 - 3 Wb. The self - inductance a) 13.6 eV b) - 13.6 eV
of the solenoid is [1] c) - 27.2 eV d) - 6.8 eV
a) 2 H b) 3 H
41) The radius of hydrogen atom in its ground state is 5.3×
c) 1 H d) 4 H
10 - 11 m. After collision with an electron, it is found
34) A very small circular loop of radius a is initially (at t to have a radius of 13.25 × 10 - 10 m. The principal
= 0) coplanar and concentric with a much larger fixed quantum number n of the final state of the atom is [1]
circular loop of radius b. A constant current I flows a) N = 4 b) N = 3
in the larger loop. The smaller loop is rotated with a c) N = 16 d) N = 5
constant angular speedω about the common diameter. The
42) Which of the following models was successful in explain-
e.m.f. induced in the smaller loop as a function of time
ing the observed hydrogen spectrum? [1]
t is [1]
a) Rutherford’s model b) Classical model
a) 2 b ω sin (ωt)
πa2 µ0 I 2
c) Bohr’s model d) Thomson’s model
πa µ0 I
b) 2 b ω sin(ωt)
2

43) The area of the electron orbit for the ground state of hy-
πa2 µ0 I
c) 2 b ω cos(ωt)
drogen atom is A. What will be the area of the electron
πa2 µ0 I
( 2 2) orbit corresponding to the second excited state? [1]
d) 2 b ω sin ω t
a) 81 A b) 9 A
35) A conducting square frame of side a and a long straight c) 27 A d) 3 A
wire carrying current I are located in the same plane as
shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with 44) The period of revolution of an electron in the ground
a constant velocity v. The emf induced in the frame will state of hydrogen atom is T. The period of revolution of
be proportional to the electron in the first excited state is [1]
a) 8 T b) 4 T
c) 2 T d) 6 T
45) Which of the following are in the ascending order of
wavelength?
i. Hα , Hβ and Hγ lines of Balmer series
ii. Lyman limit, Balmer limit, Paschen limit.
[1]
iii. Red, yellow, blue colours in solar system.
a) 1
x2 iv. Hβ , Hγ , Hα lines in Balmer series.
 4

[1] iii. At a constant pressure, the volume is inversely pro-

a) Option (b) b) Option (c) portional to the temperature of a gas.
c) Option (a) d) Option (d) iv. At a constant volume, pressure is inversely propor-
46) A radioactive sample of half life 10 days contains 1000X tional to the temperature of a gas.
[1]
nuclei. Number of original nuclei present after 5 days is
a) Option (A) b) Option (C)
[1]
a) 250X b) 750X c) Option (D) d) Option (B)
c) 500X d) 707X 56) In general, physical adsorption is greater at . [1]
47) Least doped region in a transistor [1] a) Low temperature and low pressure
a) Emitter b) High temperature and low pressure
b) Base c) Low temperature and high pressure
c) Either emitter or collector d) High temperature and high pressure
d) Collector
57) The ratio ofσ and π - bonds in benzene is . [1]
48) A diode rectifier [1] a) 2 b) 6
c) 4 d) 8
a) Amplifies A.C. signals
b) Amplifies D.C. signals 58) Which of the following gas is used for welding? [1]
c) Converts A.C. into D.C a) Acetylene b) Ethene
d) Converts D.C. into A.C c) Methane d) Ethane
49) A transistor when connected in common emitter mode has 59) Which of the following is an isomer of n - butane? [1]
a [1] a) 2 - Methylbutane b) 2,2 - Dimethylpropane
c) N - Pentane d) 2 - Methylpropane
a) High input resistance and a low output resistance.
b) High input resistance and a high output resistance. 60) In a solid, oxide ions are arranged in ccp. Cations A
c) Low input resistance and a high output resistance. occupy one - sixth of the tetrahedral voids and cations B
d) Low input resistance and low output resistance. occupy one - third of the octahedral voids. The formula
50) For a transistor, in a common emitter arrangement, the of the compound is [1]
a) ABO3 b) AB2 O3
alternating current gainβ is given by [1]
c) A2 B2 O3 d) A2 BO3
a) β = ∆IC
∆IB
61) At low temperature and high pressure, SO2 freezes to
b) ∆IC
form crystalline solid. Which term best describes the
β = ∆IE
c) β = ∆IB
∆IC solid? [1]
d) β = ∆IE
∆IC
a) Metallic crystal b) Ionic crystal
c) Molecular crystal d) Covalent crystal
Section - A (Chemistry)
62) The solubility of a gas in water increases with . [1]
51) Isotopes are the atoms of the same element having .
[1] a) Amount of liquid taken
b) Decrease in temperature
a) Different atomic masses c) Increase in temperature
b) Same atomic masses d) Reduction in gas pressure
c) Different number of protons
d) Different number of electrons 63) Partial vapour pressure of any volatile component in a
solution is . [1]
52) If an electron has spin quantum number of+ 12 and a
magnetic quantum number - 1, it CANNOT be present a) Directly proportional to its molarity
in the orbital. [1] b) Inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the
a) D b) S solvent
c) F d) P c) Inversely proportional to its mole fraction in the
53) Hydrogen acts as an oxidizing agent when it is reacted solution
with . [1] d) Directly proportional to its mole fraction in the so-
lution
a) Iodine to give hydrogen iodide
b) Sulphur to give hydrogen sulphide 64) Identify the intensive properties from the following. [1]
c) Nitrogen to give ammonia
a) Volume and temperature
d) Lithium to give lithium hydride
b) Specific heat and volume
54) Hydrogen peroxide does NOT act as a/an . [1] c) Temperature and melting point
a) Drying agent b) Bleaching agent d) Heat capacity and temperature
c) Reducing agent d) Oxidising agent
65) A minus sign of the free energy change denotes that
55) For a given mass of an ideal gas, which of the following . [1]
statements is CORRECT?
i. At a constant temperature, the pressure is directly a) The reaction tends to proceed spontaneously
proportional to the density of a gas. b) The system is in equilibrium
ii. At a constant temperature, the pressure is directly c) The reaction is slow
proportional to the volume on a gas. d) The reaction is nonspontaneous
 5

66) The Eo value of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction 77) In a neutral medium, KMnO4 oxidizes Mn2+ salt to .
with n = 3 was found to be 0.592 V at 298 K. The [1]
equilibrium constant of the reaction would be . [1] a) Mn3+ b) Mn6+
a) 1030 b) 103 c) Mn5+ d) Mn4+
c) 1040 d) 1020
78) IUPAC iname of [Co(ONO)(NH3 )5 ]Cl2 is . [1]
67) When folly charged, the e.m.f. of a lead accumulator cell
a) Pehtaamminenitrocobalt(III) chloride
is . [1]
b) Pentaammineoxonitrocobalt(III) chloride
a) 3 volts b) 5 volts
c) Pentaamminenitrosocobalt(lll) chloride
c) 2 volts d) 0 volt
d) Pentaamminenitritocobalt(lII) chloride
68) The rate of change in concentration of C in the reaction
79) Which isomer of CrCl3 .6H2 O is dark green in color and
2A + B→ 2C + 3D was reported as 1.0 mol L - 1 s - 1 .
forms one mole of AgCl with an excess of AgNO3
Calculate the reaction rate. [1]
solution? [1]
a) 0.01 mol L - 1 s - 1 b) 0.05 mol L - 1 s - 1
a) [Cr(H2 O)3 Cl3 ].3H2 O b) [Cr(H2 O)4 Cl2 ]Cl.2H2 O
c) 5 mol L - 1
s - 1
d) 0.5 mol L - 1 s - 1
c) [Cr(H2 O)6 ]Cl3 d) [Cr(H2 O)5 Cl]Cl2 .H2 O
69) The rate law for the elementary reaction: 2NO2(g) →
80) The IUPAC name of Fe(CO)5 is . [1]
2NO(g) + O2(g) is rate = k[NO2 ]2 . The reaction is .
[1] a) Pentacarbonyliron(0)
b) Pentacarbonyliron(II)
a) First order and bimolecular c) Pentacarbonylferrate(0)
b) First order and unimolecular d) Pentacarbonylferrate(III)
c) Second order and unimolecular
d) Second order and bimolecular 81) Friedel - Craft’s reaction of bromobenzene with methyl
iodide gives . [1]
70) Which of the following salts will give the highest pH in
water? [1] a) O - and p - bromotoluenes
a) CuSO4 b) Na2 CO3 b) O - bromotoluene
c) NaCl d) KCl c) M - bromotoluene
d) P - bromotoluene
71) Which of the following is a weak electrolyte? [1]
a) CuSO4 b) CH3 COOH 82) When ethyl alcohol (C2 H5 OH) reacts with thionyl chloride,
c) CH3 COONH4 d) AgNO3 the products obtained are . [1]
a) CH3 COCl + HCl + SO2 b) CH3 CH2 Cl + HCl
72) Which of the following dissociates only partially in a c) CH3 CH2 Cl + H2 O + d) C2 H5 Cl + HCl + SO2
dilute aqueous solution? [1] SO2
a) KOH b) CuSO4
c) HF d) H2 SO4 83) (+) 2 - Methylbutan - 1 - ol and ( - ) 2 - methylbutan
- 1 - ol have different values for which property? [1]
73) When sugar comes in contact with concentrated H2 SO4 , a) Boiling point b) Refractive index
it becomes black due to . [1] c) Specific rotation d) Relative density
a) Decolourisation b) Dehydration
c) Hydration d) Hydrolysis 84) In which case, methyl tert - butyl ether is formed? [1]

74) Which of the following exists in a black solid form at a) (CH3 )3 CONa + C2 H5 Cl
25 °C? [1] b) (CH3 )3 CONa + (CH3 )3 CCl
a) IF3 b) BrF3 c) (C2 H5 )3 CONa + CH3 Cl
c) IBr d) ICl3 d) (CH3 )3 CONa + CH3 Cl
75) Match the following. 85) What is the final product (major) ‘A’ in the given reac-
Column I Column II tion?
I. Acidic oxide A. Al2 O3

Ii. Basic oxide B. Cl2 O7

[1]

Iii. Amphoteric C. NO
oxide
Iv. Neutral oxide D. CaO a)

b)
[1]

a) (i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)

c)
b) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a)
c) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (a)
d) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (b) d)
76) Which of the following oxidation states is common for 86) Diethyl ether, when heated with excess HI produces .
all lanthanoids? [1] [1]
a) +3 b) +5 a) Iodoform b) Methyl iodide
c) +4 d) +2 c) Ethanol d) Ethyl iodide
 6

87) The CORRECT statement regarding a carbonyl compound X Y

with a hydrogen atom on its alpha - carbon, is . (A) D - D -
i. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its Aldohexose Aldohexose
alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corre-
sponding enol and this process is known as carbony- (B) L - L -
lation. Aldohexose Aldohexose
ii. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its
alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corre- (C) D - L -
sponding enol and this process is known as keto - Aldohexose Aldohexose
enol tautomerism.
iii. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its (D) L - D -
alpha - carbon never equilibrates with its correspond- Aldohexose Aldohexose
ing enol.
iv. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its
[1]
alpha - carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corre-
a) Option (B) b) Option (A)
sponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde
c) Option (D) d) Option (C)
- ketone equilibration.
[1] 94) will yield one glucose and one galactose unit on
a) Option (b) b) Option (a) hydrolysis. [1]
c) Option (c) d) Option (d) a) Maltose b) Ribose
88) Which of the following carboxylic acids CANNOT be c) Fructose d) Lactose
prepared using Grignard reagent? [1] 95) Among the following, a natural polymer is . [1]
a) Propanoic acid b) Butyric acid a) Teflon b) PVC
c) Methanoic acid d) Ethanoic acid c) Cellulose d) Polyethylene
89) Identify the CORRECT statement. 96) Which of the following is used to makenon - stick cook-
i. Trioxane use in chemical reactions as a source of ware? [1]
acetaldehyde.
a) Polytetrafluoroethylene
ii. Solid tetramer of acetaldehyde is called as paralde-
b) Polyethylene
hyde.
c) Polystyrene
iii. Lower aliphatic carboxylic acids containing upto four
d) PVC
carbons are miscible with water.
iv. Aqueous solution of formic acid is called formalin. 97) The process of formation of macromolecules by combina-
[1] tion of polyfunctional monomers with the elimination of
a) Option (c) b) Option (a) small molecules is called . [1]
c) Option (d) d) Option (b)
a) Either condensation polymerization and ring opening
90) The amine formed by Hofmann bromamide degradation polymerization
has . [1] b) Addition polymerization
c) Condensation polymerization
d) Ring opening polymerization
a) One more C atom than that of amide
b) Two more C atoms than that of amide 98) Find the INCORRECT statement.
c) One less C atom than that of amide i. The melting point of nanomaterial changes drastically
d) Same number of C atoms as that of amide and depends on size.
ii. The term nanotechnology was defined by professor
Nario Taniguchi in 1974.
91) The basic character of amines is due to the . [1] iii. Nanoparticles can contribute to stronger, lighter,
cleaner and smarter surfaces and systems.
iv. Very low surface - to - volume ratio is an important
a) Lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom characteristic of nanoparticles.
b) Presence of alkyl groups [1]
c) High electronegativity of nitrogen a) Option (iii) b) Option (ii)
d) Presence of nitrogen atom c) Option (i) d) Option (iv)
99) The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of oils is .
92) Which of the following is best stabilized by solvation? [1]
[1] a) Co - Th alloy
b) Ziegler - Natta catalyst
+ +
a) N H 4 b) R3 N H
+ + c) Ni
c) RN H 3 d) R2 N H 2 d) Mo/Fe
93) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ represent .
100) Which of the following nanomaterial has two dimensions
< 100 nm? [1]
a) Nanowires b) Microcapsules
c) Thin films d) Nanorings

Section - B (Biology)
 7

101) In yeast, during fermentation, the glycolysis pathway leads c) A higher number of the recombinant types
to: [1] d) Segregation in the expected [Link] ratio
a) Production of ethanol 112) Transformation was discovered by: [1]
b) Production of glucose a) Hershey and Chase b) Griffith
c) Production of oxygen c) Meselson and Stahl d) Watson and Crick
d) Production of pyruvic acid
113) In lac operon, lactose is the substrate for enzyme beta -
102) Which one of the following is fibrous protein? [1] galactocidase and its regulates: [1]
a) Haemoglobin b) Collagen
a) Only switching of OFF of the operon
c) Ribozymes d) Hemicellulose
b) Switching ON and OFF of the operon
103) The protein portion of an enzyme is called: [1] c) Neither switching ON or OFF of operon
a) Cofactors b) Co - enzyme d) Only switching ON of the operon
c) Apoenzyme d) Prosthetic group
114) A non - protienaceous enzyme is: [1]
104) Biological nitrogen fixation was discovered by [1] a) Ribozyme b) Lysozyme
a) Gericke b) Hermann Hellriegel c) Deoxyribonuclease d) Ligase
c) Liebig d) Nehar and Sakmann
115) Which of the options has correct identification ofP, Q
105) The lower surface of leaf will have more number of and R in the illustration of Central Dogma given below?
stomata in a: [1]
a) Both Dorsiventral leaf and Isobilateral leaf
b) Isobilateral leaf
c) Dorsiventral leaf
d) Lanceolate leaf
106) Which one is responsible for the opening and closing of
stomata? [1]
a) Increasing in auxin concentration and water contents.
b) Decreasing in auxin concentration.
c) Abscisic acid and glucose concentration. [1]
d) Rise in pH of guard cells and hydrolysis of starch.
a) P - Replication, Q - rRNA, R - Transcription
107) During prolonged fasting [1] b) P - Translation, Q - mRNA, R - Transcription
a) First fats are used up followed by carbohydrates and c) P - Transcription, Q - mRNA, R - Translation
proteins. d) P - Replication, Q - mRNA, R - Translation
b) First proteins are used up followed by fats and
116) Viroids differ from viruses in having: [1]
carbohydrates.
c) First carbohydrates are used up followed by fats and a) RNA molecule with protein coat.
proteins. b) RNA molecule without protein coat.
d) First carbohydrates are used up followed by protein c) DNA molecules without protein coat.
and fats. d) DNA molecule with protein coat.
108) Which one is a mismatched pair? [1] 117) Penicillin has inhibitory effect on bacteria through: [1]
a) Vomiting - antiperistalsis a) Stopping entrance of antibody.
b) Indigestion - food poisoning b) By causing death by destruction of nucleus.
c) Jaundice - deposition of bile pigments c) Inhibition of cell wall formation.
d) Diarrhoea - less enzyme secretion d) Running entrance of antibody
109) When a gene pair in an organism contains two identical 118) The first restriction endonuclease discovered was: [1]
alleles, the organism is considered to be: [1] a) HindIII b) Hind II
a) Homozygous b) Heterozygous c) PuvI d) EcoRI
c) Genotypic d) Phenotypic
119) Helium is used in Biolistic gun as: [1]
110) Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for
a) It is a light gas
genes situated on the: [1]
b) Tungsten coated with DNA can be easily passed in
a) Non - homologous chromosomes the presence of Helium
b) Homologous chromosomes c) It is an inert gas
c) Same chromosome d) It acts as a propellant
d) Extra nuclear genetic element
120) An institution where valuable plant material likely to be-
111) Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chro- come irretrievably lost in the wild or in cultivation is
mosomal linkage map of the maize plants. When RRYY preserved in a viable condition in known as: [1]
and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will a) Herbarium b) Gene bank
show: [1] c) Genome d) Gene library
a) Segregation in 3:1 ratio 121) The first step of recombinant DNA technology involves:
b) A higher number of parental types [1]
 8

a) Insertion of recombinant DNA in host cell 134) Which one has Kranz anatomy? [1]
b) Isolation of genetic material a) Potato b) Rice
c) Amplification of GOI c) Wheat d) Maize
d) Cutting of DNA at specific location
135) About 70% of global carbon occurs in: [1]
122) The part of the plant used for somatic hybridization is: a) Forest b) Agro ecosystem
[1] c) Oceans d) Grassland
a) Genome b) Meristem
136) Mitochondria is called power house of the cell because
c) Protoplast d) Nucleus
[1]
123) The conventional method of breeding for disease resis-
a) Mitochondria have double membrane
tance: [1]
b) Mitochondria contain ATP
a) Mutation and selection c) Mitochondria are found in all kinds of cells
b) Protoplasm fusion d) Enzyme of Krebs cycle and the cytochromes are
c) Hybridization and selection found
d) Germplasm fusion 137) Respiratory Quotient is more than one in case the substrate
124) Gene banks comprise: [1] is: [1]
a) Organic acids b) Proteins
a) Seed banks, orchards, tissue culture, and cryopreser- c) Fats d) Glucose
vation
b) Seed banks, tissue culture, and cryopreservation 138) Cleistogamous flowers are self - pollinated because: [1]
c) Seed banks and cryopreservation a) They are bisexual and open flowers
d) Tissue culture and cryopreservation b) Their stigma matures before the anthers dehisce.
125) A large proportion of cultivated plants are: [1] c) They are bisexual flowers that do not open at all.
a) Aneuploids b) Haploids d) They are unisexual.
c) Autopolyploids d) Allopolyploids 139) Which one is the correct evolutionary sequence of game-
126) Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched togenesis: [1]
with respect to the ”crop varieties for disease resistance”? a) Pollen grain, microspore, microspore mother cell,
[1] Sporogenous tissue
a) Cauliflower - TMV and leaf curl b) Microspore mother cell, Sporogenous tissue, Pollen
b) Brassica - White rust grain, microspore
c) Wheat - Leaf and stripe rust c) Sporogenous tissue, microspore mother cell, mi-
d) Cowpea - Bacterial blight crospore, pollen grain
d) Sporogenous tissue, microspore, pollen grain, mi-
127) Bacillus thuringiensis is used as: [1] crospore mother cell
a) Biopesticide b) Biofertilizer
140) The free occurring unit of gynoecium is called a pistil.
c) Biocontroller d) Bioweapon
Each pistil consists of three parts called: [1]
128) The biological control of agricultural pests, unlike chem-
a) Ovary, style, and stigma
ical control, is: [1]
b) Ovary, filament, and stigma
a) Very expensive b) Self - perpetuating
c) Stigma, anther, and filament
c) Polluting d) Toxic
d) Ovary, style, and anther
129) Methanogens belong to: [1] 141) Tapetal cells are characterized by: [1]
a) Eubacteria b) Dinoflagellates
c) Archaebacteria d) Slime moulds a) Endomitosis
b) Meiotic division
130) Purified antibiotic penicillin of Penicillium notatum was c) Mitotic division
obtained by: [1] d) Endomitosis as well as endopolyploidy
a) Howard Florey b) Robert Hooke
c) [Link] d) Carolus Linnaeus 142) In some plants anther and stigma mature at the same time
this condition is called: [1]
131) Mycorrhiza is an example of: [1] a) Chasmogamy b) Syngamy
a) Parasitism b) Saprophytism c) Homogamy d) Allogamy
c) Thyroxine d) Symbiosis
143) While planning for an artificial hybridization programme
132) Penicillin has inhibitory effect over bacteria by: [1] involving dioecious plants, which of the following steps
a) Destruction of nucleus would not be relevant? [1]
b) Stopping entrance of antibody a) Bagging of female flower
c) None of these b) Dusting of pollen on stigma
d) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis c) Collection of pollen
133) The residue left after methane production from cattle dung d) Emasculation
is: [1] 144) When there is no distinction between sepals and petals,
the non - essential floral organs are collectively called
a) Buried in landfills
. [1]
b) Used in civil construction
a) Petaloid b) Imbricate
c) Burnt
c) Perianth d) Sepaloid
d) Used as manure
 9

145) Which one of the following is not found in a female a) 650 - 700 cm3 b) 1400 - 1450 cm3
gametophyte of an angiosperm? [1] c) 350 - 450 cm3 d) 1050 - 1150 cm3
a) Filiform apparatus b) Central cell 158) Duck billed platypus is a connecting link between: [1]
c) Synergids d) Germ pore
a) Reptiles and birds
146) The nucellus is found in: [1] b) Livings and non - livings
a) Leaf b) Ovule c) Echinoderms and chordates
c) Cell d) Pollen d) Reptiles and mammals
147) Which type of flower has ovary superior? [1] 159) Which one of the following was not explained by Dar-
a) Monogynous b) Perigynous winism? [1]
c) Epigynous d) Hypogynous
a) Struggle for existence
148) If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are inactivated, b) Natural selection
then there will be no: [1] c) Arrival of the fittest
d) Origin of species
a) Fixation of nitrogen in the legumes.
b) Conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil. 160) The number of autosomes in a normal human cell is: [1]
c) Conversion from nitrate to nitrite in the legumes. a) 46 b) 44
d) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen. c) 48 d) 45

149) Reserpine is obtained from [1] 161) If a colour blind man marries a girl who is normal
a) Taxus brevifolia b) Catheranthus roseus (homozygous) for this character; then genotypically: [1]
c) Cinchona officinalis d) Rauwolfia vomitoria a) Sons will be colour blind, daughters will be normal
150) CNG is preferred as a fuel over diesel for public transport b) Sons and daughters will be normal
because c) Sons will be normal, daughters will be carriers
i. It is cost effective. d) Both sons and daughters will be colour blind
ii. It burns almost completely. 162) Who proposed mutation theory? [1]
iii. It can be recycled. a) Lamarck b) Wallace
iv. It burns only partially. c) Hugo de Vries d) Darwin
Choose the correct combination.
163) Heterogamety is a term where an individual produces two
[1]
types of gametes. The most appropriate answer is: [1]
a) (iii) + (iv) b) (ii) + (iii)
c) (i) + (ii) d) (i) + (iii) a) Female bird
b) Male Drosophila fly and Female bird
151) Van Mahotsav was started by: [1] c) Female Drosophila fly
a) Binova Bhave b) K. M. Munshi
d) Male Drosophila fly
c) Sunder lal Bahuguna d) J. L. Nehru
164) The haploid chromosome number is 12. What is the
152) A large regional unit characterized by a major vegetation number in monosomic? [1]
type and associated fauna found in a specific climate a) 22 b) 25
zone, constitutes: [1] c) 23 d) 26
a) Biological community b) Biome
c) Biosphere d) Ecosystem 165) One of the methods by which DNA cannot be transferred
to host cell by: [1]
153) An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which
ecosystem? [1] a) Gene gun
a) Tundra b) Grass land b) Microinjection
c) Forest d) Marine c) Polymerase chain reaction
d) Disarmed pathogen vectors
154) Evolution is: [1]
166) Penicillin was used in: [1]
a) History of race a) Both World War I and World War II
b) History and development of a race along with vari- b) World War II
ations c) World War I
c) The progressive development of race d) World War III
d) Development of race
167) ELISA technique is based on the principle of [1]
155) Change in frequency of alleles in a population results in
a) DNA replication
evolution, is proposed in: [1]
b) Antigen and Protein interaction
a) Darwin’s theory c) Pathogen and Antigen interaction
b) Lamarck’s theory d) Antigen and Antibody interaction
c) De Vries theory 168) Zidovudine is a drug used in: [1]
d) Hardy - Weinberg principle a) AIDS b) Leukaemia
c) Yellow fever d) Dengue fever
156) Major radiation of mammals, birds and pollinating insects
took place in which epoch? [1] 169) The organism which carries a disease from one organism
a) Pliocene b) Palaeocene to another is called: [1]
c) Oligocene d) Miocene a) Host b) Vector
c) Parasite d) None of these
157) Cranial cavity of Australopithecus was: [1]
 10

170) Metastasis is associated with: [1] 181) Blood pressure is expressed as the ratio of systolic over
diastolic pressure. The difference between systolic and
a) Both Malignant tumour and Benign tumour diastolic pressure is called pulse pressure. What will be
b) Crown gall tumour its value for a normal healthy adult? [1]
c) Benign tumour a) 40 mm Hg b) 50 mm Hg
d) Malignant tumour c) 30 mm Hg d) 70 mm Hg
171) HIV decreases natural immunity of the body by destroy- 182) Each cardiac cycle takes 0.8 seconds to occur. Calculate
ing: [1] how many cardiac cycles occur in 4 minutes? [1]
a) T - lymphocytes b) Antibodies a) 250 b) 400
c) B - lymphocytes d) Erythrocytes c) 300 d) 75
172) During an allergic reaction, the binding of antigens to 183) Which is the right combination of names of ear ossicles?
lgE antibodies initiates a response, in which chemicals [1]
cause the dilation of blood vessels and a number of other
a) Malleus, incus and stapes
physiological changes. Such chemicals are called: [1]
b) Magnus, incus and stapes
a) Interferons b) Histamine
c) Malleus, incus and cochlea
c) Acetylcholine d) Hormones
d) Malleus, incus and cochlus
173) AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects: [1]
184) The vestibular apparatus is composed of: [1]
a) Cytotoxic T - cells b) T4 - lymphocytes
c) Activator B - cells d) All lymphocytes a) Crista ampullaris and otolith organ
b) Crista ampullaris and macula
174) Which one of the following statements is correct with
c) Semicircular canals and otolith organ
response to immunity? [1]
d) Semicircular canals and macula
a) The antibodies against smallpox pathogen are pro- 185) The menstrual cycle is repeated at an average interval of:
duced by T - lymphocytes. [1]
b) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B - a) 29 days b) One year
lymphocytes. c) 25 days d) 15 days
c) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the
bite by a viper snake. 186) In human beings, normally in which one of the following
d) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has parts, does the sperm fertilizes the ovum? [1]
four light chains. a) Lower part of uterus b) Upper part of uterus
c) Cervix d) Fallopian tube
175) Which one of the following provides non - specific
187) All of the following occur during natural menopause ex-
pathogen defence for the body? [1]
cept: [1]
a) Stem cells b) T - cells
c) B - cells d) Phagocytes a) Progesterone levels in the blood decrease
b) Estrogen levels in the blood decrease.
176) Haemozoin is a: [1]
c) FSH and LH levels in the blood decrease
a) Toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells d) The number of ovarian follicles is reduced and even-
b) Precursor of hemoglobin tually depleted.
c) Toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells 188) The following is not a function of progesterone: [1]
d) Toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
a) Inhibition of ovulation
177) Opiate narcotic drugs are: [1] b) Uterine growth and development
a) Analgesic b) Hypnotic c) Gestation
c) Antianxiety d) Antihistamine d) Stimulation of mammary secretion
178) Which one is not a common freshwater fish: [1] 189) Spermatozoa get nutrition from: [1]
a) Catla b) Hilsa a) Acrosome b) Leydig cells
c) Common carp d) Rohu c) Sertoli cells d) Ovary
179) Which is correctly matched? 190) Sperms produce an enzymatic chemical for dissolving the
i. Apiculture : Honey bee egg coverings, is called: [1]
ii. Pisciculture : Silk moth a) Androgamone b) Hyaluronidase
iii. Sericulture : Fish c) Diastase d) Hyaluronic acid
iv. Aquaculture: Mosquitoes
191) Bartholin’s glands are situated: [1]
[1]
a) On either side of vas deferens in humans
a) Pisciculture : Silk moth b) At reduced end of tail of birds.
b) Aquaculture : Mosquitoes c) On sides of head of some amphibians.
c) Sericulture : Fish d) On either side of vagina in humans.
d) Apiculture : Honey bee
192) Pseudo dormancy differs from normal pregnancy in: [1]
180) The mass of tissue seen in the left corner of the right
a) Developmental change in the endometrium
atrium close to the atri - ventricular septum is . [1]
b) Absence of corpus leuteum
a) Purkinje fibres b) Bundle of His
c) Absence of foetus
c) SAN d) AVN
d) Development of ovum
 11

193) Ontogenetically liver and pancreas are: [1] [1]

a) Endodermal a) Steady state phase, lag phase and log phase.
b) Ectodermal b) Slow growing phase, lag phase and steady state
c) Both Mesodermal and Ectodermal phase.
d) Mesodermal c) Exponential phase, lag phase and steady state phase.
194) The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair d) Lag phase, steady state phase and log phase.
on its head are usually observed during which month of 197) Which of the following pairs is wrong? [1]
pregnancy? [1]
a) Fifth month b) Fourth month a) Ammonotelic - Tadpole
c) Sixth month d) Third month b) Uricotelic - Birds
c) Ureotelic - Elephant
195) A terrestrial animal must be able to: [1]
d) Ureotelic - Insects
a) Excrete large amount of water in urine.
b) Actively pump salts out through the skin. 198) Which of the following animals shows ammonotelic ex-
c) Conserve water cretion? [1]
d) Excrete large amount of salts in urine. a) Cat b) Sparrow
c) Human d) Rohu
196) Given below is a graph drawn on the parameters of
growth versus time. A, B and C respectively represent. 199) In rosette plants, bolting is due to: [1]
a) Gibberellins b) Auxins
c) Cytokinins d) ABA
200) Plant growth regulator that is used in delay in leaf senes-
cence is . [1]
a) Ethylene b) Cytokinin
c) Auxin d) ABA