1. Maalox is ordered to a patient in conjunction with cimetidine (tagamet).

What instruction
should the nurse give concerning concurrent use of an antacid with co=imetidine
(Tagamet)?
a. Take both drugs together
b. Take both drugs with milk
c. Take both drugs with meal
d. Take the drugs at least one hour apart
2. The best time to give H2 histamine receptor antagonist.
a. Before meals and at bedtime
b. After meals and at bedtime
c. Before meals only
d. After meals only
3. The primary action of ranitidine is to:
a. Suppress the action of acetylcholine at the receptor responsible for histamine
release
b. Decrease the pH of gastric fluids
c. Antagonize the action of histamine at its H2 receptor site
d. Neutralize gastric secretions
4. Which antacid is least likely to cause adverse effects
a. Magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesium)
b. Aluminum hydroxide (Amphogel)
c. aluminum/magnesium combination (maalox)
d. Calcium carbonate (Tums)
5. A calcium carbonate antacid (Tums) has been prescribed to a patient. The nurse informs
the patient that it is best to take the drug with which of the following?
a. Milk
b. Vitamin D supplement
c. Yogurt
d. Water
6. With an aluminum antacid, which of the following symptoms would be expected?
a. Hypophosphatemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypocalcemia
7. With a magnesium antacid, which of the following side effects would be expected?
a. Upset stomach
b. Magnesium
c. Diarrhea
d. Constipation
8. Alex, with rhinitis was prescribed with diphenhydramine (Benadryl) once a day. She asks
you as to the BEST time to take the medication. As a nurse, you will reply:
a. “Take the drug in the morning upon rising”
b. Take the drug at night before going to sleep”
c. Take the drug anytime of the day”
d. Take the drug in the afternoon and lunch”
9. The following are nursing interventions for patients receiving anti-histamines EXCEPT:
a. Use of humidifier
b. Sucking sugarless lozenges to help relieve dry mouth
c. Limiting fluid intake to decrease swelling
d. Provision of safety measures to prevent falls or injury
10. Decongestants should not be used frequently and in a prolonged period of time because
it will result in which of the following?
a. Rebound congestion
b. Acute infection
c. Bronchospasm
d. CNS depression
11. Which of the following statements true regarding diphenhydramine (Benadryl)?
a. It has a fever anticholinergic effect
b. It has a lower incidence of drowsiness
c. It is a nonsedating anti-histamine
d. It belongs to the first generation of anti-histamine
12. A patient, diagnosed with PTB, is taking Isoniazid. To prevent possible peripheral
neuropathy, he will most likely receive:
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Pyridoxine
c. Thiamine
d. Niacin
13. The nurse needs to tell Kaye which fact about Rifampicin?
a. Rifampicin may lead to neurotoxicity
b. Rifampicin will turn urine, sweat, tears, and feces into an orange-red color
c. Rifampicin will cause decreased serum uric acid levels
d. Rifampicin is more effective when given alone
14. Patients taking ethambutol (optic neuritis - eye problem) should be encouraged to:
a. Undergo periodic ophthalmology assessments
b. Make an appointment with a therapeutic dietitian
c. Visits the dentist every 3 months
d. Schedule frequent auditory exams
15. Which laboratory result will NOT be monitored in a patient taking pyrazinamide?
a. Serum bilirubin
b. Serum creatinine
c. Serum uric acid
d. Serum alanine aminotransferase
16. A patient is receiving streptomycin. Which of these statements made by the patient
would alert the nurse that patients experiencing a common side effect from the
medication?
a. “It burns when I urinate”
b. “I sometimes see flashing lights”
c. “I feel bloated and full of gas
d. “I feel dizzy and my ears are ringing (tinnitus)”
17. Which of the following drugs can decrease the absorption of Isoniazid?
a. Antacid
b. Penicillin
c. Aspirin
d. NSAID
18. The mechanism of action Rifampicin includes which of the following?
a. Inhibits cellular metabolism
b. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
c. Alters DNA & RNA activity in the bacteria
d. Blocks pyridoxine which is used for intracellular enzyme production
19. Mang Jose who was diagnosed with tuberculosis has been complaining of joint pain.
This is associated with what side effect of pyrazinamide?
a. Hepatotoxicity
b. Nephrotoxicity
c. Peripheral neuropathy
d. Hyperuricemia
20. The mechanism of action of Isoniazid includes which of the following?
a. Inhibits cellular metabolism
b. Inhibits cell wall synthesis and metabolism
c. Alters DNA & RNA activity in the bacteria
d. Blocks pyridoxine which is used for intracellular enzyme production
21. When taking rifampicin, the patient may experience a flu-like symptoms. What will be the
best management for this side effect?
a. Give anti-histamine
b. Reassure the patient
c. Give the medication at bed time
d. Give antipyretics
22. A patient in Category I of Tuberculosis is under intensive phase treatment. Which of the
following type of TB patient doesn't to category I?
a. Patient with the new smear (+) PTB
b. Patient with (-) PTB with extensive parenchymal lesions on CXR C.
c. Patient with HIV disease
d. Patient with failed treatment in PTB
23. Which of the following drugs accelerates the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin?
a. Heparin
b. Warfarin
c. Streptokinase
d. Aspirin
24. If a fibrinolytic drug is used for the treatment of the patient, which of the following
adverse drug effects is most likely to occur?
a. Acute renal failure
b. Encephalitis from liver dysfunction
c. Development of antiplatelet antibodies
d. Hemorrhagic stroke
25. Ms. Alexandra Gibo, 46 years old, a known diabetic is admitted at San Pedro Hospital
because of mild hypertension. Her doctor prescribes her a thiazide diuretic. How do
thiazide work?
a. Act directly on the ascending the loop of Henle
b. Increases the osmotic pressure in the glomerular filtrae
c. Inhibits sodium reabsorption in the distal renal tubule
d. Reverses the hydration of carbon dioxide, causing bicarbonate diuresis
26. A patient with a history of angina pectoris rushes to the emergency room (ER)
complaining of chest pain. The nurse anticipates the doctor’s order on nitroglycerine, to
be:
a. 1 tab PO STAT, another tab if pain persist after 5 minutes
b. 1 tab SL STAT, to be given every 5 minutes if pain persists to a maximum of
3 doses
c. 3 tabs SL STAT, to be prepared every minute until the pain is decreased
d. Morphine sulfate, IVTT, STAT
27. Which of the following is not an example of Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor?
a. Ramipril
b. Captopril
c. Benazepril
d. Losartan
28. What is the mode of action of valsartan (Cozaar)?
a. Selectively bind the angiotensin II receptors in the blood vessels and
adrenal cortex
b. Blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
c. Prevents movements of calcium in the myocardium and vascular smooth
muscles
d. Relaxes smooth muscle of blood vessels especially the arteries to promote
increase blood flow to the brain and kidney
29. What is the mode of action of hydralazine (Apresoine) - vasodilator?
a. Selectively bind the angiotensin II receptors in the blood vessels and adrenal
cortex
b. Blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
c. Prevents movements of calcium in the myocardium and vascular smooth
muscles
d. Relaxes smooth muscle of blood vessels especially the arteries to promote
increase blood flow to the brain and kidney

30. What is the mode of action of amlodipine (Norvasc) - calcium channel blocker?
a. Selectively bind the angiotensin II receptors in the blood vessels and adrenal
cortex
b. Blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
c. Prevents movements of calcium in the myocardium and vascular smooth
muscles
d. Relaxes smooth muscle of blood vessels especially the arteries to promote
increase blood flow to the brain and kidney
31. What is the mode of action of losartan (Diovan)?
a. Selectively bind the angiotensin II receptors in the blood vessels and
adrenal cortex.
b. Blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
c. Prevents movement of calcium ions in the myocardium and vascular smooth
muscles
d. Relaxes smooth muscles of blood vessels especially the arteries to promote
increase blood flow to the brain and kidney.
32. A nurse provides discharge instructions to a post-operative client who is taking warfarin
sodium (Coumadin). Which statement, if made by the client, reflects the need for further
teaching?
a. Will take aspirin for my headaches
b. I will be certain to limit my alcohol consumption
c. I will take the pills every day at the same time
d. I have already called my family to pick up a medic-alert bracelet
33. The following are nursing responsibilities for clients receiving warfarin, EXCEPT:
a. Instruct client to avoid foods rich in Vit K
b. Monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
c. Instruct the client to avoid aspirin
d. Avoid IM injections if possible
34. Warfarin sodium is indicated for the following conditions, EXCEPT:
a. Coronary artery disease
b. Deep vein thrombosis
c. Pulmonary embol
d. hemophilia
35. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a heparin in fusion. The nurse anticipates that
which laboratory study will be prescribed to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin?
a. Prothrombin time
b. Hematocrit
c. Activated partial thromboplastin time
d. Hemoglobin
36. A Patient on IV heparin is complaining of a headache and is asking for a pain
medication. The doctor ordered aspirin 10 grains po every 4 hours. What are you going
to do as a nurse?
a. Substitute acetaminophen instead of aspirin
b. Give the aspirin as ordered
c. Call the doctor and ask for a different analgesic
d. Give 5 grains of aspirin instead
37. What is the reason for administering thrombolytics to patients like Bobby who is
diagnosed with acute inferior wall MI?
a. Decrease platelet aggregation factor
b. Prevents further thrombus formation
c. Suppresses Vit K dependent clotting
d. Dissolves already formed clot
38. A client is diagnosed with MI and is receiving streptokinase. Which of the following is a
priority intervention?
a. Have heparin sodium ready
b. Monitor for signs of bleeding
c. Monitor for renal failure
d. Monitor psychosocial status
39. After administering doses of thrombolytics, Bobby suddenly begins to bleed severely.
You would expect the doctor to prescribe which drug?
a. Protamine sulfate
b. Vitamin K
c. Factor VIII
d. Aminocaproic acid
40. A patient who has received thrombolytic therapy following MI is at risk for developing
which of the following complications?
a. Epistaxis
b. Headache
c. Anemia
d. jaundice
41. Which of the following nursing actions is of utmost importance during thrombolytics?
a. Monitor hourly serum creatinine levels
b. Avoid IM injections
c. Decrease antibiotic dosage
d. Keep strict I & O monitoring
42. Which of the following is a systemic hemostatic agent?
a. Factor VIII
b. Urokinase
c. Aminocaproic acid
d. Heparin
43. Who among these patients should not receive tranexamic acid (Hemostan)?
a. Carla, experiencing epistaxis
b. Joel, with bleeding peptic ulcer
c. Paula, with a bleeding wound
d. Minako, a hypertensive
44. Before administering tranexamic acid (Hemostan) to mr. kaoa, what is the most
important vital sign that the nurse should check first?
a. Respiratory rate
b. Cardiac rate
c. Blood pressure
d. temperature
45. Post trans-urethral resection of the prostate (TURP), Mr. Kaoa Tan was given tranexamic
acid (Hemostan) 500 mg IVTT every 8 hours. What is the purpose of this drug?
a. To prevent bleeding
b. To dissolve clots
c. To reestablish blood flow
d. To prevent platelet aggregation
46. The following are true regarding insulin, except:
a. Synthesized as a prehormone
b. Inhibits glycogen synthesis
c. Decreases protein metabolism
d. Manufactured by bacterial recombinant DNA technology
47. Insulin is known to have important effects on almost every tissue of the body, EXCEPT:
a. Liver and skeletal muscle
b. Brain and adipose tissue
c. Liver and brain tissue
d. Skeletal muscle and adipose tissue
48. Which of the following is a 2nd generation sulfonylurea?
a. Glipizide
b. Tolbutamide
c. exenatide
49. The following are adverse effects of biguanides, except?
a. Lactic acidosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Diarrhea
d. Cold and clammy skin
50. Insulin is produced by the pancreas. Which of the following cells is specifically
responsible for its production?
a. Alpha cells
b. Beta cells
c. Gamma cells
d. Delta cells
51. Among the different types of insulin preparations, this is usually given immediately
before meals.
a. Rapid acting
b. Intermediate acting
c. Short acting
d. Long acting
52. Among the different types of insulation preparations, this helps control basal insulin
levels without producing hypoglycemia
a. Rapid acting
b. Intermediate acting
c. Short acting
d. Long acting

53. Which of the following is not included as an insulin secretagogue?

a. Sulfonylureas
b. Meglitinide
c. pramlintide
d. nateglinide
54. The drug of choice for overweight patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus
a. Tolbutamide
b. Metformin hcl
c. Repaginide
d. pioglitazone
55. Which of the following is a 1st generation sulfonylurea
a. Glipizide
b. Exenatide
c. Tolbutamide
d. pramlintide
56. Which type of insulin has onset of 15 minutes, peak of 1 hours, duration of 3 hours?
a. Rapid acting
b. Short acting
c. Intermediate acting
d. Long acting
57. Which type of insulin has onset of 1 hour, peak of none, duration of 24 hours?
a. A. rapid acting
b. Short acting
c. Intermediate acting
d. Long acting
58. Giga 50 is a diabetic patient and she is about to have an insulin therapy. You educate
her that NPH is
a. Rapid acting
b. Intermediate acting
c. Regular insulin
d. Long acting
59. Which insulins should never be mixed?
a. Rapid acting
b. Short acting
c. Intermediate acting
d. Long acting
60. Semaglutide is a
a. Rapid acting
b. Short acting
c. Long acting
d. Intermediate acting