NEET 2025 - MT-3 Solutions
NEET 2025 - MT-3 Solutions
PHYSICS
1. (2) From graph V KI 2 where K = constant. Wee If radius becomes 3R and density remains same,
then ve 3 11 33 km / s
know P VI P KI 3 .
So, the correct option is (2). 9. (2)
2. (1) Area of F t curve A Impulse
Impulse p A Mv 0
A 1 1 A2 A2
v K .E Mv 2 M 2
M 2 2 M 2M
3. (1) Time period of a simple pendulum is given by Since deflection in galvanometer is zero, so current
will flow as shown in the given diagram.
T 2 L / g
VA
dT 1 dL dT 1 dL Current, I
100 100 R1 R2
T 2 L T 2 L
1 12 12
5% 2.5% . So Statement I is true. I A
2 500 100 600
L 12
As, VB IR2 VB 100 2V
Statement II is T 2 , hence it is the correct 600
g
10. (4) (A) is correct as photoelectron count increases
explanation. So, the correct option is (1). with light intensity, (B) is correct as number of
4. (1) For resonance, 0 , hence both inductor and photoelectrons emitted does not depend on
capacitor must be present. Also power factor is zero frequency and (C) is correct since there’s no
for pure inductor or pure capacitor. Hence both the minimum intensity required, only a threshold
component consume zero average power. So, the frequency matters. So correct option is (4).
correct option is (1).
11. (1) Given that A 2iˆ 3 ˆj and B 4iˆ 5 ˆj
dx
5. (4) The velocity of a particle is v A1 A2 t (A) A B 6iˆ 8 ˆj
dt
dv
Acceleration a A2 (B) | A B | 62 82 10
dt
So, acceleration is A2. (C) A B (2iˆ 3 ˆj ) (4iˆ 5 ˆj ) 2iˆ 2 ˆj
6. (4) When a magnetizing field is applied to a bar of
steel, its magnetization initially increases as more (D) | A B | (2) 2 (2) 2 2 2 .
domains align with the field. However, after a
certain point, all magnetic domains become aligned Q
12. (2) Molar heat capacity C (n = 1)
this is called magnetic saturation. Beyond this T
point, even if the magnetizing field is increased, For a diatomic gas the change in internal energy is
the magnetization remains constant. Hence, 2 U
5
magnetization increases and then becomes constant U R T T
2 5R
at saturation. So correct option is (4).
7. (3) In Rutherford’s -particle scattering Q 5(Q) R 10
experiment, most particles pass straight (detected C R (given)
T 2 U 3
at R), some are deflected (detected at Q), and a
few are reflected back (detected at P), confirming Q 4
(1)
the nucleus is small and dense. U 3
8. (3) Escape velocity on earth is given by From first law of thermodynamics
4 U Q W (2)
G R3
GM 3
ve ve R Q 4 Q
R R From (1) and (2) Q W 3 W
4
1
t
2S
13. (2) Here, B B0 e P
R
Area of the circular loop, A r 2 Hydrostatic pressure at a depth h from surface
Flux linked with the loop at any time, t, P gh . So, the correct option is (2).
t
BA r 2 B0 e
3
18. (4) Given that i1 i2 A
d 1 t 4
Emf induced in the loop, r 2 B0 e
dt As A i1 i2
Net heat generated in the loop
3 3 A 60
2 2 2 i1 i2 A A A A 30
dH
4 4 2 2
P H dt
R dt R 0 R
2 r 4 B02 2t d 3 y d d dy L
H
e
dt 19. (2) 3 L2 M 0 L2T 0
2R
0 dx 3
dx dx dx L
2 r 4 B02 1 2t b
e ydx LL L
2
M 0 L2T 0
2R 2 0
a
Both Assertion and reason are true but Reason
2 r 4 B02 2 r 4 B02 is not the correct explanation of assertion. So,
(0 1)
2 2 R 2 R correct option is (2).
14. (2) By work-energy theorem W K
2
2
20. (4) Q t t t
3
v f 3(2) 4 16 m/s
dQ
vi 3(0)2 4 4 m/s i
dt
2 t 3 t 2
1 1
W
2
2
m v 2f vi2 W 1 162 42 di
6 t 2 0 t
1 dt 3
W 240 W 120 J 2
2 2
imin 2 3
dV d 3 3 3
15. (1) E
dx
dx
5 x 2 10 x 9 10 x 10
21. (4) E W0 K max . Energy of each photon is given
( E ) x 1 10 1 10 20 V / m
12375
16. (1) Boron is trivalent and arsenic is pentavalent so by E eV . From the given data E is 6.78
adding boron and arsenic to Si creates P-type and eV (for 1824Å ) or 10.17 eV (for 1216Å )
N-type semiconductors respectively. P-type has
excess holes and N-type has excess electrons. W0 E K max 6.78 5.3 1.48eV
When P N junction is formed an electric field or W0 10.17 8.7 1.47eV
is generated which is directed from N-side to 1
P-side due to which barrier potential arises and W0 (1.48 1.47)eV 1.475 eV
2
majority charge carrier can not flow through the
junction due to barrier potential so current is zero l
22. (4) As r l r
unless we apply forward bias voltage. Correct
option is (1). Moment of inertia of a ring of mass 2m about its
2
2 r ( )g 1
17. (2) Terminal velocity vT diameter 2m r 2
9 2
Pressure difference across the surface of a bubble Moment of inertia of semicircle
2
4S 1 l ml 2
P m 2
R 2 2
Pressure difference across the surface of a drop
2
23. (3) When two parallel conductors seperated by 2r
2
and carrying current I and 2I in same direction, V
s 2 2
the magnetic field at the midpoint is For water 3 s gm/cc
1 V 3 3
B 0 2 I 0 I 0 I
1
4 2 r 2 r 2 r V
1
When current 2I is switched off, the magnetic For liquid s 4 4 s l
l V 4
field due to conductor carrying current I is
0 I B 8
. l gm /cc
2 r 4 3
dq d 31. (2) Angular width
24. (3) I D q0 sin 2 nt 2 nq0 cos(2 nt )
dt dt 1 1 6000
2 4200 Å
25. (3) For an open pipe in n th
mode of vibration, 2 2 70 2
100
nv
vn 0
2l Displacement
For a closed pipe, 32. (4) vav
time
v 1
vn c (2n 1) vav (final velocity + initial velocity) is valid
4l 2
v only for constant acceleration. So, the correct
n
vn o 2l 2n option is (4).
vn c (2n 1)
v 2n 1
2mK
4l 33. (3) r Given that r is constant
qB
26. (2) Ne 20 2He4 C12
( B E ) ( BE ) final – ( BE )initial q2
q mK K
2 7.07 4 7.86 12 20 8.03 MeV m
9.72MeV ( ) ve sign shows that energy is to K q
2
mp 2q p
2
mp
be supplied to the reaction. 1
27. (2)The initial and final momentums of the ball K p q p m
qp
4m p
before and after collision are K 25 eV
pi 0.15 12(iˆ) , p f 0.15 12(iˆ) 34. (2) The energy of an electron in the nth orbit of
p p f pi 3.6 kg m / s 13.6
hydrogen is En 2 eV . For n 3 ,
3.6 F t 3.6 100t t 0.036 sec n
28. (3) In configuration III the fields Produced by 13.6
E3 eV . To knock it out, energy
opposite charges cancel each other. So the net field 9
is zero at the centre. So correct option is (3) 13.6
needed E3 eV
9
dI 08 35. (3) Total energy of a satellite of mass m in the
29. (2) Induced emf L 0.4 volt
dt 0.2 GM E m
earth’s orbit is E (r - radius of orbit)
= 16 volt. 2r
30. (3) When a body floats Initial total energy of the satellite is
Fb Fg lV g sVg GM E m
Ei
V 4 RE
s , where s is the density of solid and
l V Final total energy of the satellite is
l is the density of liquid. V is the volume of the GM E m
submerged part of solid and V is the total volume Ef
8 RE
of the solid.
3
The change in the total energy is E E f Ei 40. (3) The given net worth can be redrawn as
GM E m GM E m GM E m
E
8 RE 4 RE 8RE
Thus, the energy required to transfer the satellite
GM E m 16 R
to the desired orbit RAB 10 18 RAB 16
8RE 16 R
36. (1) AC generator converts mechanical energy into 41. (1) The incident and reflected rays are parallel rays.
electrical energy. Galvanometer shows deflection Only a plane mirror can reflect the rays like that.
when current passes through it, So it is used to show correct option is (1)
presence of current in any wire. Transformer is used F/A
42. (2) Young’s modulus of the wire is Y
to step up or step down the voltage. Radio tuning l / l
uses principle of induction and resonance in AC F l
circuit. So, the correct option is (1). Y Y strain
A l
37. (3) Average kinetic energy, E T
mg Y A strain
Y strain m
E2 T2 273 227 500 A g
so
E1 T1 273 27 300
2 1011 3 10 –6 103
m 60 kg
500 5 10
E2 E1 6.21 1021 10.35 1021 J
300 3 M
43. (4) Since B 0 ( I H ) 0 H
38. (1) Rest energy of an electron me c 2 V
4
Given that H 0.5 10 , V 1 106 m3 ,
Here me 9.1 10 31 kg and c velocity of light
M 5 A m2
2
Rest energy 9.1 1031 3 108 joule
5
4 107 6 5000 6.28 T
9.1 1031 3 108
2
10
19
eV 510keV 1 1 1 1 1
1.6 10 44. (1) C 3 9 18 2 Cs 2 F
s
39. (3) As the system is initially at rest, therefore,
Cs 2 1
initial angular momentum, Li 0 . C p 3 9 18 30 F
C p 30 15
According to the law of conservation of angular
momentum, final angular momentum, L f 0 45. (3) The heat lost in condensation x 540cal .
Angular momentum of man angular Given that L f 80 cal / g , Lvap 540 cal / g
momentum of platform in opposite direction
Cwater 1 cal / g C
i.e., mv0 r I
x 540 y 80 y 1 (100 0)
mv r 50(2)(4)
or 0 2 rads 1 x 1
I 200 or
y 3.
4
CHEMISTRY
52. (2) A – Q; structure of NH3 is trigonal pyramidal
[ salt ] (sp3–1 l.p.)
46. (1) pOH pK b log
[base]
B – P; structure of SO2 is bent (sp2–[Link])
0.20 C – S; structure of SF4 is see-saw (sp3d–1 lp)
log1.8 105 log
0.30 D – R; structure of ClF3 is T-shape(sp3d–[Link].)
5 0.25 ( 0.176)
53. (4) CN is a strong field ligand and form low spin
pOH 4.75 0.176 4.57 complexes thus o P
54. (3) Boron is metalloid. Thus, Statement I is correct.
pH 14 pOH 14 4.57 9.43 Metalloids possess, metallic as well as non-metallic
47. (1) The reaction is known as Kolbe’s electrolysis nature. Hence, Statement II is incorrect.
reaction. 55. (4)
10 I 2MnO4 16H 2Mn 2 5I 2 8H 2 O
I 2MnO4 H 2 O 2MnO2 IO3 2OH
So, P I 2 ,Q MnO 2
48. (3) Isobars are atoms of different elements that 56. (2)
have the same mass number and different atomic
number. Mass number is the sum of number of
neutrons and protons which remains same for
isobars.
At cathode: Ag e Ag
1
At anode: H 2 O 2H O 2 2e
2
pH decreases due to the formation of H + ions.
In solution B LiCl , 57. (3) As the element ‘X’ belongs to fourth period
+
At cathode: 2H +2e H 2 and fifteenth group of periodic table, its outer
configuration is 4s 2 4p 3 . Its complete electronic
At anode: 2Cl Cl2 +2e
configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 4s 2 3d10 4p3
H+ ions get consumed, so pH increases.
Hence, its s-orbital is completely filled,
50. (1) For statement (i), cis form of alkenes have while p -orbital is half-filled.
significant dipole moment whereas dipole moment
58. (2)
of trans form is almost zero. For statement (iii),
due to symmetric arrangement trans form will have
higher melting point. For statement (iv), due to
different arrangements of atoms or groups in space
cis and trans isomers differ in their properties like
melting point, boiling point, dipole moment, IUPAC name is 1-Chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene
solubility etc. 59. (3) The vapour pressure of a liquid increases with
increase of temperature. Hence, statement (i) is
51. (3) incorrect. Remaining statements are correct.
60. (1) In case of isothermal expansion, maximum
work done is obtained in reversible process rather
than irreversible process and work done is positive
in case of isothermal compression and the internal
energy of the system increases.
1
61. (3) BaCO3 BaO CO 2 The rate of first hydrohalogenation is faster than
197 g 2nd because alkynes are more reactive than vinyl
197g of BaCO3 releases 22.4 L CO at STP halide.
2
68. (2) First ionisation enthalpy increases from left to
9.85 g of BaCO3 .....?
right in a period but due to half-filled electronic
22.4 configuration of nitrogen atom, N has higher first
9.85 1.12 litre CO2 at STP
197 ionisation enthalpy than of oxygen. Hence (2) is
62. (2) not in agreement with the given order.
A - Q; CH3–O–CH3 and EtOH are differentiated 69. (4) Concentration does not affect the basic strength
by CH3COOH/H+ (esterification given by of amines. Thus, option (4) is incorrect statement.
alcohol)
70. (2) In this reaction, oxidation number of Mn
changes from +7 in KMnO4 to +2 in MnCl2 .
B - P; (1°) and (2°) are differentiated
by Lucas reagent. (Conc. HCl + anhy.ZnCl2) Thus, MnCl2 is the reduction product.
71. (4) A – R; Hardness of water is estimated by simple
C - S; and are differentiated by titration with Na2EDTA.
Fehling solution. (acetaldehyde reacts with B – P; [Ag(CN)2]– is formed in the extraction of
Fehling solution) silver.
C – S; [(Ph3P)3RhCl] is used for the hydrogenation
D - R; HCHO and are of alkenes.
D – Q; In black and white photography, the
differentiated by 2,4-DNP. (aldehydes give
developed film is fixed by washing with hypo
test with 2,4 DNP)
solution which dissolves the undecomposed AgBr
63. (4) Molecularity is defined as the number of
to form a complex ion, [Ag(S2O3)2]3–.
reacting species taking part in an elementary
reaction. 72. (2) For dilution,
1 M1V1 M 2 V2
64. (2) Potential energy (Before dilution) (After dilution)
Stability
Order of stability : I > II > III (Based on +R, +I 500 5M 1500 M 2
and hyperconjugation)
5
Order of P.E. : C > B > A M2 1.66M
So, the correct match is I – C, II – B, III – A 3
73. (2)
65. (1) A B C D
Initial conc. 4 4 0 0
Conc. at eq. (4 x) (4 x) x x (given x= 2)
(4 2) (4 2) 2 2
[C][D] 2 2
Eq. constant, K C 1
[A][B] 2 2
66. (3) Phenol is weakly acidic but more acidic than
alcohol and H 2 O because phenoxide ion is more
resonance stabilized therefore readily formed
from phenol. Hence statement I is correct but 74. (2) A-Q; Mercury cell contains HgO + KOH(moist)
statement II is incorrect. B-R; Lead storage battery contains 38% H2SO4
67. (4) C-S; Dry cell contains MnO2+ C(touching cathode)
and paste of NH4Cl + ZnCl2
D-P; H2–O2 fuel cell contains KOH solution
E-T; Ni-Cd storage cell contains concentrated KOH
solution
2
75. (1) A-S; Dipole moment of cis-But-2-ene is not 83. (2) The ease of dehydration can be determined by
equal to zero. seeing the stability of carbocation as intermediate.
B-R; Dipole moment of trans-But-2-ene is zero.
C-Q; HCN and HNC molecules are tautomers (I)
D-P; CH3–O–CH3 and CH3–CH2–OH are
(II)
functional isomers.
76. (3) Due to greater polarity and higher molar mass, (III)
intermolecular forces of attraction are stronger in
halogen derivatives as compared to hydrocarbons.
2 2 6 2 6 5 1 (IV)
77. (2) A-Q; Cr :1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s
B-R; Cu :1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d10 4s1 (IV) is most stable due to resonance followed by
(III) which is allylic carbocation. Next is (II) as it
C-S; Fe :1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d 6 4s 2 is a secondary carbocation and least stable is (I) as
so, Fe3+ :1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d5 it is a primary carbocation. Hence, the correct order
is IV > III > II > I
D-P; Zn 2+ :1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d10 84. (4) Inductive effect implies the atom's ability to
78. (1) Due to smaller size of cations and higher charge, cause bond polarization.
actinoids form complexes easily than lanthanoids. 85. (1) CH3COOH is weak acid hence indicator used
79. (1) Less substituted alkenes undergoes faster is phenolphthalein.
hydrogenation. Hence, the correct order is 86. (2) The removal of an electron from a diatomic
molecule may increase the bond order as in the
conversion O2 (2) O+2 (2.5) or decrease the bond
order as in the conversion, N 2 (3.0) N +2 (2.5) . As
a result, the bond energy may increase or decrease.
Thus, statement (2) is incorrect.
80. (2) Let the oxidation number of oxygen in the +2
87. (4) Co NH3 Cl3 Co NH3 Cl +2Cl
following compounds be x. 5 5
In OF2 , x ( 1)2 0 ; x 2 Structure is Co NH 3 Cl Cl2 .
5
1
In KO 2 , 1 (x 2) 0 ; x
2 Co NH 3 5 Cl Cl2 2AgNO 3
In BaO 2 , 2 (x 2) 0 ; x 1
Co NH3 5 Cl (NO3 ) 2 2AgCl
In O3 , oxidation number of oxygen is zero
Thus, the increasing order of oxidation number is 88. (1) On adding acetone, its molecules get in between
BaO 2 KO 2 O3 OF2 the ethanol molecules and break some of the
1
1 0 2 hydrogen bonds between them. Due to weakening
2
of interactions, the solution shows positive
81. (2) A-R; Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes deviation from Raoult’s law.
convulsions
89. (4) A-S; X-A indicates activation energy of
B-S; Deficiency of vitamin K causes delayed blood backward reaction
clotting
B-R; X-B indicates activation energy of forward
C-P; Deficiency of vitamin D causes osteomalacia reaction
D-Q; Deficiency of vitamin A causes C-P; A-B indicates enthalpy of reaction.
xerophthalmia. D-Q; X indicates energy of transition state.
82. (4) The enthalpy of formation is the heat evolved
or absorbed when one mole of substance is 90. (1) Huckel-onsager equation is Λ m Λm b C .
formed from its constituent atoms.
1
H 2(g) O 2(g) H 2 O(l) ; f H X 2 kJmol1
2
3
starts. Ampicillin resistance gene acts as
BOTANY selectable marker.
91. (3) In gymnosperms, the male gametophyte is Bioreactor used for large-scale product
reduced to a few cells (pollen grain), and meiosis synthesis.
occurs in the megaspore mother cell. Pollination
is via wind, not water. 100. (2) Thylakoids are the site of light reactions, not
dark reactions Stroma contains enzymes for
92. (4) A - R, B - T, C - P, D - S, E - Q is correct. carbohydrate and protein synthesis. Grana are
Bulliform cells = large, empty, adaxial epidermal pigmented structures (chlorophyll), not colorless.
cells. Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade & Leucoplasts are colorless plastids, chromoplasts
spongy. Spongy parenchyma = loosely arranged contain xanthophyll.
with air spaces. Palisade parenchyma = vertically
arranged elongated cells. Monocot leaf is 101. (3) The correct sequence in the endomembrane
undifferentiated into palisade & spongy system is:
Nucleus RER SER Golgi Apparatus
93. (3) Proteins are heteropolymers made of 20 Lysosomes / Plasma Membrane.
different amino acids, unlike cellulose, glycogen, RER is involved in protein synthesis.
inulin, which are homopolymers of glucose or SER is involved in lipid metabolism
fructose. Golgi modifies and packages proteins.
94. (1) Assertion is true : In incomplete dominance, Secretory vesicles then transport proteins to either
the heterozygous offspring express a phenotype that lysosomes or the plasma membrane.
is a blen of the parental traits (for example, red Mitochondria are excluded from the
and white flowers producing pink flowers). endomembrane system.
Reason is also true : In incomplete dominance, 102. (1) Proinsulin is an inactive precursor that contains
neither allele is completely dominant over the other, A, B, and C peptides, with disulfide bonds already
which leads to an intermediate phenotype in the formed between the A and B chains.
hetrozygous condition. This explains why the F1 During maturation in the endoplasmic reticulum
generation is intermediate. and Golgi, the C peptide is cleaved, leaving the A
95. (3) A - R, B - T, C - P, D - Q, E - S is correct. Zygote and B chains connected via disulfide bridges —
is diploid, forms [Link] is triploid, forms forming biologically active insulin.
[Link] help guide pollen tube entry. C peptide is removed, not joined to [Link]
Antipodals are at chalazal end, haploid. Polar nuclei is not directly formed by translation; it’s produced
fuse with sperm in triple fusion. initially as proinsulin and then processed.
96. (4) Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic prokaryotes 103. (2) Only statement A is correct
with chlorophyll a. Some (like Nostoc, Anabaena) Statement A is true – Interkinesis is a brief stage
have heterocysts for nitrogen fixation. They lack between meiosis I and II.
membrane-bound organelles.
Statement B is false – No DNA replication takes
97. (1) Prothallus is a green gametophyte in ferns. place during interkinesis.
Pollen grain is the reduced male gametophyte.
Protonema is an early gametophyte stage in mosses. 104. (3) Golgi apparatus is involved in modification,
Megaspore gives rise to the female gametophyte packaging, and transport of proteins
in gymnosperms. It is the site of glycoprotein and glycolipid synthesis
DNA replication occurs in the nucleus
98. (1) 10% law applies to energy, not nutrients. Energy Steroid synthesis happens in smooth ER
flows from producers to top consumers without ATP production occurs in mitochondria
reversal. Due to energy loss at each level, pyramid
of energy is always upright. Phytoplanktons are 105. (1) Mycoplasma lack cell wall, so penicillin (targets
primary producers in aquatic systems. peptidoglycan) is ineffective.
Lichens = alga + fungus, not bacteria
99. (2) Restriction endonuclease cuts DNA at Cyanobacteria = prokaryotic
specific sites. Basidiomycetes produce basidiospores, not
DNA ligase joins DNA fragments. ascospores
Origin of replication site where replication